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363 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Commanding Officer
The CO is ultimately responsible for those under his or her command and their actions.
Executive Officer
The direct representative of the Commanding Officer, the XO is primarily charged with the organization, performance of duty, and good order and discipline of the entire command.
Command Master Chief / Senior Chief
The senior enlisted advisor to the command on the formulation and implementation of polocies pertinent to morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization, and training of enlisted personnel.
Department Head
The DH is responsible for the effective administration, operation, duties, and personnel assigned to the department
Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer (CMEO) / Equal Opportunity Program Specialist (EOPS)
The CMEO/EOPS develops and establishes criteria for implementation, monitoring and evaluation of the EO program.
Division Officer
The DO is responsible for the conduct, training, and professional growth of subordinates, and charged to follow regulations and orders of the Commanding Officer and other superiors.
Leading Chief Petty Officer (LCPO) / Leading Petty Officer (LPO)
The LCPO assists the Division Officer in administering, supervising, and training division personnel. The LPO will assist the LCPO and Division Officer.
Work Center Supervisor (WCS)
His/her primary job is to respond to the hour by hour work center function. The W/C supervisor is responsible for the personnel under their supervision.
Command Career Counselor (CCC)
The CCC ensures that current programs and opportunities are available to all command members.
Ombudsman
The Ombudsman performs varied services, such as keeping the CO informed about family morale and problems families are facing. They assist families needing different services.
Financial Specialist
Provides finacial counceling and assistance to members in their command.
Drug and Alchol Program Advisor (DAPA)
He/she will conduct personnel screenings, conduct command awareness education, monitor aftercare, act as the command referral agent, and prepare reports and correspondence.
Security Manager
Duties include document classification management, personnel security, security education/training, and physical measures for the protection of classified information.
Career Information Program Management (CIPM) Program Manager
Act as department and division career counselors to provide career information to the squadron, department, division, and work center personnel.
Naval Message
The principal means by which commanders communicate is the naval message. Transmitted electronically.
E-Mail
The informal method of corresponding electronically by computers.
Page 2
Record of Emergency Data and dependant information
Page 4
Enlisted Qualifications History. A chronological history of occupational and training related qualifications, awards, and commendations.
Page 13
Administrative Remarks. A chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries that are not provided for elsewhere or where detailed information may be required to clarify entries elsewhere in the service record.
State the purpose of the EDVR or Enlisted Distribution Verification Report
A monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel used heavily by the Command Master Chief and detailer for billet assignment. It lists all individuals assigned and provides a summary of the present and future manning status.
Operational Report (OPREP)
Immediate notification of any accidental or unauthorized incident involving a possible detonation of a nuclear weapon. This message has the highest precedence.
Movement Report (MOVEREP)
A MOVEREP is the primary source of location information concerning ships.
Logistical Requirements (LOGREQ)
A LOGREQ is submitted by a ship prior to entering a port to notify the proper commands of its ligistics requirements while visiting that particular location. It should be trasmitted to arrive at the destination port no later than 48 hours prior to the ships arrival.
Status of Requirement and Training Support (SORTS)
Reports the ship's status of conditions of readiness in all warfare areas in our ability to conduct operations.
Situation Report (SITREP)
Used by any unit commanding officer, officer in charge, or other commander to provide appropriate operational commanders and higher authority with timely notification of any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special incident reporting criteria.
Three objectives of first aid are:
Prevent further injury, Infection, and loss of life
Four methods of controlling bleeding are:
Direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, and the use of a tourniquet as a last resort.
What are the 11 principal pressure points on each side of the body?
Temple, jaw, neck, coller bone, inner upper arm, inner elbow, wrist, upper thigh, groin, knee, and ankle
What are the three classifications of burns?
First, Second, and Third degree
Describe a first degree burn
Produces redness, warmth and mild pain
Describe a second degree burn
Causes red, blistered skin and severe pain
Describe a third degree burn
Destroys tissue, skin and bone in severe cases, however severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed
What are the two types of fractures?
Closed/simple and open/compund
What is Electric Shock?
It occures when a person comes into contact with an electric energy source.
What are the indications of an airway obstruction?
Inability to talk, grasping and pointing to the throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, and the skin turning a bluish color.
What are the two types of heat related injuries?
Heat Exhaustion and Heat Stroke.
Describe Heat Exhaustion.
A serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart, and lungs. The skin is cool, moist, and clammy. The pupils are dilated. Body temp may be normal or high; the victim is usually sweating profusely.
Describe Heat Stroke.
A very serious condition caused by a breakdown of the sweating mechanism of the body. The victim is unable to eliminate excessive body heat buildup. Symptoms may include hot and/or dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, and a weak, rapid pulse.
What are the three types of cold weather injuries?
Hypothermia, Superficial and deep frostbite
Describe Hypothermia.
A general cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temps, cold moisture, snow or ice. The victim may appear pale and unconscious, and may even be taken for dead. Breathing is slow and shallow, pulse faint or even undetectable. The body tissues feel semi-rigid, and the arms and legs may feel stiff.
Describe Superficial frostbite.
When ice crystals are forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temp of 32 degrees or lower.
Describe Deep frostbite.
Develops when ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temp of 32 degrees or lower.
What are the five types of shock?
Septic Shock, Anaphylactic Shock, Cardiogenic Shock, Hypovolemic Shock, and Neurogenic Shock.
Describe Septic Shock.
Results from bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins. Common causes of this are pneumonia, intra-abdominal infections (such as a ruptured appendix) and meningitis.
Describe Anaphylactic Shock.
A type of severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction. Causes include allergy to insect stings, medicines or foods (nuts, berries, seafood) etc.
Describe Cardiogenic Shock.
Occurs when the heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to the body. This can be the end result of a heart attack or congestive heart failure.
Describe Hypovolemic Shock.
Caused by severe blood and fluid loss, such as from traumatic bodily injury, which makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body.
Describe Neurogenic Shock.
Caused by spinal cord injury, usually as a result of a traumatic accident or injury.
What is CPR?
Combination of rescue breathing and chest compressions delivered to victims thought to be in cardiac arrest. When cardiac arrest occures the use of CPR can support a small amount of blood flow to the heart and brain to buy time until normal heart function is restored.
What are the steps and the keys to survival for victims of cardiac arrest?
Recognition/activation of CPR, Chest compressions, AED/defibrillator, Rapid defibrillation, Effective advanced life support (EMT's, ambulance), and Integrated post-cardiac arrest care
What is Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
ORM is a systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.
What are the 5 steps in the ORM process?
Identify Hazards, Assess Hazards, Make Risk Decisions, Implement Controls, and Supervise
Describe how to Identify Hazards associated with ORM.
Begin with an outline or chart of the major steps in the operation or operational analysis. Next, conduct a preliminary hazard analysis by listing all of the hazards associated with each step in the operational analysis along with possible causes for those hazards.
Describe how to Assess Hazards associated with ORM.
For each hazard identified, determine the associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity. Although not required, the use of a matrix may be helpful in assessing hazards.
Describe how to Make Risk Decisions associated with ORM.
Develop risk control options. Start with the most serious risk first and select controls that will reduce the risk to a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment. With selected controls in place, decide if the benefit of the operation outweighs the risk. If the risk outweighs benefit or if assistance is required to implement controls, communicate with higher authority in the chain.
Describe how to Implement Controls associated with ORM.
The following measures can be used to eliminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk; Engineering controls, administrative controls, and personnel protective equipment.
Describe how to Supervise associated to ORM.
Conduct follow-up evaluation of the controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect. Monitor for changes, which may require further ORM. Take corrective action when necessary.
What are the three different classes of mishaps identified by the Naval Safety Program?
Class A, Class B, and Class C
Define a Class A mishap.
$2,000,000 or more and resulted in a fatality or permanent disability.
Define a Class B mishap.
$500,000 or more, but less than $2,000,000 and a permanent partial disability; or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
Define a Class C mishap.
$50,000 or more, but less than $500,000 and a non-fatal injury that caused loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred.
What are six examples of PPE or Personal Protective Equipment?
Cranials, Eye Protection, Hearing Protection, Impact Protection, Gloves, and Foot Protection
What is Chemical Warfare?
The employment of chemical agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel due to their physiological effect.
What are the different types of chemical agents?
Nerve Agents, Blister Agents, Blood Agents, Choking Agents
Describe a Nerve Agent.
Liquid casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions rather than tissue. Examples are Sarin (GB), Tabun (GA), SOMAN (GD), and VX.
Describe a Blister Agent.
Liquid or solid casualty agents that can cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues which often results in temporary blindness and/or death. Examples are Distilled mustard (HD), Lewisite (L), Phosgene Oxime (CX), and Levinstein Mustard (HL).
Describe a Blood Agent.
Gaseous casualty agents that attack the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood dtream. Rapid breathing or choking may occur due to lack of oxygen in the blood. Examples are Hydrogen Cyanide (AC), Cyanogen Chloride (CK), and Arsine (SA).
Describe a Choking Agent.
Gaseous or liquid casualty agents with initial symptoms that include; tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache. The lungs can become filled with fluid, making the victim feel as if they are drowning, causing breathing to become rapid and shallow. Examples are Phosgene (CG) and Diphosgene.
What does the M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper do?
Detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red or reddish color, it does not detect chemical agent vapors.
What is the Atropine/2-PAM-chloride Auto Injector used for?
It is used for a specific therapy for nerve agent casualties, they are issued for intramuscular injection, self-aid or first aid.
What is Biological Warfare?
It is the use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces. The basic division in biological agents is between pathogens and toxins.
What are Pathogens in associattion with Biological Warfare?
The pathogens that could be used as biological agents include bacteria, rickettsia, viruses, fungi, protozoa, and prions.
What are Toxins is association with Biological Warfare?
The categorization of toxins is based on the organisms (source) that produce them and the physiological affects the toxins cause in humans.
What are the major groupings by source in association with Biological Warfare?
Mycotoxins (which are from fungi), bacterial toxins, algal toxins, animal venom's and plant toxins.
What are the primary groups based on physiological effects in association with Biological Warfare?
Neurotoxins, cytotoxins, enterotoxins, and dermatoxins.
What does IPE or Individual Protective Equipment for chemical/biological agent environments consist of?
1) Protective mask MCU-2P with components (C-2 canister filter)
2) Advanced chemical protective garment (ACPG)
3) Chemical protective gloves and liners
4) Chemical protective overboots and laces
5) Skin decontamination kit
The phased employment of IPE is specified by the increasingly stringent levels of _________?
MOPP
What is Radiological Warfare?
Deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life. IE, Nuclear Explosions
What are the different types of nuclear explosions?
High altitude air burst, Air burst, Surface burst, Shallow underwater burst, and a Deep underwater burst.
What is a High altitude air burst in association with Radiological Warfare?
It occures at altitudes in excess of 100,000 feet, with ionosphere disruptions and EMP
What is an Air burst is association with Radiological Warfare?
It is where the fireball does not reach the surface. The vacuum created collects debris caused by the severe blast damage resulting in a radiation fallout.
What is a Surface burst in association with Radiological Warfare?
It has the worst fallout due to the fireball touching the surface which results in massive radioactive fallout.
What is a Shallow underwater burst in association with Radiological Warfare?
It has a small fireball and blast wave however, it causes large waves and water contamination.
What is a Deep underwater burst in association with Radiological Warfare?
It is similar to the shallow underwater burst but with less visual effect and yields greater contaminated water.
What are the two shipboard shielding stations categorized as?
Ready or Deep-shelter stations
Describe Ready-shelter stations.
They are just inside the weather envelope, with access to deep shelter. They provide minimum shielding from nuclear radiation and allow the crew to remain close to battle stations.
Describe Deep-shelter stations.
They are low in the ship and near the centerline. They provide maximum shielding from nuclear radiation, often requiring personnel to be far removed from battle stations.
What is a DT-60 dosimeter in association with Radiological Warfare?
It is a non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter, which has to be placed in a special radiac computer-indicator to determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the 0-600 roentgens.
What does MOPP stand for?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
What is MOPP?
It is a management tool that is used to coordinate the use of systems and equipment in Chemical or Biological environments.
How many levels of MOPP are there?
5
What is MOPP level 0?
Issue IPE, accessible within five minutes.
What is MOPP level 1?
Afloat - JSLIST, Mask, Gloves readily accessible.
Ashore - Don protective equipment, M9 tape
What is MOPP level 2?
Afloat - Mask carried, decon supplies stage
Ashore - Additional to level 1 is don protective over-boots
What is MOPP level 3?
Afloat - GQ, Install filters, don over-boots.
Ashore - Fill canteens, activate decon stations.
What is MOPP level 4?
Afloat - Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William, countermeasure washdown.
Ashore - Gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loop between legs and secure to web belt.
What is the primary duty of a firefighter?
To save lives.
What is the secondary responsibility of a firefighter?
Extinguish fires and limit the damage to aircraft, shipboard, airfield installed equipment, and/or airfield structures.
What are the four classes of fires?
Class Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, and Delta.
Describe Alpha fires.
Occur in compustible materials that produce an ash such as burning wood and wood products, cloth, textiles and fibrous materials, and paper products.
What are effective extinguishing products of Class Alpha fires?
Water (H20) or Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)
Describe Class Bravo fires.
They occur with flammable liquid substances such as gasoline, jet fuels, oil, and other petroleum based products.
What are the effective extinguishing agents for a Class Bravo fire?
AFFF, Halon 1211, Purple K Powder (PKP), and Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Describe Class Charlie fires.
They are energized electrical fires that are attacked by using non-conductive agents.
What are the effective extinguishing agents for a Class Charlie fire?
CO2, Halon, PKP, and H2O in fog patterns with a minimum distance of 4 feet.
Describe Class Delta fires.
Combustible metals such as magnesium and titanium.
What are the effective extinguishing agents for a Class Delta fire?
H2O in large quantities in high velocity fog, apply water from a safe distance or from behind shelter as small explosions can occur.
List the five Firefighting agents.
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), Water (H2O), Halon 1211, Carbon Dioxide (CO2), and Potassium Bicarbonate (Purple-K-Powder or PKP)
What is Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)?
It is liquid concentrates that consist primarily of synthetic fluorocarbon surfactant materials that are noncorrosive and have an unlimited shelf life when stored in a protective area. Three percent and Six percent AFFF concentrate is approved for naval use. Current shipboard equipment requires six percent concentrate.
What is Halon 1211?
It is a colorless, faintly sweet smelling, electrically nonconductive gas that leaves no residue to clean up. It extinguishes fires by inhibiting the chemical chain reaction of the combustion process.
What is Carbon Dioxide?
It is a colorless, odorless gas that is approximately one and one half times heavier than air. It extinguishes fires by displacing the oxygen to below the level that is required to support combustion.
What is Purple-K-Powder or PKP?
The principal chemical in PKP is potassium bicarbonate and the dry chemical extinguishes the flame by breaking the combustion chain. It does not have cooling capabilities, therefore it will not result in permanent extinguishing if a ignition source is present,
What does the required light line protective equipment consist of?
Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes, Cranial impact helmet, Protective eye goggles, and Leather gloves
What are Threshold Marking in association with Airfield Components?
Parallel stripes on the ends of the runways. The stripes are 12 feet wide by 150 feet long and they designate the landing area.
What is the Overrun Area in association with Airfield Components?
It is a paved or un-paved section on the ends of the runways that provide a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft.
What is the MA-1 Series Overrun Barrier in association with Airfield Components?
It is designed to stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tail hooks. The MA-1 is always in standby status.
What is Emergency shore based recovery equipment in association with Airfield Components?
It is used during in-flight emergencies that require stopping the aircraft during landing in the shortest distance possible to minimize the chance of injury to pilot or aircrew and damage to the aircraft.
What are Taxiways in association with Airfield Components?
They are paved areas for the aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services.
What is the Parking Apron in association with Airfield Components?
It is an open paved area adjacent to hangers, fuel, services often called the flight line. They are used for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft; they are connected to the runways by taxiways.
Describe the Runway Numbering System.
Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees, ie., a runway heading of 250 degrees is runway 25. If there are 2 runways whose centerline is parallel, the runway will be identified as L (left) and R (right) or 25L or 25R, If there are 3 parallel runways C (center) is added.
What is a Compass Calibration Pad (Compass Rose)?
A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated.
What is the Airfield Rotating Beacon used for?
When the airport is below VFR weather conditions, day or night, the airport rotating beacon is used to identify the airport's location. It rotates clockwise at a constant speed and military airfields use 2 white lights and one green flashing 12 to 15 times per minute.
What does the required flight deck protective equipment consist off?
Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes, Protective jersey, Cranial impact helmet, Protective eye goggles, and Leather gloves.
Who wears Yellow Jerseys?
Aircraft Handling Officer, Flight Deck Officer, Catapult Officer, Air Bos'n, Arresting Gear Officer, and Plane directors.
Who wears White Jerseys?
Safety department, Air Transport Officer, Landing Signal Officer, Squadron Plan Inspectors (troubleshooters), and Medical.
Who wears Brown Jerseys?
Plane Captains
Who wears Blue Jerseys?
Aircraft Handling and Chock Crewman (Chocks, Chains, and Tractors) and Elevator Operators.
Who wears Green Jerseys?
Catapult and Arresting Gear personnel, Squadron Aircraft Maintenance personnel, Helicopter Landing Signal Enlisted-man and Photographers.
Who wears Red Jerseys?
Crash and Salvage, Explosive Ordnance Disposal, and Ordnance handling personnel.
Who wears Purple Jerseys?
Aviation Fuel Crew
Identify a Purple K Powder (PKP) Station.
It has a 12" wide red stripe with a white 3" high PKP stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop Coaming. At locations where coamings are not installed, a white 18" diameter circle with a red 5" high PKP letters is painted on the flight deck.
Identify Saltwater Stations.
It hashas an 18" wide red stripe with a yellow 3" high "W" stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming. At locations where coamings are not installed, a red triangle 18" per side with a yellow "W" is painted on the flight deck.
Identify CO2 Bottle Stowage.
It has a 12" wide red stripe with a white 3" high "CO2" stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming. At locations where coamings are not installed, a white 18" diameter circle with a red 5" high "CO2" is painted on the flight deck.
Identify a AFFF station.
It has an 18" wide green stripe with a white 3" high "AFFF" stenciled in the center of the stripe on the wheel stop coaming. At locations where coamings are not installed a green 18" square with a white 3" high "AFFF" is painted on the flight deck.
Identify the Bomb Jettison Ramp.
It is a ramp designated to eliminate loose ordinance and will have a yellow stripe painted up and over the deck edge at both ends of the ramp opening. The flight deck in front of the ramp opening is marked with alternating 4" wide red and yellow stripes with a 12" black facsimile of a bomb centered.
Identify a Steam Smothering station.
It has an 18" black stripe with a 3" white "STEAM" stenciled in the center of the strip on the wheel stop coaming.
What is often overlooked when it comes to aircraft handling?
The use of support equipment (SE) to service, test and troubleshoot aircraft systems.
What are the danger areas for aviation?
Intakes, exhaust, flight controls, compressed gases, cryogenics, explosives, hazardous materials, eye, hearing and other industrial environment dangers.
What are the procedures for grounding an aircraft to the flight line?
Hook up a grounding strap to a certified static ground and then to the grounding receptacle.

ALWAYS hook the grounding strap to the deck first! Failure to do so could cause the discharge of electricity through the person holding the strap.
Why is windshield static grounding necessary?
During a flight a high voltage (100,000 volts) static electrical charge may build up and be stored in the windshield.
Initial tie down of an aircraft, immediately prior to, in between, or immediately after flight consists of what?
Winds up to 45 knots and a minimum of 6 chains are required.
Normal weather tie-down of an aircraft consists of what?
Winds up to 45 knots and 9 chains are required.
Moderate weather tie-down of an aircraft consists of what?
Winds from 46 to 60 knots and 14 chains are required.
Heavy weather tie-down of an aircraft consists of what?
Winds above 60 knots and 20 chains required.
How do you communicate in the high tempo high noise environments of naval aviation?
With hand signals.
What is the maximum towing speed of an aircraft?
As fast as the slowest walker and are not to exceed 5 miles per hour.
How many members are assigned to a move crew?
6 to 10 personnel with each person being assigned a specific task.
What are the titles of the personnel assigned to the move crew?
Move Director, Brake Rider, Chock Walker, Safety Observers, and Tractor Driver.
What is the responsibility of the Move Director on a move crew?
Overall responsible for assembling the move crew, ensuring they are properly qualified to perform their duties, pre-move briefing, safe movement of the aircraft with an emphasis on safety.
What is the responsibility of the Brake Rider on a move crew?
Conducts a pre-move inspection of the brake system and aircraft to ensure it is mechanically sound and ready for movement.
What is the responsibility of the Chock Walker on a move crew?
Responsible for removing, carrying and installing the wheel chocks.
What is the responsibility of the Safety Observer on a move crew?
Primarily responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is ready to be towed and that there is ample clearance for the aircraft. They are positioned at the wing tips and tail of the A/C.
What is the responsibility of the Tractor Driver on a move crew?
Responsible for the safe and slow movement of the aircraft from hook up to the final parking spot.
What does NAMP stand for?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
What instruction covers the NAMP?
4790.2A
What is the objective of the NAMP?
To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards established by the CNO/COMNAVAIRFOR, with coordination from the CMC, with optimum use of manpower, material, facilities, and funds.
What are the responsibilities of the Maintenance Officer (MO)?
He/she is head of the Maintenance Department. The MO manages the department and is responsible to the CO for the accomplishment of the departments mission.
What are the responsibilities of the Aircraft Maintenance Officer (AMO)?
Assistant head of the maintenance department. The AMO assists the MO in the performance of duties and keep the MO fully informed of matters concerning the department.
What are the responsibilities of the Maintenance/Material Control Officer (MMCO)?
Responsible for the overall production and material support of the department. The MMCO coordinates and monitors the department workload while maintaining liaison with supporting activities and the Supply Department to ensure requirements and workload are known and satisfied. The MMCO is also responsible for preparing and publishing the MMP.
What are the responsibilities of the Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer (MMCPO)?
Senior enlisted adviser for the maintenance department, reports to the MO and advises the CO in all matters affecting aircraft operations, aircraft maintenance, and department personnel. The MMCPO directs all maintenance in an operational unit on a day to day basis in support of its operations and assigned missions. The MMCPO's charter is to maintain assigned aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a RFT status while providing training for those in the Maintenance Department to improve the maintenance process.
What are the responsibilities of the the Quality Assurance Officer (QAO)?
They ensure personnel assigned to perform QA functions receive continuous training in inspecting, testing, and quality control methods specifically applicable to their area of assignment. The QAO will also ensure QAR's receive cross training to perform those QA functions not in their assigned area.
What are the responsibilities of the Material Control Officer (MCO)?
Supply corps officers assigned to a deployable squadron will be assigned as the MCO for the handling of finances, material requisition etc...
What are the three levels of Maintenance that the NAMP is founded upon?
O-level, I-level, and D-level maintenance
Describe O-level maintenance.
Maintenance that is performed by an operating unit on a day to day basis in support of its own operations.
Describe I-level maintenance.
Enhance and sustain the combat readiness and mission capability of supported activities by providing quality and timely material support at the nearest location with the lowest practical resource expenditure.
Describe D-level maintenance.
Performed at or by FRC sites to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems during subsequent operational service periods. It is also performed on material requiring major overhaul or rebuilding of parts, assemblies, subassemblies, and end items. It includes manufacturing parts, modifying, testing, inspecting, sampling, and reclamating. FRC sites support O-level and I-level maintenance by providing engineering assistance and performing maintenance beyond their capabilities.
What are the two types of maintenance described in the NAMP?
Rework and Upkeep
What is Rework in association with the NAMP?
Restoration or additive work performed on aircraft, aircraft equipment, and aircraft SE at FRCs, contractors' plants, and such other industrial establishments designated by TYCOMs.
What is Upkeep in association with the NAMP?
Preventive, restorative, or additive work performed on aircraft, equipment, and SE by operating units and aircraft SE activities.
What is a Turnaround inspection?
Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verifies proper servicing, and detects degradation that may have occurred during the previous flight. It is good for 24 hours, provided no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing was performed.
What is a Daily inspection?
Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than the turnaround inspection. It is valid for 72 hours without flight or major maintenance and the aircraft can be flown for 24 hours before another daily is needed as long as it does not surpass the 72 hour time limit.
What is a Special inspection?
A scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase. The intervals are specified in the applicable PMS publication and are based on elapsed calendar time, flight hours, operating hours, or number of cycles or events, for example, 7, 28 days; 50, 100, 200 hours; 10, 100 arrestments; or 5,000 rounds fired.
What is a Conditional inspection?
They are unscheduled events required as the result of a specific overlimit condition, or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection.
What is a Phase inspection?
This inspections divides the total scheduled maintenance requirement into smaller packages, or phases of the same work content. These are done sequentially and at specified intervals.
What is an Acceptance inspection?
Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft or support equipment from any source and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot depot level maintenance.
What is a Transfer inspection?
Performed at the time a reporting custodian transfers an aircraft or support equipment. Seecond is rework maintenance, since rework is a more intensive type of maintenance it is performed at D-Level.
What is Reliability Centered Maintenance?
A process to ensure that assets continue to do what their users require in their present operating context. The military adobted the RCM from the commercial aviation industry in the mid-1970s. As a result we now have different types of rework maintenance modeled after the RCM concept such as the Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) and Periodic Maintenance Interval (PMI).
What level of maintenance is Production Control?
I-Level
What is the purpose of the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP)?
To provide scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload, for example, inpections, transfer or receipt of an aircraft, and compliance with TD's.
When is the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP) published?
O-Level - 25th of each month
I-Level - 1st of each month
What is an Aircraft Logbook?
It is a hard bound record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, and installed equipment. Each aircraft logbook shall have a record of rework, major repairs, flight and operational data; also included in the logbook is a record of maintenance directives affecting the aircraft, its components, and accessories.
What are the different sections you can find in an Aircraft Logbook?
Non-aging record, Flight time, Inspection records, Repair/Rework, Technical Directives, Miscellaneous History, Preservation and De-preservation record, Installed Explosive Devices, Inventory Record, Assembly Service Record, Equipment History Record, Scheduled Removal Components cards (SRCs), Aviation Life Support System records, and Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs).
What is Quality Assurance (QA)?
The QA concept is fundamentally the prevention of the occurrence of defects.
What does the Quality Assurance Representative (QAR) do?
They certify that the work involved has been personally inspected by them; it has been properly completed, and is in accordance with current instructions and directives.
What does the Collateral Duty QAR (CDQAR) do?
Although CDQARs are assigned to production work centers, they function in the same capacity as QARs and must meet the same qualifications.
What does the Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI) do?
They are assigned to production work centers and are to inspect all work and comply with the required QA inspections during all maintenance actions performed by their respective work centers. They are responsible to the QA officer when performing such fuctions. CDIs will spot check all work in progress and will be familiar with the provisions and responsibilities of the various programs managed and audited by QA.
What are the programs managed by QA?
Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL), Maintenance Department/Division Safety, Quality Assurance Audit Program
Describe the Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL).
It provides a central source of up-to-date information for use by all personnel in the performance of their work, and it is an excellent source of reference information to facilitate personnel training and individual improvement.
Describe the Maintenance Department/Division Safety program.
QA is assigned overall responsibility for Maintenance Department safety; however the intent is not to conflict with any portion of the activity's overall safety program but to assist in coordination of the total safety effort. QA's duties within the department/divisional safety scope are to disseminate safety posters/literature, report all hazards/mishaps/unsafe practices within the department, conduct safety meetings at least monthly, and to coordinate with the Aviation Safety Officer.
Describe the Quality Assurance Audit Program.
Auditing is an assessment of the effectiveness of programs managed within the Maintenance Department. Audits serve as an orderly method of identifying, investigating, and correcting deficiencies on a scheduled and unscheduled basis. The CSEC is a tool used by QA during the audits that provides a standardized objective measurement tool to conduct audits.
What are the different types of audits that QA performs?
Special, Workcenter, Program audits
Describe a Special audit.
Conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs. They may be requested by the work center at any time or when a new work center supervisor is assigned. Copies of audits are held for one year.
Describe a Workcenter audit.
Conducted semi-annually to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center. All area of the work center are evaluated including personnel, monitored and managed programs, logs and records, licenses, etc..
Describe a Program audit.
They evaluate specific programs, providing a systematic and coordinated method of identifying defiencies and determining adequacy of and adherence to technical publications and instructions. QA shall audit the programs, at a minimum, annually.
What is the objective of the Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP)?
To ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks.
Describe the Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program (NAMDRP).
QA maintains the program binder and assists with the reporting of substandard workmanship, improper QA procedures, and deficiencies in material and publications.
What is NATOPS?
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
When was NATOPS established and why?
It was established by the United States Navy in 1961 as a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in naval aircraft mishaps. In 1950 the US Navy/Marine Corps lost 776 aircraft (roughly 2 airplanes per day or rate of 54 major mishaps per 10,000 flight hours).
Describe Warning in association with NATOPS.
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.
Describe Caution in association with NATOPS.
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.
Describe Shall is association with NATOPS.
It means a procedure that is mandatory.
Describe Should in association with NATOPS.
It means a procedure that is recommended.
Describe May in association with NATOPS.
"May" and "need not" mean the procedure is optional.
Describe Will in association with NATOPS.
Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.
What part of the aircraft has the visual identification numbers on it?
The vertical stabilizer.
What historical event occurred on 14 November 1910?
First take-off from a ship - Eugene Ely, a civilian pilot, took off in a 50 horse power Curtis plane from a wooden platform built on the bow of USS Birmingham (CL 2). The ship was at anchor in Hampton Roads, VA., and Ely landed safely on Willoughby Spit.
What historical event occurred on 8 May 1911?
Captain W.I. Chambers prepared requisitions for two Glenn Curtiss biplanes, although these requisitions lacked the signature of the Chief of the Bureau of Navigation they did indicate Captain Chambers' decision as to which airplanes the Navy should purchase. The planes were purchased for $5,500 each and later became the Navy's first aircraft the A-1 Triad. From this, May 8th has been officially proclaimed to be the birthday of naval aviation. The Wright brothers soon sold the Navy another aircraft. Curtiss and the Wrights agreed to train a pilot and a mechanic.
What historical event occurred on 20 June 1913?
Ensign William D. Billingsley, piloting the B-2 at 1,600 feet over the water near Annapolis, Md., was thrown from the plane and fell to his death, the first fatality of Naval Aviation. Lieutenant John H Towers, riding as passenger, was also unseated but clung to the plane and fell with it into the water, receiving serious injuries.
What historical event occurred on 22 October 1917?
Special courses to train men as inpectors were added to the Ground School program at MIT with 14 men enrolled. Eventually established as an Inspector School, this program met the expanding need for qualified inpectors of aeronautical material by producing 58 motor and 114 airplane inspectors before the end of the war, becoming the predecessors of the modern Quality Assurance Representatives.
What historical event occurred on 20 March 1922?
The Jupiter, a former collier or coal-carrier, was recommissioned after conversion to the Navy's first carrier, the USS Langley.
What historical event occurred on 10 March 1948?
FJ-1 Fury, The first Navy jet made its first carrier landing on the USS Boxer (CV 21).
What days did the battle of the Coral Sea take place?
7-8 May 1942.
What days did the battle of Midway take place?
3-5 June 1942.
What days did the battle of Guadalcanal take place?
13015 November 1942.
Describe what took place at the Battle of the Coral Sea.
Thanks to the breaking of the Japanese Navy code, the US was alerted to a large Japanese force moving to the Coral Sea to seize Port Moresby on the southwest coast of New Guinea. It was to be the first step of a planned invasion of Australia. The Japanese operation centered around three aircraft carriers and dozens of troop transports, but the Americans met them with two carriers of their own. On May 7, the Japanese planes sank two minor ships, while US planes sank an isolated enemy carrier. The next day, both sides launched all their planes against the other. The aircraft passed each other unseen in the clouds, in the world's first carrier verses carrier battle. One Japanese carrier was damaged. The US carrier Lexington was sunk, and the carrier Yorktown was damaged. After this action, both sides withdrew. Although a tactical victory, Coral Sea was a strategic setback for the Japanese who never again threatened Australia.
Discribe what took place at the Battle of Midway.
Midway was the turning point of the Pacific war. The US breaking of the Japanese naval code was again the key element as it had been involved at Coral Sea a month earlier. A huge Japanese armada of 160 warships was involved, but Commander-in-chief Admiral Yamamoto split his force, sending some ships north to the Aleutian Islands in a diversionary attack. The Japanese retained superior numbers approaching Midway which included 4 aircraft carriers and 11 battleships. At Midway the US had 3 carriers and no battleships. The americans knew what was coming because of the broken codes, and Admiral Nimitz positioned his 3 carriers, the Hornet, Enterprise, and Yorktown, out of Japanese reconnaissance range. As the Japanese carriers launched their planes to assault the Midway defenses, the US planes headed for the enemy carriers. It took attack after attack, but finally the US crews got through and sank 3 Japanese carriers. The next day Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific.
Describe what took place at the Battle of Guadalcanal.
After three days of bitter fighting, the Japanese naval forces retreated and US Marines were able to secure the island of Guadalcanal. The Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6 destryers. The USS Juneau was involved in the battle. Navy policy was to be place members of the same family on different ships, but the five Sullivan brothers, from Waterloo, Iowa, insisted on staying together. An exception was made and they all became crewman onboard the Juneau. The Juneau was damaged during battle in a close range night encounter. As it limped off for repairs, it was torpedoed. The Sullivan's along with 700 others were lost. Because of this tragedy, Navy policy concerning family member separations were reinstated. A ship later named in their honor. With the fall of the island, the southern Solomon's came under Allied control and Australia was in less danger of attack.
When was VQ-2 commissioned?
1 September 1955, as Electronic Countermeasures Squadron TWO (ECMRONTWO), originally home prted at the US Naval Air Station, Port Lyautey, Morocco.
What date was the squadron transferred to Naval Station Rota, Spain and renamed Fleet Air Reconnaissance Squadron TWO?
January, 1960
What date did the squadron relocate to its present homeport, Naval Air Station Whidbey Island, WA?
October 2005
What aircrafts has the squadron flown over the year?
P4M-1Q, EC-121M Super Constellation, A3D-1Q, and the EA-3B Sky warrior.
What is VQ-2s mission?
Our men and women are the eyes and ears of the Nation. We deliver critical electronic combat information to our forces: Any place, any time!
What are the 3 types of motion pertaining to flight?
Acceleration, Speed, and Velocity
Define Acceleration in association with the Physics of Flight.
The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time.
Define Speed in association with the Physics of Flight.
The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time.
Define Velocity in association with the Physics of Flight.
The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.
What are the Laws of motion?
Newton's First, Second, and Third.
Define Newton's First Law of motion.
According to Newton's first law of motion (inertia), an object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by an outside force.
Define Newton's Second Law of motion.
The second law of motion (force) states that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
Define Newton's Third Law of motion.
The third law of motion (action and reaction) states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
How is lift accomplished?
By the difference in airflow across the airfoil.
Define Lift.
The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. It counteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained.
Define Weight.
The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft.
Define Drag.
The force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of the air about the wings, fuselage or body, and all protruding objects on the aircraft. Drag resists motion.
Define Thrust.
The force developed by the aircrafts engine, and it acts in the forward direction. Thrust must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained.
Aircraft Axis
Longitudinal axis, Lateral axis, and Vertical axis
Define Longitudinal Axis.
An imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail.
Define Lateral Axis.
An imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings.
Define Vertical Axis.
An imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft.
Longitudinal axis =
Ailerons (roll)
Lateral axis =
Elevators (pitch)
Vertical axis =
Rudder (yaw)
What is The Cyclic Stick (roll/pitch)?
Tilts the plane (angle) of the rotor blades forward, aft or sideways, giving the helicopter its directional motion by changing the direction of the lift; from vertical to a varying degree based on a o degree centerline.
What is the Tail Rotor (yaw)?
This component couteracts torque of the main rotor by increasing or decreasing the amount of horizontal thrust the tail rotor produces, this movement is around the vertical axis.
Name some of the non axis affecting flight controls; they may or may not be installed on all aircraft.
Flap, Spoiler, Speed Brakes, and Slats.
What does the Flap (leading/trailing edge) do?
Creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing resulting in maximum lift to reduce takeoff runs and landing rollout.
What does the Spoiler do?
It is used to decrease or spoil wing lift by destrying the smooth flow of air over wing surfaces, this creates a more predictable landing glideslope.
What do Speed Brakes do?
They are hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of the aircraft.
What are Slats and what is their purpose?
They are movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing. When open, or extended forward, a slot is created between the slat and the wing leading edge.
Describe Collective in association with Unique flight terms and conditions.
The main rotor of a helicopter consists of two or more rotor blades. Lift is accomplished by rotating the blades through the air at a high rate of speed. Lift may be changed by "collectively" increasing the angle of attack or pitch of the rotor blades. When the rotor is turning and the blades are at zero angle (flat pitch), no lift is developed.
Describe Angle of Attack (AoA) in association with Unique flight terms and conditions.
The angle at which the airfoil or fuselage meets a flow of air. Defined as the angle between the chord line of the wing (an imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing) and the relative wind. The relitive wind is the direction of the air stream in relationship to the wing. Angle of attack is measured in "units" as opposed to degrees.
Describe Autorotation in association with Unique flight terms and conditions.
A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power. As a helicopter is descending in altitude the collective is lowered allowing the reverse airflow through the rotor to maintain RPM. When the helicopter reaches a predetermined altitude the collective pitch is increased to convert inertial energy into lift to reduce the rate of decent and cushion the landing.
What does a basic aircraft hydraulic system consist of?
- A reservoir to hold a supply of hydraulic fluid.
- A pump to provide a flow of fluid.
- Turbing to transmit the fluid
- A selector valve to direct the flow of fluid.
- An actuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful work.
What are the Landing gear main components?
Shock Strut Assembly, Tires, Wheel Brake Assebly, Retracting and Extending Mechanism, and Side Struts and Supports
What does the Shock Strut Assembly do?
Absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe.
What does the Wheel Brake Assembly do?
Used to slow and stop the aircraft. Also used to prevent the aircraft from rolling while parked.
What is the Retracting and Extending Mechanism?
in contains all the necessary hardware to electrically or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear
What does the Side Struts and Supports do?
They provide lateral strength/support for the landing gear.
What does NALCOMIS OOMA/OIMA stand for?
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System, Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity / Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity
What does NALCOMIS do?
It provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review and report information required by the organization. The use of this system sugnificantly reduces the administrative burden and produces up-to-date status information necessary for the control of maintenance.
What does the OOMA foundation tier consist of?
- Maintenance subsystem
- Material subsystem
- Flight subsystem
- Platform software interface
- CM/Logs and records subsystem
What is OOMA?
It is a management tool that provides essential, real time information on a continuing basis through the online Visual Electronic Displays (VEDs) and MAINT-1 through -6 reports as well as Adhoc data extraction.
What does OOMA track?
- NMCS/PMCS status
- Flyable discrepancies
- Non-aircraft related discrepancies
- ALSS status
- SE status
- Mission Mounted Equipment (MME) status
Who must be in control of the maintenance to ensure successful operation or repair of critical assets?
Maintenance/Production control
What are some of the data fields on Work Orders?
JCN, Type Maintenance, Typw WO, Accumulated Job Status History, Worker Hours, Workcenter, Work Unit Code
What is a JCN?
A 9 character alphanumeric code that is the basis for data collection.
What is the Accumulated Job Status History on a WO?
The history of the WO from start to finish.
What is a WUC?
A numeric or alpha-numeric code that identifies the system or subsystem of the malfunction.
What are some common types of Work Orders?
DM (Discrepancy Maintenance), TS (Troubleshooting), CM (Cannibalization Maintenance), AD (Assist Maintenance), FO (Facilitate Other Maintenance), CL (Conditional look phase), CF (Conditional fix phase), SX (Special inspection one workcenter), SC (Special inspection control), TD (Technical Directive)
What does Optimized IMA (OIMA) do?
It provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes at the intermediate level by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review, and report information required by the maintenance activity.
List a few ways that Higher level Navy managers use NALCOMIS.
- Identify desirable product improvements
- Adjust component scheduled removal intervals
- Improve I-level repair capabilities
- Identify failed items under warranty
- Establish realistic manning factors
- Efficient or inefficient use of available manpower
- Items with high failure rates
What are the six basic core capabilities in association with Naval Aviation Platforms and Missions?
Forward Presence, Deterrence, Sea Control, Power Projection, Maritime Security, Humanitarian Assistance/Disaster Relief
Describe Forward Presence in association with Core Capabilities.
Key capability that establishes maritime forces in regions throughout the world.
Describe Deterrence in association with Core Capabilities.
Aligned to the national belief that preventing wars is as important as winning wars. Removing conditions for conflict, providing for the protection of forces deployed, and possessing superior military strength all serve to deter aggressors from acting.
Describe Sea Control in association with Core Capabilities.
It protects the ability to operate freely at sea and is an important enabler of joint and interagency operations.
Describe Power Projection in association with Core Capabilities.
The ability to project from sea is the essential combat element of the Maritime Strategy.
What is Maritime Security in association with Core Capabilities.
The maintenance of security at sea and the mitigation of threats short of war. Combating terrorism, piracy, drug trafficking, and other threats enhances global stability and protects US shorelines.
Describe Humanitarian Assistance/Disaster Relief in association with Core Capabilities.
A human obligation and a foundation of human character. The majority of the worlds live within a few hundred miles of the ocean, meaning that access is best achieved by maritime forces.
What does the Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC) community do?
Perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, and eventually combat search-and-rescue missions.
What does the Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM) community do?
They are tasked with the primary roles of antisubmarine and anti-surface warfare, and secondary roles of logistics and rescue.
What does the Helicopter Training (HT) community do?
They provide basic and advanced training of student Nval Aviators in rotary wing aircraft.
What does the Tactical Electronic Warfare (VAW) community do?
They are fixed wing squadrons that tactically exploit, suppresses, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems including communication, in support of air strike and fleet operations.
What does the Carrier Aiborne Early Warning (VAW) community do?
They are fixed wing carrier based squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping, and aircraft.
What does the Fleet Composite (VC) community do?
They are fixed wing utility squadrons that provide air services for the fleet such as simulations and target towing.
What does the Strike Fighter (VFA) community do?
They are fixed wing squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions.
What does the Patrol (VP) community do?
They are fixed wing land based squadrons that perform anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance and mining.
What does the Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ) community do?
They are fixed wing squadrons that provide electronic warfare support to include search, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy. Selected squadrons serve as elements of Worldwide Airborne Command Post System and provide communications relay services.
What does the Aircraft Logistics Support (VR) community do?
They are fixed wing squadrons for the transport of personnel and supplies.
What does the Carrier Logistics Support (VRC) community do?
They are fixed wing squadrons that transport personnel and supplies for carrier onboard delivery.
What does the Training (VT) community do?
They are fixed wing squadrons that provide basic and advanced training for student naval aviators and flight officers.
What does the Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE) community do?
They are fixed wing squadrons that test and evaluate the operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in an operational environment. They develop tactic and doctrines for their most effective use.
Define HAZMAT.
Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or chemical characteristics, may pose a subtantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.
When shall HAZMAT storage areas be inspected?
Weekly and quarterly
What is the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
Technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use.
What are the six categories of HAZMAT?
Flammable or Combustible Materials, Aerosol Containers, Toxic Materials, Corrosive Materials, Oxidizing Materials, and Compressed Gases
What is the HAZMAT Authorized Use List (AUL)?
A current inventory of HAZMAT, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HAZMAT used for local acquisition and use. Local W/C's or codes should maintain a current inventory of items authorized for local use and keep it current.
HAZMAT training for all hands should include what?
- Types of HAZMAT in their work area
- What HAZWASTE is and how to dispose of it
- How to read and interpret hazard warning labels
- What MSDS is, how to read it, and where a copy is available to review.
- Emergency procedures
Who should respond to a HAZMAT spill?
Only trained personnel
What are the general steps of spill response in association with HAZMAT?
Discovery, Notification, Initiation of action, Evaluation, Containment, Damage Control, Dispersion of Gases/vapors, Cleanup and decontamination, Disposal, Certification for re-entry, and Follow-up reports
How many different types of hangars are used in Naval Aviation?
Three
What is a Type I hanger?
It is primarily designed for carrier aircraft, but is adaptable to meet requirements for rotary wing and various types of smaller aircraft. The O1 and O2 level spaces in this type of hangar are configured for a typical strike fighter squadron, two carrier airborne early warning squadrons, or a helicopter antisubmarine warfare squadron.
What are the dimensions of a Type I hangar bay?
235' wide by 85' deep
What is a Type II hangar?
Primarily provided for US Marine Corps Aviation. The hangar is designed to accommodate CH-53 Helicopters, V-22 Ospreys and C-130 Hercules aircraft. This type of hanger may also accomodate Navy versions of the C-130, V-22 and H-53 aircraft.
What are the dimensions of a Type II hangar?
119' deep by 325' wide
What is a Type III hangar?
Designed for land based patrol and large transport aircraft.
What are the dimensions of the Type III hangar?
165' deep by 165' wide
Hangar protection requirement for the protection of high value aircraft are?
- A low level AFFF system with low profile nozzles designed for a high degree of reliability and low maintenance requirements.
- A closed head of water only overhead sprinkler system designed to protect the building and provide cooling to adjacent aircraft
- Optical detection system to activate the low level AFFF system
- Appropriate drainage systems to limit any spill pool size and contain AFFF
- Draft curtains, to prevent cooling of the sprinkler heads, allowing earlier detection of heat sources
What would be the estimated cost for a false activation or a fire suppression system be?
In excess of $80,000
What are the largest hangars?
CVN or aircraft carrier hangars. They are 110' wide by 685' long with 25' of overhead clearance encompassing 1.4 acres of maintenance and storage space.
What is the Safety Diamond Area?
Defined by lines connecting the extremities of the nose, wingtips, and tail extending 5 feet
When floor panels have been removed you should?
Have a suitable barrier and warning placards must be placed around the opening
To preclude damage to flight control surfaces and to prevent personal injury, and outside observer should do what?
Verify the flight control surface area is clear before operating the flight controls
What are Aircraft Safety Placards?
Placards on the exterior of the aircraft alert personnel to specific risk areas. The placards are on engine intakes, the weapons bay, and other hazard areas.
What are the Wing Control Surfaces?
Flaps and slats are movable flight control surfaces on the wings. When the leading edge flaps and slats, and trailing edge flaps, are extended, there may be insufficient clearance for personnel and equipment.
What area are prone to corrosion on the P-3C?
Along the seams of aluminum alloy structures, in box beam skin areas and around plated steel fasteners. On unpainted surfaces of actuating mechanisms, painted surfaces that are chipped or peeled, skin seams, lap joints, and areas where dirt and grime can collect.
The P-3C fuselage consists of what?
Forward section encompassing the flight station, the mid body section, and the aft fuselage section including the tail cone.
Wings of the P-3C/EP-3E
A) Center - This is built as an integral part of the fuselage.
B) Outer Wings - Consists of wing flaps, leading and trailing edge, wingtips, ailerons, and engine nacelles.
Wing Flaps of the P-3C/EP-3E
The flaps are high lift fowler type and powered by the aircraft hydraulic systems. This type of flap uses a combination of aft movement to increase the wing area, and a drooping (downward) movement to change the airfoil section.
Stabilizers on the P-3C/EP-3E
A) Horizontal Stabilizers - (Longitudnal Stability) these provide stability of the aircraft about the lateral axis. This is the base in which the elevators are attached.
B) Vertical Stabilizer - (Directional Stability) this maintains the stability of the aircraft about the vertical axis. Serves as a base to which the rudder is attached.
Rudder on a P-3C/EP-3E
This is used to move the aircraft about the vertical axis. If the pilot moves the rudder right (pushing the right rudder pedal), the aircraft turns right; if the rudder is moved to the left (pushing the left rudder pedal), the aircraft turns left.
Ailerons on a P-3C/EP-3E
These are operated by lateral side to side movement of the control stick or a turning motion of the wheel on the yoke. The ailerons are interconnected in the control system and work simultaneously, but in opposite directions to one another. As one aileron moves downward to increase lift on its side of the fuselage, the ailerons on the opposite side of the fuselage move upward to decrease lift. This results in a controlled movement of a roll because of unequal forces on the wings.
Elevators on a P-3C/EP-3E.
The elevator control system is initiated when the control stick is moved fore and aft. Raising the elevators causes the to climb. Lowering the elevators causes the aircraft to decend.
Autopilot on a P-3C/EP-3E.
The autopilot system is available to control and stabilize the aircraft about its three axes (roll, pitch, and yaw).
The P-3C landing gear is comprised of what?
Two main gears and the nose gear. Each gear consists of dual wheels and forward-retracting struts. The gear is designed so that the weight of the aircraft on the gear keeps it down and locked.
What do the Struts do on a P-3C?
They absorb the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the aircraft structure during takeoff, taxiing, and landing.
Describe the brakes on a P-3C.
Each main gear wheel has a multi-disc hydraulic powered brake. The break pedals provide independent control of the left and right brakes. The nose wheels have no brakes.
Describe the Parking Brake on a P-3C.
The parking brakes are set by depressing the toe pedals and pulling the parking brake T handle, located on the pilot insrument panel. This locks the brake control valves in the open position. The brake accumulator will keep the parking brakes set for a presetermined amount of time without recharging.
What dothe wheels consist of on a P-3C?
Dual wheels mounted on each strut.
Describe the access points on a P-3C/EP-3E.
It has 5 available access points: two in the flight station (over head escape hatch, and auxiliary escape hatch), two in the midbody (one on each side, over wing escape hatches), and one aft of the port wing (main cabin entry). Additionally there are two areas on the aircraft (marked with yellow coners of a square) where cut outs can be made in case of an emergency when no other accesses are avialable.
What are the hazards and areas around the engine on a P-3C/EP-3E?
Propeller Area and Propeller Jet Blast Area
Describe the propeller Area in association with the hazards around the engine.
The propeller arc is considered a hazardous area. Personnel and equipment should be kept clear. When working on or in close proximity to any aircraft propellers, never walk directly through any propeller arc. The area between the fuselage and the number 2 or 3 propeller is considered a propeller arc hazard area and should be avoided.
Describe the Propeller Jet Blast Area in association with engine hazards.
Structual damage to other aircraft and support equipment and personnel injuries can be incurred by blast-propelled object and high exhaust temps.
When should the anti-collosion light be flashing on top of the aircraft?
Any time the engines are running on the deck.
The P-3 series aircraft is equiped with four _________turboprop powerplant assemblies.
T56-A-14
Describe the Engine Power Lever System.
The engines and propellers are controlled by manual actuation of the engine power levers. The engine powerlever system consists of four independent subsystems, one for each engine. The basic element of each subsystem is a pair of engine power levers, one each for the pilot and copilot. The four pilot levers are installed as a group on top of the center console at the left end at the flight station and the copilot levers are similarly grouped at the right end. Corresponding pilot and copilot levers are coupled by torque tube so that movement of either lever results in identical movement of its counterpart. The levers for any engine can be moved without moving those for other engine.
What type of propeller is mounted on each powerplant assembly?
A variable pitch, constant speed, hydromatic propeller assembly. 54H60-77
Describe the 54H60-77.
The propeller has four blades. The blade pitch changing mechanism in conjunction with the fuel control assembly maintains a constant RPM of the engine. For ground idle and reverse the propeller can also "feather", meaning the blades are laid flat with the airstream to minimize drag in the event the engine is shutdown inflight.
Describe the fuel tanks on a P-3C/EP-3E.
The wing fuel tanks are numbered from left to right (facing foward) and identified as NO.1, NO.2, NO 3, NO 4 fuel tanks. The auxilary fuel tank system is identified as the NO. 5 fuel tank. Each tank can supply fuel to its respective engine or fuel can be supplied from any wing tank to any engine through a cross feed system. When the APU is running, fuel is normally supplied from main tank NO. 2.
How is the P-3C/EP-3E fueled
Normally, aircraft fueling is accomplished by center point pressure fueling. If pressure fueling equipment is not available, the wing fuel tanks can be fueled through overwing fuel caps. The pressure fueling system is designed to fill all fuel tanks at the two pressure fueling nozzel adapters. These adabters are located adjacent to each other just forward of the flaps in the aft inboard section of the right wing.
What does the Bleed Air system do?
Provides heated and pressurized air from the compressor for bomb bay heating, engine anti-ice, wing de-ice, oil cooler augmentation and cross-bleed engine starting. Engine anti-ice in conjunction with wing de-ice, empennage de-ice (electrical), propeller de-ice (electrical), windshield heat (electrical), and windshield wipers make the P-3 an all weather capable aircraft,
Describe the Auxilary Power Unit (APU).
It consists of a compressor, gas turbine engine, and an engine-driven electrical generator is installed in the lower fuselage compartment just aft of the nose landing gear wheel well. The APU compressor bleed air provides the pneumatic power required for engine starting and a source of air for operation of the aircraft environmental control system. Aircraft electrical power for both, on the ground and emergency in-flight operations os provided by the generator.
Extreme caution shall be taken when around hydraulic systems under presser to avoid....
Accidental injection of fluid under the skin. Fluid injection can result in serious injury.
How is the hydraulic system cooled?
Through heat tranfer when hot hydraulic fluid passes through lines in the #2 and #3 fuel tanks. A minimim of 1000lbs of fuel is required to necessitate cooling.
Pascal's law states what in association with Hydraulic theory basics?
The pressure exerted anywhere upon an enclosed liquid is transmitted undiminished, in all directions, to the interior of the container.
Pascal's law states what in association with Distribution?
When pressure is exerted on an enclosed liquid force it is evenly distributed to all actuators and or valves throughout the hydraulic system through hydraulic lines.
Describe the hydraulic reservoirs.
Each hydraulic system has a fluid reservoir located in the hydraulic service center area. Syatem #1 reservoir has a total capacity of 5.6 gallons. System #2 reservoir has a total capacity of 1 gallon.
Describe Booster Assemblies in association with Hydraulics.
The booster system is designed so the pilot has a normal feel of control forces when hydraulic pressure is available to the booster cylinders. Hydraulic flight control boosters operated by both hydraulic systems are incorporated in each of the three surface control systems.
Describe Actuators in association with hydraulics.
Actuator units transform hydraulic pressure into mechanical force, to perform work.
When should external power be disconnected and aircraft power be removed?
Prior to entering load centers to remove or install electrical components.
Describe Voltage in association with Basic Electrical Theory.
It is the electrical force, which causes current to flow in a circuit. It is measured in volts.
Describe Electrical current in association with Basic Electrical Theory.
It is the movement of electrical charge through the electronic circuit. Current is measured in amperes.
Describe Resistance in association with Basic Electrical Theory.
It causes an opposition to the flow of electricity in a circuit. Resistance controls the amount of voltage and/or amperage in a circuit. Resistance is measured in ohms.
Describe Hertz in association with Basic Electrical Theory.
It is an electrical unit of frequency equal to one cycle per second. Cycles per second are measured in hertz.
Describe Bus in association with Basic Electrical Theory.
A distribution point in an aircraft electrical system to which the battery and the generator(s) are connected. Components then derive their power from the bus.
Describe the AC Generator.
There is a generator mounted to each engine reduction gear drive of engines 2, 3, and 4.
How many Generators are there on a P-3C/EP-3E?
Four;
Engines 2, 3, 4, and the APU AC generator
Describe the APU AC Generator.
It is identical to the generators used on No. 2, 3, and 4 except for the cooling bell housing.
Describe the Sensing Relays.
In addition to the tranfer relays, other relays are employed in the AC Power Distribution System to connect and control power to the buses. The Sensing Relays are identical and interchangeable and do not energize unless the generator voltage and frequncy are correct. They are located in the main and forward load centers.
Describe Circuits abd Breakers.
They are installed on panels throughout the aircraft to protect the various electrical circuits. Current breakers used in the electrical system are of the push-pull type.
Describe Regulation in association with Distribution.
Voltage Regulator and Supervisory Panel. There are four panels in the main load center. They are identical and interchangeable. The panel provides control of the generator and connects it to the bus tranfer system.
Describe the Battery on the P-3C/EP-3E.
One 24-volt battery located in the aft section of the nose wheel well is normally used for starting the APU. The battery is capable of powering most DC buses for a limited time in the event all other DC sources fail. The battery receives a continuous charge under normal operatuion.
Describe the RADAR and operation on a P-3C/EP-3E.
Radar operation can be identified by the illumination of the wing and tail lights, top and bottom red anti-collision lights, and the taxi lights. Personnel must remain 75 feet (AN/APS-115) or 250 feet (AN/APS-137 and APG 66) or more from stationary radar when high voltage is applied. HERO (Hazard of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance) must remain at least 140 feet (AN?APS-115) or 250 feet (AN?APS_137 and APG 66) from the radar antenna when the radar is being operated.
Describe Electro-Optics (EO) on a P-3C.
Each aircraft is equipped with one type of EO system. The infared detection system (IRDS) is employed to search for, detect, identify, and obtain intelligence on surface targets. The system converts Infrared (IR) radiation from a heat source to a black and white television like image. The IRDS turret retracts into the nose of the aircraft below the radome. When lowered, a joystick at the SS-3 station controls the turret. The Advanced Imaging Multispectral Sensor (AIMS) system is similar to IRDS and is next generation to IRDS.