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300 Cards in this Set

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Deviations from any flight rule are authorized only when:
An inflight emergency requires immediate action.
Deviation is necessary to protect lives.
When safety of flight dictates.
1
When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fule flow for:
Maximum endurance at 10,000 ft.
2
On climbout after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach, you may not begin a turn to heading until past the departure end of the runway (if visible), at least 400 feet AGL, and at a safe airspeed unless:
Safety dictates otherwise.
Specifically cleared by the controlling agency or local procedures authorize it.
3
Pilots operating retractable gear aircraft must report "gear down" before:
Runway threshold.
4
USAF aircraft must fly under IFR when:
Operating in Class A airspace.
Operating within a federal airway.
Operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR.
5
Aerobatcis is defined as intentionally performed spins, vertical recoveries, and other maneuvers that require pitch and bank angles greater than ______ degrees.
90
6
Emergency frequencies must be monitored at all times. T/F
True.
7
If a RAIM flag with status annunciation appears after the FAWP (final approach waypoint):
Immediately climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed appreach.
8
If a RAIM failure occurs, or the receiver does not sequence from "Armed" to "Active," prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP):
Contact ATC for an alternate clearance.
9
You notice your wingman moves his or her hand up and down in front of his or her face (palm toward his or her face). He or she is trying to tell you that:
His or her transmitter is out.
10
During a formatino sortie, lead taps his or her earphone, then holds up a clenched fist. This means:
Go to prebriefed manual frequency.
11
The formation signal for attention in the air is to:
Execute rapid, shallow wing rock.
12
If a solo student experiences an engine failure, the student may attempt a forced landing with the following restriction: minimum runway length _____ feet.
4,000
13
Maintain a taxi interval of _____ feet when staggered and _____ feet when in trail.
75, 150
14
Normal recovery fuel (the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate) is _____ pounds:
200
15
Minimum runway length for normal T-6 operations is _____ feet.
4000
16
Emergency airfield minimum runway length for a T-6 is _____ feet (rated aviator).
Not specified.
17
Perform all parts of aerobatics, unusual attitudes, abnormal recoveries, practice lost wingman, extended trail, stalls, and slow flight above _____ feet AGL.
6000
18
The minimum altitude to begin a spin entry is _____.
13,500
19
For interval takeoffs, the ceiling and visibility must be greater than or equal to _____ feet and _____ miles, respectively.
1500, 3
20
The maximum crosswind for formation wing takeoffs and landings is _____ knots.
15
21
When leading fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to 120 knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 4 G's. T/F
False
22
Low levels may be flow solo. T/F
False
23
Aircrews should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds _____ knots.
10
24
During non-towered airfield operations no more than _____ aircraft (total) military and/or civilian, may be in the pattern at any time.
2
25
Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (actual or forecast) in training or operating areas exceed _____ knots.
35
26
The minimum runway width for normal T-6 operations is _____ ft.
75
27
When on an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan under radar control in a designated ATC military operating area, weather requirements for aerobatics, confidence maneuvers, and extended trail is clear of clouds with __ nm of in-flight visibility.
3
28
Taxi spacing will be a minimum of _____ feet and on the taxiway centerline at night.
300
29
While flying practice instruments approaches in VMC, if the pilot acknowledges reaching PWC minimums and states intentions to crewmembers, he may continue to published minimums. T/F
T
30
Planned formation low approaches will _____.
Be initiated no lower than 100 ft. AGL
31
To avoid entering IMC during OCF recovery training, a minimum of _____ feet of airspace, clear of clouds must exist below entry altitude.
7000
32
The minimum altitude for VFR, non-local, point to point navigation, dictated by operational or training requirements, is _____ feet AGL.
3000
33
After commencing a penetration or approach, if weather is reported below the required PWC or published minimums (ceiling or visibility), the pilot _________________.
may continue the approach to the PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher.
34
The maximum airspeed for any operation at a non-towered airfield is _____ KIAS.
150
35
As a guide for instrument turns of 30 degrees or less, the bank angle should approximate _____. For turns of more than 30 degrees, use a bank angle of _____.
The number of degrees to be turned.
30 degrees.
36
The glide slope signal is usable to a distance of _____ NM from the glide slope antenna unless otherwise depicted on the IAP.
10
37
Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions. In general, the only time a wind correction should not be applied is during radar vector. T/F
True
38
When proceeding to a station, turning to keep the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line describes:
Homing
39
When the name of the approach does not designate a runway and only has a letter such as A, B, C, etc., the approach is designed for circling minimums only. T/F
True
40
On multi-facility approaches, the depicted VDP will be for the _____ published.
Nonprecision approach with the lowest MDA.
41
ATC should issue holding instructions at least _____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Within _____ minutes of reaching the fix and clearance beyond the fix has not been received, reduce to holding airspeed.
5, 3
42
During an en route descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a publised altitude restriction. You should:
Maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach.
43
When flying an approach with dead reckoning (DR) legs:
Use lead points for turns to and from the DR legs.
You should fly the depicted ground track.
You should apply wind corrections.
44
The localizer has a usable range of at least _____ miles within 10 degrees of the course centerline.
18
45
If you are more than one dot below or two dots above glide slope on an ILS, you:
Should not descend below localizer minimums.
May continue descent to decision height if the glide slope is recaptured.
46
When an ASR approach will end in a circle, furnish the controller with:
Your aircraft category.
47
While at an outbase, you notice yellow chevrons in the overrun. This indicates that:
The overrun is unusable for taxi, takeoff, or landing
48
The circling MDA and weather minima to be used are for the runway:
To which the instrument approach is being flown.
49
The missed approach point for any precision approach is _____.
The point at which decision height is reached.
50
In a low altitude approach, a maximum _____ descent is normally planned.
400 feet per nautical mile
51
If a SID cannot be retrieved from the database, then you may not use RNAV (GPS) procedures to fly the SID prior to the SID termination point. T/F
True
52
When using GPS and a GPS approach is loaded, terminal integrity performance is _____nm; approach integrity performance is plus or minums _____nm.
1, .3
53
Bingo fuel and at least one joker is briefed on every _____.
Mission
54
A slip is caused by _____________ bank anble in relation to the turn rate of the aircraft.
Too much
55
A low-level route abort altitude should be computed to provide _____ ft (_____ft in mountainous terrain) clearance from the highest obstacle within _____ nm of the planned course.
1,000
2,000
10
56
Normal climb speed for the T-6A is _____ KIAS.
140-180
57
Attain a minimum of 140 KIAS and 400ft AGL (or per local directives) before the first turn after takeoff. T/F
True
58
Initiate recovery from a power-on stall when:
Control effectiveness is lost
59
Practice slow flight using the Flaps UP configuration and _____ knots.
90-95
60
The AGSM is a continuous strain while simultaneously breathing ever 2 to 3 seconds. T/F
True
61
For energy management, the optimum energy level for aerobatics is _____ KIAS at an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits.
180-200
62
Proper spacing for a 30-degree bank final turn (Flaps TO), in calm winds, is approximately when the landing runway is placed half way between the __________ and the __________.
Fuel filler cap, wingtip
63
__________ are the top priorities of Number 1 in formation.
Clearing, planning, and monitoring Number 2
64
__________ are the top priorities of Number 2 in formation.
Maintaining flight path deconflictino and proper position as directed by #1
65
During an instrument trail departure, until join up or level off, each aircraft or element will call:
When passing even thousands of feet and when initiating heading changes.
66
Fighting Wing is a fluid position defined by a _____ degree cone _____ feet aft of lead.
30 to 45
500 to 1000
67
Normal holding airspeed in the T-6 is ____ kias.
150
68
Because the circling approach is generally flown at a lower altitude than the overhead pattern proper displacement will appear to be much wider than normal. A good visual reference for proper downwind spacing at 500 feet AGL is:
The wing tip on the landing runway.
69
Add _____ ft to charted take off distance for formation wing take offs, assuming lead is using no less than ___ % torque.
1000, 85
70
Although there is no time limit for operation at maximum continuous power, sustained operation at maximum power may significantly reduce engine service life. T/F
True.
71
Maximum _____ speed is the maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length.
Abort
72
The engine has been flat-rated to produce _____ shaft horsepower.
1100
73
Engine power output is measured by the __________
torque produced in the reduction gearbox.
74
The engine oil system is designed with two oil pick-up elements to permit __________.
Inverted-flight
75
Placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position automatically:
Engages the starter.
Energizes the spark ignition system.
76.
During an auto start or normal operation with the ignition switch set to _____, the PMU will energize and deenergize the igniters as required.
NORM
77
When the ignition control toggle switch is set to ON, or when the igniters are activated in AUTO mode, a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated. T/F
True
78
Power for the starter control (START) is provided through the _____ bus.
Battery
79
Power for the ignition system (IGN) is provided through the __________ bus.
Battery
80
The reduction gearbox (RGB) is driven by the power turbine, which is driven by hot gases from the gas generator section. There is no mechanical connection between the gas generator section and the RGB. T/F
True
81
The _____ and the _____ automatically control the propeller blade angle (pitch) and propeller speed (Np).
PMU, PIU
82
With the PMU not functioning, Np may peak above 100% during power changes and then return to the governed range. T/F
True
83
Placing the _____ in the _____ position triggers a microswitch, which activates the feather dump solenoid valve.
PCL, OFF
84
The _____ is a computer unit which monitors engine operating parameters and illuminates annunciators and engine systems displays.
Engine data manager (EDM)
85
The PMU provides two operating modes, ground and flight, which are controlled by the __________.
Weight-on-wheels switch on the main landing gear struts.
86
In the ground mode, the engine idle N1 is _____% and in the flight mode, idle is nominally _____%.
60, 67
87
An amber PMU STATUS light one minute after touchdown indicates:
PMU accommodated an in-flight fault.
88
An Amber PMU STATUS light in flight indicates:
Weight-on-wheels switch fault and/or mis-match between the weight-on-wheels switches.
89
Should the PMU STATUS or PMU FAIL lights illuminate, the system may be reset by cycling the PMU switch to OFF and back to NORM. T/F
True
90
When the PMU shifts from auto mode to OFF, both the PMU STATUS and PMU FAIL annunciators will illuminate. T/F
True
91
The autostart feature will automatically terminate the ground start sequence upon detection of a malfunction such as a hung or hot start. T/F
True
92
The PMU is normally powered by _____.
Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA).
93
During an automatic engine start, the PMU:
Activates the starter.
Activates the boost pump.
Activates the igniters.
Adds fuel at the proper N1.
94
During a normal (auto) start, the PMU can stop fuel flow and deactivate the igniters/starter to abort the start:
Any time provided the PCL is not past the start ready position.
95
After the PCL has been advanced past the start ready position, the PMU will not cut off fuel to terminate a start. T/F
True
96
The start may be manually aborted by:
Placing the PCL back to OFF.
Reselecting the STARTER switch to AUTO/RESET (if PCL is not past idle gate).
97
If a start attempt is aborted after fuel has been introduced:
Manually motor the engine for 20 seconds to clear residal fuel.
98
Flattening, twisting, kinking or denting of the fire detection loop will affect test or flight operation. T/F
False
99
During inverted flight, the inverted flight fuel pickup provides _____ fuel supply, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system.
A minimum of 15 seconds.
100
The fuel auto balance system (provided by the EDM) detects fuel imbalances:
As displayed on the fuel gauge.
101
If the fuel imbalance exceeds 30 pounds for more than 2 minutes:
The amber FUEL BAL annunciator illuminates.
Pilot action is required.
102
Selecting the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to L will:
Stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the left tank.
103
When correcting a fuel imbalance, set the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to whichever wing tank is "lighter." T/F
True
104
If a fuel probe fails, _____ will continue to provide an accurate indication of minimum fuel level.
The low fuel warning lights.
105
Approximately _____ pounds of additional fuel is available when over-the-wing refueling is used.
100
106
The generator provides 28 volts DC, which is sufficient to power:
All equipment on the generator bus.
The battery bus equipment.
Charge the battery.
107
If the generator control switch (GEN) has been set in either cockpit, and the occupant of the other cockpit selects ON:
It trips the GEN switch in the other cockpit to OFF.
Generator function is controlled by the switch set to ON.
108
If there is a generator malfunction in flight:
A red GEN light illuminates; reset using the GEN RESET button.
109
In an emergency situation, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, UHF radio, standby instrument lighting and FIRE 1 fire detection system for approximately:
30 minutes
110
A chip detector is mounted in the _____ to detect metal contamination in the oil system.
Reduction gear box.
111
The hydraulic system provides _____ psi with a total system capacity of _____ gallons.
3000, 1.25
112
During normal operation, the hydraulic system operates the:
Landing gear, flaps, speed brake, nosewheel steering main inboard doors.
113
If main hydraulic pressure drops below _____ psi, the hydraulic pressure display will change color to indicate a caution ( _____ ).
1800, amber
114
A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately _____ seconds.
6
115
Normal cockpit indications when the emergency extension system is used are:
Three green gear lights.
Red main gear lights, red light in the gear handle.
116
The wheel brake system _____ affected by a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system.
is not
117
Flap position is controlled by a three-position flap selector marked:
UP, TO, LDG
118
Normal flap operation and indication are unavailable anytime:
The battery bus has failed or when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.
119
Emergency flap extension is enabled:
After the gear have been lowered using emergency landing gear extention.
120
During flap deployment or retraction, the flap position pointer moves:
To an intermediate position between the marked settings to indicate flap motion.
121
The speed brake _____ be stopped at an intermediate position.
may not
122
Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until:
Either speed brake switch is moved forward to retract.
The flaps are extended.
The PCL is moved to MAX.
123
The trim system control circuits give _____ priority if trim selection conflicts between cockpits.
The rear cockpit.
124
Actuating the TRIM DISCONNECT switch will:
Remove power from the trim system.
Illuminate green TRIM OFF and TAD annunciators.
Cause the trim aid device (TAD) to disengage.
125
The aileron trim actuator moves:
The entire aileron.
126
A bobweight is installed on the front control stick which _____ stick forces as G-load on the aircraft increases, to improve control feel and help prevent overstressing the airframe.
Increases
127
The pitch trim, actuator moves:
The pitch trim tab on the right side of the elevator.
128
The rudder trim actuator moves:
The rudder tab on the rudder.
129
The _____ senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position.
Trim aid device (TAD).
130
Actuating the _____ will cause the TAD to disengage.
Trim interrupt button on the stick.
TRIM DISCONNECT switch.
131
The _____ sets takeoff trim in the yaw axis when the trim aid system is switched on after engine start.
Cycling the TRIM AID switch to OFF, then ON
132
Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until:
The aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS.
There is no weight on the wheels.
133
The trim aid system will not completely trim the aircraft in yaw. T/F
True
134
The _____ pitot system probe near the _____ wing tip provides ram air pressures for the air data computer.
Primary, right
135
The standby instruments operate from the _____ during a main battery bus failure.
Auxiliary battery
136
In the event of a main battery/electrical failure which has required the use of the aux battery, the standby attitude indicator off flag will remain out of sight until the aux battery fails. T/F
True
137
The AOA gauge is marked with a white diamond at 8.8 units, which indicates:
Maximum endurace AOA
138
The AOA gauge is marked with a white triangle at 4.9 units, which indicates:
Maximum range AOA
139
Engine bleed air is utilized for:
Environmental control system (ECS), OBOGS, anti-G system, canopy seal.
140
To dump cockpit pressure, select _____ on the pressurization control switch.
DUMP or RAM DUMP
141
With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below _____, while the electronic governor will maintain Np at 100%.
106%
142
With the PMU off (manual mode) the pilot must exercise care to ensure N1, temperature, and torque limits are not exceeded. T/F
True
143
If the main system hydraulic pressure drops below 1800 psi indicated, then:
The hydraulic pressure display will change color to amber.
144
Anti-ice heat is provided to both the pitot tubes and the static ports. T/F
False
145
The air data computer provides air data corrected for temperature, position, or instrument error.
False
146
AOA information is valid for all combinations of weight, configuration, and steady state bank angles. T/F
True
147
The AOA heat is controlled through a switch labeled:
Pbrobes Anti Ice
148
Operation of the Manual Override (MOR) Handle will fire a cartridge to operate:
Upper and lower harness locks.
Upper and lower bridle locks.
The headbox deployment unit.
149
The GPS can store up to _____ flight plans with up to _____ waypoints on each flight plan.
25, 30
150
What is the liability of an accessory?
Liable for separate, less serious crime of being an accessory after the fact.
When the OBOGS is turned on a BIT is initiated and the system enters a system warm-up period which lasts approximately _____ minutes, during which the OBOGS fail annunciator is inhibited.
3
152
The flaps will not extend during a Bettery Bus failure.
True
153
If the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the area labeled FULL AC or FULL AD:
The system is fully serviced.
154
When flying solo, the ISS mode selector shall be set to:
SOLO
155
During the anti-suffocation valve check, if the valve is functioning properly, it will be _____ to breathe through the valve when you inhale deeply.
Possible
156
When checking the fire detection system, both fire test positions must check good in both cockpits (if occupied). T/F
True
157
Ensure minimum adequate canopy/helmet clearance by:
Placing closed fist on top of helmet when adjusting seat height.
158
Before engine start, if PMU FAIL or PMU STATUS annunciators are illuminated:
Set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM.
159
With the PMU STATUS annunciator illuminated, the PMU auto abort function may be unavailable. T/F
True
160
To preclude unnecessary wear to nose whell steering and tire, _____ nose wheel steering prior to executing sharp turns with differential braking.
Disengage
161
Any fault discovered during the _____ check is reason for a ground abort.
Overspeed governor
162
If climbout obstacles are a factor, rotate to _____ nose high on takeoff and accelerate to best rate of climb speed of ______ KIAS using normal procedures.
15 degrees, 140
163
Performing a normal takeoff, the gear may be raised:
Once a positive rate of climb is established
164
If Delta P readings other than _____ are encountered at or above 18,069, notify maintenance.
3.6 +/- 0.2
165
Before stalling, spinning and aerobatics, verify caution and warning annunciators are extinguished and fuel imbalance is less than _____ pounds.
50
166
The recommended missed approach attitude is _____ nose high.
10 - 15 degrees
167
Selection of MAX power automatically retracts the speed brake. T/F
True
168
Setting flaps to TO or LDG automatically retracts the speed brake. T/F
True
169
When landing with a crosswind:
Maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare.
170
After landing with maximum effort braking and if overheated brakes are suspected:
Do not taxi into a congested area.
Do not set the parking brake.
171
Failure to deactivate both OBOGS regulators will result in:
A drain on the battery even with all other electrical switches off.
Discharging the aircraft battery.
172
During the Before Exterior Inspection you will ensure the metal loop in the ejection handle is not frayed or broken. T/F
True
173
Hold the auxiliary battery test switch forward and hold for a minimum of _____ seconds, then release.
5
174
The recommended holding speed is _____ KIAS in clean configuration or AOA gage reading no less than the maximum endurance AOA mark.
120 - 150
175
N2 will automatically reduce from flight idle (____) to ground idle (60%), approximately _____ seconds after touchdown.
67%, 4
176
If possible, move the aircraft to a hanger when winds above _____ knots are expected.
80
177
In the auto start mode, if a hot start, hung start, or no start is detected, the PMU should terminate the start sequence. The pilot must then perform a _______ second motoring run.
20
178
If the following situations occur, execute the emergency engine shutdown boldface:
Engine fire, prop strike, departing a prepared surface, chip light.
179
With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject, even if one is safely pinned. T/F
True
180
Do not delay ejection while attempting airstart at low altitude below _____ ft. AGL
2000
181
If an airstart is succesful, useful power will be available after _____ seconds from starter engagement.
40
182
If the battery fails, OBOGS will be inoperative. Emergency oxygen is recommended above 10,000 ft. MSL. T/F
True
183
If the generator and main battery fail, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments (and their lighting), and UHF tuning for approximately:
30 minutes.
184
What will activate the FUEL BAL annunciator:
A fault in the autobalance system.
Greater than a 30 pound difference between wing tanks for more than 2 min.
185
Illumination of the L FUEL LO annunciator indicates that approximately _____ pounds of usable fuel remain in the left wing tank.
110
186
During a controllability check, in no case should the aircraft be slowed below _____ KIAS or to activation of the stick shaker, whichever is _____.
90, higher
187
During a trim system malfunction, if the rudder trim circuit breaker is pulled automatic TAD correction inputs for power and configuration changes will be unavailable. T/F
True
188
With the bleed air inflow switch set to the OFF position, the following system(s) will still be operational:
OBOGS
189
With a sudden or rapid decompression at altitudes near 20,000 feet MSL, there may be a transient OBOGS FAIL indication. T/F
True
190
Recommended minimum altitudes for ejection are _____ ft. AGL for controlled ejection, and _____ ft. AGL for uncontrolled ejection.
2,000, 6,000
191
The CKPT ALT annunciator light illuminates whenever the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds _____ ft.
19,000
192
Approximately _____ ft. of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at the best glide speed of 125 KIAS.
1,200
193
You should attempt to manually balance a fuel load when the alternate engine data display is indicating FP FAIL. T/F
False
194
Which system(s) should not be considered inoperative when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated?
Wheel brakes
195
Cabin pressurization will bleed out through the _____ when the inflow switch is set to OFF.
Cabin pressurization outflow valve.
196
With the Battery Bus inoperative, plan to extend the landing gear using the emergency extension system. T/F
True
197
The extra drag during an airstart attempt will cause a greater descent rate than 1350-1500 fpm. T/F
True
198
Transit on an unprepared surface may make the CFS system inoperative and/or make the canopy difficult or impossible to open. T/F
True.
199
The aircraft shall be flown solo from the front cockpit only. T/F
True
200
Maximum ITT during takeoff/MAX is _____ deg C.
820
201
Maximum oil pressure during start is _____ psi.
200
202
Sustained propeller operation on the ground between _____ and _____ % Np is prohibited to prevent damage from ground resonance.
62-80%
203
Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery voltage is below _____ volts.
23.5
204
For a clean aircraft, asymmetric (rolling G's) acceleration limits are:
+4.7, -1.0
205
The maximum permissible crosswind for a wet runway is _____ knots.
10
206
Taxi over arresting cables at _____. Steer to avoid nose and main gear contact with cable support donuts.
As slow a speed as possible.
207
The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed _____ knots.
40
208
Ejection seats may be operated with the canopy open without injuring the user. T/F
False.
209
Normal oil pressure during steady state conditions is _____ PSI.
90 - 120
210
Inverted flight time is ____ seconds.
15
211
Symmetric G limit (clean) are _____ G's
+7.0 to -3.5
212
Maximum ITT for starting is _____ degrees C.
1000
213
Maximum tailwind component for take off is _____ knots.
10
214
In general, OCF can be divided into three categories:
Post-stall gyration, incipient spin, steady-state spin.
215
Takeoffs with FLAPS LDG is not recommended with greater than 10 knots crosswind component. T/F
True
216
The T-6 is permitted to transit through a _____ foot band of _____ icing.
5000, light rime
217
Taxiing over lowered net barriers (BAK 5) should be avoided if at all possible. T/F
True
218
Best glide speed in clean configuration is approximately _____ KIAS with a sink rate of _____ fpm.
125, 1350
219
The artificial stall warning margin varies from _____ to _____ knots prior to the stall during power-off, unaccelerated conditions.
5, 10
220
With power-off, lateral roll during a wings level stall is typically to the _____, and occurs near full _____ stick.
Right, aft.
221
While landing gear position has little effect on the stall, extending the _____ aggravates the roll-off tendency at stall.
Flaps
222
Above _____% torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll off at stall.
60
223
A(n) _____ is characterized by oscillations in pitch, roll, and yaw attitudes and rates.
Incipient spin
224
The incipient spin phase of the T-6A lasts approximately _____ turns.
Two
225
A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady state in that airspeed is _____ and motions are oscillatory.
Increasing
226
After completing approximately _____ turns, a spin will have entered a near steady state condition.
Three
227
In a steady-state spin, rotation rates will stabilize between _____ to _____ seconds with altitude loss of _____ to _____ feet per min.
2 to 3, 400 to 500
228
Ailerons have a pronounced effect on spin characteristics. T/F
True
229
An aggravated spin is caused by maintaining _____-spin rudder while moving the control stick _____ of the neutral position.
Pro, forward
230
During a spin, oil pressure may decrease below _____ psi with idle power.
40
231
Spins below _____ ft. MSL are prohibited, due to high stresses on the propeller.
10,000
232
Intentional inverted departures and spins are prohibited. T/F
True
233
Intentional spins in other than cruise configuration at idle power are prohibited. T/F
True
234
The aircraft will recover from erect spins with controls free and the PCL at IDLE; however, the number of additional turns required for spin rotation to cease after releasing the controls may increase significantly. T/F
True
235
Controls-neutral spin recoveries have been demonstrated and generally, spin rotation will cease within _____ additional turns after neutralizing controls in each axis.
2
236
Altitude loss during dive recovery is determined by four independent factors:
Angle of dive, altitude at start of pullout, airspeed at start of pullout, and acceleration maintained during pullout.
237
Above _____ % torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left rol at stall.
60
238
Sustained aggravated spins are characterized by spins in excess of _____ turns and have the potential to exceed engine operating limits.
2
239
When executing a windshear-precautions takeoff, use takeoff flaps, but delay rotation to Vrot plus up to _____ knots.
10
240
If windshear is encountered during an approach for landing, execute _____.
A go around/waveoff.
241
The potential for lightning strikes increases near the _____.
Freezing level.
242
During takeoff in hot weather, the aircraft will accelerate _____ than normal and ground run will be _____ because the air is less dense.
Slower, longer
243
If windshear is encountered during an approach for landing, execute a go around/waveoff. T/F
True
244
A PIC may deviate from a flight rule when:
An in-flight emergency requires immediate action. Safety of flight dictates. Deviation is required to protect lives.
245
PICs will ensure that current copies of _____ are on board the aircraft.
FLIP en route supplement and enrout charts. Flight Information Handbook. Appropriate arrival, approach, and departure procedures.
246
For stopover flights, the PIC will:
Ensure the entire flight is planned to its final destination in the greatest detail possible for the first leg of the flight.
Obtain the latest weather and NOTAM information available for the intended route, destination and alternate before departing each intermediate stop.
247
When operating in FAA airspace, pilots will declare minimum/emergency fuel to the controlling agency when, in their judgment the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the required/emergency fuel reserve. T/F
True
248
During night flight, each crewmember must have an operable flashlight. T/F
Ture
249
If departing from a ninmilitary installation, pilots will file a flight plan with:
FSS or ATC facility.
250
The PIC's signature on the flight plan is evidence of approval and means all of the following except:
The aircraft has been inspected and is deemed suitable for flight.
251
The PIC will ensure compliance with ATC clearances or instructions unless:
An amended clearance is obtained. An emergency exists. Deviation is required in reponse to a TCAS resolution advisory (RA). Deviation is necessary to ensure safety of flight.
252
Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or "fly-bys" are acceptable if approved by ATC. T/F
False
253
Aircrew shall not consume alcoholic beverages within 12 hours of _____.
Takeoff
254
Pilots operating in VMC, under IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control, are responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain and obstacles. T/F
True
255
Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic. T/F
True
256
(In the NAS) The PIC will not allow the aircraft to exceed _____ knots indicated airspeed at or below 2,500 ft. AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized or required by ATC, or required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.
200
257
Air Force pilots may operate their aircraft below 10,000 ft. MSL, within US airspace, in excess of 250 KIAS within MOAs. T/F
True
258
USAF pilots may accept Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearances. T/F
False
259
Air Force pilots may passively participate in Land and Hold Short Operations (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance). T/F
True
260
Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over congested areas or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least _____ ft. above the highest obstacle within a ____ ft. radius of the aircraft.
1,000, 2,000
261
Mission permitting, do not operate aircraft less than _____ft. AGL over national recreation areas and wildlife refuges.
2,000
262
Display position lights between the hours of official sunset and sunrise _____.
Immediately before engine start and when an engine is running. When parked in an area likely to create a hazard while being towed, unless clearly illuminated by an outside source.
263
If equipped, anticollision lights must be on from takeoff to landing. T/F
True
264
Pilots will not takeoff, land, or fly an approach at an airport where thunderstorms are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, windshear, and (or) microbursts. T/F
True
265
Immediately report a windshear or microburst encounter on takeoff, approach or landing to the most appropriate agency and if possible, include:
Altitude of encounter, loss or gain in airspeed or altitude, type of aircraft, location of occurence
266
Virga poses a wind shear threat to aircraft. T/F
True
267
Be alert for fog or low cloud formation any time the surface air temperature is within _____ of the dew point, and the the spread between the two is _____.
4 degrees, decreasing
268
Frost forming on airframes, results in increased drag and decreased lift. T/F
True
269
The standard lapse rate in the troposphere is 2 degrees C (3.6 degrees F) per 1,000 ft. T/F
True
270
Pilots may motor the engine with the canopy open. T/F
True
271
If requesting High Key from initial and told "Negative High Key," or no response is given, pilots should:
Continue to the break zone.
272
Do not request "High Key" when:
An aircraft is between 5 and 2 nm on a straight-in. An aircraft is orbiting at High Key. An aircraft is in the chase pattern.
273
The maximum number of aircraft in Hacker's pattern is:
8
274
To maximize training, pilots should land offset at Hacker. T/F
True
275
When operating in Hacker's pattern, do not request High Key when an aircraft on a HAPL entry:
Is between "Report High Key" and "Low Key"
276
When flying under alternating instrument status, pilots will be on final approach for a full stop landing no later than _____ after the last scheduled take off time for the T-6 block.
1+15
277
The minimum altitude when transitioning between approved non-towered airfields is:
3,000 ft. AGL
278
For IFR departures to local low level nav routes, if unable to maintain VFR approaching the lateral limits of the nav route, coordinate with RAPCON for a descent to _____ (MVA).
2,700 ft. MSL
279
ELPs conducted at Lawton or Henry Post Army Airfield should be flown using right hand turns. T/F
False
280
The use of formation full stop and taxi back (FFSTB) procedure for student training requires the permission of the OPSUP. T/F
True
281
During all break-outs at night climb to _____ MSL squawk normal, remain south of the Red River and contact Arrival on channel 7 for vectors to Bridge or Deans.
3,000 ft.
282
Aircraft expierencing an over G will be treated as an emergency. T/F
True
283
Planned two ship formation around the pattern is authorized provided:
Pilots brief this option prior to stepping. The traffic situation permits it's execution. The approach and landing are required to complete syllabus or continuation requirements.
284
When recovering to the VOR/DME-E pilots should plan to arrive at HOLDR with _____ lbs. of fuel greater than divert fuel to allow for holding and unplanned delays.
100
285
The standard bingo fuel to depart Hacker is ____ lbs. dual, ____ lbs. solo.
400, 500
286
To minimize ground ops delays, once a student has demonstrated proficiency, IPs may perform a "split' walk around, or strap into the aircraft while the student performs the walkaround. T/F
False
287
To ensure minimum seperation between aircraft while flying the departure, climb at _____ KIAS below 10,000 MSL and _____ KIAS above 10,000 MSL until est. at an asigned altitude, then cruise at ____ KIAS until within assigned area boundaries.
180, 160, 200 (180? -- Weird answer I know, but that's what it says)
288
The tops of the high areas are capped at ____ MSL (19,000 for area 13) with a local altimeter setting less than 29.92.
21,000
289
During weather recall, all aircraft will fly ____ KIAS to the visual pattern or ____ KIAS to an instrument approach. Recovery to RWY 17/35 will be flown at ____ KIAS.
250, 200, 200
290
Low closed patterns are prohibited at Hacker. T/F
True
291
ELP patterns to the east are prohibited at Hacker. T/F
False
292
For all local sorties pilots will use ____ as the primary forecast weather source.
Flying Area Mission Execution Forecast - FAMEF
293
While in the night pattern ____ lights will remain on.
Navigation, anti-collision strobe, landing/taxi.
294
T-6 aircraft in the Sheppard VFR pattern will squawk _____.
0377
295
The RSU will ensure ____ min. take off separation between aircraft entering NAV routes B and C or between the same route. _____ min. spacing will be used for different NAV routes.
5, 1
296
T-6 aircraft operating in Hacker's VFR pattern will squawk _____.
4000
297
When a runway change occurs at Hacker, all aircraft will depart the pattern. T/F
True
298
The standard Bingo to depart Lawton Muni/Henry Post AAF is _____ lbs.
400
299
Pilots will contact Sheppard Clearance Delivery to obtain an IFR clearance prior to takeoff for all ____ missions.
Direct to Lawton. Out and back/Crosscountry. Simultaneous or Alternating Instrument Status.
300