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338 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The primary role at a scene of an emergency for an EMT is, |
B. Safety |
|
An EMT providing care at an emergency scene is acting as an agent of the_______________ |
D. Medical Director |
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Maintaining accurate documentation, maintaining required continuing educational credits, fall under which of the EMT responsibilities? |
C. Quality Improvement |
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According to the NHTSA, ____________is an EMS system component |
B. EMS Training |
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This would be the best example of "On-Line" Medical control. |
A. Obtaining orders from the ER physician over the phone |
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Which of the following may establish and access an IV? |
C. Intermediate EMT and Paramedic |
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The best example of Off-line medical control would be |
D. Written protocol |
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A probationary EMT asks you what does Quality improvement mean, your best answer would be, |
C. a system of internal and external reviews |
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Which of the following is not one of the 10 essential elements of an EMS system? |
B. Documentation |
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An EMS system is best described as? |
A. A specialized chain of resources designed to minimize the impact of sudden illness or injury |
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You are questioned on the best definition of stress, your most accurate response would be |
B. Any event, circumstance, scene, that places demands on a person's mental or emotional response |
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Which of the following is NOT a category of stress. |
B. Euphoric stress aka: Eustress |
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Of the following, this form of PPE is best for minimizing the exposure to an airborne pathogen. |
D. HEPA mask |
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According to the CDC, the most effective means of preventing the spread of infection is |
C. Hand Washing |
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Which of the following is NOT a Core Component of a CISM system |
C. Anger Management |
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In this stage of the "Kubler-Ross" stages of death, bartering with God or others would best describe this stage |
C. Bargaining |
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This stage of the "Kubler Ross" stages of death is also referred to as the "Not Me" stage. |
A. Denial |
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Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements needed to prove a case of suspected negligence |
C. abandonment |
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In certain cases, the EMT MUST report the incident to appropriate authority. Theses cases are, |
A. Abuse and neglect |
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You are approached by a fellow EMT who asks you which organization created the EMT-Basic national standard curriculum, your best answer would be, |
D. US Department of transportation |
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An EMT who ceases to provide care for a patient and ceases that care before formally transferring the patient to a equal or higher authority is guilty of |
B. abandonment |
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An EMT who starts an intravenous line, going beyond his/her scope of practice can be guilty of |
A. breach of duty |
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Of the following, the most appropriate example of expressed consent is, |
B. 62 year old female complaining of chest pains who dialed 911 |
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At a crime scene, the EMT primary responsibility is |
B. Patient Care |
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Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline are called ______________. |
C. lateral |
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This structure prevents food from entering the trachea |
D. epiglottis |
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If the patient is lying face up, he or she is in the ____________ position. |
C. supine |
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Blood returning to the heart from the body will first enter the |
B. right atrium |
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There are this many bones in the human body |
A. 206 |
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The normal respiratory rate for a child is |
C. 15 to 30 |
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What structure prevents food from entering the trachea? |
D. epiglottis |
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Your partner is completing the ambulance run report for a patient who was complaining of abdominal pain, he asks you the quadrant where you would find the liver, your best answer would be |
A. Right Upper Quadrant |
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The thoracic spine contains how many vertebrae |
B. 12 |
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These are bones of the lower leg |
D. tibia and fibula |
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Capillary refill time is most accurate as an assessment tool for perfusion in patients |
A. less than 6 years of age |
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Something an EMT can see or measure during a patient assessment is called a |
C. sign |
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The pressure inside the arteries each time the heart contracts is referred to as the __________ pressure |
D. systolic |
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The term diaphoretic refers to |
C. skin condition |
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The most appropriate location to obtain a pulse for a responsive adult is the ______________ artery |
D. radial |
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The characteristics of a pulse include |
A. rate, strength and rhythm |
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The first set of vital sign obtained on any patient is referred to as the |
C. baseline vitals |
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Which of the following best describes the term "chief complaint" |
C. the patients description of his illness or injury |
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When going from a well lit room to a darker room, you as an EMT would expect the normal pupil to: |
B. dilate |
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Which of the following is most accurate when describing a palpated blood pressure |
B. It includes only the systolic pressure |
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Body mechanics refers to: |
D. the dynamics of the EMT's body while lifting |
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You are treating the victim of a motor vehicle collision who has an altered mental status and suspected cervical injury. Her condition is deteriorating rapidly. Which of the following moves is most appropriate for this patient? |
B. urgent |
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Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding lifting |
D. When practical and safe patients should be lifted rather than wheeled. |
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You are called to care for a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing. You locate the patient in a second floor back bedroom. After examining the patient and determine that he should not walk to the ambulance. Your best device to transport this patient to the ambulance would be. |
D. stair chair |
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The vest type extrication device is used when a patient: |
B. is involved in a motor vehicle collision |
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Which of the following would not call for the use of an emergency move. |
A. Moving a patient with an altered mental status from a stable vehicle |
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Of the following devices, the one that is most inappropriate for an unconscious patient would be: |
A. stair chair |
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A 16-year-old female falls from a distance you determine to be four times greater than her height causing her a head injury. The preferred method to secure this patient would be: |
A. a long spine board |
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When performing a log roll to get a patient properly on a long board, the reaching technique includes: |
C. leaning from the hips with your back locked |
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In transferring a supine patient to a stretcher, which of the following methods would be least appropriate if spinal injuries are suspected? |
A. extremity carry |
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Of the following respiratory rates, the one most associated with infants is: |
D. 25-50 per minute |
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Which of the following is not part of the bag valve mask system? |
C. nasal adjunct |
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Which of the following is most likely an indication of inadequate breathing? |
C. externally audible wheezing |
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A 2-year-old child was reported to have been choking on a foreign body while in his high chair, and became unresponsive just prior to your arrival. The first step you should take to open and maintain his airway is to: |
C. perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver |
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When a patient is showing signs of inadequate breathing, the first step the EMT should take is: |
B. assure that the airway is open and will remain open |
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A means of correcting blockage of the airway by moving the jaw forward without tilting the head is termed: |
D. jaw-thrust maneuver |
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The greatest disadvantage for one rescuer ventilating a patient with a BVM is: |
C. obtaining a proper mask seal on the face |
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You need to ventilate a child patient with a BVM while using the jaw-thrust maneuver. Preferably ventilations will be delivered : |
A. over 1 - 1 1/2 seconds |
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Ventilating a patient with a pocket mask requires that the EMT be able to do all of the following except: |
C. maintain a good mask seal over the patient's mouth only |
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As a general rule for suctioning the upper airway of a patient, the suction is applied: |
B. after insertion of the catheter tip into the oropharynx and on the way out |
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When your general impression is that a patient appears to have an altered mental status, the first person whom you try to get medical information from is: |
A. the patient |
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In which of the following cases would a rapid trauma assessment be most appropriate? |
A. a patient with a significant MOI |
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The SAMPLE history for a medical patient does not include the patient's: |
A. age |
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Which of the following conditions would lead you to suspect that a conscious patient has a potentially serious airway problem? |
B. broken jaw and nose |
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Crepitation is an abnormal finding of the _______and will typically be discovered during the rapid trauma assessment. |
B. skull |
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The last component of scene size-up is determining: |
B. the need for additional resources |
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Upon arrival at a scene where a vehicle is off the road in the woods, you find that the windshield is broken out and is lying on the hood. The driver is behind the wheel and appears to be unrestrained and unconscious. While you begin your approach to the vehicle, your partner does a perimeter sweep for: |
C. other occupants who may have been ejected |
|
On the scene of a construction site accident, witnesses state that the patient fell to the ground from a height of 25 feet. The patient is alert, oriented, and denies any pain or injury. Which of the following statements is least accurate? |
A. If the patient has no pain, there is no cervical injury. |
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You are assisting a small child with positive pressure ventilations. You know the ventilations are adequate when: |
D. all of the above |
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Which of the following scenes would be the least dangerous to enter prior to the arrival of any other support such as police or fire department? |
B. patient struck by lightning |
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Standard radio operating procedures are created and designed to: |
A. reduce the number of misunderstood messages |
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In the EMS profession, times are recorded in military time because: |
B. it helps to minimize documentation and recording errors |
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Which of the following factors directly interferes with effective radio communication of patient information to the hospital? |
A. background noise |
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You are caring for a 4-year-old who seems to be frightened of you and your crew. How can you appear less threatening and begin effective communication with the patient? |
D. Keep a friendly smile on your face and kneel down to her height as you speak. |
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The_______is responsible for giving the report of the patient to the hospital staff. |
C. EMT-B in charge of the patient |
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Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT-B will first provide the staff with a _______report about the patient. |
B. verbal |
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A 30-year-old female with a history of asthma is complaining of difficulty breathing and chest tightness. She appears anxious and slightly confused, yet you can hear her wheezing. Which of the following medications will you assist her with? |
A. albuterol |
|
Bronchodilators, antihistamines, and antihypertensives are all examples of: |
C. classifications of medications |
|
Which of the following is a route for administering medication? |
C. sublingual |
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_______ are a form of medication consisting of liquids with solid particles mixed within them, but not dissolved. |
D. Suspensions |
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For the patient who is experiencing an asthma attack, the EMT-B should first assist the patient with _______ followed by: |
A. oxygen and the patient's inhaler |
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The most significant side effect of epinephrine is: |
B. increased heart rate |
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Liquids that contain dissolved drugs are called: |
A. solutions |
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You have been dispatched to a seizure call. When you arrive, the patient is unresponsive, breathing, and has a pulse. A family member reports that the patient has diabetes and just finished having a second seizure, with a brief period of alertness between the two seizures. Which medication should you assist the patient with? |
A. oxygen |
|
Activated charcoal works with poisons that have been: |
C. ingested |
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Your unit has been dispatched to the high school for an allergic reaction to a bee sting. In the school nurse's office, a 16-year-old female is sitting up and appears very ill. She is working hard to breathe, is pale and moist, one side of her face is swollen, and she has hives on her neck and arms. The nurse reports that the patient's pulse is 130, weak and regular, and that her BP is 78/40. The patient has a history of allergies to bee stings and used her epinephrine auto-injector shortly after being stung on the face approximately 20 minutes ago. What is the patient's present condition? |
B. She is in anaphylactic shock. |
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For the child who is experiencing respiratory distress due to asthma or bronchiolitis, _______ is the most important treatment the EMT-B can provide. |
A. oxygen |
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You are using a BVM to assist ventilations for a 7-year-old child who has severe breathing distress. You squeeze the bag once every ______ seconds. |
A. 3 |
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All of the following patients are having breathing difficulty. For which one would you need medical direction to assist in emergency medical care? |
A. a 14-year-old female with asthma, who is wheezing after gym class |
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The three signs of adequate air exchange are: |
B. alert mental state, equal breath sounds, and a regular rhythm |
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In forming a general impression of the patient, the EMT-B can rapidly assess for adequate air exchange by: |
A. noting the skin color |
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A person with breathing distress may be found in a tripod position because this position: |
C. allows more expansion of the rib cage and lungs |
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You have decided to assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask for a patient with severe breathing difficulty. You know you are providing effective ventilations when: |
A. the chest rises with each ventilation |
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For the patient who is having breathing difficulty, a _______ is indicated whenever the patient needs oxygen, has a good respiratory effort, and is not apneic. |
D. non-rebreather mask |
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You are assessing and treating a patient who is in respiratory distress. Which of the following signs would give you the indication to assist the patient with bag-valve ventilations? |
D. all of the above |
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_______ is an abnormal condition that results in a collection of air in the pleural space of the chest; it can cause one or both lungs to collapse. |
C. Pneumothorax |
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Which of the following statements about early defibrillation is most correct? |
D. A sudden death patient has the best chance of survival when an AED is available (and used) before EMS arrives at the victim's side |
|
When delivering the first three shocks with an AED, the EMT-B should: |
B. not check for a pulse between each shock, to avoid delay in delivering the shocks |
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When two EMT-Bs with an AED arrive at the side of a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse, they should first: |
B. apply the AED as quickly as possible and check for a shockable rhythm |
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Which of the following situations indicates a need to use an AED? |
A. a 60-year-old cancer patient who is unresponsive, is not breathing, and has no pulse |
|
When you asses the the pulse of your patient, you find the pulse to be steady and irregular. Preferably, you can best obtain an accurate rate by: |
B. Counting the number of beats for one complete minute |
|
For the victim of cardiac arrest with a return of pulses and respirations, a critical component of post resuscitation would be: |
C. Airway Management |
|
Defibrillating a patient with an AED is considered to be _______ because the energy is delivered to the patient through remote adhesive pads. |
B. hands-off |
|
You arrive at a 12 year old male near-drowning patient. Initially the patient was pulseless and apnic. After one shock from you AED, he is breathing and has a pulse. Which of the following complications can you expect with this type of patient? |
D. all the above |
|
You have successfully converted a witnessed cardiac arrest with three shocks from the AED. The patient now has a pulse, is breathing, and is awakening. At this point you should: |
B. be prepared for the patient to arrest again |
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Which of the following group of patient complaints is an indication for the use of nitroglycerin. |
A. Chest tightness, weakness and labored breathing |
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An abnormal surge of electrical signals in the brain is known as a(n) |
C. seizure |
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Which of the following is NOT one of the assessment findings in the Cincinnati Pre-hospital Stroke Scale? |
B. Headache |
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Which of the following patients can be said to have an altered mental status |
D. all of the above |
|
The family of an elderly woman has called EMS because they had noticed during lunch she had a brief period of looking stunned, followed by a change in speech. Your assessment reveals no neurological disabilities. You suspect: |
C. TIA or Mini stroke |
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Of the following, the one that is not a characteristic of the Glasgow Coma Scale |
D. grip strength |
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The condition in which a patient experiences prolonged or multiple seizures without regaining consciousness is known as: |
B. status epilepticus |
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Your primary concern in caring for any patient with an altered mental status is |
C. maintaining airway and breathing problems |
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The period of time in which a patient has an altered mental status following a seizure is known as the _______ phase. |
A. postictal |
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Fibrinolytics are most effective when they can be administered within ________ hours following the onset of stroke symptoms. |
A. 3 |
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The EMT-B should consider altered mental status in elderly patient to be associated with ______________ until proven otherwise |
D. hypoxia or hypoglycemia |
|
Bladder infection, called cystitis, is more common, especially in _______. |
A. Women |
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An open wound to the abdomen that results in the abdominal contents protruding through the wound is known as an |
B. evisceration |
|
The thin membrane that lines the entire abdominal cavity is known as the: |
C. peritoneum |
|
This organ forms digestive juices and is the source of insulin. |
B. pancreas |
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Perceived pain at a distant point of the body caused by irritation of the visceral peritoneum is called: |
D. referred pain |
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You are to assist a patient with a slightly altered mental status to take some oral high concentration glucose gel. Prior to this, you most appropriate action should be to: |
D. Confirm a diabetic history and check for diabetic medications |
|
When the blood sugar falls to a hypoglycemic state, the longer a patient remains hypoglycemic the more likely there will be: |
D. permanent damage to brain cells |
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The mother of an 11-year-old patient who is unresponsive and has a history of diabetes tells you that they checked the blood sugar reading an hour ago and it was 130mg/dl. No trauma was involved, so you suspect that: |
D. all of the above |
|
When caring for a patient with a possible diabetic problem, the EMT-B should call medical direction: |
B. according to local protocols |
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One method of assisting a conscious diabetic patient with an altered mental status is to place oral high concentration glucose gel between the cheek and gum. This method works to improve mental status by: |
D. the rapid absorption of glucose through a highly vascular area |
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For a diabetic patient who meets the criteria, the quick administration of oral glucose by the EMT-B means that: |
A. a diabetic emergency is being managed appropriately |
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Which of the following conditions in a diabetic patient, left untreated, can cause altered mental status due to hypoglycemia? |
A. infection |
|
The wife of an unresponsive patient who has a history of diabetes tells you that she tried to give her husband orange juice prior to your arrival but was unsuccessful. The patient has an open airway, is breathing adequately, and has a strong pulse. The management steps for this patient include: |
B. high flow oxygen, monitor vital signs, contact medical control, and transport |
|
The function of insulin is to: |
A. carry sugar from the blood into the cells |
|
Orange juice, non-diet sodas, and oral gel-type glucose are all: |
A. high concentration glucose products that may be ingested to raise blood sugar |
|
Which of the following is not an indication for the use of an epinephrine auto-injector? |
A. The patient has a history of multiple allergies. |
|
At a standby for a soccer game, a parent approaches you with her 8-year-old son who has two bee stings on his lower leg. The mother tells you that she removed the stingers but she would like you to look at the child. Which of the following findings would you consider significant, requiring treatment by EMS? |
A. swelling of the lips |
|
The form of epinephrine that comes in an auto-injector is a : |
B. liquid |
|
Which group of symptoms suggests an allergic reaction that has not progressed to anaphylaxis? |
C. blotches and itching on the arms, back, chest, and thighs |
|
The dose of epinephrine in an auto-injector is _____mg for adults and _____mg for pediatrics. |
A. 0.3, 0.15 |
|
_______ is the generic name for the medication in an auto-injector prescribed for severe allergic reactions. |
C. Epinephrine |
|
Which of the following side effects is typical with the use of epinephrine in anaphylaxis? |
B. tachycardia |
|
A patient who is experiencing an allergic reaction might have which of the following findings associated with the upper airway? |
A. stridor |
|
For the patient with signs and symptoms of progressive allergic reaction, the EMT-B should contact medical control: |
A. as soon as possible |
|
You are obtaining a focused history from a patient with suspected poisoning. Which of the following questions is of least significance for the EMT-B? |
C. Has this substance been ingested before? |
|
A 16-year-old female is suspected of taking multiple prescriptions in a suicide attempt. She is unresponsive to pain with the following vital signs: respirations 8, shallow and inadequate; pulse 58, regular; BP 100/40. Your first steps in managing this patient include: |
C. attempting oropharyngeal airway insertion and assisting ventilations with a BVM |
|
The police have called you to transport an intoxicated patient. You assess a 52-year-old male who is conscious, but has slurred speech, smells of alcohol, has filthy clothing, and does not answer your questions appropriately. Management of this patient will include: |
D. obtaining vital signs and performing a physical exam while being alert for any other causes of altered mental status |
|
The most significant findings associated with signs and symptoms of poisoning are: |
D. those that affect the ABCs |
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Two women custodians who used cleaning products in a confined space for approximately one hour are now complaining of dizziness and nausea. They deny difficulty breathing, chest pain, or vomiting. Lung sounds are clear and neither of them has red eyes or tearing. The emergency medical care for these patients begin with: |
D. removing them from the confined area and providing high-flow oxygen |
|
Of the following statements, which is most correct regarding the signs and symptoms of poisoning? |
B. Signs and symptoms vary widely and depend on the substance and amount taken into the body. |
|
A contractor accidentally splashed liquid chlorine into his face. He is alert and breathing adequately, but complains of severe burning pain in both eyes. The initial management for this patient includes: |
C. removing the patient's clothing and continuously irrigating the eyes and face |
|
_______is a toxic substance that is typically introduced to the body by absorption. |
B. A pesticide |
|
The most dangerous toxic substances affect the _______system(s). |
D. respiratory, nervous, and endocrine |
|
Due to the unpleasant appearance of activated charcoal, it should be administered by: |
D. sipping through a straw out of a foam cup |
|
A group of water skiers were on the lake practicing when one went down in the water. He was unconscious when pulled from the water and brought to shore. When you arrive, he is awake but does not recall what happened. What should you do next? |
D. Take spinal precautions and prepare to fully immobilize the patient. |
|
A healthy person with a mild to moderate heat exposure might be expected to have which of the following signs and symptoms? |
D. nausea and vomiting |
|
You have been called to care for a person found lying outside in the snow. you find the patient, who is cold and shivering. This person has lost a significant amount of body heat in a short time, primarily by means of: |
B. conduction |
|
If rapid cooling is not begun for the victim of a severe heat disorder, _______ may result. |
D. permanent brain damage |
|
For a victim of prolonged cold exposure, which of the following signs indicates the condition is critical? |
C. decreased mental status |
|
Which of the following signs and symptoms of heat exposure are most severe? |
B. any compromise to the ABCs |
|
You have just discovered a person who has been exposed to the cold for a prolonged period of time and has frostbite on a distal extremity. Which signs and symptoms can you expect to find? |
A. the extremity will appear white and feel numb |
|
The EMT-B can recognize dehydration associated with prolonged exposure to heat by the patient's: |
D. signs and symptoms |
|
A 60-year-old male went to get the newspaper and fell in his driveway between high snow banks. He lay there for nearly an hour before being discovered. He is alert, cold, wet, and appears to have a severely deformed open fracture of his ankle. The steps in management of this patient include: |
B. check ABCs, splint the ankle, move the patient into the ambulance, remove his wet clothing, and provide warmth |
|
It is a hot day and you see a sun worshiper tanning in the park. She is spraying a water mister to keep cool. What method of cooling is she enjoying? |
D. evaporation |
|
_______ involves great medical and legal considerations for the EMT-B. |
C. Physically restraining a patient |
|
Which of the following characteristics is typically an unassociated risk factor for suicide? |
A. paranoia |
|
When managing a patient who is experiencing a behavioral emergency, it is necessary to: |
D. assess for physical causes that may mimic a behavioral emergency |
|
Abnormal behavior that results from a crisis in a person's life is interpreted as a/an: |
D. behavioral emergency |
|
A sign indicating that a patient may become violent is: |
B. the patient raising his tone of voice |
|
Factors that may cause unusual changes in a patient's behavior include: |
D. all of the above |
|
A factor that may cause an individual to become violent on the scene of an EMS call include the: |
D. patient's perception of the EMT-B |
|
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the potential for a crisis situation? |
B. every illness or injury is associated with some type of psychological stress |
|
You are assessing a patient who may have experienced a fainting episode. He is now awake but is acting very strangely. Which of the following conditions should you consider first as being the cause? |
B. hypoxia |
|
You are faced with the problem of having to transport a patient against his will, because he poses a possible danger to himself or others. It is necessary to: |
C. follow local protocols together with medical control |
|
During emergency childbirth, which of the following factors should the EMT-B be alert for as a possible cause of an airway problem? |
A. nausea and vomiting |
|
The priority in care of the baby as the head delivers is: |
A. suctioning the airway |
|
A pregnant 32-year-old patient, in the third trimester, is complaining of severe abdominal pain, which began suddenly. She denies any vaginal bleeding or discharge. When you palpate her abdomen, you find that the uterus is rigid. What life-threatening condition do you suspect? |
C. abruptio placenta |
|
An obstetric kit usually includes one or two large plastic bags, which are used for: |
A. transporting the placenta |
|
When preparing the mother for delivery in emergency childbirth, the EMT-B should: |
C. allow the husband or friend to be present during delivery |
|
Immediately after the baby's head is delivered, the next step in assisting with a delivery is to: |
C. check for the cord around the baby's neck |
|
When delivery of the placenta occurs in the pre-hospital setting, the EMT-B is required to bring the placenta to the hospital for which of the following reasons? |
D. inspection of completeness |
|
During the transport of a woman in active labor, the patient tells you that the baby is coming. You examine her and find the baby crowning. The hospital is 5 minutes away, so now you: |
A. stop the ambulance and assist with the delivery |
|
The umbilical cord may be safely cut by: |
D. each of the above |
|
Injuries that pierce the surface of the body and damage internal tissues and organs is referred to as: |
A. Penetrating Trauma |
|
Penetrating trauma caused accidentally with an object or intentionally with a weapon, such as a knife is: |
A. Low Energy |
|
You are discussing a recent motor vehicle accident where you treated a 33 year old male for a pelvic injury suffered during the collision. When asked how an injury occurs in a collision your response is that Kinetic energy: |
D. all the above |
|
The energy mostly associated with the energy of falling objects. |
A. Potential Energy |
|
A 22 year old man complains of back pain from a fall. From your training, you attempt to assess the height from which your patient fell. This is important because a fall from _______ times the patient's height is a severe mechanism of injury |
B. 3 |
|
The basic physical concepts that dictate how injuries occur and affect the human body are referred to as. |
C. Kinematics |
|
The way in which traumatic injuries occur or the forces applied to the body that cause injury which can be assessed in our scene size up is:. |
B. Mechanism of Injury |
|
Objects at rest tend to stay at rest and objects in motion tend to stay in motion unless they are acted upon by some force is: |
A. Newtons 1st Law |
|
The result of force to the body that causes injuries without penetrating soft tissues or internal organs is known as: |
B. Blunt Force Trauma |
|
Significant mechanisms of injury include: |
D. all of the above |
|
Which of the following signs is not a reliable finding associated with internal bleeding? |
B. bowel sounds |
|
Abdominal trauma is the second leading cause of trauma death, because: |
D. injury to solid organs can produce severe bleeding that progresses rapidly |
|
The severity of a hemorrhage can best be described by which of the following factors? |
C. how much blood has been lost |
|
When you suspect that a patient is bleeding internally, the interventions you provide will be rapid because definitive care is: |
A. often surgical |
|
A tourniquet applied on an extremity to control a life-threatening bleed is: |
D. a method of last resort to control bleeding in the prehospital setting |
|
Early signs that a patient has intraabdominal bleeding include: |
D. sustained tachycardia and normal or low blood pressure |
|
_______ is the most common serious infectious disease that is transmitted by exposure to external bleeding. |
B. Hepatitis |
|
A woman called 9-1-1 after she accidentally cut her arm with a utility knife. She has wrapped a cloth around the arm and it is soaked through with dark red blood. You suspect that the bleeding is: |
A. venous |
|
The method of using elevation to control external bleeding works best when: |
C. the wound is raised above the level of the heart |
|
Which of the following is not considered a serious exposure as a result of managing a hemorrhage? |
D. soaking the uniform pant leg |
|
When used for the treatment of suspected pelvic fractures, the PASG helps by: |
C. stabilizing the suspected fracture site |
|
The rider of a motorcycle was traveling at a moderate speed when she was cut off by a car and knocked to the ground. The patient is conscious now, but bystanders report that she was unconscious for about a minute. Her helmet is cracked and both her thighs appear to have closed fractures. Her airway is clear; skin CTC is pale, moist, and cool; and her vital signs are: respirations 18, adequate; pulse 126, regular; BP 80/40. Your management of this patient will be to treat for: |
D. decompensating shock due to the internal bleeding |
|
Each additional minute spent on the scene for a patient with life-threatening traumatic injuries: |
C. reduces the patient's chance for survival |
|
The mother of a 12-year-old male has called you because her son fainted. Your initial assessment finds a patient who is conscious, pale, and moist with a weak, rapid pulse. The patient denies any recent injury or illness and his mother agrees; also, he has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Your initial treatment plan is to: |
C. administer high flow oxygen and treat for shock |
|
The decision to provide rapid transport for a trauma patient is typically based on: |
D. signs of shock and/or the MOI |
|
A woman has called EMS because her husband fainted this morning. He is lying in bed and appears very weak and pale. There is a strong odor of stool and the wife confirms that the patient has had diarrhea and vomiting during the night and all morning. The vital signs are: respirations 24, labored; pulse 110, regular but weak; BP 70/40. After you administer high flow oxygen, the next steps in the emergency medical care of this patient include: |
D. elevating the legs, providing warmth, beginning rapid transport, and requesting ALS intercept |
|
The skin signs of a patient experiencing hypoperfusion include: |
B. cool, pale, and moist |
|
Dispatched for a traumatic injury, you arrive on the scene to find a 50-year-old male who has nearly cut off one of his fingers with a chainsaw. He is pale and has beads of sweat on his forehead. A family member has a cold wet bandage on the finger and has controlled the bleeding. Your initial assessment of this patient prompts you to treat this patient for _______ shock. |
B. psychogenic |
|
A 52-year-old male patient with symptoms of nausea, dizziness, and vomiting blood has a history of gastric reflux. His vital signs are: respirations 24, adequate; pulse 120, regular; BP 96/50; skin CTC cool, moist, and pasty-looking. Management of this patient should include: |
D. supine position, high flow oxygen, warmth, rapid transport, and call for ALS |
|
The three sources of electrical burns are: |
B. arcing, contact, and flash burns |
|
Before providing the correct emergency care for a burn, the EMT-B needs to determine the: |
B. source of the burn |
|
One advantage of quickly applying a dressing to an open would on a child is: |
C. it will help hide the severity of the injury from the child |
|
One of the major functions of the skin is: |
B. temperature regulation |
|
When a significant portion of a person's skin is involved in a burn injury, that person is at high risk for _______ shock. |
D. hypovolemic |
|
A full thickness burn affects: |
A. every layer of the skin |
|
Persons who suffer a burn injury are at risk for infection: |
D. when the severity is partial thickness or greater |
|
You have been called to care for the victim of a flash burn. The scene is safe and the patient is sitting down with coworkers who are helping him cool his face with a wet cloth. His entire face and neck is red and he states that he cannot see and that his eyes and face hurt. This burn can be classified as: |
A. superficial |
|
First responders have immobilized a 23-year-old male who was knocked off an ATV after striking a tree. They report that he is complaining of neck and back pain, and he has a large contusion on his forehead and a very large hematoma on his left flank. Before you begin your examination, you put on your minimum level of PPE, which includes: |
A. gloves |
|
A thermal burn that damages the epidermis and a portion of the dermis, excluding the muscle tissue, is classified as _______ degree. |
B. second |
|
A very small foreign object, such as a grain of sand lying on the surface of the conjunctiva may: |
C. produce severe irritation |
|
You are treating your 24 year old female patient who is complaining of a severe headache. You assess her pupil reaction and not them to be PEARL. Your partner is not sure what this means. Your best explanations would be that PEARL refers to: |
A. The pupils are round, equal in size, and react equally when exposed to light. |
|
As a result of a foreign object in the eye, your body will naturally |
B. produce tears in an attempt to flush out the object |
|
Delicate membrane covering the inner surface of eyelids and surface of eye is called the: |
B. Conjunctiva |
|
Circular muscle with a central opening that changes size to allow light to enter is known as the: |
B. iris |
|
You are asked by the home improvement supervisor why did you cover the uninjured eye as well as the injured eye. You should respond: |
C. You explain that the uninjured eye will naturally scan causing movement in the injured eye possibly causing further injury. |
|
The clear transparent membrane that allows light to enter is known as the: |
D. cornea |
|
This transmits signals from nerve endings in the retina to the brain? |
D. optic nerve |
|
The light-sensitive area at the back of the globe with numerous nerve endings is known as the: |
A. retina |
|
You respond to a report of an eye injury at your local home improvement supercenter. Upon arrival you are directed to the hardware section and advised that an employee was struck in the face by falling debris. You immediately recognize a piece of copper wire impaled in the employee's left eye. You best course of action would be to: |
D. all of the above |
|
Your 4 year old male patient has lodged a small bead inside his ear. Please select the statement that is incorrect in treating this patient. |
A. Select an appropriate tool and remove the foreign body |
|
The opening in skull where brain and spinal cord meet is called the: |
B. foramen magnum |
|
Your 22 year old male patient is complaining of a severe nose bleed. Please select the incorrect statement regarding treatment. |
C. allow the patient to out his head back and swallow the residual blood |
|
The weakest area of the skull are the: |
D. basilar and temporal |
|
The layers of the meninges in order from skull to brain are: |
A. dura, arachnoid, pia |
|
The portion of the brain responsible for vital functions such as respiration and cardiac activity is the: |
C. brainstem |
|
Of the following, which is not part of the facial bones? |
C. occiput |
|
The eye socket is commonly called the: |
A. orbit |
|
Of the following statements regarding nasal injuries, please select the one inconsistent with nasal injuries. |
B. Nasal injuries are rarely a threat to the airway. |
|
Simple nose bleed are referred to as: |
A. epistaxis |
|
A collection of blood in the sac surrounding the heart is known as a(n) |
B. pericardial tamponade |
|
A common complication from an open chest injury is a(n): |
C. pneumothorax |
|
Your patient is a 8 year old female whose 11 year old brother jumped from a couch onto his chest as she was lying on the ground. The patient head and neck are bluish in color and she is presenting JVD. Your partner asks you what you suspect might be the problem. Your best answer would be: |
D. traumatic asphyxia |
|
A sign of a chest injuries includes hemoptysis, which is defined as? |
C. coughing up blood |
|
Simply stated, an infection of the lung tissue is commonly called: |
C. pneumonia |
|
Chest trauma may include injury to any of the following except the: |
B. pancreas |
|
When air leaks into the chest from a weak area in the nontrauma lung surface, causing the lung to collapse is termed a(n) |
A. spontaneous pneumothorax |
|
When one section of the chest moves in opposite direction form the rest of the chest during inspiration we note this as: |
A. paradoxial motion |
|
Occlusive dressings taped on three sides are most appropriate for which type of injury? |
D. open chest wounds |
|
Of the following statements which one is incorrect regarding the mechanism of ventilation? |
C. during normal inspiration, the intercostal muscles of the ribs retract |
|
In regards to the female genitalia, which of the following statements is false? |
B. If the vagina is bleeding, pack the vagina with dry sterile dressing in order to control the bleeding |
|
The best treatment for an avulsion of the skin of the penis is to: |
D. all of the above |
|
You respond to a report of an industrial accident. Upon your arrival you find your 25 year old male patient supine with piece of fencing protruding from his abdomen. Consider the following statements for accuracy and determine which one is not correct. |
B. If safe to do so, remove the object to control the bleeding. |
|
Blunt abdominal wounds may cause |
D. all of the above |
|
When hollow organs are ruptured or lacerated, the contents of the organ will spill over into the peritoneal cavity causing severe abdominal pain. This condition is called: |
C. peritonitis |
|
When internal organs protrude from an abdominal wound it is referred to as an: |
C. Abdominal Evisceration |
|
Seatbelts occasionally cause blunt injuries of the abdominal organs. This is due to:. |
C. the seatbelt lying to high |
|
The most common sign of significant abdominal injury is: |
A. tachycardia |
|
Which of the following is NOT a landmark of the abdomen? |
D. Mid Clavicular Line |
|
When a splint is incorrectly applied, which of the following conditions may occur? |
B. increased swelling and pain |
|
Muscles are named according to their: |
D. all of the above |
|
Which of the following type of splint is commonly used for musculoskeletal injuries involving the shoulder, humerus, elbow, and forearm? |
D. sling and swathe |
|
A fracture that occurs through a process of weakening from disease is called a/an _______ fracture. |
B. pathological |
|
After falling on an outstretched hand, a 14-year-old male appears to have a dislocation of the right elbow. This type of injury is serious and require cautious management during immobilization due to the: |
D. proximity of the brachial artery to the injury site |
|
The intercostal muscles of the chest are classified as_______ muscle. |
A. skeletal |
|
Splinting a long-bone fracture in _______ will prevent further damage to blood vessels, bones, and muscles. |
A. a straight position |
|
A metabolic function of support provided by the skeletal system is the: |
A. production of blood cells |
|
The thorax (rib cage), spinal column, and skull are bones that: |
B. protect organs of the body |
|
When splinting a dislocation, the EMT-B should immobilize the injury in the _______ while maintaining a good blood supply distal to the injury. |
D. position of comfort for the patient |
|
When you are using a short spine board device to immobilize a patient who has a potential cervical injury, the patient's head is manually stabilized until the: |
B. patient's torso and head are secured to the device |
|
Two skaters collide hard during a hockey game and one did not get up. The skater who is down is the goalie and he is complaining of neck pain and a loss of sensation in his legs. When you and your partner attempt to place his head in a neutral position, prior to removing his helmet, he complains of increased pain. Which immobilization technique is appropriate for this patient? |
A. Immobilize him in the position found, with his helmet on |
|
The patient with a suspected spinal injury is immobilized in a neutral position because: |
D. this position allows the most space for the spinal cord |
|
Which of the following hazards would preclude the EMT-B from using a short spine board on a stable patient with a potential spine injury? |
D. smoke coming from the engine compartment |
|
When removing a helmet from an unconscious patient, the EMT-B stabilizing the head will place one hand on each side of the helmet and: |
C. support the patient's mandible with the EMT-B's fingers |
|
The primary goal in caring for a potential spinal injury is to: |
B. prevent further injury |
|
A child was knocked unconscious at a Little League game by a ball that struck him in the temporal skull area. When you first arrived he was awake, but now he is becoming unconscious again. The patient is at risk for: |
C. vomiting and aspiration |
|
_______ cushion(s) and protects the brain and spinal cord from outside impact. |
D. Cerebrospinal fluid |
|
Why is the long backboard the ideal device for splinting the entire spine when a cervical injury is suspected? |
D. All of the above |
|
Which of the following signs or symptoms is an indication of a potential spinal injury? |
A. poorly localized cervical pain |
|
_______ is a sign of respiratory distress that is observed in children, but rarely seen in adults. |
A. Grunting |
|
A first-time mother of a 10-week-old infant calls EMS because her baby is not acting right. The baby appears to be struggling to breathe and the mother states that the baby did not want to drink her bottle. You assess the baby and find that her nose is congested with mucus, and you hear congestion in her breathing. The next step you take is to suction the: |
A. nose with a bulb syringe |
|
Which of the following is the primary cause of cardiac arrest in children? |
D. respiratory arrest |
|
The small airways of the pediatric patient are prone to obstructions from: |
D. all of the above |
|
During the first year of life, the heart rate of an infant slows to an average of _______ beats per minute. |
A. 120 |
|
Which of the signs of respiratory distress indicates the most severe distress in a child? |
D. slow and gasping breaths |
|
The respiratory system of the infant is different from that of an older child or an adult in that the: |
C. accessory muscles are immature and fatigue easily |
|
A respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute is normal for each of the following age groups, except: |
D. adolescents |
|
Which of the following is an indirect measure of end-organ perfusion? |
A. urine output |
|
You are helping to teach a CPR class, and your station is foreign body airway obstruction in the unresponsive child with no injuries. When you teach your students to open the airway, you demonstrate the: |
D. head-tilt chin-lift maneuver |
|
Which of the following findings is not associated with signs of sexual abuse in children: |
A. hearing or speech deficit |
|
Children are at high risk for injury to internal organs of the chest in a traumatic event, because: |
C. their developing bones are not as strong as mature bones |
|
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding child abuse? |
A. Child abuse is a crime. |
|
A baby with mouth and gum lacerations may suggest abuse with an MOI of: |
C. a bottle being repeatedly forced into the mouth of a baby |
|
Which of the following statements is most correct about the special considerations for taking pediatric vital signs? |
D. The EMT-B should use a reference for vital sign values instead of memorization. |
|
When documenting a call that involves suspected child abuse, the EMT is the ideal health care provider to: |
D. all of the above |
|
An infant who experiences a fall from a height of three times her own is more likely to suffer a _______ injury than a child or adult falling from a proportionate height. |
A. head |
|
Because of their disproportionate sizes, the _______ are injured more frequently in children than adults. |
C. head, face, and neck |
|
The causes of seizures vary for each age group, but the one cause that remains common in all pediatric age groups is: |
A. trauma |
|
A family of four is traveling in a mini van was involved in a rollover collision. You have been assigned to assess and stabilize the 2 year old male is restrained in a car seat. The child complains of minor neck and back pain. The proper way to transport this patient is: |
A. immobilized in the car seat |
|
Patients straining to have a bowel movement can stimulate the vagus nerve. The heart rate may drop dramatically causing the patient to pass out or become dizzy. This is known as a: |
C. Vasovagal reaction |
|
According to NREMT standard, geriatric patients are ______ years of age |
C. 65 |
|
Which of the following is the chief component of connective tissues and bones which is lost with age. |
A. collagen |
|
The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span is commonly known as? |
B. Dementia |
|
Signs of elder abuse are often missed or unreported. This is due to: |
D. all of the above |
|
All of the following are examples of appropriate communication techniques except, |
C. shouting louder |
|
Of the following, which is not a category of elder abuse? |
A. Alzhiemers |
|
In order to provide patient treatment of a geriatric patient based on an adequate patient assessment, this tool is an essential necessity. |
B. good communication |
|
During your assessment of a 78 year old male complaining of chest pains, it is important to locate and document all medications that the patient is on. This is important to the emergency treatment of the patient because: |
D. All of the above |
|
The elderly may be less able to compensate for blood loss. This is due to: |
D. all of the above |
|
Which of the following is NOT a common illness or injury among the elderly population? |
A. measles |
|
Which of the following may prevent an elderly person from reporting or admitting to being abused or neglected? |
D. all of the above |
|
In reference to physiological changes in the respiratory system, all of the following are true except: |
A. Lung tissue increases in elasticity |
|
In most states, geriatrics are aged ________ years and older. |
B. 65 |
|
When maintaining the airway and ventilations of an elderly unresponsive patient, all of the following may be necessary except: |
D. extreme hyperextension of the neck |
|
Which of the following is not related to depression among the elderly? |
B. living independently |
|
Which of the following is true regarding the senses of the elderly. |
C. A prior stroke may cause problems with speech |
|
When backing up, the most effective method is to: |
C. Use a spotter to help guide the ambulance when in reverse |
|
The following is not an important part of the vehicle check. |
B. exterior surfaces |
|
Weather including rain, snow, sleet and ice storms can limit visibility and make the road surfaces slippery. This will ____________ stopping distances |
A. Increase |
|
When responding to the scene of a motor vehicle accident, the EMT should consider which of the following guidelines first. |
A. Use lights and sirens only if the need exists |
|
Vehicle maintenance checks should be performed at least: |
A. daily |
|
You are called to the scene of a multiple vehicle collision involving a tanker truck. You note a placard on the truck. To quickly and safely determine the substance and its characteristics, you would refer to the: |
A. Emergency Response Guidebook |
|
When operating an emergency vehicle with lights and sirens activated, the operator must exercise __________for the safety of other motorists and pedestrians. |
D. due regard |
|
The most thing EMS staff can do to prevent the spread of disease is to: |
C. Thoroughly Wash your hands |
|
All are phases of the ambulance call except: |
C. Contact Phase |
|
Using another emergency vehicle as an escort to the hospital is dangerous for: |
D. all the above |
|
Once a vehicle has been stabilized, the first attempt to gain access to a patient in the vehicle should be to: |
A. locate an unlocked door |
|
Resource awareness for the EMT means that he/she has enough knowledge to: |
B. recognize when it is not safe to gain access to a patient |
|
The phase of extrication that includes estimating the of the mechanism of injury to the patient is the ___________ phase |
C. scene size-up |
|
While working in or near water, the EMT should use _________ as part of the minimum personal safety equipment. |
B. personal floatation device |
|
The objective of extrication is to: |
B. remove a patient from an entrapment preventing further injury to the patient |
|
The final component or phase of a extrication is: |
C. transportation |
|
Extrication is a process in which actions are taken to free a patient entrapped in a: |
D. all of the above |
|
With the proper training and equipment, the EMT may participate in which phase of the rescue? |
D. medical assessment and treatment |
|
Which of the following items is not part of the minimum level of protective equipment for the EMT at the scene of a operation? |
A. Level A Haz Mat suit |
|
You have been dispatched with the Fire Department for two people stuck in an elevator. Upon your arrival, you learn the electricity is off due to an electrical fire within the building. Currently the building is being evacuated. Your best course of action is: |
D. stand by until the fire department has extricated the victims |