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EMT QUESTIONS

Emt Questions

by smrochin9, Feb. 2013

Subjects: emt

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338 Cards in this Set

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	The primary role at a scene of an emergency for an EMT is, A. Patient Care B. Safety C. Transportation D. Rescue	B. Safety
	An EMT providing care at an emergency scene is acting as an agent of the_______________ A. Paramedic B. EMS Director C. Hospital D. Medical Director	D. Medical Director
	Maintaining accurate documentation, maintaining required continuing educational credits, fall under which of the EMT responsibilities? A. Safety B. Patient Provider C. Quality Improvement D. Advocacy	C. Quality Improvement
	According to the NHTSA, ____________is an EMS system component A. Ambulance Advisory delegation B. EMS Training C. Rehabilitation Care D. Haz Mat Preparedness	B. EMS Training
	This would be the best example of "On-Line" Medical control. A. Obtaining orders from the ER physician over the phone B. Obtaining direction from your EMS director C. Assisting a paramedic at his/her request D. Consulting with the highest medical authority on scene	A. Obtaining orders from the ER physician over the phone
	Which of the following may establish and access an IV? A. EMT B. EMT and paramedic C. Intermediate EMT and Paramedic D. EMT and EMT-I	C. Intermediate EMT and Paramedic
	The best example of Off-line medical control would be A. orders by way of transmission B. telephonic orders C. orders by facsimile D. Written protocol	D. Written protocol
	A probationary EMT asks you what does Quality improvement mean, your best answer would be, A. Lifelong learning B. Participation in education C. a system of internal and external reviews D. a process in where patients feedback is requested.	C. a system of internal and external reviews
	Which of the following is not one of the 10 essential elements of an EMS system? A. Communication B. Documentation C. Evaluation D. Regulation and Policy	B. Documentation
	An EMS system is best described as? A. A specialized chain of resources designed to minimize the impact of sudden illness or injury B. Ambulance and Emergency Room Personnel C. A chain of emergency workers within a municipality D. A communication system	A. A specialized chain of resources designed to minimize the impact of sudden illness or injury
	You are questioned on the best definition of stress, your most accurate response would be A. Any response which you are not prepared for B. Any event, circumstance, scene, that places demands on a person's mental or emotional response C. An increase in bio rhythmic responses D. Any emotional event	B. Any event, circumstance, scene, that places demands on a person's mental or emotional response
	Which of the following is NOT a category of stress. A. Acute Stress B. Euphoric stress aka: Eustress C. Delayed Stress D. Cumulative Stress	B. Euphoric stress aka: Eustress
	Of the following, this form of PPE is best for minimizing the exposure to an airborne pathogen. A. Surgical Mask B. Gloves C. Glasses D. HEPA mask	D. HEPA mask
	According to the CDC, the most effective means of preventing the spread of infection is A. BSI precautions B. Awareness C. Hand Washing D. Training and education	C. Hand Washing
	Which of the following is NOT a Core Component of a CISM system A. Defusings B. Debriefings C. Anger Management D. Support Programs	C. Anger Management
	In this stage of the "Kubler-Ross" stages of death, bartering with God or others would best describe this stage A. Denial B. Anger C. Bargaining D. Depression	C. Bargaining
	This stage of the "Kubler Ross" stages of death is also referred to as the "Not Me" stage. A. Denial B. Anger C. Bargaining D. Depression	A. Denial
	Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements needed to prove a case of suspected negligence A. duty to act B. a breach of duty C. abandonment D. proximal cause or causation	C. abandonment
	In certain cases, the EMT MUST report the incident to appropriate authority. Theses cases are, A. Abuse and neglect B. Alzheimers and abuse C. All aids cases D. All infectious disease cases	A. Abuse and neglect
	You are approached by a fellow EMT who asks you which organization created the EMT-Basic national standard curriculum, your best answer would be, A. US Department of Labor B. World Health Organization C. Centers for Disease Control D. US Department of transportation	D. US Department of transportation
	An EMT who ceases to provide care for a patient and ceases that care before formally transferring the patient to a equal or higher authority is guilty of A. proximal cause B. abandonment C. assault and battery D. scope of practice negligence	B. abandonment
	An EMT who starts an intravenous line, going beyond his/her scope of practice can be guilty of A. breach of duty B. abandonment C. negligence, duty to act D. negligence, proximal cause	A. breach of duty
	Of the following, the most appropriate example of expressed consent is, A. 17 year old male unconscious B. 62 year old female complaining of chest pains who dialed 911 C. 4 year old female with a fever D. 66 year old dementia patien	B. 62 year old female complaining of chest pains who dialed 911
	At a crime scene, the EMT primary responsibility is A. Securing a perimeter B. Patient Care C. aiding in evidence collection D. diagnosing the injury	B. Patient Care
	Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline are called ______________. A. proximal B. distal C. lateral D. medial	C. lateral
	This structure prevents food from entering the trachea A. nasopharynx B. pharynx C. bronchi D. epiglottis	D. epiglottis
	If the patient is lying face up, he or she is in the ____________ position. A. prone B. trandelenberg C. supine D. lateral recumbent	C. supine
	Blood returning to the heart from the body will first enter the A. right ventricle B. right atrium C. left ventricle D. left atrium	B. right atrium
	There are this many bones in the human body A. 206 B. 202 C. 204 D. 203	A. 206
	The normal respiratory rate for a child is A. 80 to 100 B. 60 to 90 C. 15 to 30 D. 10 to 20	C. 15 to 30
	What structure prevents food from entering the trachea? A. nasopharynx B. carina C. alveoli D. epiglottis	D. epiglottis
	Your partner is completing the ambulance run report for a patient who was complaining of abdominal pain, he asks you the quadrant where you would find the liver, your best answer would be A. Right Upper Quadrant B. Right Lower Quadrant C. Left Upper Quadrant D. Left Lower Quadrant	A. Right Upper Quadrant
	The thoracic spine contains how many vertebrae A. 7 B. 12 C. 5 D. 4	B. 12
	These are bones of the lower leg A. radius and ulna B. scapula and clavicle C. carpals and tarsals D. tibia and fibula	D. tibia and fibula
	Capillary refill time is most accurate as an assessment tool for perfusion in patients A. less than 6 years of age B. less than 1 year of age C. greater than 8 years of age D. greater than 18 years of age	A. less than 6 years of age
	Something an EMT can see or measure during a patient assessment is called a A. symptom B. history C. sign D. chief complaint	C. sign
	The pressure inside the arteries each time the heart contracts is referred to as the __________ pressure A. diastolic B. pulse C. mean D. systolic	D. systolic
	The term diaphoretic refers to A. pupil reaction B. skin temperature C. skin condition D. skin color	C. skin condition
	The most appropriate location to obtain a pulse for a responsive adult is the ______________ artery A. brachial B. femoral C. carotid D. radial	D. radial
	The characteristics of a pulse include A. rate, strength and rhythm B. rate, ease and rhythm C. rate, depth and rhythm D. rate, strength and quality	A. rate, strength and rhythm
	The first set of vital sign obtained on any patient is referred to as the A. historical vitals B. ongoing vitals C. baseline vitals D. serial vitals	C. baseline vitals
	Which of the following best describes the term "chief complaint" A. Dispatcher information received via radio B. family members information received on a conscious alert patient C. the patients description of his illness or injury D. the past medical history given by the family	C. the patients description of his illness or injury
	When going from a well lit room to a darker room, you as an EMT would expect the normal pupil to: A. not react at all B. dilate C. constrict D. fluctuate	B. dilate
	Which of the following is most accurate when describing a palpated blood pressure A. It includes only the diastolic pressure B. It includes only the systolic pressure C. Obtainable without a blood pressure cuff D. It must be taken on a responsive patient	B. It includes only the systolic pressure
	Body mechanics refers to: A. mechanical workings of the body of the stretcher B. use of a patient's body weight to facilitate lifting C. the sum in pounds of all rescuers on scene D. the dynamics of the EMT's body while lifting	D. the dynamics of the EMT's body while lifting
	You are treating the victim of a motor vehicle collision who has an altered mental status and suspected cervical injury. Her condition is deteriorating rapidly. Which of the following moves is most appropriate for this patient? A. direct B. urgent C. emergency D. non urgent	B. urgent
	Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding lifting A. You should communicate with your partner before lifting B. An even number of people must be used when lifting C. You should use your legs not your back when lifting D. When practical and safe patients should be lifted rather than wheeled.	D. When practical and safe patients should be lifted rather than wheeled.
	You are called to care for a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing. You locate the patient in a second floor back bedroom. After examining the patient and determine that he should not walk to the ambulance. Your best device to transport this patient to the ambulance would be. A. basket stretcher B. wheeled stretcher C. flexible stretcher D. stair chair	D. stair chair
	The vest type extrication device is used when a patient: A. is transferred from a hospital bed to a stretcher B. is involved in a motor vehicle collision C. is transported over rough terrain D. has rib fractures	B. is involved in a motor vehicle collision
	Which of the following would not call for the use of an emergency move. A. Moving a patient with an altered mental status from a stable vehicle B. removing a patient from a car that is on fire C. moving a stable patient out of the to access a patient in cardiac arrest D. removing a patient away from a wall that is about to collapse	A. Moving a patient with an altered mental status from a stable vehicle
	Of the following devices, the one that is most inappropriate for an unconscious patient would be: A. stair chair B. basket stretcher C. long backboard D. wheeled stretcher	A. stair chair
	A 16-year-old female falls from a distance you determine to be four times greater than her height causing her a head injury. The preferred method to secure this patient would be: A. a long spine board B. a basket stretcher C. a wheeled stretcher D. a stokes stretcher	A. a long spine board
	When performing a log roll to get a patient properly on a long board, the reaching technique includes: A. reaching with the low back arched B. keeping your head as low as possible C. leaning from the hips with your back locked D. extending and locking the elbows	C. leaning from the hips with your back locked
	In transferring a supine patient to a stretcher, which of the following methods would be least appropriate if spinal injuries are suspected? A. extremity carry B. direct carry C. direct ground lift D. draw sheet method	A. extremity carry
	Of the following respiratory rates, the one most associated with infants is: A. 12-20 per minute B. 16-22 per minute C. 15-30 per minute D. 25-50 per minute	D. 25-50 per minute
	Which of the following is not part of the bag valve mask system? A. oxygen tubing B. reservoir bag C. nasal adjunct D. clear face mask	C. nasal adjunct
	Which of the following is most likely an indication of inadequate breathing? A. a pulse oximetry reading of 95% B. snoring respirations while sleeping C. externally audible wheezing D. slow and deep respirations while at rest	C. externally audible wheezing
	A 2-year-old child was reported to have been choking on a foreign body while in his high chair, and became unresponsive just prior to your arrival. The first step you should take to open and maintain his airway is to: A. use a jaw-thrust maneuver B. measure and insert an oral airway C. perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver D. roll him into recovery position	C. perform a head-tilt chin-lift maneuver
	When a patient is showing signs of inadequate breathing, the first step the EMT should take is: A. apply high concentration oxygen B. assure that the airway is open and will remain open C. expose the chest and stabilize any fractures D. insert and airway adjunct and suction as necessary	B. assure that the airway is open and will remain open
	A means of correcting blockage of the airway by moving the jaw forward without tilting the head is termed: A. chin-lift maneuver B. jaw-forward maneuver C. head-tilt maneuver D. jaw-thrust maneuver	D. jaw-thrust maneuver
	The greatest disadvantage for one rescuer ventilating a patient with a BVM is: A. not squeezing the bag fast enough B. not squeezing the bag hard enough C. obtaining a proper mask seal on the face D. there is no disadvantage	C. obtaining a proper mask seal on the face
	You need to ventilate a child patient with a BVM while using the jaw-thrust maneuver. Preferably ventilations will be delivered : A. over 1 - 1 1/2 seconds B. over 1 1/2 - 2 seconds C. before securing the pop-off valve D. after you have confirmed that there is no suspected spinal injury	A. over 1 - 1 1/2 seconds
	Ventilating a patient with a pocket mask requires that the EMT be able to do all of the following except: A. suction and properly insert an airway adjunct prior to ventilating B. maintain a good mask seal over the patient's mouth and nose C. maintain a good mask seal over the patient's mouth only D. hold the mask firmly in place while maintaining the proper head tilt	C. maintain a good mask seal over the patient's mouth only
	As a general rule for suctioning the upper airway of a patient, the suction is applied: A. before, during, and on the way out of the oropharynx B. after insertion of the catheter tip into the oropharynx and on the way out C. while guiding the catheter around the airway adjunct D. after measuring the catheter	B. after insertion of the catheter tip into the oropharynx and on the way out
	When your general impression is that a patient appears to have an altered mental status, the first person whom you try to get medical information from is: A. the patient B. a friend or neighbor C. the caretaker or parent D. the patient's physician	A. the patient
	In which of the following cases would a rapid trauma assessment be most appropriate? A. a patient with a significant MOI B. a trauma patient who is a low priority for transport C. a trauma patient who is conscious with a neck injury D. a patient involved in a MVC 2 days ago and today is unable to get out of bed due to low back pain	A. a patient with a significant MOI
	The SAMPLE history for a medical patient does not include the patient's: A. age B. primary symptom C. history of smoking D. history of the last trip to the hospital	A. age
	Which of the following conditions would lead you to suspect that a conscious patient has a potentially serious airway problem? A. epistaxis B. broken jaw and nose C. patient with active tuberculosis D. drooling as a result of a dental procedure	B. broken jaw and nose
	Crepitation is an abnormal finding of the _______and will typically be discovered during the rapid trauma assessment. A. flank B. skull C. scalp D. abdomen	B. skull
	The last component of scene size-up is determining: A. which level of PPE to don B. the need for additional resources C. when it is safe for your crew members to proceed into the scene D. none of the above	B. the need for additional resources
	Upon arrival at a scene where a vehicle is off the road in the woods, you find that the windshield is broken out and is lying on the hood. The driver is behind the wheel and appears to be unrestrained and unconscious. While you begin your approach to the vehicle, your partner does a perimeter sweep for: A. snakes B. signs of any hunters in the area C. other occupants who may have been ejected D. any personal items that may have been tossed from the vehicle	C. other occupants who may have been ejected
	On the scene of a construction site accident, witnesses state that the patient fell to the ground from a height of 25 feet. The patient is alert, oriented, and denies any pain or injury. Which of the following statements is least accurate? A. If the patient has no pain, there is no cervical injury. B. The MOI is reason enough to take cervical precaution. C. It is possible to have a broken neck without having any pain. D. Anyone who falls from a height of 25 feet is likely to have a cervical injury.	A. If the patient has no pain, there is no cervical injury.
	You are assisting a small child with positive pressure ventilations. You know the ventilations are adequate when: A. there are equal breath sounds B. the skin color improves C. there is a good mask seal and the chest rises D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	Which of the following scenes would be the least dangerous to enter prior to the arrival of any other support such as police or fire department? A. vehicle engine fire B. patient struck by lightning C. yelling and fighting inside a first-floor apartment D. hazardous materials incident from a leaking 55-gallon drum	B. patient struck by lightning
	Standard radio operating procedures are created and designed to: A. reduce the number of misunderstood messages B. get the units back in service as soon as possible C. allow dispatch to know where all units are at all times D. keep users from using complicated codes in their transmissions	A. reduce the number of misunderstood messages
	In the EMS profession, times are recorded in military time because: A. fire departments and police agencies use it B. it helps to minimize documentation and recording errors C. the government has ultimate oversight over such matters D. compliance is mandated by the American Medical Association	B. it helps to minimize documentation and recording errors
	Which of the following factors directly interferes with effective radio communication of patient information to the hospital? A. background noise B. patient's condition C. training level of EMS provider D. the EMS provider's years of experience	A. background noise
	You are caring for a 4-year-old who seems to be frightened of you and your crew. How can you appear less threatening and begin effective communication with the patient? A. Let the parent be the liaison for you. B. Tell the patient that you are not the police and promise her a toy. C. Use an authoritative tone and tell the child you will not give her any shots. D. Keep a friendly smile on your face and kneel down to her height as you speak.	D. Keep a friendly smile on your face and kneel down to her height as you speak.
	The_______is responsible for giving the report of the patient to the hospital staff. A. ambulance driver B. most senior crew member C. EMT-B in charge of the patient D. highest-ranking crew member	C. EMT-B in charge of the patient
	Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT-B will first provide the staff with a _______report about the patient. A. rapid B. verbal C. written D. controlled	B. verbal
	A 30-year-old female with a history of asthma is complaining of difficulty breathing and chest tightness. She appears anxious and slightly confused, yet you can hear her wheezing. Which of the following medications will you assist her with? A. albuterol B. oral glucose C. nitroglycerin D. epinephrine auto-injector	A. albuterol
	Bronchodilators, antihistamines, and antihypertensives are all examples of: A. forms of medications B. routes of medications C. classifications of medications D. medications the EMT-B can assist the patient with	C. classifications of medications
	Which of the following is a route for administering medication? A. gas B. syrup C. sublingual D. suspension	C. sublingual
	_______ are a form of medication consisting of liquids with solid particles mixed within them, but not dissolved. A. Syrups B. Tinctures C. Solutions D. Suspensions	D. Suspensions
	For the patient who is experiencing an asthma attack, the EMT-B should first assist the patient with _______ followed by: A. oxygen and the patient's inhaler B. the patient's inhaler and a position of comfort C. a position of comfort and the patient's inhaler D. oxygen and an epinephrine auto-injector	A. oxygen and the patient's inhaler
	The most significant side effect of epinephrine is: A. anxiety B. increased heart rate C. decreased blood pressure D. decreased respiratory rate	B. increased heart rate
	Liquids that contain dissolved drugs are called: A. solutions B. suspensions C. suppositories D. transdermals	A. solutions
	You have been dispatched to a seizure call. When you arrive, the patient is unresponsive, breathing, and has a pulse. A family member reports that the patient has diabetes and just finished having a second seizure, with a brief period of alertness between the two seizures. Which medication should you assist the patient with? A. oxygen B. oral glucose C. activated charcoal D. prescribed nitroglycerin	A. oxygen
	Activated charcoal works with poisons that have been: A. inhaled B. injected C. ingested D. all of the above	C. ingested
	Your unit has been dispatched to the high school for an allergic reaction to a bee sting. In the school nurse's office, a 16-year-old female is sitting up and appears very ill. She is working hard to breathe, is pale and moist, one side of her face is swollen, and she has hives on her neck and arms. The nurse reports that the patient's pulse is 130, weak and regular, and that her BP is 78/40. The patient has a history of allergies to bee stings and used her epinephrine auto-injector shortly after being stung on the face approximately 20 minutes ago. What is the patient's present condition? A. She is potentially unstable. B. She is in anaphylactic shock. C. She is experiencing hypotension as a side effect of the epinephrine. D. She has signs and symptoms of a possible reaction to epinephrine as well as the bee sting.	B. She is in anaphylactic shock.
	For the child who is experiencing respiratory distress due to asthma or bronchiolitis, _______ is the most important treatment the EMT-B can provide. A. oxygen B. rapid transport C. a bronchodilalator D. a prescribed inhaler	A. oxygen
	You are using a BVM to assist ventilations for a 7-year-old child who has severe breathing distress. You squeeze the bag once every ______ seconds. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6	A. 3
	All of the following patients are having breathing difficulty. For which one would you need medical direction to assist in emergency medical care? A. a 14-year-old female with asthma, who is wheezing after gym class B. a 30-year-old female with a respiratory rate of 30 after a near fainting event C. an 18-month-old infant who choked on a hot dog and is breathing without distress upon initial assessment D. a postictal seizure patient who is awake but confused, with a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute	A. a 14-year-old female with asthma, who is wheezing after gym class
	The three signs of adequate air exchange are: A. regular rhythm, inability to speak, and warm and pink skin B. alert mental state, equal breath sounds, and a regular rhythm C. high pulse oximetry reading, unilateral breath sounds, and no wheezing D. a rate of 12 to 20 breaths per minute in an adult, pink and dry skin, and unequal chest rise and fall	B. alert mental state, equal breath sounds, and a regular rhythm
	In forming a general impression of the patient, the EMT-B can rapidly assess for adequate air exchange by: A. noting the skin color B. getting a pulse oximetry reading C. assuring an open and patent airway D. observing movement of the diaphragm	A. noting the skin color
	A person with breathing distress may be found in a tripod position because this position: A. prevents air trapping in the upper airways B. reduces pressure in the pulmonary vessels C. allows more expansion of the rib cage and lungs D. helps to prevent excessive use of accessory muscles to breathe	C. allows more expansion of the rib cage and lungs
	You have decided to assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask for a patient with severe breathing difficulty. You know you are providing effective ventilations when: A. the chest rises with each ventilation B. the pulse oximetry reading is above 95% C. the patient begins to fight or pushes you away D. there is little or no resistance squeezing the bag	A. the chest rises with each ventilation
	For the patient who is having breathing difficulty, a _______ is indicated whenever the patient needs oxygen, has a good respiratory effort, and is not apneic. A. nasal cannula B. bag-valve mask C. simple face mask D. non-rebreather mask	D. non-rebreather mask
	You are assessing and treating a patient who is in respiratory distress. Which of the following signs would give you the indication to assist the patient with bag-valve ventilations? A. decreased wheezing respirations and increased retractions B. a slowing pulse rate and decrease in mental status C. respiratory rate of 10 and change in pulse rate from 68 to 48 bpm D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	_______ is an abnormal condition that results in a collection of air in the pleural space of the chest; it can cause one or both lungs to collapse. A. Pleurisy B. Pneumonia C. Pneumothorax D. Tension pneumothorax	C. Pneumothorax
	Which of the following statements about early defibrillation is most correct? A. V-tach with or without a pulse will always result in death without early defibrillation B. In cardiac arrest due to V-fib, the rhythm will deteriorate into a nonshockable rhythm after two minutes C. In cardiac arrest due to asystole, the victim has a better chance of survival with an AED than with CPR D. A sudden death patient has the best chance of survival when an AED is available (and used) before EMS arrives at the victim's side	D. A sudden death patient has the best chance of survival when an AED is available (and used) before EMS arrives at the victim's side
	When delivering the first three shocks with an AED, the EMT-B should: A. check for a pulse between each shock, because the AED cannot verify a pulse B. not check for a pulse between each shock, to avoid delay in delivering the shocks C. check for a pulse between each shock, to be sure the patient does not have a pulse D. always check for a pulse before and after each shock, to avoid unnecessary shock	B. not check for a pulse between each shock, to avoid delay in delivering the shocks
	When two EMT-Bs with an AED arrive at the side of a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse, they should first: A. perform CPR for 1 minute, call for more help, and attach the AED B. apply the AED as quickly as possible and check for a shockable rhythm C. place the patient on a long backboard, then check for a shockable rhythm D. perform CPR for 3 minutes, then attach the AED and assess for a shockable rhythm	B. apply the AED as quickly as possible and check for a shockable rhythm
	Which of the following situations indicates a need to use an AED? A. a 60-year-old cancer patient who is unresponsive, is not breathing, and has no pulse B. an 8-year-old who is unresponsive after being hit in the chest with a soccer ball, but has a pulse C. a 54-year-old male who is complaining of severe chest pain, and has profuse sweating and no distal pulse D. an unresponsive elderly patient in a nursing home who was found in bed and who is not breathing, but has a pulse	A. a 60-year-old cancer patient who is unresponsive, is not breathing, and has no pulse
	When you ***** the the pulse of your patient, you find the pulse to be steady and irregular. Preferably, you can best obtain an accurate rate by: A. Attaching the AED and monitoring the rhythm B. Counting the number of beats for one complete minute C. Auscultating with a stethoscope for 2 minutes D. Counting the beats for 30 seconds and then times that number by 2	B. Counting the number of beats for one complete minute
	For the victim of cardiac arrest with a return of pulses and respirations, a critical component of post resuscitation would be: A. Provide Emergency Shock Treatment B. Rapid Transport C. Airway Management D. C-Spine Stabilization	C. Airway Management
	Defibrillating a patient with an AED is considered to be _______ because the energy is delivered to the patient through remote adhesive pads. A. hands-on B. hands-off C. dangerous D. spontaneous	B. hands-off
	You arrive at a 12 year old male near-drowning patient. Initially the patient was pulseless and apnic. After one shock from you AED, he is breathing and has a pulse. Which of the following complications can you expect with this type of patient? A. vomiting B. hypoxia C. hypothermia D. all the above	D. all the above
	You have successfully converted a witnessed cardiac arrest with three shocks from the AED. The patient now has a pulse, is breathing, and is awakening. At this point you should: A. cancel ALS and transport B. be prepared for the patient to arrest again C. take the AED off the patient and transport D. be prepared to give the patient nitroglycerin if chest pain returns	B. be prepared for the patient to arrest again
	Which of the following group of patient complaints is an indication for the use of nitroglycerin. A. Chest tightness, weakness and labored breathing B. Shortness of breath, slurred speech, and hemiparalysis C. Wheezing and tingling in the hands and arms D. General Malaise with a near syncopal episode	A. Chest tightness, weakness and labored breathing
	An abnormal surge of electrical signals in the brain is known as a(n) A. convulsion B. coma C. seizure D. epileptic fit	C. seizure
	Which of the following is NOT one of the assessment findings in the Cincinnati Pre-hospital Stroke Scale? A. Facial Droop B. Headache C. Arm Drift D. Abnormal Speech	B. Headache
	Which of the following patients can be said to have an altered mental status A. a 27 year old female diabetic who is awake but staring off into space and unable to recall what year it is. B. An 18 year old male who drunk a large amount of alcohol and responds to painful stimuli C. a 38 year old male freely admitted to using cocaine and is threatening to kill himself. D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	The family of an elderly woman has called EMS because they had noticed during lunch she had a brief period of looking stunned, followed by a change in speech. Your assessment reveals no neurological disabilities. You suspect: A. Onset of Dementia B. Hypoglycemia C. TIA or Mini stroke D. Hypertension	C. TIA or Mini stroke
	Of the following, the one that is not a characteristic of the Glasgow Coma Scale A. eye opening B. verbal response C. motor response D. grip strength	D. grip strength
	The condition in which a patient experiences prolonged or multiple seizures without regaining consciousness is known as: A. status asthmaticus B. status epilepticus C. grand mal D. tonic clonic	B. status epilepticus
	Your primary concern in caring for any patient with an altered mental status is A. finding the cause of the altered mental status B. getting a good medical history C. maintaining airway and breathing problems D. C-Spine stabilization	C. maintaining airway and breathing problems
	The period of time in which a patient has an altered mental status following a seizure is known as the _______ phase. A. postictal B. petit mal C. grand mal D. generalized	A. postictal
	Fibrinolytics are most effective when they can be administered within ________ hours following the onset of stroke symptoms. A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12	A. 3
	The EMT-B should consider altered mental status in elderly patient to be associated with ______________ until proven otherwise A. Stroke or TIA B. Tachycardia C. neglect D. hypoxia or hypoglycemia	D. hypoxia or hypoglycemia
	Bladder infection, called cystitis, is more common, especially in _______. A. Women B. Men C. Toddlers D. Infants	A. Women
	An open wound to the abdomen that results in the abdominal contents protruding through the wound is known as an A. pneumothorax B. evisceration C. hemothorax D. dissection	B. evisceration
	The thin membrane that lines the entire abdominal cavity is known as the: A. Peritinitis B. diaphragm C. peritoneum D. acute abdomen	C. peritoneum
	This organ forms digestive juices and is the source of insulin. A. gallbladder B. pancreas C. kidney D. appendix	B. pancreas
	Perceived pain at a distant point of the body caused by irritation of the visceral peritoneum is called: A. generalized pain B. generic pain C. proximal pain D. referred pain	D. referred pain
	You are to assist a patient with a slightly altered mental status to take some oral high concentration glucose gel. Prior to this, you most appropriate action should be to: A. Sample the gel to determine potency B. prepare suction C. Call for ALS D. Confirm a diabetic history and check for diabetic medications	D. Confirm a diabetic history and check for diabetic medications
	When the blood sugar falls to a hypoglycemic state, the longer a patient remains hypoglycemic the more likely there will be: A. urinary incontinence B. a drop in blood pressure C. a fruity smell on the breath D. permanent damage to brain cells	D. permanent damage to brain cells
	The mother of an 11-year-old patient who is unresponsive and has a history of diabetes tells you that they checked the blood sugar reading an hour ago and it was 130mg/dl. No trauma was involved, so you suspect that: A. there may have been a medication dosing error B. the patient's glucometer is not properly calibrated C. the cause of the altered mental status is low blood sugar until proven otherwise D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	When caring for a patient with a possible diabetic problem, the EMT-B should call medical direction: A. only if ALS is not available B. according to local protocols C. only if the patient appears to be going into respiratory arrest D. after completing a focused history and physical exam and before beginning treatment	B. according to local protocols
	One method of assisting a conscious diabetic patient with an altered mental status is to place oral high concentration glucose gel between the cheek and gum. This method works to improve mental status by: A. reducing the risk of hypoxia B. stimulating the release of insulin C. increasing a person's sensitivity to insulin D. the rapid absorption of glucose through a highly vascular area	D. the rapid absorption of glucose through a highly vascular area
	For a diabetic patient who meets the criteria, the quick administration of oral glucose by the EMT-B means that: A. a diabetic emergency is being managed appropriately B. blood sugar levels will return to normal within 30 minutes C. the patient may complain of abdominal pain after awakening D. transport to the hospital will not be necessary once the patient awakens	A. a diabetic emergency is being managed appropriately
	Which of the following conditions in a diabetic patient, left untreated, can cause altered mental status due to hypoglycemia? A. infection B. wheezing C. asthma attack D. traumatic injury	A. infection
	The wife of an unresponsive patient who has a history of diabetes tells you that she tried to give her husband orange juice prior to your arrival but was unsuccessful. The patient has an open airway, is breathing adequately, and has a strong pulse. The management steps for this patient include: A. rapid transport, serial vital signs, and a detailed physical exam while en route B. high flow oxygen, monitor vital signs, contact medical control, and transport C. assist with oral glucose gel under the tongue, obtain vital signs, and transport D. assist with oral glucose gel between the cheek and gum, obtain vital signs, and perform a focused history and physical exam	B. high flow oxygen, monitor vital signs, contact medical control, and transport
	The function of insulin is to: A. carry sugar from the blood into the cells B. carry sugar from the cells into the blood C. break down glucagon and create energy D. prevent too much sugar from being released into the bloodstream	A. carry sugar from the blood into the cells
	Orange juice, non-diet sodas, and oral gel-type glucose are all: A. high concentration glucose products that may be ingested to raise blood sugar B. not to be used at any time for diabetic patients C. contraindicated for use in patients with diabetes D. dangerous for type I diabetics	A. high concentration glucose products that may be ingested to raise blood sugar
	Which of the following is not an indication for the use of an epinephrine auto-injector? A. The patient has a history of multiple allergies. B. The patient has signs and symptoms of severe allergic reaction. C. Medical direction has authorized the use of the auto-injector online. D. Medical direction has authorized the use of the auto-injector offline.	A. The patient has a history of multiple allergies.
	At a standby for a soccer game, a parent approaches you with her 8-year-old son who has two bee stings on his lower leg. The mother tells you that she removed the stingers but she would like you to look at the child. Which of the following findings would you consider significant, requiring treatment by EMS? A. swelling of the lips B. the child is crying C. local swelling at the site of the sting D. all of the above	A. swelling of the lips
	The form of epinephrine that comes in an auto-injector is a : A. gel B. liquid C. spray D. crystal	B. liquid
	Which group of symptoms suggests an allergic reaction that has not progressed to anaphylaxis? A. wheezing, abdominal cramps, and nausea B. hives on the upper arms, sweating, and confusion C. blotches and itching on the arms, back, chest, and thighs D. pale skin color, dizziness, and rash on the chest and arms	C. blotches and itching on the arms, back, chest, and thighs
	The dose of epinephrine in an auto-injector is _____mg for adults and _____mg for pediatrics. A. 0.3, 0.15 B. 3.0, 1.5 C. 1.5, 0.3 D. 0.03, 0.015	A. 0.3, 0.15
	_______ is the generic name for the medication in an auto-injector prescribed for severe allergic reactions. A. Epi-Pen B. Adrenalin C. Epinephrine D. Bronchodilator	C. Epinephrine
	Which of the following side effects is typical with the use of epinephrine in anaphylaxis? A. seizure B. tachycardia C. nausea or vomiting D. headache or dizziness	B. tachycardia
	A patient who is experiencing an allergic reaction might have which of the following findings associated with the upper airway? A. stridor B. wheezing C. bronchospasm D. pulmonary edema	A. stridor
	For the patient with signs and symptoms of progressive allergic reaction, the EMT-B should contact medical control: A. as soon as possible B. only when signs and symptoms become severe C. only when signs of respiratory distress are present D. only if administration of the first epinephrine auto-injector does not begin to work within 10 minutes	A. as soon as possible
	You are obtaining a focused history from a patient with suspected poisoning. Which of the following questions is of least significance for the EMT-B? A. How much was ingested? B. When did the poisoning occur? C. Has this substance been ingested before? D. What, if anything has been done for treatment so far?	C. Has this substance been ingested before?
	A 16-year-old female is suspected of taking multiple prescriptions in a suicide attempt. She is unresponsive to pain with the following vital signs: respirations 8, shallow and inadequate; pulse 58, regular; BP 100/40. Your first steps in managing this patient include: A. hyperventilating the patient with a BVM B. suctioning and administering high flow oxygen by non-rebreather mask C. attempting oropharyngeal airway insertion and assisting ventilations with a BVM D. inserting a nasopharyngeal airway and administering high flow oxygen by non-rebreather mask	C. attempting oropharyngeal airway insertion and assisting ventilations with a BVM
	The police have called you to transport an intoxicated patient. You assess a 52-year-old male who is conscious, but has slurred speech, smells of alcohol, has filthy clothing, and does not answer your questions appropriately. Management of this patient will include: A. performing a detailed physical exam and being alert for vomiting or seizures B. getting him on the stretcher and letting him sleep during transport to the hospital C. obtaining vital signs, assessing for incontinence, and removing his clothing prior to arrival at the hospital D. obtaining vital signs and performing a physical exam while being alert for any other causes of altered mental status	D. obtaining vital signs and performing a physical exam while being alert for any other causes of altered mental status
	The most significant findings associated with signs and symptoms of poisoning are: A. age-related B. headache and seizures C. changes in the size of the pupils D. those that affect the ABCs	D. those that affect the ABCs
	Two women custodians who used cleaning products in a confined space for approximately one hour are now complaining of dizziness and nausea. They deny difficulty breathing, chest pain, or vomiting. Lung sounds are clear and neither of them has red eyes or tearing. The emergency medical care for these patients begin with: A. decontaminating the patients B. calling the poison control center for the instructions C. locating the material safety data sheet (MSDS) D. removing them from the confined area and providing high-flow oxygen	D. removing them from the confined area and providing high-flow oxygen
	Of the following statements, which is most correct regarding the signs and symptoms of poisoning? A. The effects of toxic substances will not be immediately apparent. B. Signs and symptoms vary widely and depend on the substance and amount taken into the body. C. Any time a toxic substance is taken into the body, the patient will have signs of an altered mental status. D. Any patient with a decreased pulse and respiratory rate should be considered for exposure to a toxic substance.	B. Signs and symptoms vary widely and depend on the substance and amount taken into the body.
	A contractor accidentally splashed liquid chlorine into his face. He is alert and breathing adequately, but complains of severe burning pain in both eyes. The initial management for this patient includes: A. calling medical control for advice prior to touching him B. not touching the patient until the fire department arrives to decontaminate him C. removing the patient's clothing and continuously irrigating the eyes and face D. irrigating the eyes and face for five minutes, administering high flow oxygen, and rapid transport	C. removing the patient's clothing and continuously irrigating the eyes and face
	_______is a toxic substance that is typically introduced to the body by absorption. A. Lead paint B. A pesticide C. Carbon monoxide D. A poisonous mushroom	B. A pesticide
	The most dangerous toxic substances affect the _______system(s). A. respiratory B. nervous C. endocrine and gastrointestinal D. respiratory, nervous, and endocrine	D. respiratory, nervous, and endocrine
	Due to the unpleasant appearance of activated charcoal, it should be administered by: A. putting a blindfold on the patient B. pinching the nose shut and closing the eyes C. having the patient close her eyes and chug D. sipping through a straw out of a foam cup	D. sipping through a straw out of a foam cup
	A group of water skiers were on the lake practicing when one went down in the water. He was unconscious when pulled from the water and brought to shore. When you arrive, he is awake but does not recall what happened. What should you do next? A. Consider that the patient may be hyperthermic. B. Attempt to obtain a SpO2 and blood glucose reading. C. Consider that the patient may have a heart condition. D. Take spinal precautions and prepare to fully immobilize the patient.	D. Take spinal precautions and prepare to fully immobilize the patient.
	A healthy person with a mild to moderate heat exposure might be expected to have which of the following signs and symptoms? A. shock B. weak pulse C. altered mental status D. nausea and vomiting	D. nausea and vomiting
	You have been called to care for a person found lying outside in the snow. you find the patient, who is cold and shivering. This person has lost a significant amount of body heat in a short time, primarily by means of: A. radiation B. conduction C. convection D. evaporation	B. conduction
	If rapid cooling is not begun for the victim of a severe heat disorder, _______ may result. A. hypertension B. hypoglycemia C. congestive heart failure D. permanent brain damage	D. permanent brain damage
	For a victim of prolonged cold exposure, which of the following signs indicates the condition is critical? A. frost nip B. urinary incontinence C. decreased mental status D. decreased fine motor function	C. decreased mental status
	Which of the following signs and symptoms of heat exposure are most severe? A. confusion or dizziness B. any compromise to the ABCs C. muscle twitching and sweating D. increased body temperature and intense thirst	B. any compromise to the ABCs
	You have just discovered a person who has been exposed to the cold for a prolonged period of time and has frostbite on a distal extremity. Which signs and symptoms can you expect to find? A. the extremity will appear white and feel numb B. the extremity will look shriveled, but have normal color C. the extremity will feel cold, look red, and the patient will have severe pain D. the extremity will appear black and blue and the patient will have severe pain	A. the extremity will appear white and feel numb
	The EMT-B can recognize dehydration associated with prolonged exposure to heat by the patient's: A. sweaty skin B. inability to sweat C. past medical history D. signs and symptoms	D. signs and symptoms
	A 60-year-old male went to get the newspaper and fell in his driveway between high snow banks. He lay there for nearly an hour before being discovered. He is alert, cold, wet, and appears to have a severely deformed open fracture of his ankle. The steps in management of this patient include: A. move him out of the cold, splint the ankle, administer high flow oxygen, and transport rapidly B. check ABCs, splint the ankle, move the patient into the ambulance, remove his wet clothing, and provide warmth C. check ABCs, remove the wet clothing, splint the ankle and control any bleeding, and move the patient out of the cold and provide warmth D. control any bleeding, splint the ankle and elevate the leg, administer high flow oxygen, move the patient into the ambulance, and transport	B. check ABCs, splint the ankle, move the patient into the ambulance, remove his wet clothing, and provide warmth
	It is a hot day and you see a sun worshiper tanning in the park. She is spraying a water mister to keep cool. What method of cooling is she enjoying? A. radiation B. convection C. conduction D. evaporation	D. evaporation
	_______ involves great medical and legal considerations for the EMT-B. A. Treating a victim of assault B. Caring for the victim of a rape C. Physically restraining a patient D. Attempting resuscitation of a victim of a suicide	C. Physically restraining a patient
	Which of the following characteristics is typically an unassociated risk factor for suicide? A. paranoia B. serious illness C. lack of self-esteem D. the loss of a significant loved one	A. paranoia
	When managing a patient who is experiencing a behavioral emergency, it is necessary to: A. begin crisis intervention after the initial assessment B. allow the police to be included in all phases of the call C. begin crisis intervention after the focused physical exam D. assess for physical causes that may mimic a behavioral emergency	D. assess for physical causes that may mimic a behavioral emergency
	Abnormal behavior that results from a crisis in a person's life is interpreted as a/an: A. emotion B. adaptive behavior C. emotional disorders D. behavioral emergency	D. behavioral emergency
	A sign indicating that a patient may become violent is: A. memory loss B. the patient raising his tone of voice C. unusual odors on the breath D. the appearance of being withdrawn	B. the patient raising his tone of voice
	Factors that may cause unusual changes in a patient's behavior include: A. genetics and a history of emotional illness B. severity of injury and perceived degree of pain C. past experiences and the severity of the current illness D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	A factor that may cause an individual to become violent on the scene of an EMS call include the: A. age of the patient B. gender of the patient C. history of depression D. patient's perception of the EMT-B	D. patient's perception of the EMT-B
	Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the potential for a crisis situation? A. the reaction to a crisis will be the same for each individual B. every illness or injury is associated with some type of psychological stress C. the patient in crisis usually has a history of drug or alcohol dependency D. a person with a previous emotional illness is most likely to lapse into a crisis situation	B. every illness or injury is associated with some type of psychological stress
	You are assessing a patient who may have experienced a fainting episode. He is now awake but is acting very strangely. Which of the following conditions should you consider first as being the cause? A. pain B. hypoxia C. abnormal blood sugar D. history of personality disorder	B. hypoxia
	You are faced with the problem of having to transport a patient against his will, because he poses a possible danger to himself or others. It is necessary to: A. display authoritative and threatening actions B. impose a physical assessment on the patient C. follow local protocols together with medical control D. assure the patient that he will not be able to harm anyone while in your care	C. follow local protocols together with medical control
	During emergency childbirth, which of the following factors should the EMT-B be alert for as a possible cause of an airway problem? A. nausea and vomiting B. the patient biting her tongue during a contraction C. the patient holding her breath during a contraction D. the patient putting her face in a pillow to scream	A. nausea and vomiting
	The priority in care of the baby as the head delivers is: A. suctioning the airway B. assessing the skin CTC C. wiping the eyes clear of fluid with a sterile pad D. not to stimulate the infant to breathe until it is delivered	A. suctioning the airway
	A pregnant 32-year-old patient, in the third trimester, is complaining of severe abdominal pain, which began suddenly. She denies any vaginal bleeding or discharge. When you palpate her abdomen, you find that the uterus is rigid. What life-threatening condition do you suspect? A. preeclampsia B. placenta previa C. abruptio placenta D. ectopic pregnancy	C. abruptio placenta
	An obstetric kit usually includes one or two large plastic bags, which are used for: A. transporting the placenta B. wrapping the baby's head for warmth C. catching any vomitus from the mother D. catching amniotic fluid lost from childbirth	A. transporting the placenta
	When preparing the mother for delivery in emergency childbirth, the EMT-B should: A. use only absolutely sterile equipment B. allow the mother to go to the toilet before she delivers C. allow the husband or friend to be present during delivery D. allow only one other person to be present during delivery	C. allow the husband or friend to be present during delivery
	Immediately after the baby's head is delivered, the next step in assisting with a delivery is to: A. prepare to deliver the upper shoulder B. prepare to deliver the lower shoulder C. check for the cord around the baby's neck D. wipe the head off so that it is not so slippery	C. check for the cord around the baby's neck
	When delivery of the placenta occurs in the pre-hospital setting, the EMT-B is required to bring the placenta to the hospital for which of the following reasons? A. proper disposal B. blood typing C. stem cell research D. inspection of completeness	D. inspection of completeness
	During the transport of a woman in active labor, the patient tells you that the baby is coming. You examine her and find the baby crowning. The hospital is 5 minutes away, so now you: A. stop the ambulance and assist with the delivery B. continue transport and assist with the delivery en route C. continue transport and tell the mother to close her legs until you arrive D. continue transport and instruct the mother not to push with contractions	A. stop the ambulance and assist with the delivery
	The umbilical cord may be safely cut by: A. using a sterile, sharp knife B. snipping with sterile scissors C. slicing with a sterile surgical blade D. each of the above	D. each of the above
	Injuries that pierce the surface of the body and damage internal tissues and organs is referred to as: A. Penetrating Trauma B. Blunt Force Trauma C. Kinetic Trauma D. Potential Trauma	A. Penetrating Trauma
	Penetrating trauma caused accidentally with an object or intentionally with a weapon, such as a knife is: A. Low Energy B. Medium Energy C. High Energy D. Low Velocity	A. Low Energy
	You are discussing a recent motor vehicle accident where you treated a 33 year old male for a pelvic injury suffered during the collision. When asked how an injury occurs in a collision your response is that Kinetic energy: A. of a vehicle in motion is converted into the work of stopping the car, usually by crushing the car’s exterior. B. of a moving object, calculated as 1/2 m x v2, where m = mass (weight) and v = velocity (speed). C. converted to work on the body dictates the severity of the injury. D. all the above	D. all the above
	The energy mostly associated with the energy of falling objects. A. Potential Energy B. Kinetic Energy C. Quasi Systemic Energy D. Workforce Energy	A. Potential Energy
	A 22 year old man complains of back pain from a fall. From your training, you attempt to assess the height from which your patient fell. This is important because a fall from _______ times the patient's height is a severe mechanism of injury A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5	B. 3
	The basic physical concepts that dictate how injuries occur and affect the human body are referred to as. A. Trauma guideline B. Medical Threat Assessment C. Kinematics D. Forward motion	C. Kinematics
	The way in which traumatic injuries occur or the forces applied to the body that cause injury which can be assessed in our scene size up is:. A. Kinematics of Trauma B. Mechanism of Injury C. Medical Threat Assessment D. Newtons Law	B. Mechanism of Injury
	Objects at rest tend to stay at rest and objects in motion tend to stay in motion unless they are acted upon by some force is: A. Newtons 1st Law B. Newtons 2nd Law C. Newtons 3rd Law D. No law listed	A. Newtons 1st Law
	The result of force to the body that causes injuries without penetrating soft tissues or internal organs is known as: A. Penetrating Trauma B. Blunt Force Trauma C. Potential Trauma D. Kinetic Trauma	B. Blunt Force Trauma
	Significant mechanisms of injury include: A. Severe deformities of the frontal part of a vehicle, with or without intrusion to the passenger compartment B. Severe damage from the rear C. Collisions in which rotation is involved (rollovers and spins) D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	Which of the following signs is not a reliable finding associated with internal bleeding? A. tarry stool B. bowel sounds C. rigid abdomen D. blood in the urine	B. bowel sounds
	Abdominal trauma is the second leading cause of trauma death, because: A. most abdominal trauma occurs in children B. blunt trauma to the abdomen is always overlooked C. significant blood loss occurs before signs of distention are apparent D. injury to solid organs can produce severe bleeding that progresses rapidly	D. injury to solid organs can produce severe bleeding that progresses rapidly
	The severity of a hemorrhage can best be described by which of the following factors? A. arterial versus venous bleeding B. internal versus external bleeding C. how much blood has been lost D. the age and height of the patient	C. how much blood has been lost
	When you suspect that a patient is bleeding internally, the interventions you provide will be rapid because definitive care is: A. often surgical B. accomplished on scene C. available at any hospital D. performed en route to the hospital	A. often surgical
	A tourniquet applied on an extremity to control a life-threatening bleed is: A. used on lower extremities only B. used on upper extremities only C. no longer used in the prehospital setting D. a method of last resort to control bleeding in the prehospital setting	D. a method of last resort to control bleeding in the prehospital setting
	Early signs that a patient has intraabdominal bleeding include: A. hypertension, headache, and nausea B. hyperventilation, hypoxia, and constipation C. bradycardia, hypotension, and irregular pulse D. sustained tachycardia and normal or low blood pressure	D. sustained tachycardia and normal or low blood pressure
	_______ is the most common serious infectious disease that is transmitted by exposure to external bleeding. A. HIV B. Hepatitis C. Meningitis D. Tuberculosis	B. Hepatitis
	A woman called 9-1-1 after she accidentally cut her arm with a utility knife. She has wrapped a cloth around the arm and it is soaked through with dark red blood. You suspect that the bleeding is: A. venous B. arterial C. capillary D. life-threatening	A. venous
	The method of using elevation to control external bleeding works best when: A. the wound is below the waist B. ice has been applied to the wound C. the wound is raised above the level of the heart D. the wound is more than 2 inches in length or diameter	C. the wound is raised above the level of the heart
	Which of the following is not considered a serious exposure as a result of managing a hemorrhage? A. spray into the mouth B. splatter into the eye(s) C. contact with broken skin D. soaking the uniform pant leg	D. soaking the uniform pant leg
	When used for the treatment of suspected pelvic fractures, the PASG helps by: A. pushing blood out of the area of the fracture B. redirecting blood back into the area of the fracture C. stabilizing the suspected fracture site D. increasing the patient's heart rate	C. stabilizing the suspected fracture site
	The rider of a motorcycle was traveling at a moderate speed when she was cut off by a car and knocked to the ground. The patient is conscious now, but bystanders report that she was unconscious for about a minute. Her helmet is cracked and both her thighs appear to have closed fractures. Her airway is clear; skin CTC is pale, moist, and cool; and her vital signs are: respirations 18, adequate; pulse 126, regular; BP 80/40. Your management of this patient will be to treat for: A. compensating shock due to the head injury B. decompensating shock due to the head injury C. compensating shock due to the internal bleeding D. decompensating shock due to the internal bleeding	D. decompensating shock due to the internal bleeding
	Each additional minute spent on the scene for a patient with life-threatening traumatic injuries: A. increases the trauma score B. increases the criteria for rapid transport C. reduces the patient's chance for survival D. reduces the time it takes for ALS to reach the patient	C. reduces the patient's chance for survival
	The mother of a 12-year-old male has called you because her son fainted. Your initial assessment finds a patient who is conscious, pale, and moist with a weak, rapid pulse. The patient denies any recent injury or illness and his mother agrees; also, he has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Your initial treatment plan is to: A. prepare for vomiting B. consider the use of MAST/PASG C. administer high flow oxygen and treat for shock D. perform a focused physical exam of the abdomen	C. administer high flow oxygen and treat for shock
	The decision to provide rapid transport for a trauma patient is typically based on: A. the MOI B. signs of shock C. external bleeding D. signs of shock and/or the MOI	D. signs of shock and/or the MOI
	A woman has called EMS because her husband fainted this morning. He is lying in bed and appears very weak and pale. There is a strong odor of stool and the wife confirms that the patient has had diarrhea and vomiting during the night and all morning. The vital signs are: respirations 24, labored; pulse 110, regular but weak; BP 70/40. After you administer high flow oxygen, the next steps in the emergency medical care of this patient include: A. providing rapid transport only B. attaching the AED, requesting an ALS intercept, and beginning rapid transport C. requesting ALS and preparing the patient for transport while waiting for ALS to arrive D. elevating the legs, providing warmth, beginning rapid transport, and requesting ALS intercept	D. elevating the legs, providing warmth, beginning rapid transport, and requesting ALS intercept
	The skin signs of a patient experiencing hypoperfusion include: A. cold, white, and dry B. cool, pale, and moist C. hot, cyanotic, and dry D. hot, flushed, and moist	B. cool, pale, and moist
	Dispatched for a traumatic injury, you arrive on the scene to find a 50-year-old male who has nearly cut off one of his fingers with a chainsaw. He is pale and has beads of sweat on his forehead. A family member has a cold wet bandage on the finger and has controlled the bleeding. Your initial assessment of this patient prompts you to treat this patient for _______ shock. A. cardiogenic B. psychogenic C. compensating D. decompensating	B. psychogenic
	A 52-year-old male patient with symptoms of nausea, dizziness, and vomiting blood has a history of gastric reflux. His vital signs are: respirations 24, adequate; pulse 120, regular; BP 96/50; skin CTC cool, moist, and pasty-looking. Management of this patient should include: A. oxygen by cannula, observation for vomiting, and routine transport B. high flow oxygen, position of comfort, warmth, and routine transport C. supine with legs flexed for comfort, high flow oxygen, and rapid transport D. supine position, high flow oxygen, warmth, rapid transport, and call for ALS	D. supine position, high flow oxygen, warmth, rapid transport, and call for ALS
	The three sources of electrical burns are: A. first, second, and third degree B. arcing, contact, and flash burns C. open, closed, and partial penetration D. superficial, partial thickness, and full thickness	B. arcing, contact, and flash burns
	Before providing the correct emergency care for a burn, the EMT-B needs to determine the: A. age of the patient B. source of the burn C. weight of the patient D. medications the patient is taking	B. source of the burn
	One advantage of quickly applying a dressing to an open would on a child is: A. that the child will always stop crying B. the child will gain trust in the EMT-B C. it will help hide the severity of the injury from the child D. that the parents or caregiver will be more compassionate	C. it will help hide the severity of the injury from the child
	One of the major functions of the skin is: A. production of fat tissue B. temperature regulation C. the formation of white blood cells D. the release of glucose into the blood	B. temperature regulation
	When a significant portion of a person's skin is involved in a burn injury, that person is at high risk for _______ shock. A. spinal B. cardiogenic C. anaphylatic D. hypovolemic	D. hypovolemic
	A full thickness burn affects: A. every layer of the skin B. only the dermis and epidermis C. more than 30 percent BSA in adults D. more than 15 percent BSA in children	A. every layer of the skin
	Persons who suffer a burn injury are at risk for infection: A. with any burn B. only with third degree burns C. when the severity is full thickness or greater D. when the severity is partial thickness or greater	D. when the severity is partial thickness or greater
	You have been called to care for the victim of a flash burn. The scene is safe and the patient is sitting down with coworkers who are helping him cool his face with a wet cloth. His entire face and neck is red and he states that he cannot see and that his eyes and face hurt. This burn can be classified as: A. superficial B. fourth degree C. full thickness D. partial thickness	A. superficial
	First responders have immobilized a 23-year-old male who was knocked off an ATV after striking a tree. They report that he is complaining of neck and back pain, and he has a large contusion on his forehead and a very large hematoma on his left flank. Before you begin your examination, you put on your minimum level of PPE, which includes: A. gloves B. gloves and a mask C. gloves and eye protection D. gloves, eye protection, and a mask	A. gloves
	A thermal burn that damages the epidermis and a portion of the dermis, excluding the muscle tissue, is classified as _______ degree. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth	B. second
	A very small foreign object, such as a grain of sand lying on the surface of the conjunctiva may: A. cause irritation in the opposite eye B. cause blindness in one eye C. produce severe irritation D. cause no irritation whatsoever	C. produce severe irritation
	You are treating your 24 year old female patient who is complaining of a severe headache. You assess her pupil reaction and not them to be PEARL. Your partner is not sure what this means. Your best explanations would be that PEARL refers to:	A. The pupils are round, equal in size, and react equally when exposed to light.
	As a result of a foreign object in the eye, your body will naturally A. cause blindness in the affected eye B. produce tears in an attempt to flush out the object C. cause irritation in the opposite eye D. have no effect whatsoever	B. produce tears in an attempt to flush out the object
	Delicate membrane covering the inner surface of eyelids and surface of eye is called the: A. pupil B. Conjunctiva C. Iris D. Vitreous	B. Conjunctiva
	Circular muscle with a central opening that changes size to allow light to enter is known as the: A. pupil B. iris C. optic nerve D. lens	B. iris
	You are asked by the home improvement supervisor why did you cover the uninjured eye as well as the injured eye. You should respond: A. Any questions regarding the patient is confidential therefore you may not comment. B. You direct him to call the ED and ask a physician C. You explain that the uninjured eye will naturally scan causing movement in the injured eye possibly causing further injury. D. Ignore the supervisor	C. You explain that the uninjured eye will naturally scan causing movement in the injured eye possibly causing further injury.
	The clear transparent membrane that allows light to enter is known as the: A. iris B. pupil C. conjunctiva D. cornea	D. cornea
	This transmits signals from nerve endings in the retina to the brain? A. retina B. iris C. cornea D. optic nerve	D. optic nerve
	The light-sensitive area at the back of the globe with numerous nerve endings is known as the: A. retina B. optic nerve C. lens D. cornea	A. retina
	You respond to a report of an eye injury at your local home improvement supercenter. Upon arrival you are directed to the hardware section and advised that an employee was struck in the face by falling debris. You immediately recognize a piece of copper wire impaled in the employee's left eye. You best course of action would be to: A. not remove the object impaled in the eye B. stabilize the object and prepare the patient for transport to definitive care C. Cover the injured and uninjured eye D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	Your 4 year old male patient has lodged a small bead inside his ear. Please select the statement that is incorrect in treating this patient. A. Select an appropriate tool and remove the foreign body B. Never try to manipulate the foreign body. C. Note any CSF draining from the ears. D. Leave in place and transport to the ER	A. Select an appropriate tool and remove the foreign body
	The opening in skull where brain and spinal cord meet is called the: A. medula oblongata B. foramen magnum C. occiput D. brain stem	B. foramen magnum
	Your 22 year old male patient is complaining of a severe nose bleed. Please select the incorrect statement regarding treatment. A. Place patient in a sitting position B. apply direct continuous pressure by pinching the fleshy portion of the nostril together C. allow the patient to out his head back and swallow the residual blood D. obtain baseline vitals	C. allow the patient to out his head back and swallow the residual blood
	The weakest area of the skull are the: A. temporal and occipital B. parietal and occipital C. frontal and temporal D. basilar and temporal	D. basilar and temporal
	The layers of the meninges in order from skull to brain are: A. dura, arachnoid, pia B. arachnoid, pia, dura C. dura, pia, arachnoid D. pia, arachnoid, dura	A. dura, arachnoid, pia
	The portion of the brain responsible for vital functions such as respiration and cardiac activity is the: A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brainstem D. medula oblongata	C. brainstem
	Of the following, which is not part of the facial bones? A. zygomas B. mandible C. occiput D. maxillae	C. occiput
	The eye socket is commonly called the: A. orbit B. mastoid C. maxilla D. carpal	A. orbit
	Of the following statements regarding nasal injuries, please select the one inconsistent with nasal injuries. A. The nose often takes the brunt of deliberate physical assaults and car crashes. B. Nasal injuries are rarely a threat to the airway. C. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may escape through the nose or ears after a fracture at the base of the skull. D. Injuries to the nose may be associated with fractures and soft-tissue injuries of the face, head, and/or cervical spine.	B. Nasal injuries are rarely a threat to the airway.
	Simple nose bleed are referred to as: A. epistaxis B. hemoptysis C. coagulate D. sinusitis	A. epistaxis
	A collection of blood in the sac surrounding the heart is known as a(n) A. pleural space B. pericardial tamponade C. pneumothorax D. hemothorax	B. pericardial tamponade
	A common complication from an open chest injury is a(n): A. evisceration B. perforation of the ulcer C. pneumothorax D. ruptured aorta	C. pneumothorax
	Your patient is a 8 year old female whose 11 year old brother jumped from a couch onto his chest as she was lying on the ground. The patient head and neck are bluish in color and she is presenting JVD. Your partner asks you what you suspect might be the problem. Your best answer would be: A. paradoxal motion B. pneumothorax C. tension pneumothorax D. traumatic asphyxia	D. traumatic asphyxia
	A sign of a chest injuries includes hemoptysis, which is defined as? A. urinating blood B. blood collecting around the pericardium C. coughing up blood D. none of the above	C. coughing up blood
	Simply stated, an infection of the lung tissue is commonly called: A. pluera sickness B. pneumitis C. pneumonia D. hemoptysis	C. pneumonia
	Chest trauma may include injury to any of the following except the: A. aorta B. pancreas C. heart D. sternum	B. pancreas
	When air leaks into the chest from a weak area in the nontrauma lung surface, causing the lung to collapse is termed a(n) A. spontaneous pneumothorax B. mediastinal shift C. tension pneumothorax D. hemopneumothorax	A. spontaneous pneumothorax
	When one section of the chest moves in opposite direction form the rest of the chest during inspiration we note this as: A. paradoxial motion B. crepitus C. pnuemothorax D. tension pneumothorax	A. paradoxial motion
	Occlusive dressings taped on three sides are most appropriate for which type of injury? A. closed abdominal wounds B. open abdominal wounds C. closed chest wounds D. open chest wounds	D. open chest wounds
	Of the following statements which one is incorrect regarding the mechanism of ventilation? A. during inspiration, the intercostal muscles contract and the diaphragm flattens B. during expiration, the intercostal muscles relax C. during normal inspiration, the intercostal muscles of the ribs retract D. C3 - C4 - and C5 are directly related to respirating	C. during normal inspiration, the intercostal muscles of the ribs retract
	In regards to the female genitalia, which of the following statements is false? A. Injuries to the female genitalia are very painful, therefore allow the patient to find a position of comfort. B. If the vagina is bleeding, pack the vagina with dry sterile dressing in order to control the bleeding C. generally although painful, these injuries are not life threatening D. If you suspect a sexual assault, immediately report this to the police.	B. If the vagina is bleeding, pack the vagina with dry sterile dressing in order to control the bleeding
	The best treatment for an avulsion of the skin of the penis is to: A. wrap the penis in a soft sterile dressing B. use direct pressure to control any bleeding C. preserve the avulsed skin D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	You respond to a report of an industrial accident. Upon your arrival you find your 25 year old male patient supine with piece of fencing protruding from his abdomen. Consider the following statements for accuracy and determine which one is not correct. A. Inspect the patients anterior and posterior for entrance and exit wounds B. If safe to do so, remove the object to control the bleeding. C. Apply a sterile dry dressing around the object to minimize movement. D. administer high concentration oxygen via non rebreather mask	B. If safe to do so, remove the object to control the bleeding.
	Blunt abdominal wounds may cause A. laceration of the liver and spleen B. tears in the mesentery C. rupture of the bladder D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	When hollow organs are ruptured or lacerated, the contents of the organ will spill over into the peritoneal cavity causing severe abdominal pain. This condition is called: A. acute abdomen B. abdominal aneurysm C. peritonitis D. abdominal distention	C. peritonitis
	When internal organs protrude from an abdominal wound it is referred to as an: A. Abdominal Anuerysm B. Aortic Anuerysm C. Abdominal Evisceration D. Acute abdomen	C. Abdominal Evisceration
	Seatbelts occasionally cause blunt injuries of the abdominal organs. This is due to:. A. A failure to attach the seatbelt B. the seatbelt being to narrow in its design C. the seatbelt lying to high D. none of the above	C. the seatbelt lying to high
	The most common sign of significant abdominal injury is: A. tachycardia B. bradycardia C. decreased blood pressure D. pale cool skin	A. tachycardia
	Which of the following is NOT a landmark of the abdomen? A. Pubic Symphysis B. Costal Arch C. Illiac Crest D. Mid Clavicular Line	D. Mid Clavicular Line
	When a splint is incorrectly applied, which of the following conditions may occur? A. increased bleeding B. increased swelling and pain C. increased circulation distal to the injury D. increased circulation proximal to the injury	B. increased swelling and pain
	Muscles are named according to their: A. size B. shape C. location D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	Which of the following type of splint is commonly used for musculoskeletal injuries involving the shoulder, humerus, elbow, and forearm? A. air splint B. rigid splint C. traction splint D. sling and swathe	D. sling and swathe
	A fracture that occurs through a process of weakening from disease is called a/an _______ fracture. A. epiphyseal B. pathological C. osteoporotic D. nondisplaced	B. pathological
	After falling on an outstretched hand, a 14-year-old male appears to have a dislocation of the right elbow. This type of injury is serious and require cautious management during immobilization due to the: A. age of the patient B. potential for excessive blood loss C. proximity of the radial artery to the injury site D. proximity of the brachial artery to the injury site	D. proximity of the brachial artery to the injury site
	The intercostal muscles of the chest are classified as_______ muscle. A. skeletal B. smooth C. cardiac D. tensile-strength	A. skeletal
	Splinting a long-bone fracture in _______ will prevent further damage to blood vessels, bones, and muscles. A. a straight position B. an elevated position C. a position of comfort D. the position it is found	A. a straight position
	A metabolic function of support provided by the skeletal system is the: A. production of blood cells B. destruction of blood cells C. regulation of blood glucose D. stimulation of hair and nail growth	A. production of blood cells
	The thorax (rib cage), spinal column, and skull are bones that: A. stimulate muscle growth B. protect organs of the body C. aid in movement of the body D. contain storage sites for hormones	B. protect organs of the body
	When splinting a dislocation, the EMT-B should immobilize the injury in the _______ while maintaining a good blood supply distal to the injury. A. straight position B. elevated position C. lowered position D. position of comfort for the patient	D. position of comfort for the patient
	When you are using a short spine board device to immobilize a patient who has a potential cervical injury, the patient's head is manually stabilized until the: A. torso straps are secure B. patient's torso and head are secured to the device C. short spine board is secured to the long backboard D. short spine board is set in place between the patient and the seat	B. patient's torso and head are secured to the device
	Two skaters collide hard during a hockey game and one did not get up. The skater who is down is the goalie and he is complaining of neck pain and a loss of sensation in his legs. When you and your partner attempt to place his head in a neutral position, prior to removing his helmet, he complains of increased pain. Which immobilization technique is appropriate for this patient? A. Immobilize him in the position found, with his helmet on B. Immobilize him in the position found, with his helmet off C. Make another attempt to bring his C-spine into a neutral position D. Cut away his uniform and the straps prior removing his helmet and placing a cervical collar	A. Immobilize him in the position found, with his helmet on
	The patient with a suspected spinal injury is immobilized in a neutral position because: A. this position reduces stability B. it is the most perpetual position for the spinal column C. this position allows maximum comfort for the patient D. this position allows the most space for the spinal cord	D. this position allows the most space for the spinal cord
	Which of the following hazards would preclude the EMT-B from using a short spine board on a stable patient with a potential spine injury? A. broken glass from a driver's door B. powder residue from a deployed airbag C. exposed metal produced by extrication tools D. smoke coming from the engine compartment	D. smoke coming from the engine compartment
	When removing a helmet from an unconscious patient, the EMT-B stabilizing the head will place one hand on each side of the helmet and: A. instruct the patient to open her mouth B. instruct the helper to apply the cervical collar C. support the patient's mandible with the EMT-B's fingers D. do nothing until the helper has applied the cervical collar	C. support the patient's mandible with the EMT-B's fingers
	The primary goal in caring for a potential spinal injury is to: A. apply a rigid collar B. prevent further injury C. increase lung expansion D. maintain a neutral position	B. prevent further injury
	A child was knocked unconscious at a Little League game by a ball that struck him in the temporal skull area. When you first arrived he was awake, but now he is becoming unconscious again. The patient is at risk for: A. dental trauma B. vision disturbances C. vomiting and aspiration D. hemorrhage from an avulsion	C. vomiting and aspiration
	_______ cushion(s) and protects the brain and spinal cord from outside impact. A. Receptors B. Motor nerves C. Sensory nerves D. Cerebrospinal fluid	D. Cerebrospinal fluid
	Why is the long backboard the ideal device for splinting the entire spine when a cervical injury is suspected? A. No collar totally eliminates neck movement B. The long backboard splints the spine as if it were a long bone C. It would be difficult to hold manual stabilization throughout the entire call D. All of the above	D. All of the above
	Which of the following signs or symptoms is an indication of a potential spinal injury? A. poorly localized cervical pain B. stable cervical spinous processes C. no deficit or loss of PMS in one or more extremities D. lateral neck and shoulder pain with active movement	A. poorly localized cervical pain
	_______ is a sign of respiratory distress that is observed in children, but rarely seen in adults. A. Grunting B. Coughing C. Choking D. Wheezing	A. Grunting
	A first-time mother of a 10-week-old infant calls EMS because her baby is not acting right. The baby appears to be struggling to breathe and the mother states that the baby did not want to drink her bottle. You assess the baby and find that her nose is congested with mucus, and you hear congestion in her breathing. The next step you take is to suction the: A. nose with a bulb syringe B. mouth with a bulb syringe C. nose with a rigid-tip catheter D. mouth with a rigid-tip catheter	A. nose with a bulb syringe
	Which of the following is the primary cause of cardiac arrest in children? A. motor vehicle accidents B. toxic ingestion C. infection/sepsis D. respiratory arrest	D. respiratory arrest
	The small airways of the pediatric patient are prone to obstructions from: A. secretions B. head position C. foreign bodies D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	During the first year of life, the heart rate of an infant slows to an average of _______ beats per minute. A. 120 B. 140 C. 160 D. 180	A. 120
	Which of the signs of respiratory distress indicates the most severe distress in a child? A. grunting and crying B. stridor and coughing C. wheezing and sneezing D. slow and gasping breaths	D. slow and gasping breaths
	The respiratory system of the infant is different from that of an older child or an adult in that the: A. lung tissue is less fragile B. lung capacity is increased C. accessory muscles are immature and fatigue easily D. chest wall is more rigid, causing diaphragmatic breathing	C. accessory muscles are immature and fatigue easily
	A respiratory rate of 20 to 30 breaths per minute is normal for each of the following age groups, except: A. toddlers B. preschool C. school-age D. adolescents	D. adolescents
	Which of the following is an indirect measure of end-organ perfusion? A. urine output B. capillary refill C. mental status D. distal versus proximal pulse	A. urine output
	You are helping to teach a CPR class, and your station is foreign body airway obstruction in the unresponsive child with no injuries. When you teach your students to open the airway, you demonstrate the: A. jaw-thrust maneuver B. cross-finger technique C. tongue jaw-lift maneuver D. head-tilt chin-lift maneuver	D. head-tilt chin-lift maneuver
	Which of the following findings is not associated with signs of sexual abuse in children: A. hearing or speech deficit B. difficulty walking C. difficulty sitting D. fear of men or women	A. hearing or speech deficit
	Children are at high risk for injury to internal organs of the chest in a traumatic event, because: A. of the improper use of child restraints in motor vehicles B. of the lack of use of child restraints in motor vehicles C. their developing bones are not as strong as mature bones D. injury from child abuse is more prevalent in the chest area	C. their developing bones are not as strong as mature bones
	Which of the following statements is most correct regarding child abuse? A. Child abuse is a crime. B. Not every EMT-B is required to report suspected child abuse. C. When abuse is suspected, the initial assessment of the child is modified. D. Some form of alcohol or drug use is always associated with child abuse.	A. Child abuse is a crime.
	A baby with mouth and gum lacerations may suggest abuse with an MOI of: A. improper nourishment B. shaken baby syndrome C. a bottle being repeatedly forced into the mouth of a baby D. sexual abuse	C. a bottle being repeatedly forced into the mouth of a baby
	Which of the following statements is most correct about the special considerations for taking pediatric vital signs? A. Most adult emergency medical equipment will fit pediatric patients. B. The EMT-B should memorize the normal BP values for each age group. C. An adult BP cuff can be used to obtain an accurate BP on a young child. D. The EMT-B should use a reference for vital sign values instead of memorization.	D. The EMT-B should use a reference for vital sign values instead of memorization.
	When documenting a call that involves suspected child abuse, the EMT is the ideal health care provider to: A. identify inappropriate interaction with the caregiver or parent B. provide information about the family's constant switching of the hospitals C. provide information about the condition of the child's home environment D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	An infant who experiences a fall from a height of three times her own is more likely to suffer a _______ injury than a child or adult falling from a proportionate height. A. head B. chest C. extremity D. abdominal	A. head
	Because of their disproportionate sizes, the _______ are injured more frequently in children than adults. A. chest and abdomen B. head and abdomen C. head, face, and neck D. airway and abdomen	C. head, face, and neck
	The causes of seizures vary for each age group, but the one cause that remains common in all pediatric age groups is: A. trauma B. congenital C. drug related D. alcohol related	A. trauma
	A family of four is traveling in a mini van was involved in a rollover collision. You have been assigned to assess and stabilize the 2 year old male is restrained in a car seat. The child complains of minor neck and back pain. The proper way to transport this patient is: A. immobilized in the car seat B. extricated to a KED C. extricated to a short back board D. on a long back board placed on your stretcher	A. immobilized in the car seat
	Patients straining to have a bowel movement can stimulate the vagus nerve. The heart rate may drop dramatically causing the patient to pass out or become dizzy. This is known as a: A. Syncopal Episode B. Near Syncopal Episode C. Vasovagal reaction D. Abdominal aortic aneurysm	C. Vasovagal reaction
	According to NREMT standard, geriatric patients are ______ years of age A. 55 B. 60 C. 65 D. 70	C. 65
	Which of the following is the chief component of connective tissues and bones which is lost with age. A. collagen B. elastin C. progestin D. ligament	A. collagen
	The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span is commonly known as? A. Cheyene Stokes Disease B. Dementia C. hypoglycemia D. acute cerebral vascular accident	B. Dementia
	Signs of elder abuse are often missed or unreported. This is due to: A. Signs being simply overlooked B. An inability to report the abuse C. A strong sense of pride and independence D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	All of the following are examples of appropriate communication techniques except, A. Looking Directly at the Patient B. Speaking Slowly C. shouting louder D. Identifying yourself	C. shouting louder
	Of the following, which is not a category of elder abuse? A. Alzhiemers B. physical C. psychological D. financial	A. Alzhiemers
	In order to provide patient treatment of a geriatric patient based on an adequate patient assessment, this tool is an essential necessity. A. Hearing amplification devices B. good communication C. access to medical history D. the Internet	B. good communication
	During your assessment of a 78 year old male complaining of chest pains, it is important to locate and document all medications that the patient is on. This is important to the emergency treatment of the patient because: A. Elderly patients may take both prescribed medications and OTC medications unknown to the private doctor which may interact with each other. B. Several different physicians may prescribe medication without knowing about the others C. The same medications may have different names. D. All of the above	D. All of the above
	The elderly may be less able to compensate for blood loss. This is due to: A. Decreased elasticity of the blood vessel B. taking medications for coronary heart disease C. taking blood thinning medication D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	Which of the following is NOT a common illness or injury among the elderly population? A. measles B. trauma C. aneurysm D. diabetes	A. measles
	Which of the following may prevent an elderly person from reporting or admitting to being abused or neglected? A. altered mental status B. fear of retribution C. shame or embarrassment D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	In reference to physiological changes in the respiratory system, all of the following are true except: A. Lung tissue increases in elasticity B. gag reflex may be diminished C. elderly people are more prone to pneumonia D. A CVA can cause difficulty in breathing	A. Lung tissue increases in elasticity
	In most states, geriatrics are aged ________ years and older. A. 40 B. 65 C. 70 D. 85	B. 65
	When maintaining the airway and ventilations of an elderly unresponsive patient, all of the following may be necessary except: A. padding under the head B. keeping dentures in place C. taking dentures out D. extreme hyperextension of the neck	D. extreme hyperextension of the neck
	Which of the following is not related to depression among the elderly? A. needing help with activities of daily living B. living independently C. food deprivation D. degrading comments	B. living independently
	Which of the following is true regarding the senses of the elderly. A. All elderly patients have hearing deficits B. A slightly delayed response to a question will indicate a hearing problem C. A prior stroke may cause problems with speech D. All elderly patients will have vision impairment	C. A prior stroke may cause problems with speech
	When backing up, the most effective method is to: A. Recheck your mirrors before moving B. Visually inspect the rear of the ambulance yourself prior to movement C. Use a spotter to help guide the ambulance when in reverse D. Operate the ambulance in the same manner as your personal vehicle	C. Use a spotter to help guide the ambulance when in reverse
	The following is not an important part of the vehicle check. A. fuel level B. exterior surfaces C. wipers D. fluid levels	B. exterior surfaces
	Weather including rain, snow, sleet and ice storms can limit visibility and make the road surfaces slippery. This will ____________ stopping distances A. Increase B. Decrease C. Mediate D. Have no effect at all	A. Increase
	When responding to the scene of a motor vehicle accident, the EMT should consider which of the following guidelines first. A. Use lights and sirens only if the need exists B. Notify the hospital with dispatch information C. Listen for status reports on the emergency scanner D. Disregard traffic signals if the incident warrants such	A. Use lights and sirens only if the need exists
	Vehicle maintenance checks should be performed at least: A. daily B. weekly C. biweekly D. monthly	A. daily
	You are called to the scene of a multiple vehicle collision involving a tanker truck. You note a placard on the truck. To quickly and safely determine the substance and its characteristics, you would refer to the: A. Emergency Response Guidebook B. Haz-Mat textbook C. Shipping papers located inside the truck D. No action necessary	A. Emergency Response Guidebook
	When operating an emergency vehicle with lights and sirens activated, the operator must exercise __________for the safety of other motorists and pedestrians. A. some caution B. reasonable caution C. prudent restraint D. due regard	D. due regard
	The most thing EMS staff can do to prevent the spread of disease is to: A. Sterilize the ambulance B. Continue to wear latex or vinyl gloves at the hospital C. Thoroughly Wash your hands D. Disinfect your stretcher	C. Thoroughly Wash your hands
	All are phases of the ambulance call except: A. Preparing Phase B. Transporting Phase C. Contact Phase D. Transferring phase	C. Contact Phase
	Using another emergency vehicle as an escort to the hospital is dangerous for: A. the patient B. the EMT C. other motorists D. all the above	D. all the above
	Once a vehicle has been stabilized, the first attempt to gain access to a patient in the vehicle should be to: A. locate an unlocked door B. force open the door nearest to the patient C. force open the door farthest from the patient D. use a centerpunch to eliminate the window	A. locate an unlocked door
	Resource awareness for the EMT means that he/she has enough knowledge to: A. determine patient stability B. recognize when it is not safe to gain access to a patient C. gain access to a patient for treatment purposes in any circumstance D. gain access to a patient for assessment purposes in any circumstance	B. recognize when it is not safe to gain access to a patient
	The phase of extrication that includes estimating the of the mechanism of injury to the patient is the ___________ phase A. transportation B. disentanglement C. scene size-up D. rapid trauma assessment	C. scene size-up
	While working in or near water, the EMT should use _________ as part of the minimum personal safety equipment. A. a rope bag rescue B. personal floatation device C. turnout pants D. SCBA	B. personal floatation device
	The objective of extrication is to: A. ensure the safety of the rescuer and the patient B. remove a patient from an entrapment preventing further injury to the patient C. develop specialized teams with skill for tactical removal D. develop a preplan that includes specialized equipment for various rescues	B. remove a patient from an entrapment preventing further injury to the patient
	The final component or phase of a extrication is: A. overhaul B. cleanup C. transportation D. patient packaging	C. transportation
	Extrication is a process in which actions are taken to free a patient entrapped in a: A. tunnel B. vehicle C. swimming pool D. all of the above	D. all of the above
	With the proper training and equipment, the EMT may participate in which phase of the rescue? A. size-up and hazard control B. gaining access to the patient C. body recovery D. medical assessment and treatment	D. medical assessment and treatment
	Which of the following items is not part of the minimum level of protective equipment for the EMT at the scene of a operation? A. Level A Haz Mat suit B. helmet C. turnout coat D. hearing and eye protection	A. Level A Haz Mat suit
	You have been dispatched with the Fire Department for two people stuck in an elevator. Upon your arrival, you learn the electricity is off due to an electrical fire within the building. Currently the building is being evacuated. Your best course of action is: A. Tape a sheet outside the elevator door to minimize the smoke entering to the victims B. Stay by the elevator and provide verbal instructions. C. Attempt to pass oxygen tubing through the escape portal in the elevator D. stand by until the fire department has extricated the victims	D. stand by until the fire department has extricated the victims

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