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344 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requestedby the host when it has not been accessed for a while? A. LRU B. HWM C. LWM D. MRU |
A. LRU |
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What does the area ID of the FC address identify? A. Group of ports within a switch B. An individual port within a fabric C. Location of the name server within the fabric D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric |
A. Group of ports within a switch |
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An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica ofapplication data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered? A. Source devices must be healthy B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts |
A. Source devices must be healthy |
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Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernetcommunications? A. Converged network adapter B. TCP Offload Engine NIC C. FCIP bridging adapter D. iSCSI host bus adapter |
A. Converged network adapter |
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What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing? A. Defining cloud service attributes B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services |
B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers |
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Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time? A. RecoverPoint B. NetWorker C. Avamar D. Data Domain |
A. RecoverPoint |
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What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) betweenhypervisors? A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address |
A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume |
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Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name? A. IQN B. EUI C. WWNN D. WWPN |
A. IQN |
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Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored andretrieved as it was received? A. Integrity B. Availability C. Security D. Performance |
A. Integrity |
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What describes a landing zone in a disk drive? A. Area on which the read/write head rests B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk |
A. Area on which the read/write head rests |
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What is a characteristic of unified storage? A. Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single managementinterface B. Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unified managementinterface C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualization products in one solution D. Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unified management interface |
A. Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface |
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What defines the time taken to position the read/write head across the platter with a radialmovement in a disk drive? A. Seek time B. Rotational latency C. Data transfer time D. Service time |
A. Seek time |
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What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing? A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications B. Eliminates consumer's IT operational expenditure C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in |
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications |
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Which statement describes a denial of service attack? A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone’s identity D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services |
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services |
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What is a key benefit of virtualization? A. Improved resource utilization B. Improved performance C. Enhanced interoperability D. Unlimited resource scaling |
A. Improved resource utilization |
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What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol? A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their featureswith other CEE devices B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtuallinks independently C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow downtheir transmissions D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoElink |
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with other CEE devices |
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What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data amongUNIX and Microsoft Windows users? A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically |
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa |
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Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand forresources dynamically? A. Rapid elasticity B. Resource pooling C. Measured service D. On-demand self-service |
A. Rapid elasticity |
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Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot? A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot D. Create a “Gold” copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk |
A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated |
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Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage? A. Metering B. Pooling C. Self-service requesting D. Publishing |
A. Metering |
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In the context of protecting the FC SAN infrastructure, what is an example of infrastructureintegrity? A. Preventing node login to the fabric without proper authorization B. Implementing iSNS discovery domains C. Implementing an FSPF algorithm to create a virtual SAN D. Not permitting physical segmentation of nodes |
A. Preventing node login to the fabric without proper authorization |
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What is true about parity-based RAID? A. Parity is updated each time a write is performed B. Parity is read each time a read is performed C. Parity is updated only when writes fill a stripe D. Parity is updated each time when both reads and writes are performed |
A. Parity is updated each time a write is performed |
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What is an accurate statement about a gateway NAS solution? A. NAS head and storage are managed independently B. Consolidates file-level and block-level access on a single storage platform C. Provides integrated management for both NAS head and storage D. Creates a single file system that runs on all NAS heads |
A. NAS head and storage are managed independently |
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What is prevented using RAID technology? A. Data loss B. Host Bus Adapter failures C. Security breach D. Switch failure |
A. Data loss |
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Which process minimizes the exposure to a loss of uncommitted cached data when there is apower failure? A. Cache vaulting B. Cache mirroring C. Low watermarking D. Prefetching |
A. Cache vaulting |
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What are the three elements of the risk triad from an information security perspective? A. Assets, threats, and vulnerabilities B. Actions, threats, and vulnerabilities C. Assets, threats, and countermeasures D. Assets, countermeasures, and vulnerabilities |
A. Assets, threats, and vulnerabilities |
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Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to request resources using a service catalog through a web-based user interface? A. On-demand self-service B. Broad network access C. Metered services D. Catalog management |
A. On-demand self-service |
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What is a purpose for distributing Switch Registered State Change Notifications (SW-RSCNs) in afabric? A. Updates the name server on all switches in the fabric B. Stops or slows down transmissions from other switches in the fabric C. Distributes configuration values and congestion notifications across the fabric D. Exchanges requests for change notifications among distributed management servers |
A. Updates the name server on all switches in the fabric |
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In the Fibre Channel protocol, what are functions of the FC-1 layer? A. Encoding and decoding B. Routing and flow control C. Interface mapping and flow control D. Transmission of raw bits and encoding |
A. Encoding and decoding |
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What is a security implementation in NAS environments? A. Kerberos B. Port binding C. S_ID Lockdown D. FC-SP |
A. Kerberos |
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In an FC SAN environment, what is a benefit of zoning? A. Restricts RSCN traffic B. Isolates fabric services C. Enables online volume expansion D. Provides non-disruptive data migration |
A. Restricts RSCN traffic |
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What is the RAID 5 write penalty for random, small write I/Os? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 |
C. 4 |
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Which EMC block-level storage virtualization product enables hosts from two different data centersto access a single copy of data? A. VPLEX B. VMAX C. VNX D. Vblock |
A. VPLEX |
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Which EMC product enables VNX array-based remote replication from a primary volume to asecondary volume residing on a different VNX storage system? A. MirrorView B. SnapView C. RepliStor D. SRDF |
A. MirrorView |
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A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has alimited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings.Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights? A. Incremental B. Cumulative C. Full D. Differential |
A. Incremental |
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What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS? A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster B. Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster C. Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster D. Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster |
A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster |
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In a Microsoft Windows file sharing environment, what is a function of system access control lists(SACL)? A. Determines object access information that needs to be audited B. Provides information on system access troubleshooting C. Uniquely identifies objects, users, and user groups D. Provides path name to access both inbound and outbound traffic |
A. Determines object access information that needs to be audited |
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What is an advantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other remote replicationmethods? A. Near zero RPO B. Near zero RTO C. No distance limitation D. Faster response time |
A. Near zero RPO |
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What is an advantage of sub-LUN tiering? A. Improved performance B. Enhanced reliability and availability C. Dynamic expansion of storage capacity D. Faster provisioning of thin LUNs |
A. Improved performance |
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Which fabric service is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to attached node ports? A. Fabric controller B. Name server C. Fabric login server D. Management server |
A. Fabric controller |
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Which SAN security mechanism will prevent a switch port from being enabled even after a switchreboot? A. Persistent Port Disable B. Port Binding C. Port Lockdown D. Persistent Switch Disable |
A. Persistent Port Disable |
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What does a block map contain in a file system snapshot? A. Address from which data is to be read when accessing the snapshot B. Original data when a write is issued to the target for the first time C. Blocks that have changed since the creation of the snapshot D. Blocks that have been modified in either the source or the target |
A. Address from which data is to be read when accessing the snapshot |
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What describes a full mesh topology? A. All switches are directly connected to each other B. Consists of core and edge switch tiers C. Requires four switches D. Requires two ISL hops for host to storage traffic |
A. All switches are directly connected to each other |
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What is a characteristic of pointer-based virtual replication? A. Replica is immediately available after activation of a replication session B. Replica device is at least as large as the source device C. Replica is available only after detachment from the source D. Source does not need to be healthy for the restore |
A. Replica is immediately available after activation of a replication session |
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When using the image-based backup approach to backup a virtual machine, where does thebackup client run? A. Proxy server B. Hypervisor C. Virtual machine D. Backup device |
A. Proxy server |
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Which NAS implementation consolidates file-based and block-based access on a single storageplatform? A. Unified B. Scale-out C. Gateway D. Integrated |
A. Unified |
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Which data deduplication method increases the chance of identifying duplicate data even whenthere is only a minor difference between two documents? A. Variable-length segment B. Single-instance C. File level D. Fixed-block |
A. Variable-length segment |
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Which operation is performed by an FCoE switch when it receives a frame with an FCoEEthertype? A. Switch recognizes that the frame contains an FC payload and forwards it to the FC Forwarder B. Switch recognizes the frame as Ethernet and forwards it to the Ethernet bridge C. Switch recognizes the frame as FCoE and forwards it to the Ethernet bridge D. Switch recognizes that the frame contains an Ethernet payload and forwards it to the FCForwarder |
A. Switch recognizes that the frame contains an FC payload and forwards it to the FC Forwarder |
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What is a key advantage of data striping across multiple disks as compared to a single disk? A. Performance B. Space utilization C. Protection D. Capacity |
A. Performance |
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Which EMC product is a disk-based backup and recovery solution and provides source-based data deduplication? A. Avamar B. Data Domain C. NetWorker D. SourceOne |
A. Avamar |
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When a service is described as "three 9s available", what is the approximate amount of downtimeallowed per week? A. 10 seconds B. 10 minutes C. 10 hours D. 10 days |
B. 10 minutes |
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A customer's application uses five, 10 GB devices. A full volume local replica of the application isrequired every 4 hours. The customer requires each replica to be kept for 24 hours.In this situation, how many replica devices are required? A. 5 B. 20 C. 30 D. 50 |
C. 30 |
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What is a characteristic of an FC-SW implementation? A. Provides a dedicated path between nodes B. Nodes arbitrate to gain control of the data path to transfer data C. Only one node can perform an I/O operation at a time D. Supports up to 126 nodes |
A. Provides a dedicated path between nodes |
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Which functionality is offered by user access management software? A. Provides a user interface to browse the service catalog and request cloud services B. Enables a user to create VMs and allocate them to CPU, memory, and storage capacity C. Provides a user interface to view a consolidated view of existing physical and virtualinfrastructures across data centers D. Allows a user to monitor performance, capacity, and availability of physical and virtualresources centrally |
A. Provides a user interface to browse the service catalog and request cloud services |
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What are the key components of an intelligent storage system? A. Front-end, cache, back-end, and physical disks B. Host, connectivity, back-end, and storage array C. Switch, ports, back-end, and physical disks D. Host, LUNs, cache, and physical disks |
A. Front-end, cache, back-end, and physical disks |
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A customer requires additional storage capacity. The storage expansion must be fast andperformance is not a constraint. What is the most appropriate LUN expansion method? A. Concatenated metaLUN B. Striped metaLUN C. Base LUN D. Component LUN |
A. Concatenated metaLUN |
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Which iSCSI discovery mechanism requires manual configuration of the initiator with the target’snetwork portal? A. SendTargets discovery B. iSCSI service location discovery C. Internet Storage Name Service D. iSCSI domain name discovery |
A. SendTargets discovery |
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What is a characteristic of asynchronous remote replication? A. Only the last update is transmitted if there are multiple writes to the same location in the buffer B. Writes are committed to the target before being committed to the source C. Reads are always serviced from the target replica D. Distance between the two sites is restricted to less than 200 km |
A. Only the last update is transmitted if there are multiple writes to the same location in the buffer |
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What is a characteristic of Big Data? A. Structured and unstructured data generated by multiple sources B. Structured data generated by a single source C. Only unstructured data generated by multiple sources D. Structured and unstructured data generated by a single source |
A. Structured and unstructured data generated by multiple sources |
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A stripe depth of 64 KB has been assigned to a five-disk RAID 0 set. What is the stripe size? A. 64 KB B. 128 KB C. 256 KB D. 320 KB |
D. 320 KB |
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A user tries toupdate the content of a file stored on a CAS system. What is the result of thisoperation? A. CAS generates a new address for the altered content and stores it as anew object B. CAS uses the same contentaddress for the altered content and the original content C. CAS overwrites the originalcontent and generates a new content address D. CAS overwrites the original content but the content address is preserved |
A. CAS generates a new address for the altered content and stores it as a new object |
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Which EMC product provides target-based deduplication?
A. Data Domain B. Avamar C. NetWorker D. RecoverPoint |
A. Data Domain
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What are the two mechanisms that can be employed to address threats of user identity spoofing? A. User authentication and user authorization B. Access Control Lists (ACLs) and access control to storage objects C. Access control to storage objects and auditing D. User authentication and Information Rights Management (IRM) |
A. User authentication and user authorization
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What is the function of enhanced transmission selection in an FCoE environment? A. Provides available bandwidth to other classes of traffic when a particular class of traffic does not use its allocated bandwidth B. Provides the capability to independently pause transmission of FCoE frames over each virtual link C. Enables an FCoE switch to send a signal to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their transmissions D. Allows an FCoE switch to distribute configuration parameters to the converged network adapters |
A. Provides available bandwidth to other classes of traffic when a particular class of traffic does not use its allocated bandwidth
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Which benefit is provided by EMC PowerPath? A. Dynamic load balancing B. Deduplication of network traffic C. Multiplexing host traffic D. Segmentation of fabric to create VSANs |
A. Dynamic load balancing
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In a CAS environment, what is used to generate a content address? A. Binaries of the data B. Combination of data and metadata of the object C. Location of the object D. Object metadata |
A. Binaries of the data
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Click on the calculator icon in the upper left corner. An application uses 20, 10 GB devices. A pointer-based full volume replica of the application is required every 6 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 10% every 4 hours. How many replica devices are required? A. 20 B. 60 C. 80 D. 120 |
C. 80
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Which iSCSI naming feature uses a 16-character hexadecimal string? A. EUI B. IQN C. iSNS D. ARP |
A. EUI
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What describes a repudiation attack? A. An attempt to compromise accountability goals of the security B. Stealing a private key to decrypt the data-in-transit C. Unauthorized access to information to compromise confidentiality D. A series of repetitive attacks to the physical information infrastructure |
A. An attempt to compromise accountability goals of the security
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Click on the calculator icon in the upper left corner. A department within an organization requires 200 GB of storage for their business application. The production LUN is RAID 1+0 protected and has a local and remote replica. The local replica is on a RAID 1 LUN and the remote replica is on a five-disk RAID 5 LUN. If the cost per GB of storage is $2.00, what is the chargeback cost to the department for application storage? A. $1050 B. $1500 C. $2100 D. $2900 |
C. $2100
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What is a characteristic of an FC-AL implementation? A. Reserves one address for connecting an FC-SW port B. Supports connectivity up to 15 million nodes C. Devices can be added and removed dynamically without any impact D. Requires at least one connectivity device |
A. Reserves one address for connecting an FC-SW port
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Which iSCSI host connectivity option is recommended in a CPU-intensive application environment? A. iSCSI HBA B. NIC with software-based iSCSI initiator C. TCP offload engine D. Converged Network Adapter |
A. iSCSI HBA
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What is a characteristic of an enterprise flash drive? A. Uses semiconductor-based solid state media B. Performs data search and retrieval sequentially C. Performs rotational speed at more than 30000 rpm D. Writes once and reads many |
A. Uses semiconductor-based solid state media
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What defines the time taken to position the sector on the platter under the read/write head?
A. Rotational delay B. Seek time C. Response time D. Data transfer rate |
A. Rotational delay
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What is true about cache dirty page? A. Data that has changed but is not yet written to disk B. Data read from disk but not accessed by the host C. Data that has changed and has been written to disk D. Data requested by the host but not yet fetched |
A. Data that has changed but is not yet written to disk
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As your organization's SAN environment grows, you realize there is a greater need to manage SAN security. Which mechanism is required to prevent unauthorized activity on the FC fabric for management operations? A. Role-based access control B. Access control lists C. VSAN D. Zoning |
A. Role-based access control
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Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS when it receives a large write I/O from its clients? A. I/O is striped across multiple nodes for processing B. I/O is sent to the high performance node in the cluster for processing C. A new node is dynamically added to the cluster to process the I/O D. I/O is sent to the high storage capacity node in the cluster for processing |
A. I/O is striped across multiple nodes for processing
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When developing a disaster recovery plan, what is the result of choosing a particular recovery time objective for a system? A. Determines the type and location of the backup media B. Determines how often to take a backup of the system C. Determines how long to retain backup copies D. Determines how many transaction logs should be backed up |
A. Determines the type and location of the backup media
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Which operation writes data in cache, and immediately to disk, before sending an acknowledgement to the host? A. Write-through cache B. Write-back cache C. Write aside cache D. Write cache vaulting |
A. Write-through cache
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What is a benefit of WWN zoning over port zoning? A. A server, after being moved to another switch port in the fabric, maintains connectivity to its zone partners without the need to modify the zoning configuration. B. A server, after replacement of its HBAs, maintains connectivity to its zone partners without the need to modify the zoning configuration. C. A server, after replacement of its HBAs, does not require performing a fabric login to maintain connectivity to its zone partners. D. A server, after being moved to another fabric, maintains connectivity to its zone partners without the need to modify the zoning configuration. |
A. A server, after being moved to another switch port in the fabric, maintains connectivity to its zone partners without the need to modify the zoning configuration.
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Click on the calculator icon in the upper left corner. A department conducts business, Monday through Saturday from 9 A.M. to 5 P.M. each day. The department takes in revenue on an average of $500,000 per week. Employee salaries are approximately $5,000 per week. The department requires the use of a computer system with an RPO of 2 hours and an RTO of 4 hours. To determine the business impact of downtime, what is the average cost of downtime per hour of the business? A. $10,417 B. $10,521 C. $11,105 D. $12,024 |
B. $10,521
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In Kerberos authentication, what is a role of the Active Directory? A. Verifies the user’s login information B. Implements the Authentication service and Ticket Granting service C. Verifies the session ID when the client-server session is established D. Maintains the access control list in a keytab file |
A. Verifies the user’s login information
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A finance department wants to secure its data while the data traverses over the FC SAN. Currently the SAN is also used by other departments in the organization. Which implementation should be recommended to isolate other department traffic from the finance department traffic? A. Virtual SAN B. Virtual LAN C. Fabric binding D. Port binding |
A. Virtual SAN
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Which data center characteristic refers to the capability to grow resources without impacting business operations? A. Scalability B. Security C. Availability D. Performance |
A. Scalability
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What is an advantage of reporting on storage arrays? A. Planning for capacity B. Monitoring the number of arrays C. Monitoring the number of disks in a RAID group D. Planning for storage groups |
A. Planning for capacity
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A customer wants to connect iSCSI-enabled hosts to an existing Fibre Channel (FC) storage array. Which networking device enables the connectivity between the host and the storage array? A. iSCSI gateway B. FCIP bridge C. FC gateway D. IP router |
A. iSCSI gateway
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What is a benefit of virtual storage provisioning over traditional provisioning? A. Enables more efficient allocation of storage to hosts B. Can be used for applications that require predictable performance C. Provides full control for precise data placement D. Does not enable oversubscription |
A. Enables more efficient allocation of storage to hosts
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What accurately describes a Vblock? A. Cloud infrastructure package B. Block-based storage device C. SMI specification D. Virtual tape library |
A. Cloud infrastructure package
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Which report provides information about the allocation and utilization of storage infrastructure components by various departments or user groups? A. Chargeback B. Capacity Planning C. Configuration and Asset Management D. Service Management |
A. Chargeback
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Which component of an archiving solution is responsible for scanning data that can be archived based on a policy? A. Archiving agent B. Archiving server C. Archiving policy server D. Archiving storage device |
A. Archiving agent
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What describes a hybrid cloud? A. Composed of distinct clouds that are bound together by standardized or proprietary technology B. Composed of two or more distinct data centers that enable data and application portability C. Combination of two distinct cloud infrastructures (on-premise and externally-hosted) that are managed together D. Combination of a private cloud and a public cloud that are owned, managed, and operated by a single organization |
A. Composed of distinct clouds that are bound together by standardized or proprietary technology
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What is a requirement for a native iSCSI implementation? A. Host with an iSCSI HBA and an array with an iSCSI port B. Host with a NIC and an array with an FCoE port C. Host with iSCSI initiator software and an array with an FCIP port D. Host with an iSCSI HBA and an array with an FC port |
A. Host with an iSCSI HBA and an array with an iSCSI port
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In addition to applications and databases, what are the other core elements of a data center infrastructure? A. JBOD, networks, and storage arrays B. Servers/operating systems, DAS, and NAS C. Servers/operating systems, networks, and storage arrays D. Servers/operating systems, SAN, and JBOD |
C. Servers/operating systems, networks, and storage arrays
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Why does a restore operation need to communicate with the backup server? A. Locate the data to be restored using the backup catalog B. Determine the RTO of the backup save set C. Run the restore automatically according to a schedule D. Determine the RPO of the backup save set |
A. Locate the data to be restored using the backup catalog
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Which data protection technology provides the highest degree of protection against logical corruption and a near-zero RPO? A. CDP B. Mirroring C. Backup-to-disk D. Snapshots with CoFW |
A. CDP
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Which remote replication solution has the highest bandwidth requirements? A. Array-based synchronous B. Array-based disk buffered C. Host-based asynchronous LVM mirroring D. Log shipping over IP networks |
A. Array-based synchronous
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In a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN, which protocol implementation is used? A. SCSI over FC B. SCSI over FCoE C. FC over iSCSI D. FC over SCSI |
A. SCSI over FC
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Which NAS backup environment transfers data to be backed up over a private backup network? A. NDMP three-way B. NDMP two-way C. Server-based D. Serverless |
A. NDMP three-way
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Which three subject areas, taken together, define storage security? A. Information, networking, and storage B. Access control, storage, and encryption C. Access control, information, and networking D. Application, management, and backup |
A. Information, networking, and storage
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Click on the calculator icon in the upper left corner. If a disk drive's rotational speed is 10000 revolutions per minute, what is its average rotational latency? A. 0.003 milliseconds B. 0.05 milliseconds C. 3 milliseconds D. 5 milliseconds |
C. 3 milliseconds
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In the context of information security, which attribute other than individual identity and group membership can be used to restrict unauthorized access? A. Role B. Cryptography C. World Wide Name D. Host network address |
A. Role
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What is a characteristic of an active/passive storage array configuration? A. Read and write I/Os are performed only through the controller that manages the LUN B. Host can perform I/Os to its LUNs through any of the available controllers C. Read and write I/Os are performed only through active cache D. Passive array is used for backup; active array is used for production data |
A. Read and write I/Os are performed only through the controller that manages the LUN
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Click on the calculator icon in the upper left corner. An eight-disk RAID 6 set has a stripe size of 192 KB. What is the stripe depth? A. 24 KB B. 32 KB C. 48 KB D. 64 KB |
B. 32 KB
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What is a key benefit of RAID 5 compared to RAID 1+0 for small, random I/Os? A. Improved storage space utilization B. Improved write performance C. Higher availability D. Faster rebuild times after failure |
A. Improved storage space utilization
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What is a characteristic of asynchronous remote replication? A. Replica will be behind the source by at least the size of the buffer B. A near-zero RPO disaster recovery solution C. Write must be committed at the target before being acknowledged as complete D. Deployed only for distances within 200 km between two sites |
A. Replica will be behind the source by at least the size of the buffer
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What is a characteristic of triangle/multitarget replication? A. Failover can occur to either of the two remote sites B. Distance between all sites must be less than 125 km C. Bunker site must be in sync with the remote site at all times D. Only the production site is available during normal operations |
A. Failover can occur to either of the two remote sites
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What is a characteristic of cloud-optimized storage? A. Secure multitenancy B. Single access mechanism C. Server-centric D. Native source-based deduplication |
A. Secure multitenancy
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In what way does an integrated NAS solution differ from a Gateway NAS solution? A. Integrated NAS manages storage devices through NAS software. Gateway NAS relies on storage array management software to manage storage devices. B. Integrated NAS allows both file and block level access to the clients. Gateway NAS allows only block level access to the clients. C. Integrated NAS utilizes specialized operating systems. Gateway NAS utilizes generic operating systems. D. Integrated NAS uses Fibre Channel disks only. Gateway NAS uses both Fibre Channel and SATA disks. |
B. Integrated NAS allows both file and block level access to the clients. Gateway NAS allows only block level access to the clients.
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What is the name of the drive sub-assembly which contains the platters and read/write heads? A. ATA B. SATA C. HDA D. IDE |
C. HDA
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Why would an iSCSI solution be implemented? A. All storage arrays supply GigE ports B. Block storage over IP is much faster than FC C. iSCSI HBAs are inexpensive D. Leverage existing IP network infrastructures |
D. Leverage existing IP network infrastructures
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Click on the calculator icon in the upper left corner. An application requires 3.5 TB of capacity. The application generates 2300 IOPS to disks during peak workloads. The vendor indicates that a 146 GB, 15K rpm drive is capable of performing a maximum of 150 IOPS. How many disks are required to meet both capacity and performance requirements? A. 15 B. 22 C. 24 D. 60 |
C. 24
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Which two mechanisms address threats of elevating user privileges in the application access domain? A. Authentication and authorization B. Access control to storage objects and Access Control Lists (ACLs) C. Access control to storage objects and auditing D. User authentication and Information Rights Management (IRM) |
A. Authentication and authorization
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A customer has an existing SAN environment. The customer wants to add NAS to share the storage space. Which solution is most appropriate? A. Gateway NAS B. Scale-out NAS C. FCoE SAN D. IP SAN |
A. Gateway NAS
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What is characteristic of a virtual tape library? A. Uses disk drives as backup media B. Requires changes on the backup software C. A virtual tape cannot span multiple LUNs D. Uses a special mechanism to address the 'shoe-shining' effect |
A. Uses disk drives as backup media
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Refer to Exhibit: Which type of cloud deployment model is represented in the exhibit? A. Public B. Private C. Community D. Hybrid |
A. Public
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Based on the exhibit,
Which zone(s) represent port zoning? A. Zone 1 B. Zones 1 and 3 C. Zone 2 D. Zone 3 |
C. Zone 2
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Based on the exhibit, Which zone(s) represent mixed zoning? A. Zone 1 B. Zones 1 and 2 C. Zone 2 D. Zone 3 |
D. Zone 3
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Refer to Exhibit: Which type of replication is represented in the exhibit? A. Cascade/multihop, synchronous + disk buffered B. Cascade/multihop, synchronous + asynchronous C. Triangle/multitarget, synchronous + disk buffered D. Triangle/multitarget, synchronous + differential resync |
A. Cascade/multihop, synchronous + disk buffered
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What is the process of continuously gathering information on various elements and services in a data center?
A. Reporting B. Alerting C. Provisioning D. Monitoring |
D. Monitoring
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How is the internal transfer rate of disk drives defined? A. Speed at which data moves from the read/write head to the platter B. Speed at which data moves from a platter's surface to the internal buffer C. Speed at which data moves from internal buffer to the host interface D. Speed at which data moves from the innermost cylinder to the read/write head |
B. Speed at which data moves from a platter's surface to the internal buffer
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Which process defines the writing of physical address information to a disk? A. Partitioning B. Formatting C. Zoned-bit recording D. Command queuing |
B. Formatting
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An application requires 1.46 TB of capacity. The application generates 7200 IOPS to disks during peak workloads. The vendor indicates that a 146 GB, 15K rpm drive is capable of performing a maximum of 180 IOPS at 70% utilization. How many disks are required to meet both the application's capacity and performance requirements? A. 10 B. 40 C. 50 D. 72 |
B. 40
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Where does a host-based volume manager map a file system block? A. Sectors B. Logical Extent C. Tracks D. Physical Extent |
B. Logical Extent
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What describes application virtualization? A. Breaks the dependency between the application and the underlying platform B. Increases the application and CPU utilization C. Provides interoperability between different application versions D. Breaks the dependency between the application interface and the processing logic |
A. Breaks the dependency between the application and the underlying platform
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A stripe depth of 32 KB has been assigned to a five-disk RAID 5 set. What is the stripe size? A. 32KB B. 128KB C. 160 KB D. 192 KB |
B. 128KB
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Which RAID type is recommended for a high performance, write-intensive business critical application with small random writes? A. RAID1 B. RAID 1+0 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 |
B. RAID 1+0
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How can the loss of uncommitted cached data be minimized when there is a cache failure? A. Cache vaulting B. Cache striping C. Cache flushing D. Cache mirroring |
D. Cache mirroring
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Which cachealgorithm will optimize a storage array's I/O response time if sequentialaccess is detected? A. Flushing B. Least recently used C. Read ahead D. Write-through |
C. Read ahead |
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What is the correct sequence ofsteps in a read-miss operation with cache? |
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Consider a storage array with two LUNs that store data for the engineering and marketing departments One LUN is masked to the engineering department; the second LUN is masked to the marketing department.
What is a benefit of this architecture? A. Both departments can access all the data B. Both departments can replicate all the data C. Data availability and performance is increased D. Risk to data integrity and security is reduced |
D. Risk to data integrity and security is reduced
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Which cache management algorithm occurs continuously, at a modest rate, when the cache utilization level is between the high and low watermark? A. Forced flushing B. Idle flushing C. Vault flushing D. High watermark flushing |
B. Idle flushing
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A customer requires a highly scalable SAN environment. Which SAN topology should be recommended? A. Token ring B. Full mesh C. Bridged D. Core-edge |
D. Core-edge
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A customer wants the flexibility to attach any host to any switch port without affecting the zoning configurations. Which zoning method(s) should be recommended? A. Mixed zoning B. Port zoning C. Both WWN and port zoning D. WWN zoning |
D. WWN zoning
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What is a benefit of block-level storage virtualization? A. Enables users to perform nondisruptive data migrations B. Enables users to automatically perform zoning changes C. Reduces application downtime during backups D. Enables hosts to perform online path management |
A. Enables users to perform nondisruptive data migrations
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How many Domain IDs are reserved in the fabric in the Fibre Channel address space? A. 16 B. 17 C. 239 D. 256 |
B. 17
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In an FC SAN environment, what does a Domain ID represent? A. Switch port ID B. Switch ID C. Switch port card ID D. WWN of a switch |
B. Switch ID
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What is a sequence' in a Fibre Channel (FC) data structure? A. Group of exchanges that are sent to another port to perform certain operations B. Contiguous set of information units that map to a frame header C. Upper layer protocol-specific information in a FC frame D. Contiguous set of frames that correspond to an information unit |
D. Contiguous set of frames that correspond to an information unit
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How do VSANs work? A. Restricts communication between nodes located within the same VSAN and zone B. Each VSAN acts as an independent fabric with its own set of fabric services C. Enables assigning the same WWN and MAC addresses to nodes in different VSANs D. Fabric-related configurations are uniformly applied to all VSANs |
B. Each VSAN acts as an independent fabric with its own set of fabric services
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Which fabric service provides information about other logged in nodes after receiving a query from a node? A. Fabric controller B. Name server C. Management server D. Fabric login server |
B. Name server
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What is a characteristic of iSNS? A. Assigns iSCSI names to the available targets B. Authenticates iSCSI gateways automatically C. Requires manual configuration and registration of initiators D. Provides a list of available targets to the initiator |
D. Provides a list of available targets to the initiator
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Which two protocols leverage IP as a transport mechanism? A. FCP and FCoCEE B. iSCSI and FCIP C. FCIP and FCP D. iSCSI and FCoE |
B. iSCSI and FCIP
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What is one way that iSCSI initiators can discover their targets? A. Using a Storage Name Service B. Using a common Internet file system C. Using an Internet Storage Name Service D. Using a Domain Name Service |
C. Using an Internet Storage Name Service
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An organization wants to interconnect their distributed FC SANs for disaster recovery implementations. Which protocol is recommended to connect the FC SANs? A. iSCSI B. FCoE C. FCIP D. infiniBand |
C. FCIP
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What is a function of the Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)? A. Checks the Ethertype of FC frames B. Forwards Ethernet frames to an IP network C. Encapsulates and de-encapsulates FC frames D. Forwards FC frames to an IP network |
C. Encapsulates and de-encapsulates FC frames
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Which FCoE feature enables consistent configuration parameters across the network? A. Enhanced transmission selection B. Congestion notification protocol C. Priority-based flow control D. Data center bridging exchange protocol |
D. Data center bridging exchange protocol
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Which functionality enables creating virtual links on a single physical link and independently pausing a virtual link in an FCoE environment? A. Enhanced transmission selection B. Data center bridging exchange C. Buffer-to-buffer credit D. Priority-based flow control |
D. Priority-based flow control
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What is a key requirement that drives an organization to deploy a NAS solution? A. Ability to handle large sequential workloads B. Disaster recovery among different locations over IP C. Data sharing between heterogeneous operating environments D. Ability to handle large random workloads |
C. Data sharing between heterogeneous operating environments
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What is an element of a NAS head? A. Control station B. Storage controller C. Data accepted in real time D. Optimized operating system |
D. Optimized operating system
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Which NAS implementation creates a single file system that runs on all NAS nodes in a cluster? A. Unified and gateway B. Scale-out C. Gateway D. Unified |
B. Scale-out
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Which feature(s) ensures that the stored content has NOT been altered in a CAS system? A. Single instance storage B. Content integrity C. Content mirroring and parity protection D. Location independence |
B. Content integrity
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What is a role of the metadata service in object-based storage? A. Stores both objects and object IDs B. Maps object IDs to the file system namespace C. Manages a set of disks on which the user data is stored D. Stores data in the form of objects |
B. Maps object IDs to the file system namespace
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What is a characteristic of EMC Atmos? A. Consolidates block, file, and object accesses in one solution B. Supports storage multitenancy C. Provides compute, storage, network, and virtualization products in one solution D. Provides source-based deduplication |
B. Supports storage multitenancy
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What is an accurate statement if the recovery time objective (RTO) of an application is 4 hours? A. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost B. Production must be resumed within 4 hours after a failure C. Mean time to repair the application is at least 4 hours D. Mean time between application failure is 4 hours |
B. Production must be resumed within 4 hours after a failure
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When reviewing the disaster recovery plan for two data centers, you find that: - The copy of data at remote Site B will lag behind the production data at Site A by 5 minutes - It will take 2 hours after an outage at Site A to shift production to Site B. - Three more hours will be needed to power up the servers, bring up the network, and redirect users to Site B. What is the recovery point objective (RPO) of this plan? A. 5 minutes B. 2 hours C. 5 hours D. 5 hours 5 minutes |
A. 5 minutes
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Which factor is a measurement of system reliability? A. Recovery point objective B. Mean time between failures C. Mean time to repair D. Recovery time objective |
B. Mean time between failures
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What is required for a successful backup of all files during a hot backup? A. Remote vault B. Multistreaming C. Open file agent D. Virus scan software |
C. Open file agent
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Which component of a backup system is responsible for maintaining configuration information and backup metadata? A. Storage node B. Media server C. Backup server D. Backup client |
C. Backup server
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Which NAS backup environment uses a NAS head to retrieve data from storage over a SAN and then sends the data directly to the backup device? A. Serverless B. NDMP three-way C. NDMP two-way D. Server-based |
C. NDMP two-way
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What is a benefit of source-based deduplication over target-based deduplication? A. Backup processing is offloaded from the backup client B. Less backup data is stored on the backup server C. Backup data can be retained longer D. Only unique data is sent over the network to be backed up |
D. Only unique data is sent over the network to be backed up
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What is a characteristic of target-based inline deduplication? A. Deduplication processing occurs on the client before backup data is sent to the backup device B. Backup data is stored on the backup device and then deduplication is performed C. Changes must be made in the backup software to implement deduplication D. Deduplication processing occurs at the backup device before it is stored on the backup device |
D. Deduplication processing occurs at the backup device before it is stored on the backup device
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In a copy on first access (CoFA) technique, when is data copied from the source to the target? A. All writes are issued to a location on the source B. All writes are issued to a location on the target C. A read or write is issued for the first time to a location on the target D. A read is issued for the first time from a location on the source |
C. A read or write is issued for the first time to a location on the target
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A customer wants 24x7 availability for a business application that uses a file system. Which operation ensures a consistent replica of the file system? A. Unmount the file system prior to the creation of the replica B. Stop the application prior to the creation of the replica C. Flush the file system buffers after creation of the replica D. Flush the file system buffers before creation of the replica |
D. Flush the file system buffers before creation of the replica
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An application uses ten, 15 GB devices. A pointer-based full volume replica of the application is required. The replica will be kept for 24 hours and the data changes by 10% every 24 hours. How much storage should be allocated for the replication? A. 15 GB B. 30 GB C. 150 GB D. 300 GB |
C. 150 GB
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In a virtualized environment, which method enables a virtual machine to be rolled back in case of a logical corruption to the virtual machine? A. Virtual volume replication B. VM snapshot C. Storage array volume replication D. VM clone |
B. VM snapshot
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Which EMC product is a VNX array-based local replication software that creates a full volume mirror of the source? A. SnapView Snapshot B. SnapView Clone C. TimeFinder/Snap D. TimeFinder/Clone |
B. SnapView Clone
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What should be considered when determining the recovery point objective (RPO) in a log shipping remote replication? A. Frequency of log switching B. Size of the source database C. Size of the standby database D. Frequency of reading the database |
A. Frequency of log switching
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What must be done before LVM-based replication can take place between a source and remote volume? A. Ensure arrays at the target are the same type as the source B. Perform an initial synchronization C. Suspend network links between the source and the target D. Install the journal volume |
B. Perform an initial synchronization
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Which migration technique moves the active state of a virtual machine (VM) without powering off the VM? A. Push and pull B. VM snapshot C. Array-to-array D. Hypervisor-to-hypervisor |
D. Hypervisor-to-hypervisor
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What describes the state of the remote device during the data migration process? A. Host access to the remote device is allowed B. Data is mirrored before written to the remote device C. Host access to the remote device is not allowed D. Data is momentarily paused before written to the remote device |
C. Host access to the remote device is not allowed
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What describes a community cloud model? A. Cloud services are made available to the social community at no cost B. Cloud infrastructure is operated solely for an organization C. Cloud infrastructure is shared by organizations with shared concerns D. Organizations consume resources from two or more clouds |
C. Cloud infrastructure is shared by organizations with shared concerns
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In which cloud service model does the consumer have control over deployed applications but NOT over databases and operating systems? A. IaaS B. AaaS C. PaaS D. SaaS |
C. PaaS
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What is an example of an SaaS offering? A. Microsoft Azure B. Google App Engine C. EMC Mozy D. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud |
C. EMC Mozy
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A careful analysis of financial benefits provides a clear picture about the cost savings in cloud adoption. Which two factors should the analysis compare? A. ROI and CAPEX B. CAPEX and OPEX C. TCO and SLA D. TCO and ROI |
D. TCO and ROI
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What is a challenge to consumers in adopting a public cloud? A. High CAPEX B. Delayed resource scaling C. Management overhead D. Vendor lock-in |
D. Vendor lock-in
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What are the three primary goals of information security? A. Authenticity, repudiation, and accountability B. Availability, confidentiality, and integrity C. Authenticity, confidentiality, and accountability D. Availability, authenticity, and confidentiality |
B. Availability, confidentiality, and integrity
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How can an organization reduce vulnerabilities in their environment? A. Minimize the attack surface and maximize the work factor B. Maximize the attack surface and minimize the work factor C. Minimize both the attack surface and work factor D. Maximize both the attack surface and work factor |
A. Minimize the attack surface and maximize the work factor
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What is an example of corrective control? A. Deploying role-based access control to manage permissions B. Running an antivirus program after denial of service C. Setting up user accounts and passwords to control unauthorized access D. Encrypting the data in-flight and data-at-rest |
B. Running an antivirus program after denial of service
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What is recommended for a SAN security architecture? A. Single hierarchical solution for security B. Multiple integrated layers of security C. Multiple isolated solutions for security D. Multiple isolated layers of security |
B. Multiple integrated layers of security
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Which security feature is available in a Microsoft Windows file sharing environment using Network Attached Storage? A. Windows Security Identifier (SID) B. Discretionary Access Control Lists (DACL) C. Operating System Control Lists (OSCL) D. Global Unique Identifier (GUID) |
B. Discretionary Access Control Lists (DACL)
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In a NAS environment, what is a role of the Kerberos protocol? A. Contain ACLs that specify access rights for files/folders B. Authenticate clients using the CHAP protocol C. Allow clients to prove their identity to the servers D. Set up a virtual private network connection |
C. Allow clients to prove their identity to the servers
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What is included as part of SAN accessibility monitoring? A. Fan-in/Fan out ratio B. Port status change C. ISL utilization D. Disk status |
B. Port status change
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Which EMC product enables configuration of Vblock resources and the activation of cloud services? A. Unisphere Manager B. Vblock Manager C. ControlCenter D. Unified Infrastructure Manager |
D. Unified Infrastructure Manager
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What is an example of an availability management task? A. Configuring LUN masking B. Enforcing capacity quotas for users C. Installing multipathing software D. Auditing of event logs |
C. Installing multipathing software
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Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours |
B. 2 hours
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What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? A. Mirror View/A B. Snap View C. SRDF/AR D. TimeFinder |
A. Mirror View/A
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Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability?
A. CSMA/CD B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop C. Store and Forward D. Switched Fabric |
B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
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What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping |
B. Formatting
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The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost |
D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost
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What are the physical ports that interconnect two FC switches referred to as? A. E_Ports B. F_Ports C. G_Ports D. N_Ports |
A. E_Ports
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In which management task would you collect and analyze ISL traffic metrics? A. Availability B. Health C. Performance D. Security |
C. Performance
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When is data copied from the source to the save location in pointer based replica technology? A. All writes to a location on the source B. All writes to a location on the target C. First read from a location on the target D. First write to a location on the source |
D. First write to a location on the source
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Which statement describes the iSCSI protocol? A. ATA over SCSI B. IP over SCSI C. SCSI over ATA D. SCSI over IP |
D. SCSI over IP
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What is a concern of NAS management? A. Configuring the system to meet application performance requirements B. Configuring the system to meet limited interconnectivity options C. Managing the system to integrate multiple block level access ports to the NAS devices D. Managing the system to prevent multiple client access to visible volumes |
A. Configuring the system to meet application performance requirements
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You must create a chargeback system for cost recovery in the IT department. Which activity supports this goal? A. Capacity planning B. Monitoring C. Provisioning D. Reporting |
D. Reporting
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What is a logical component of a storage environment? A. Bus B. Disk C. Filesystem D. Memory |
C. Filesystem
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Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to prevent a file system from running out of space? A. Array Capacity B. Array Health C. Server Capacity D. Server Health |
C. Server Capacity
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The queued writes on the source side exceed the size of the dedicated log file. Which remote replication technology requires a full resynchronization between source and target in this situation? A. Array based synchronous remote replication B. Disk buffered consistent remote replication C. LVM based remote replication D. Synchronous plus extended distance consistent remote replication |
C. LVM based remote replication
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What is a reason for implementing single HBA zoning? A. Decrease reset time for any change made in the state of the fabric B. Increase reset time for any change made in the state of the fabric C. Prevent host from seeing the same volumes via multiple HBAs D. Reduce the number of zones required in the SAN |
A. Decrease reset time for any change made in the state of the fabric
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Which data center characteristic ensures that data is stored and retrieved exactly as it was received? A. Data integrity B. Security C. Scalability D. Manageability |
A. Data integrity
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Which capability does big data analytics provide? A. Translating large volumes of data into right decisions B. Storing large volumes of data without affecting availability C. Reducing the data storage capacity requirement D. Performing analytics using traditional tools |
A. Translating large volumes of data into right decisions
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Why do businesses seek to store, protect, optimize, and leverage information? A. Develop new business opportunities B. Fulfill increasing storage needs C. Convert information into digital form D. Increase information processing capabilities |
A. Develop new business opportunities
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Which I/O characteristics, generated by an application, influence the overall performance of storage system and storage solution designs? A. Read versus write-intensive, sequential versus random, and I/O size B. Seek time, rotational latency, and data transfer time C. Read versus write-intensive, rotational latency, and I/O size D. Data transfer time, sequential versus random, and seek time |
A. Read versus write-intensive, sequential versus random, and I/O size
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Which process combines several physical drives and presents them to the host as a single logical volume? A. Concatenation B. Partitioning C. Striping D. Shredding |
A. Concatenation
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Which technology enables the detachment of the user state, the O/S, and has the applications from end-point devices? A. Desktop virtualization B. Compute virtualization C. Application virtualization D. Memory virtualization |
A. Desktop virtualization
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Which statement describes compute virtualization? A. Abstraction of physical hardware that enables multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical machine B. Presentation of an application to an end user without any installation, integration, or dependencies on the underlying computing platform C. Abstraction of physical storage resources and presenting the logical view of the resources to compute systems D. Logical segmentation of physical networks that makes them appear as a single network to compute systems |
A. Abstraction of physical hardware that enables multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical machine
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An organization plans to deploy a new business application in their environment. The new application requires 3 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 2450 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 2 KB. Because the application is business-critical, the response time must be within acceptable range. The available disk drive option is a 7200 rpm drive with 100 GB capacity. The number of IOPS in which the disk drive can perform at 100 percent utilization is 140. What is the number of disk drives needed to meet the application’s capacity and performance requirements? A. 18 B. 25 C. 28 D. 30 |
D. 30
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What accurately describes the seek time of a disk drive? A. Time taken to position the read/write head over the correct track B. Time taken by the platter to position the data under the read/write head C. Time taken to read a block of data from the platter D. Time taken by the controller to service an I/O from the application |
A. Time taken to position the read/write head over the correct track
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Which parameter determines the rotation latency of a disk drive? A. Speed of the spindle B. Seek time C. Data transfer speed D. Response time |
A. Speed of the spindle
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Which factors affect the performance of a disk drive? A. Seek time, rotational latency, and data transfer time B. Rotational latency, number of platters, and data transfer time C. Seek time, rotational latency, and number of read/write heads D. Data transfer time, number of cylinders, and rotational latency |
A. Seek time, rotational latency, and data transfer time
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What is an accurate statement about application virtualization? A. Avoids conflicts between different versions of the same application B. Runs applications with the help of underlying computing components C. Runs applications without requiring the use of cache memory D. Presents more memory to an application than is physically available |
A. Avoids conflicts between different versions of the same application
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An organization plans to deploy a new business application in their environment. The new application requires 2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 9,800 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4 KB. Because the application is business-critical, the response time must be within acceptable range. The available disk drive option is a 15,000 rpm drive with 100 GB capacity. The number of IOPS in which the disk drive can perform at 100 percent utilization is 140. What is the number of disk drives needed to meet the application’s capacity and performance requirements? A. 20 B. 60 C. 70 D. 100 |
D. 100
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An organization plans to deploy a new business application in their environment. The new application requires 4 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 4900 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 8 KB. Because the application is business-critical, the response time must be within acceptable range. The available disk drive option is a 10,000 rpm drive with 200 GB capacity. The number of IOPS in which the disk drive can perform at 100 percent utilization is 140. What is the number of disk drives needed to meet the application’s capacity and performance requirements? A. 20 B. 25 C. 35 D. 50 |
D. 50
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An application generates 4200 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1. What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 1/0 configuration? A. 2,800 B. 5,600 C. 8,400 D. 11,200 |
B. 5,600
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An application generates 4200 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1. What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 5 configuration? A. 2,800 B. 5,600 C. 8,400 D. 11,200 |
C. 8,400
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An application generates 4200 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1. What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 6 configuration? A. 2,800 B. 5,600 C. 8,400 D. 11,200 |
D. 11,200
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What is an accurate statement about a software RAID implementation? A. Uses host CPU cycles to perform RAID calculations B. Supports the upgrade of RAID software on incompatible O/S C. Uses a specialized hardware controller to perform RAID calculations D. Supports all RAID levels |
A. Uses host CPU cycles to perform RAID calculations
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What is an accurate statement about a hardware RAID implementation? A. Uses a specialized hardware controller installed on a storage array B. Uses host CPU cycles to perform RAID calculations C. Requires a RAID controller and operating system to be compatible D. Offers a low-cost solution for providing disk protection |
A. Uses a specialized hardware controller installed on a storage array
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Which type of LUN is suitable for applications that require predictable performance? A. Traditional B. Thin C. Journal D. Bitmap |
A. Traditional
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Which type of metaLUN provides only additional capacity without improving performance? A. Concatenated B. Striped C. Mirrored D. Parity |
A. Concatenated
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Which technique prevents hosts from gaining unauthorized access to storage volumes in a shared storage environment? A. LUN masking B. Zoning C. Fabric binding D. Concatenating metaLUNs |
A. LUN masking
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Which EMC product is a high-end enterprise block-based storage platform? A. VMAX B. VNX C. VPLEX D. Atmos |
A. VMAX
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An organization has deployed an application that has a read-intensive workload. They want to improve application performance by reducing latency and accelerating throughput. What is recommended to address their requirements? A. Deploy server flash-caching B. Reduce the high watermark C. Use a most recently-used algorithm D. Disable the prefetch algorithm |
A. Deploy server flash-caching
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Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures? A. Vaulting B. Mirroring C. Prefetching D. Watermarking |
A. Vaulting
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In a storage system, the cache is configured with an upper-bound and a lower-bound to manage its utilization. Which flushing mode is activated when the cache utilization levels reach the upper- bound? A. High watermark B. Idle C. Low watermark D. Forced |
A. High watermark
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In a storage system, the cache is configured with an upper-bound and a lower-bound to manage its utilization. Which flushing mode is activated when the cache utilization levels reach 100 percent? A. Forced B. High watermark C. Idle D. Low watermark |
A. Forced
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What is an accurate statement about a core-edge topology? A. Core-tier is extended by adding more switches at the core B. Edge-tier switches are connected to each other and to the core C. Network traffic traverses all the switches at the edge-tier D. All hosts are connected to the core-tier switches |
A. Core-tier is extended by adding more switches at the core
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What is a characteristic of a single-mode optical fiber cable? A. Carries a single ray of light projected at the center of the core B. Carries a single ray of light at any angle onto the core C. Carries a single ray of light at either a 7 or 11 degree angle onto the core D. Carries multiple beams of light through a single core |
A. Carries a single ray of light projected at the center of the core
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What is a characteristic of a modular switch? A. Port count is increased by installing additional port cards B. Ports are connected in a logical loop or a physical star topology C. Functionality of a standard NIC and an FC HBA is converged in an ASIC D. All port cards on the switch share the loop bandwidth |
A. Port count is increased by installing additional port cards
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Which data structure enables two node ports to identify and manage a set of information units in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN? A. Exchange B. Sequence C. Frame D. Domain |
A. Exchange
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Which type of fabric login enables N_Ports to exchange service parameters relevant to a session? A. PLOGI B. PRLI C. FLOGI D. WWPN |
A. PLOGI
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Which type of login is performed between an N_Port and an F_Port in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN environment? A. FLOGI B. PLOGI C. PRLI D. WWPN |
A. FLOGI
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Which type of fabric login is associated with the FC-4 upper layer protocol of the Fibre Channel protocol stack? A. PRLI B. FLOGI C. PLOGI D. WWNN |
A. PRLI
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Which benefit does block-level storage virtualization provide? A. Non-disruptive data migration between storage arrays B. Performance enhancement by limiting the RSCN traffic C. Logical segmentation of block storage devices for improved security D. Increased scalability through separation of FC addresses across VSANs |
A. Non-disruptive data migration between storage arrays
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Which fabric service is responsible for distributing SW-RSCNs to every other switch in a Fibre Channel SAN? A. Fabric controller B. Fabric login server C. Name server D. Management server |
A. Fabric controller
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What keeps the name server up-to-date on all switches in a fabric? A. SW-RSCN B. Management server C. Zoning D. FLOGI |
A. SW-RSCN
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What is a function of the FC-1 layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack?
A. Defines data encoding B. Provides FC addressing C. Defines the physical interface D. Provides the structure of data |
A. Defines data encoding
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Which layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack defines the fabric services? A. FC-0 B. FC-1 C. FC-2 D. FC-4 |
C. FC-2
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What accurately describes a VSAN? A. A logical fabric on an FC SAN that enables communication among a group of nodes B. A logical fabric on an FC SAN that has a 1-to-1 relationship with a zone in the FC SAN C. A logical fabric across FC SANs that aggregates the FC SANs to create a network pool D. A logical fabric across FC SANs that allows non-disruptive file mobility between the SANs |
A. A logical fabric on an FC SAN that enables communication among a group of nodes
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What is a key reason for using an IP SAN? A. Reduced cost compared to investing in new FC SAN hardware and software B. Latest IP networks facilitate both file-level and block-level access C. Support for up to 15 million devices over a single network D. Leverage existing security mechanisms of an FC SAN in an IP SAN environment |
A. Reduced cost compared to investing in new FC SAN hardware and software
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What is a method for an iSCSI initiator to discover its targets? A. Initiator sends a query to an iSNS server for a list of available targets B. Initiator is configured with the target’s Ethertype to perform discovery C. Initiator employs data center bridging exchange protocol for the discovery D. Initiator sends SCSI commands and the target responds by sending its name |
A. Initiator sends a query to an iSNS server for a list of available targets
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In an FCIP environment, which switch-specific feature helps to tunnel FC fabrics through an IP network? A. Fibre Channel Routing Services B. Bit and Frame Synchronization C. Enhanced Transmission Selection D. Upper Layer Protocol Mapping |
A. Fibre Channel Routing Services
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What is an accurate statement about an FCoE network? A. Consolidates both FC SAN traffic and Ethernet traffic onto a common Ethernet infrastructure B. Creates virtual FC links over an IP network that is used to transport FC data between FCoE SANs C. Enables the coexistence of FC traffic with IP traffic by providing FC-to-IP bridging functionality D. Enables the encapsulation of Ethernet traffic into an FC packet and transports them over CEE |
A. Consolidates both FC SAN traffic and Ethernet traffic onto a common Ethernet infrastructure
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In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the assignment of bandwidth to different network traffic classes? A. Enhanced transmission selection B. Priority-based flow control C. Congestion notification D. Data center bridging exchange protocol |
A. Enhanced transmission selection
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What is a component of an FCoE switch? A. Ethernet Bridge B. Host Bus Adapter C. Converged Network Adapter D. FCIP Forwarder |
A. Ethernet Bridge
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Which lossless Ethernet functionality helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network? A. Data center bridging exchange protocol B. Enhanced transmission selection C. Priority-based flow control D. Congestion notification |
A. Data center bridging exchange protocol
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Which component of a NAS head provides connectivity to the client network? A. NIC B. IP router C. FC HBA D. Storage protocol |
A. NIC
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Which NAS implementation requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage? A. Gateway B. Scale-out C. Unified D. Integrated |
A. Gateway
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Which NAS implementation creates a single file system that spans across all nodes in a cluster? A. Scale-out B. Unified C. Gateway D. Scale-up |
A. Scale-out
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What is a benefit when a node is added to a scale-out NAS cluster? A. Increased cluster performance B. Reduced capital expenditure C. Simplified cluster management D. Decreased data duplication |
A. Increased cluster performance
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Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS cluster when clients send data to the cluster? A. Data is divided and stored on multiple nodes in parallel B. Data is consolidated into a block and stored in the NAS head C. Data is evenly distributed to every file system in the cluster D. NAS file system and cluster grow dynamically to store the data |
A. Data is divided and stored on multiple nodes in parallel
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What is an accurate statement about the Network File System (NFS) protocol? A. Provides a set of remote procedure calls to access a remote file system B. Uses the server message block that provides file locking capability to a file system C. Translates block I/O requests from a file system into object-level requests D. Duplicates file systems on client workstations to ensure greater data scalability |
A. Provides a set of remote procedure calls to access a remote file system
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What is an accurate statement about the Common Internet File System (CIFS) protocol? A. Enables a CIFS server to maintain connection information regarding every connected client B. Uses a Remote Procedure Call mechanism to provide access to the CIFS supported file systems C. Contains an open variation of the stateless user datagram protocol that stores information about open files D. Uses file system locking to enable users to simultaneously overwrite all metadata of a file system |
A. Enables a CIFS server to maintain connection information regarding every connected client
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What is an accurate statement about a NAS device? A. Contains a specialized operating system dedicated to file serving B. Requires an IP-based, high-performance, dedicated storage array C. Contains one or more storage controllers in a single NAS head D. Contains a FC forwarder that is optimized for file-sharing functions |
A. Contains a specialized operating system dedicated to file serving
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In an object-based storage environment, which entities does an object contain? A. Data, metadata, object ID, and attributes B. LUN ID, data, metadata, and attributes C. Metadata, object ID, attributes, and file path D. Object ID, attributes, LUN ID, and file path |
A. Data, metadata, object ID, and attributes
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Which storage system is designed for storing fixed content? A. Content addressed storage B. Block-based storage C. File-based storage D. Hierarchy-based storage |
A. Content addressed storage
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What describes a recovery point objective? A. Point-in-time to which systems and data must be recovered after an outage B. Time within which systems and applications must be recovered after an outage C. Amount of downtime that a business can endure and survive after an outage D. Minimum amount of infrastructure required to run business operations after an outage |
A. Point-in-time to which systems and data must be recovered after an outage
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In which stage of the business continuity planning lifecycle does an organization identify critical business processes and assign recovery priorities? A. Analyzing B. Establishing objectives C. Designing and developing D. Implementing |
A. Analyzing
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Which aspect of a business continuity solution is determined by the recovery point objective? A. Frequency of backup B. Type of backup devices C. Type of disaster recovery site D. Choice of backup software |
A. Frequency of backup
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A system has three components and all three components need to be operational 24 hours; Monday to Friday. During a particular week, failure on component 1 occurred as follows: •Monday = 6 PM to 9 PM •Tuesday = 8 AM to 10 AM •Wednesday = No failure •Thursday = 8 PM to 9 PM •Friday = No failure •Saturday = 5 AM to 8 AM •Sunday = 6 PM to 9 PM What is the mean time between failures of component 1? A. 30 Hours B. 37 Hours C. 40 Hours D. 44 Hours |
B. 37 Hours
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A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24 hours; Monday to Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 2 occurred as follows: •Monday = 6 PM to 9 PM •Tuesday = 8 AM to 10 AM •Wednesday = No failure •Thursday = 8 PM to 9 PM •Friday = No failure •Saturday = 5 AM to 8 AM •Sunday = 6 PM to 9 PM What is the mean time between failures on component 2? A. 30 Hours B. 38 Hours C. 40 Hours D. 42 Hours |
B. 38 Hours
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A system has three components and all three components need to be operational 24 hours; Monday to Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows: •Monday = 6 PM to 9 PM •Tuesday = 8 AM to 10 AM •Wednesday = No failure •Thursday = 8 PM to 9 PM •Friday = No failure •Saturday = 5 AM to 8 AM •Sunday = 6 PM to 9 PM What is the mean time to repair component 3? A. 2 Hours B. 4 Hours C. 6 Hours D. 8 Hours |
A. 2 Hours
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An administrator has configured redundant Fibre Channel links between hosts and storage systems. The administrator has identified a performance bottleneck on a link due to overutilization; whereas, the other links have sufficient bandwidth. In addition, the administrator has identified that if a link fails, I/Os to the link do not failover to the other available links. Which solution should be recommended to resolve these issues? A. Multipathing software B. NIC teaming C. Virtual SAN D. Zoning |
A. Multipathing software
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What refers to an IT infrastructure's ability to function during its specified time of operations, based on business expectations? A. Information availability B. Disaster recovery C. Disaster restart D. Business agility |
A. Information availability
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An administrator has defined a backup policy to perform full backups every Monday and cumulative backups on the remaining week days. How many backup copies are required to restore the data if it was accidentally deleted on Friday morning? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2
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When deploying a cold backup solution, what should be considered? A. Application must be shut down during the backup process B. Application can only read the data to be backed up C. An open file agent must be deployed to perform the backup D. Deduplication cannot be performed during the backup process |
A. Application must be shut down during the backup process
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What is an accurate statement about a backup-to-disk library solution? A. Supports storage of both backup and production data B. Provides built-in portability to meet offsite requirements C. Supports the shoe shining effect for improved backup performance D. Pre-configured and dedicated appliance is only used for back ups |
A. Supports storage of both backup and production data
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An organization backs up their data to a tape library. What is a possible impact of the "shoe shining" effect? A. Causes degradation of the tape media B. Deletes the data stored on the tapes C. Increases the network bandwidth requirement D. Reduces the amount of data to be backed up |
A. Causes degradation of the tape media
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What is an accurate statement about NDMP 3-way backup in a NAS environment? A. Backup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads B. Each NAS head should have a dedicated backup device C. Backup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device D. Backup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present |
A. Backup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads
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An administrator has defined a backup policy to perform full backups at 8 P.M. every Monday and incremental backups at 8 P.M. on the remaining week days. How many backup copies are required to restore the data if it was accidentally deleted on Friday morning? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
D. 4
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What is a key advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for the same data? A. Facilitates faster restores B. Facilitates faster backups C. Reduces the storage space required for backups D. Eliminates the need for full backups |
A. Facilitates faster restores
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Which backup architecture component maintains the backup catalog? A. Backup server B. Storage node C. Backup client D. Backup device |
A. Backup server
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An organization has deployed physical servers at a remote site that is dissimilar from the servers deployed at their primary site. In the event of a disaster, which solution will enable the server O/S, hardware, and application settings at the primary site to be restored at the remote site? A. Server configuration backup B. Server online backup C. Guest-level O/S backup D. Server-initiated backup |
A. Server configuration backup
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Which EMC product provides inherent source-based deduplication? A. Avamar B. Data Domain C. VMAX D. VNX |
A. Avamar
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Which EMC product provides a target-based deduplication solution? A. Data Domain B. VPLEX C. RecoverPoint D. Avamar |
A. Data Domain
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An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution by retaining their legacy backup application. They are concerned about the application servers’ performance and long backup window during backup. Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended to the organization? A. Post-process B. Inline C. Variable-length segment and source-based D. Fixed-length block and source-based |
A. Post-process
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What is a function of an archiving server? A. Enables the ability to configure policies for archiving data B. Installs agents on the archiving storage device C. Scans the data that can be archived on application servers D. Creates stub files on an archiving storage device |
A. Enables the ability to configure policies for archiving data
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What is an advantage of implementing deduplication for performing backups? A. Enables a longer retention period of backup data B. Eliminates backup window requirements C. Reduces the storage space requirement for production data D. Eliminates the need for archiving data |
A. Enables a longer retention period of backup data
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What is an advantage of using content addressed storage as an archival solution? A. Ensures content authenticity and integrity B. Supports location independence using different content IDs for an object C. Enables the ability to reuse tapes for storing archive data D. Enables modification of archived data |
A. Ensures content authenticity and integrity
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Why is it important for an organization to archive their data for an extended period of time? A. Meet regulatory compliance requirements B. Avoid data loss in the event of a disaster C. Eliminate the need for backups D. Provide disaster recovery capability |
A. Meet regulatory compliance requirements
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What is an accurate statement about image-based backup in a virtualized environment? A. Offloads backup processing from the hypervisor B. Backup agents are running on both the VMs and hypervisor C. Backup process does not use snapshot technology D. Backup agents are running only inside the VM |
A. Offloads backup processing from the hypervisor
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An organization plans to deploy an array-based local replication solution. They identified that the change to the source volume is less than 30%. They need a solution in which the replica devices require a small fraction of the size of the source volumes. Which solution should be recommended to the organization? A. Pointer-based virtual replication B. Continuous data protection C. Synchronous replication D. Pointer-based full volume replication |
A. Pointer-based virtual replication
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What is an accurate statement about pointer-based full-volume replication? A. Target device is at least as large as the source device B. Target device requires only a fraction of the space used by the source device C. Target device is accessible only after full replication is completed D. Target device and source device should be on different storage arrays |
A. Target device is at least as large as the source device
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What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot? A. Captures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time B. Provides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created C. Runs as an independent copy from the parent VM D. Provides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time |
A. Captures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
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Why should a replica be consistent with its source? A. Ensure the usability of the replica B. Reduce the need to create multiple replicas C. Ensure the security of the replica D. Reduce the size of the replica |
A. Ensure the usability of the replica
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What determines how far back the recovery points can go in a continuous data protection (CDP) solution? A. Amount of space that is configured for the journal B. Size of the CDP appliance used for replication C. Size of the source and replica volume D. Type of write splitter used for replication |
A. Amount of space that is configured for the journal
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What is an advantage of file system (FS) snapshot replication? A. Requires a fraction of the space used by the production FS B. Requires low network bandwidth for replication C. Enables the ability to restore data when the production FS fails D. Enables the ability to restore data to any point-in-time |
A. Requires a fraction of the space used by the production FS
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When does data get copied from the source to the target device in a copy on first access (COFA) pointer-based full-volume replication? A. Write I/O is issued to the source device Read or write I/O is issued on the target for the first time B. Read I/O is issued to the source device Write I/O is issued on the target for the first time C. Read or write I/O is issued to the source device Read I/O is issued on the target for the first time D. Read or write I/O is issued to the source device Read or write I/O is issued on the target for the first time |
A. Write I/O is issued to the source device Read or write I/O is issued on the target for the first time
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What is determined based on the recovery point objective in asynchronous remote replication? A. Size of the buffer B. Size of the replica C. Response time D. Location of the source |
A. Size of the buffer
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Which remote replication solution requires the least network bandwidth? A. Disk buffered B. Triangle/multi-target C. Asynchronous D. Synchronous |
A. Disk buffered
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In continuous data protection (CDP) remote replication, where are the two split write I/Os of an incoming write I/O directed? A. One I/O goes to the local CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the production volume B. One I/O goes to the host and the other I/O goes to the production volume C. One I/O goes to the remote CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the replica D. One I/O goes to the journal volume and the other I/O goes to the replica |
A. One I/O goes to the local CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the production volume
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What is a key advantage of deploying a three-site remote replication solution? A. Ensures disaster recovery protection remains available even if the source or remote site failed B. Provides the capability to recover data to any point-in-time C. Requires very low network bandwidth to perform replication D. Enables a consistent near zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures |
A. Ensures disaster recovery protection remains available even if the source or remote site failed
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What is an advantage of implementing array-to-array virtual machine (VM) migration? A. Balances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage arrays B. Enables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure C. Improves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage array D. Reduces the overall storage array capacity requirements for organizations |
A. Balances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage arrays
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Which EMC product provides a remote replication solution for EMC VNX storage arrays?
A. MirrorView B. SnapView C. Avamar D. TimeFinder |
A. MirrorView
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Which EMC product provides a remote replication solution for EMC VMAX arrays? A. SRDF B. Avamar C. MirrorView D. TimeFinder |
A. SRDF
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Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to adapt to changing resource requirements by dynamically provisioning and releasing resources? A. Rapid elasticity B. On-demand self-service C. Measured service D. Resource pooling |
A. Rapid elasticity
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Which benefit does the measured service characteristic provide to a cloud service provider? A. Enables control and optimization of resource use B. Enables cloud services to communicate with each other C. Enables availability of specific resources depending on policy D. Enables the reduction and/or elimination of upfront IT expenditures |
A. Enables control and optimization of resource use
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A state government has a number of independent agencies. They have common requirements and function under the same policies and guidelines. Each agency has a limited budget and requires a cloud solution for their operations. Which cloud service model will enable the agencies to deploy a shared cloud infrastructure and lower their individual costs? A. Community cloud B. Externally-hosted private cloud C. Hybrid cloud D. On-premise private cloud |
A. Community cloud
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An enterprise with a worldwide customer base is planning to adopt a cloud solution for its operations. The enterprise has no budget constraints and requires complete control over applications, customer data, and the infrastructure. Which cloud deployment option should be recommended? A. On-premise private cloud B. Hybrid cloud C. Public cloud D. Externally-hosted private cloud |
A. On-premise private cloud
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A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations. The company has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In addition, the company has less critical applications, such as backup and archive. Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company? A. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud and the less critical applications on a public cloud. B. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud and the less critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. C. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud and the less critical applications on a public cloud. D. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud and the less critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. |
A. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud and the less critical applications on a public cloud.
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What is a benefit of using the public cloud model? A. Facilitates low capital expenditure with massive scalability B. Enables consumers to standardize cloud service management processes C. Provides consumers complete control over the cloud infrastructure D. Enables data and application portability across clouds |
A. Facilitates low capital expenditure with massive scalability
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What is an accurate statement about Infrastructure as a Service? A. A consumer can deploy and run arbitrary software, including operating systems and applications. B. A consumer only has control over user-specific application configuration settings. C. A consumer can deploy applications created using the programming tools offered by the provider. D. A consumer only has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment. |
A. A consumer can deploy and run arbitrary software, including operating systems and applications.
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What is an accurate statement about Software as a Service? A. A consumer has limited control over user-specific application configuration settings. B. A consumer has control over the operating systems and deployed applications. C. A consumer has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment. D. A consumer has limited control over select networking components, such as host firewalls. |
A. A consumer has limited control over user-specific application configuration settings.
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Which cloud-enabling technology provides a service provisioning model that offers computing resources as a metered service? A. Utility computing B. Service-oriented architecture C. Grid computing D. Distributed computing |
A. Utility computing
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What is a function of unified management software? A. Automates the creation of cloud services based on pre-defined service attributes B. Authenticates consumers and forwards their requests to the user access management software C. Provides a self-service interface to consumers to view and provision cloud services D. Enables consumers to view and manage physical and virtual resources centrally |
A. Automates the creation of cloud services based on pre-defined service attributes
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What is a feature of cloud-optimized storage? A. Provides self-service and metered access to storage resources B. Enables massive scalability through the use of intelligent flash cards C. Provides a unified namespace to automate the creation of cloud services D. Enables secure multi-tenancy through the use of privilege elevation |
A. Provides self-service and metered access to storage resources
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An organization is planning to use a public cloud service for some of its operations. What is a necessary attribute the organization should identify when selecting the cloud service provider? A. Standardization through the use of open APIs for accessing cloud services B. Support availability for only non-proprietary applications and platforms C. Use of a hypervisor from only a single vendor to enable use of open standards D. Availability of a management interface to create new cloud service offerings |
A. Standardization through the use of open APIs for accessing cloud services
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An organization recently adopted Platform as a Service that is provided from an externally-hosted private cloud. What is an operational expenditure the organization will incur to access the cloud service? A. Payment of subscription fees B. Purchase cost of platform software C. Cost of deploying the SAN D. Procurement cost of cloud servers |
A. Payment of subscription fees
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What is an activity in the security risk assessment process? A. Determining the extent of potential threats in the IT infrastructure B. Defining security measures to direct the safe execution of operations C. Ensuring that security measures comply with processes and policies D. Deploying security measures to mitigate the impact of risk occurrences |
A. Determining the extent of potential threats in the IT infrastructure
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What is considered a type of a passive attack on an IT infrastructure? A. Attempt to gain unauthorized access into the system B. Attempt to exhaust the network bandwidth to prevent legitimate access C. Attempt to modify the data in the storage system D. Attempt to impersonate an identity by providing false information |
A. Attempt to gain unauthorized access into the system
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What is a type of an active attack on an IT infrastructure? A. Attempt to modify information for malicious purposes B. Attempt to leak the data from the storage system C. Attempt to gain unauthorized access into the system D. Attempt to gain access to data in transit |
A. Attempt to modify information for malicious purposes
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Which information security framework goal is compromised by a passive attack on an IT infrastructure? A. Confidentiality B. Integrity C. Availability D. Repudiation |
A. Confidentiality
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What is a characteristic of a VSAN? A. Management traffic in a VSAN is restricted within its boundary B. Multiple zone sets can be active at the same time in a VSAN C. Consolidates multiple physical SANs to create a logical SAN D. Uses 16 bits of the 24-bit FC address and supports up to 127 nodes |
A. Management traffic in a VSAN is restricted within its boundary
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In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to prevent unauthorized nodes from accessing a switch. What enables the administrator to specify which node ports can access the switch? A. Access Control List B. Fabric Binding C. Persistent Port Disable D. Role-based Access Control |
A. Access Control List
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In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to ensure that a particular switch port cannot function as an E_Port and cannot be used to create an inter-switch link. Which security mechanism should the administrator use? A. Port Lockdown B. Port Binding C. Persistent Port Disable D. Fabric Binding |
A. Port Lockdown
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In an FC SAN environment, which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot? A. Persistent Port Disable B. Port Lockdown C. Port Binding D. Fabric Binding |
A. Persistent Port Disable
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What enables an administrator to create device groups in an IP-SAN for restricting device communication to a group? A. iSNS discovery domain B. NIC teaming C. Demilitarized zone D. Security identifier |
A. iSNS discovery domain
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A department in an organization requires 300 GB of storage space for a business application. The production LUN is RAID 1+0 protected and has both a local and a remote replica. The local replica is a RAID 1 LUN and the remote replica is on a five disk RAID 5 LUN. If the raw disk storage cost per GB is $3.00, what is the chargeback cost to the department for application storage? A. $2,700 B. $3,600 C. $4,500 D. $4,725 |
D. $4,725
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Which EMC product provides a single point of management for Vblock systems? A. Unified Infrastructure Manager B. Unisphere C. Smarts D. ProSphere |
A. Unified Infrastructure Manager
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What is a function of the policy engine in inter-array storage tiering? A. Facilitates moving inactive data from primary to secondary storage B. Creates a stub file in secondary storage pointing to data on the primary storage C. Ensures that primary and secondary storage have identical data for compliance D. Runs backup agent and determines the files to be copied to the secondary storage |
A. Facilitates moving inactive data from primary to secondary storage
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What is the purpose of monitoring accessibility in a storage infrastructure? A. Identifying component failures that may lead to service unavailability B. Ensuring availability of adequate resources to prevent service unavailability C. Evaluating utilization of components and identifying bottlenecks D. Detecting unavailability of information to authorized users |
A. Identifying component failures that may lead to service unavailability
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What is the purpose of monitoring capacity in a storage infrastructure? A. Ensuring availability of adequate resources to prevent service unavailability B. Evaluating utilization of components and identifying bottlenecks C. Tracking configuration changes of infrastructure elements D. Identifying component failures that may lead to service unavailability |
A. Ensuring availability of adequate resources to prevent service unavailability
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What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure management? A. Configuring replication for data redundancy B. Trend analysis of storage space consumption C. Tracking configuration changes to storage components D. Specifying storage space quotas for users |
A. Configuring replication for data redundancy
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What is an example of a security management task in a storage infrastructure? A. Configuring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN B. Enforcing storage space quotas to restrict users from overprovisioning resources C. Restricting the number of simultaneous client access to application servers D. Enabling sending messages to a support center in the event of resource failure |
A. Configuring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN
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Which type of host access tostorage does ‘X’ represent in the exhibit? A. Block-level B. File-level C. Object-level D. Web-based |
A. Block-level |
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Which type of host access to storage does ‘X’ represent in the exhibit? A. Block-level B. File-level C. Object-level D. Web-based |
B. File-level |
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Which environment is representedin the exhibit? A. Write-through cache B. Read miss C. Read hit D. Write-back cache |
A. Write-through cache |
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Which environment is represented in the exhibit? A. Write-through cache B. Read miss C. Read hit D. Write-back cache |
D. Write-back cache |
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Which type of Fibre Channel (FC)ports do "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit? A. X is an F_Port and Y is an N_Port B. X is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port C. X is an E_Port and Y is an F_Port D. X is an N_Port and Y is an F_Port |
A. X is an F_Port and Y is an N_Port |
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Which type of fabric topology doesthe exhibit represent? A. Partial mesh B. Full mesh C. Single core-edge D. Dual core-edge is an |
A. Partial mesh |
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Which type of Fibre Channel (FC)ports do "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit? A. X is an N_Port and Y is an N_Port B. X is an F_Port and Y is an E_Port C. X is an E_Port and Y is an N_Port D. X is an F_Port and Y is an F_Port |
A. X is an N_Port and Y is an N_Port |
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Which type of Fibre Channel (FC)ports do "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit? A. X is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port B. X is an F_Port and Y is an E_Port C. X is an F_Port and Y is a G_Port D. X is a G_Port and Y is an N_Port |
A. X is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port |
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Which type of fabric topology doesthe exhibit represent? A. Full mesh B. Partial mesh C. Single core-edge D. Dual core-edge |
A. Full mesh |
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Based on the exhibit, which partof the Fibre Channel (FC) frame does “X” represent? A. Frame Header B. CRC C. SOF D. Data Fieldcore-edge |
A. Frame Header |
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The exhibitreflects the encapsulation order in an iSCSI environment. What do the labels"X" and "Y" represent? A. X = TCP Y =iSCSI B. X = iSCSI Y= TCP C. X = FCIP Y= iSCSI D. X = iSCSI |
A. X = TCP Y = iSCSI |
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Which type of storage device doesthe ‘X’ represent in the exhibit? A. Object-based B. Block-based C. File-based D. Unified-based |
A. Object-based |
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Which backup topology does theexhibit represent? A. Direct-attached backup B. LAN-based backup C. Server-less backup D. NDMP-based backup |
A. Direct-attached backup |
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Based on the exhibit, whichexample represents the risk triad? A. A B. B C. C D. D |
A. A |
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