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403 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The ______ induces the formation of the nervous system in the back of the embryo
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Notocord
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______ ______ will become the nervous system
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Neural plate
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The ______ part of the neural plate becomes the brain and brainstem
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Rostral
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The ______ ______ are the earliest forming structures of the nervous system and are bulges in the neural plate
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Primary vesicles
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Different parts of the vesicle will become different regions of the ______
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CNS
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The ______ is also called the rhombencephalon
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Hindbrain
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The midbrain is also called the ______
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Mesencephalon
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The forebrain is also called the ______
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Prosencephalon
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______ and ______ come from the hindbrain
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Medulla, pons
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______ and ______ are the midbrain regions but are not well defined
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Tectum, tegmentum
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Forebrain becomes the ______ and the ______
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Diencephalon, telencephalon
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The ______ ______ separates the medial and lateral area
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Sulcus limitans
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The ______ area is generally known as the tegmentum
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Medial
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The ______ ______ is a fold of tissue that hangs off the bottom of the inferior colliculus and will eventually become the ______
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Rhombic lip, cerebellum
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We have 3 primary vesicles, name them.
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Forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
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We have 5 secondary vesicles, name them.
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Telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, myelencephalon
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______ becomes cerebral hemisphere
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Telencephalon
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Diencehpalon becomes the ______ and ______
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Thalamus, hypothalamus
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Midbrain becomes the ______ (trick!)
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Midbrain
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______ becomes the pons and cerebellum
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Metencephalon
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Myelencephalon becomes the ______
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Medulla
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In the brain, the ______ are the spaces in the brain
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Ventricles
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The lateral ventricles are in the ______
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Telencephalon
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The 3rd ventricle is in the ______
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Diencephalon
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The cerebral aqueduct is in the ______
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Midbrain
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The metencephalon contains the ______ part of the 4th ventricle
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Upper
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The ______ contains the lower part of the 4th ventricle
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Myelencephalon
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The embryo folds forward at two primary flexures, the ______ flexure and the ______ flexure
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Cervical, midbrain
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The embryo, after flexure, bends back on itself at the ______ flexure which is a secondary flexure
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Pontine
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The pontine flexure causes the opening of the ______ ______
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4th ventricle
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The ______ is under the pia and lines the ventricles
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ependyma
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Wherever pia and ependyma actually meet, you get ______ ______
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choroid plexus
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The pia and the ependyma meet in the ______ ventricles, roof of ______ ventricle, and in the ______ ventricle
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lateral, 3rd, 4th
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The choroid plexus produces ______
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CSF
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The ______ foramen connects the lateral ventricles
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Interventricular
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The ______ ______ connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles
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Cerebral aqueduct
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CSF flows from lateral ventricles, to ______ ventricles, to ______ ventricles
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3rd, 4th
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The cerebral ______ is a common place where CSF can get stopped up
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Aqueduct
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CSF goes into the ______ ______ in the bottom (or laterally) of the 4th ventricle
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Subarachnoid space
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CSF returns to venous circulation at the ______ of the head
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Top
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Drains into arachnoid ______
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Granulations
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If you choke off the flow of CSF, you can get ______
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Hydrocephalus
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In hydrocephalus, the brain becomes expanded because of increased ______ pressure that cannot release
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CSF
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Makes the cortex ______ due to all the pressure
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Thinner
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Hydrocephalus usually ______ ______ happen in isolation (does/does not)
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Does not
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A common cause of hydrocephalus is ______ where the cilia in the ventricular system to do not beat correctly
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Genetics
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Malabsorbtion of CSF is a ______ hydrocephalus
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Nonobstructive
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As the spinal cord opens up towards the brain, the ______ plate goes from dorsal to lateral
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Alar
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Sensory functions remain in the Alar plate, which is more ______ (position wise)
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Lateral
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The motor portions of the cranial nerves lie more ______ to the sulcus limitans (position wise)
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Medial
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In the Medulla, motor nuclei for ______ , ______ , ______ and ______ are in the ______ plate
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9, 10, 11, and 12, basal
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In the Medulla, the sensory nuclei, ______ , ______ , ______ , are in the ______ plate
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5, 9, 10, alar
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In the Medulla, (motor/sensory) ______ are 9 through 12, and (motor/sensory)______ are 5, 9, and 10
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Motor, sensory
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Alar and basal plates become the ______ of the 4th ventricle
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Floor
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Spinal trigeminal nucleus is important for ______ to the head
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Pain
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The major sensory nerve of the head is the ______
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Trigeminal
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CN ______ , ______ , and ______ have a minor function in head sensation around the ear
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7, 9, and 10
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______ is the Pons, cerebellum, and part of the 4th ventricle
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Metencephalon
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______ ______ becomes the cerebellum
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Rhombic lip
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The Cerebellum comes from ______ plate
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Alar
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CN 5, 6, and 7 come from the ______ plate of the ______
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Basal, pons
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______ ______ nuclei and the ______ ______ come from the rhombic lip, which came from the ______ plate of the metencephalon
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Basalar pontine, inferior olive, alar
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In ______ -______ ______ deformity, the cerebellum pushes through the foramen magnum due to ______ on the brainstem
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Arnold-Chiari II, pressure
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Children seem ______ , then fail to grow properly
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Normal
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In a ______ , the subarachnoid space is dilated, creating a bulge
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Meningeocele
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In a ______ , there is brain tissue that pushes into a defect
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Meningeoencephalocele
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In a ______ , the ventricular system pushes into the defect
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Meningohydroencephalocele
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The motor components of the midbrain basal plate are CN ______ and ______
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3, 4
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______ ______ cells migrate into the alar plate in the midbrain to create a sensory portion of CN 5
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Neural crest
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The strange thing is that they are actually ______ cells, thus the mesencephalic nucleus
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Pseudounipolar
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They contain sensory information for the muscles of ______
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mastication
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The ______ plate in the midbrain will create the tectum
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Alar
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Two motor nuclei of the midbrain are CN ______ and ______
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3, 4
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CN 3 is rostral with the ______ colliculus while 4 is caudal with the ______ colliculus
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supeior, inferior
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In the diencephalon, the ______ develops into the pineal gland
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Epithalamus
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In the diencephalon, the alar plate turns into the ______
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Thalamus
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In the diencephalon, the basal plate becomes the ______
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Hypothalamus
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The ______ will direct all autonomic functions (oh no… terrible Neuro flashback)
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Hypothalamus
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In the diencehpalon, the ______ sulcus is similar in nature to the sulcus limitans in the way it divides sensory and motor areas
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Hypothalamic
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The eye and the retina develop from and outgrowth of the ______
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Diencephalon
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The lens ______ , on the ectoderm outside, induces the optic ______ to form
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Placode, vesicle
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The optic vesicle will fold in to form the optic ______
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Cup
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In a ______ retina, the pigmented and neural retina are separated
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Detached
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______ pouch grows up and the neurohypophysial bud grows down and they meet to form the ______ gland
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Rathke’s, pituitary
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The anterior pituitary is the ______ which came from ______
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Adenohypophysis, ectoderm
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In the adult, the back of the pituitary is an extension from the back of the ______
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Hypothalamus
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All pituitary hormones come from ______ pituitary, but 2 will empty in the posterior pituitary that came form somewhere else
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Anterior
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These two hormones are ______ (ADH) and ______
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Vasopressin, oxytocin
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The ______ ______ is where axons go from one side of the brain to the other
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Lamina terminalis
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Patients without a corpus callosum have ______ identifiable defects (No or many?)
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No (except from direct testing)
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Cortex starts out smooth which is called ______
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Lossencephalic
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Sulci and gyri vary ______ and develop with time (Greatly or minimally?)
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Greatly
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______ hemorrhage is bleeding in the brain and is usually a complication of premature birth that effects ______ infants each year
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Intracerebral, 10,000
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At ______ -______ weeks, the corpus striatum is immature and susceptible to hemorrhage
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24-32
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The ______ ______ grows out of the forebrain and projects into the diencephalon
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Olfactory nerve
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______ is an underdeveloped brain
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Microcephali
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The critical period of cortex development is ______ -______ weeks
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16-Aug
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______ is a failure of the telencephalon to form two sides and can cause ______ , where there is one midline eye
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Holoprosencephaly, cyclopia
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______ is where there is vast ventricular occupation of the cranium with no discernible telencephalon
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Hydrencephaly
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The skull is part of the ______ skeleton
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Axial
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There are two parts of the skull, the ______ and then ______
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Neurocranium, viscerocranium
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The neurocranium surrounds the ______
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Brain
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The Viscerocranium is the bones of the ______ and ______ cavities
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Face, nasal
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You do not need cartilage to form bone, it can be formed from ______
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Periostium
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Connective tissue of the head comes from 7 ______ and 4 ______ somites
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Somitomeres, occipital
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The ______ comes from rostral paraxial mesoderm, cephalic somitomeres
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Neurocranium
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Part of it also comes from ______ occipital somites (#)
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4
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Cartilaginous neurocranium forms the ______ of the skull while the membranous portion forms the bones of the ______
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Base, calvaria
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Membranous portion of ______ forms frontal bone, parietal bone, and squamous portions of the occipital bone
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Neurocranium
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Name the 7 types of cartilage that form the base of the skull
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Parachordal, hypophyseal, trabeculae cranii, ala orbitalis, ala temporalis, otic capsules
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The cartilaginous neurocranium is located in ______ of the nervous system (front or back?)
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Front
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______ ossification forms most of neurocranium
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Intramembranous
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Viscerocranium form from ______ ______ cells
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Neural crest
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Also called ______ ______
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Brachiomeric mesenchyme
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The branchial arches are derived from ______ ______
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Gill slits
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The first branchial arch has two prominences, a ______ and ______
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Maxillary, mandibular
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The maxillary prominence of the 1st branchial arch give rise to the maxilla, ______ bone, and ______ portion of the temporal lobe
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Zygomatic, squamous
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The mandibular prominence of the 1st branchial arch gives rise to the ______
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Mandible
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There are minor cartilaginous portions associated with each branchial arch which all calcify by ______ ossification
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Intrachondral
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First branchial arch forms ______ and ______
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Malleus, incus
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Second branchial arch gives rise to the ______ , the ______ process, the ______ horn of the hyoid and the ______ portion of the hyoid bone
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Stapes, styloid, lesser, upper
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The third branchial arch gives rise to the ______ horn of the hyoid and the ______ portion of the hyoid
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Greater, inferior
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The 4th and 6th give rise to ______ cartilage and ______ cartilage
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Thyroid, cricoid
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The ______ is where the membrane has developed but not yet ossified
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Bregma
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Sutures are fibrous joints that allow the baby to do what?
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Fit through the birth canal
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If you have premature closure of the fontanelles you can get ______ where the baby doesn’t fit
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Craniosynostosis
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______ is the junction of many sutures
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Fontanelle
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Ocular extrinsic muscles come from somitomeres ______ , ______ , ______ , and ______
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1, 2, 3, 5
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Brachiomeric muscles come from somitomeres ______ , ______ , and ______ as well as occipital somites ______ and ______
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4, 6, 7, 1, 2
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Tongue muscles come from occipital somites ______ , ______ and 4______
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2, 3, 4
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Wherever a ______ migrates it takes its nerve with it
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Myotome
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Head musculature is derived from the ______ mesoderm, the myotome portion
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Paraxial
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______ muscles take CN 3, 4, and 6
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Ocular
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______ muscles take CN 5, 7, 9, 10, and 11
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Brachiomeric
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______ muscles take CN 12
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Tongue
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Remember the rule for eye muscles! (LR6, SO4, all others are CN ______ )
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3
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Somitomere 1 and 2 are associated with the ______ midbrain and take CN 3
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Rostral
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Somitomere 3 is associated with the caudal midbrain and takes CN ______
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4
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Somitomere 5 is associated with the rostral pons and takes CN ______
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6
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Muscles of 1st branchial arch are muscles of ______ and are derived from somitomere ______
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Mastication, 4
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The nerve of the 1st branchial arch is CN ______
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5
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The muscles of the 2nd branchial arch for the muscles of ______ ______ , derived from somitomere ______ , and take with it CN ______
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Facial expression, 6, 7
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The 3rd branchial arch is from somitomere ______ gets CN 9 and the only muscle it innervates is the ______
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7, stylopharyngeus
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The 4th branchial arch is innervated by ______ branch of CN 10 and comes from occipital somites ______ and ______
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Pharyngeal, 1, 2
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The 6th branchial arch is innervated by the ______ branch of CN 10 and comes from ______ somites
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Recurrent, occipital
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The ______ and ______ are exceptions, innervated by spinal accessory part of CN ______
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Sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, 11
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Tongue muscles come from ______ somites 2, 3, and 4, are innervated by ______ nerve (CN 12) and innervate all tongue muscles except ______
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Occipital, hypoglossal, palatoglossus
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The branchial apparatus has paired ridges called branchial ______
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Arches
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The arches will form as the embryo is folding and as the ______ portion folds ventrally
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Cranial
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Branchial arches are retained in fish as ______
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Gills
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The ______ ______ cells are what primarily give rise to the head parts
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Neural crest
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There are ______ branchial arches that form but arch 5 disappears
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6
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Arches ______ , ______ , and ______ , are typically the only ones that are visible
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1, 2, 3
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The ______ , which is lined with endoderm, will out-pouch and give rise to diverticulum that will form to oppose the branchial ______ between the arches
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Pharynx, grooves
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Internally, there is a branchial ______
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Pouch
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The branchial apparatus consists of what 4 structures?
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Arches, grooves, pouches, and membrane
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The 1st arch gives rise to the upper and lower jaw portions via the ______ and ______ prominence
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Maxillary, mandibular
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There are ______ external grooves separating each arch
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4
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The ______ is a cavity that forms from the growing of arch 1
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Stomodeum
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The stomodeum is lined with ______
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Ectoderm
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On the interior, the oropharyngeal membrane is lined with ______
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Endoderm
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The stomodeum gives rise to the ______ 2/3 of the oral cavity
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Anterior
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The stomodeum is separated from the forgut by the ______ membrane
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Oropharyngeal
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______ arch is the remnant of the oropharyngeal membrane and is thus the junction of the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue
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Palatoglossal
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The ______ pouches with evagonate laterally and oppose the branchial grooves and create a membrane
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Pharyngeal
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Pharyngeal pouches are lined with ______
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Endoderm
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The pharynx is derived from the ______
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Foregut
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Within each arch we have mesenchyme derived mostly from ______ ______ cells
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Neural crest
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Each arch will have its own nerve innervation from a cranial nerve so typically a single arch is innervated by ______ cranial nerve
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1
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Each arch has its own branch of the ______ (think blood)
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Aorta
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Branchial groove 1 gives rise to the ______ ______ canal and is located between arch 1 and 2
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External acoustic
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Arch ______ overgrows arch 3 and merges with arch ______ so that grooves 2, 3, and 4 are hidden and become a cervical sinus which will typically regress
|
2, 4
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In the mandibular prominence, ______ cartilage forms the malleus and ______ but the rest of the lower jaw comes via ______ ossification
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Meckel’s, incus, intramembranous
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Arch 2 has ______ cartilage which will regress like Meckel’s cartilage, but will form the ______ , styloid process, and ______ ½ of hyoid bone via endochondral bone formation
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Reichert’s, stapes, upper
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Arch 3 form the ______ ½ of the hyoid bone by ______ bone formation
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Lower, endochondral
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Arches 4, 5, and 6 form the cartilage of the larynx EXCEPT for the ______
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Epiglottis
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Arch 1 has CN ______ , branches ______ and ______ .
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5, V2, V3
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Arch 2 has CN ______
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7
|
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Arch 3 has CN ______
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9
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Arch ______ and ______ has the superior and recurrent laryngeal of CN 10 respectively
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4, 6
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Branchial muscles come from ______ mesoderm
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Somitic
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The muscles of each arch will be supplied by the ______ nerve of that arch
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Cranial
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Arch 1 muscles include all muscles supplied by V3. What are these?
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Mastication, “the tensors”, anterior belly of digastric, mylohyoid
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Arch 2 muscles include all muscles supplied by cranial nerve 7. What are these?
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Facial expression, sylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric, stapedius (that little one on your ear)
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Arch 3 muscle, ______ , is innervated by CN 9
|
Stylopharyngeus
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Arch 4 muscles are innervated by ______ laryngeal branch of the vagus (CN 10) and include which muscles?
|
Superior, [cricothyroid, levator veli palatini, 3 constrictors of pharynx, palatoglossus]
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Branchial arch 6 is innervated by the ______ ______ of CN 10 and includes the intrinsic muscles of the larynx
|
Recurrent laryngeal
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The ______ pouches are forming internally and are evaginating to meet the branchial grooves and lined with endoderm
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Pharyngeal
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Pharyngeal pouch 1 will give rise to the ______ recess and eventually the middle ear. It will also connect to the pharynx via the ______ tube
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Tubotympanic, eustachian
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The epithelium of the ______ tonsil as well as the tonsilar ______ is derived from pharyngeal pouch 2
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Palatine, crypts
|
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Pharyngeal pouch 3 has a dorsal and a ventral portion. The dorsal portion gives rise to the ______ ______ glands while the ventral portion gives rise to the ______ gland. They will actually break away and migrate down into the ______ .
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Inferior parathyroid, thymus, neck
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Pharyngeal pouch 4 also has a dorsal and ventral portion. The dorsal portion will give rise to the ______ ______ glands while the ventral portion will give rise to the ______ body which eventually gives rise to ______ which regulate calcium metabolism
|
Superior parathyroid, ultimobranchial, C-cells
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The ______ parathyroid gland migrates further down into the neck than the ______ thyroid even though they start in their branchial arches in the opposite orientation
|
Inferior, superior
|
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The thyroid gland _____ derived from the pharyngeal pouches (is / is not?)
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Is not
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The thyroid gland is the ______ endocrine organ to develop (first, second, third…?)
|
First
|
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The thryoid gland diverticulum forms in the developing ______ which gives rise to the foramen ______ allowing the diverticulum to descend into the neck where the gland can form
|
Tongue, cecum
|
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The ______ duct is the opening in the tube that is created from the thyroid diverticulum which should close as an adult
|
Thyroglossal
|
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If the thyroid gland doesn’t descend, its called a ______ thyroid and is usually associated with ______ syndrome
|
Lingual, Downs
|
|
You can diagnose thyroglossal duct ______ because if the patient extends their tongue them moves
|
Cysts
|
|
The ______ lobe is a midline lobe that can form from extra thyroid tissue that did not completely descend
|
Pyramidal
|
|
A branchial ______ can form if a branchial arch does not properly close
|
Cyst
|
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First arch syndrome is a defect in many of the structures from this arch and is typically thought to be a ______ ______ cell issue where they do not fully migrate
|
Neural crest
|
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______ ______ is a lack of parathyroid and thalamus glands and tends to effect the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch and can also be associated with heart defect
|
DiGeorge Syndrome
|
|
______ glandular tissue is due to abnormal migration of tissues
|
Ectopic
|
|
______ give rise to the muscles of the branchial arches
|
Somitomeres
|
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The face will develop mainly from ______ arches
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Branchial
|
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The frontal prominence (is, is not) a branchial arch
|
Is not
|
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The beginning of the oral cavity forms from the ______
|
Stomodeum
|
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The stomodeum forms the ______ 2/3 of the oral cavity
|
Anterior
|
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The stomodeum gives rise to ______ ______ which will grow into diencephalon to form the anterior lobe of the pituitary
|
Rathke’s pouch
|
|
The face is formed from five facial ______
|
Primordia
|
|
Nasal placode form as a thickening on the ______ prominence that then migrate ______ and fuse
|
Frontonasal, medially
|
|
All places where facial primordial come together are potential places for ______ to develop
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Clefts
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The nasal placodes give rise to the nasal ______
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Pits
|
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A groove between maxillary prominence and lateral nasal prominence will give rise to ______ groove (which will become nasolacrimal canal)
|
Nasolacrimal
|
|
The ______ segment is created from the fusion of the two medial nasal prominences
|
Intermaxillary
|
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The intermaxillary segment forms ______ of the lip, flesh part of nasal septum, ______ part of maxilla, etc.
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Filtrum, premaxillary
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Intermaxillary segment also forms the ______ palate
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Primary
|
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The primitive ______ is the connection between the nasal and oral cavity
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Choana
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|
Sensory innervation of the face comes from CN ______
|
5
|
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Facial muscles all come from branchial arch ______
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2
|
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CN ______ supplies the muscles from branchial arch 2
|
7
|
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Nasal cavities form from the nasal ______
|
Pits
|
|
The secondary palate forms which gives us a distinct ______ and oral cavity
|
Nasal
|
|
Initially, the ______ membrane separates the nasal pit and the oral cavity
|
Oronasal
|
|
Internally there are lateral ______ processes (or palatal shelves) which are internal extensions of the maxillary prominences
|
Palatine
|
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With growth of embryo, and elongation of the face, the ______ ______ will flip up and fuse with each other, the nasal septum, and the primary palate
|
Palatal shelves
|
|
The palatal shelves are inward extensions of the ______ prominences
|
Maxillary
|
|
The teeth develop from ______ prominence, the dental lamina
|
Maxillary
|
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Many time, the first evidence of a cleft is that the ______ are severely out of line
|
Teeth
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|
______ clefts involve the primary palate and lip, ______ clefts involve the palatal shelves and their fusion with the nasal septum
|
Anterior, posterior
|
|
Hare lips are normal in some animals but in humans, it is a cleft and is the non-fusion of the medial ______ prominences
|
Nasal
|
|
Cleft Palates are about 1 in 2500 births and occur more often in ______
|
Females
|
|
4 things cause a cleft palate, name them.
|
Small palatal shelves, palatal shelves to not elevate, palatal shelves do not fuse, the tongue does not drop between the shelves
|
|
The tongue is divided into an ______ 2/3 and ______ 1/3 which has separate innervations
|
Anterior, posterior
|
|
The anterior 2/3 of the tongue comes from the ______ which is ectoderm
|
Stomodeum
|
|
Initially there are swellings in the floor of the ______ that are called tongue buds
|
Pharynx
|
|
The median tongue bud is called the ______ ______ and the distal tongue buds are the lateral ______ swellings
|
Tuberculum impar, lingual
|
|
The tongue buds give rise to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and are innervated by CN ______ (general tough, pain, etc.) and CN ______ (glands and taste)
|
5, 7
|
|
The posterior 1/3 of the tongue comes from pharynx ______
|
Endoderm
|
|
The ______ eminence forms the posterior 1/3 of the tongue in branchial arch 3
|
Hypobranchial
|
|
CN ______ innervates the posterior 1/3 of the tongue for general sensation as well as taste
|
9
|
|
The root of the tongue also forms from the hypobranchial eminence but is from branchial arch ______ and is associated with CN ______
|
4, 10
|
|
The foramen ______ is at the fusion of the terminal sulcus and the central sulcus
|
Cecum
|
|
The foramen cecum is where the ______ duct will form
|
Thyroglossal
|
|
The Lingual papillae appear around the ______ week
|
8th
|
|
The ______ and foliate are the first papillae to appear and are associated with posterior 1/3 of tongue, taste by CN ______
|
Circumvallate, 9
|
|
______ appear on anterior 2/3 and innervated by CN ______ (remember, TASTE, not general sensation!)
|
Fingiforms, 7
|
|
Fetuses can taste around ______ -______ weeks and can be exposed to tastes in utero
|
26-28
|
|
The musculature of the tongue comes from ______ somites located below the branchial arches
|
Occipital
|
|
The tongue ______ come in below the 6th branchial arch and thus carry CN ______ for motor innervation
|
Myoblasts, 12
|
|
The thyroglossal duct failing to regress is called a congenital lingual cyst and if it is open to foramen ______ , it is called a fistula
|
Cecum
|
|
It the thyroid never migrates, you get a ______ ______ and is associated with downs syndrome
|
Lingual thyroid
|
|
In 2-5% of the population, the tongue is significantly ______
|
Fissured
|
|
A ______ ______ ______ is a hairy tongue where the filiform papillae hypertrophy due to poor oral hygiene
|
Hypertrophic lingual papillae
|
|
There are three sets of salivary glands, ______ , ______ , and ______ .
|
Submandibular, parotid, sublingual
|
|
The salivary glands start as ______ buds from primitive oral cavity
|
Epithelial
|
|
Anterior salivary glands are lined with ______ whereas glands from the posterior part of the oral cavity are lined with ______
|
Ectoderm, endoderm
|
|
The salivary glands develop through a process called ______ ______ and this process occurs many other places as well. It is characterized by the continual branching of a bud
|
Branching morphogenesis
|
|
The oral epithelium are the cells that are secretory and the connective tissue around the salivary glands are from ______
|
Mesenchyme
|
|
Parotid glands form from oral ectoderm and grow towards the ______
|
Ear
|
|
Submandibular glands develop as paired buds from ______ and grow posteriorly, lateral to the tongue
|
Endoderm
|
|
Sublingual glands are from ______ are on either side of the tongue as multiple buds on the floor of the mouth
|
Endoderm
|
|
The dental lamina forms in the ______ ______ of the mandible and maxilla
|
Ectodermal epithelium
|
|
Teeth ______ form from upper and lower dental lamina (10 on top and 10 on bottom)
|
Buds
|
|
The tooth bud will invaginate and be filled with ______ ______ cells which form the core of the tooth
|
Neural crest
|
|
______ develop from neural crest and make dentin
|
Odonoblasts
|
|
______ come from ectoderm and make enamel
|
Ameloblasts
|
|
The ameloblasts shed after eruption meaning no more ______ is created after tooth eruption
|
Enamel
|
|
There are three stages of tooth development, the bud, ______ and ______ stage
|
Cap, bell
|
|
If there is a cleft, that can interrupt the dental lamina which means teeth can be a good signal for the presence of a ______
|
Cleft
|
|
Neural crest cells give rise to ______ which deposit cementum that anchors the tooth via the periodontal ligament
|
Cementoblasts
|
|
All teeth develop prenatally except the ______ molar
|
3rd
|
|
Enamal hypotlasia is a lack of adequate ______ production due to nutritonal deficiency, tetracycline drugs, or rickets
|
Enamel
|
|
Rickets is a deficiency of vitamin ______
|
D
|
|
The larynx has 2 types of cartilage visible from the outside, ______ and ______
|
Thyroid, cricoid
|
|
The ______ septum must be perfectly aligned to separate the esophagus and trachea properly
|
Tracheoesophogeal
|
|
______ swellings are where we get the laryngeal cartilage as well as the muscles that control vocal cords
|
Arytenoid
|
|
Cricothyroid cartilage is from arch ______ , intrinsic muscles of larynx are from arch ______ (recurrent branch of CN 10)
|
4, 6
|
|
Without proper closure of the tracheoesophogeal septum, you can get esophageal ______ or tracheoesophageal ______
|
Atresia, fistula
|
|
There are several prenatal symptoms of this:
|
Maternal polyhydramnios (EA), Absence of stomach gas on prenatal ultrasound (EA), Copious, fine white frothy bubbles of mucus in the mouth and nose (EA), Coughing and choking [food in respiratory tract] (TEF), Abdominal distention may occur secondary to collection of air in stomach (TEF)
|
|
Blood supply to the branchial arches are the ______ arches
|
Aortic
|
|
______ aortic arch disappears as well as aortic arch ______ and ______
|
5th, 1, 2
|
|
Aortic arch ______ forms the right and left common carotid (a 3 looks like 2 C’s on top of each other!)
|
3
|
|
Aortic arch ______ on the right forms the subclavian and on the left it forms the aorta (a 4 has its loop on the left, just like the LEFT side that makes the aortic arch!)
|
4
|
|
Aortic arch ______ on the right is the right pulmonary artery and the distal portion goes away. For the left, it forms the left ______ artery and the distal part forms the ______ ______ which becomes ligamentus after birth
|
6, pulmonary, ductus arteriosis
|
|
The ______ ______ nerve loops under the subclavian on the right and under the ligamentum arteriosum on the left (Ligamentum on the Left)
|
Recurrent laryngeal
|
|
On the right, the recurrent nerve starts below arch 6 but since 6 and 5 go away, the nerve can “float” up under arch ______ on the right (subclavian)
|
4
|
|
A ______ aortic arch occurs when the right aorta does not go away which can constrict the esophagus and trachea, causing trouble in swallowing and breathing
|
Double
|
|
If the right 4th aortic arch goes away when it shouldn’t, you get right ______ subclavian artery
|
Retroesophageal
|
|
______ are narrowings of an artery (in this case, the aorta)
|
Coarctations
|
|
There are pre- and post-ductal coarctations where the aorta hypertrophies either before or after the ______ ______ . The pre-ductal is worse because it does not allow ______ through the ductus arteriosis
|
Ductus arteriosis, blood
|
|
A patent ductus arteriosis is where the ductus arteriosis does not close due to low ______ which occurs commonly in premature babies with respiratory distress syndrome
|
Oxygen
|
|
______ virus is also a common cause of patent ductus arteriosis
|
Rubella
|
|
The ______ begin as outgrowths of the forebrain
|
Eyes
|
|
Optic grooves grow out into developing head and then expand into optic ______
|
Vesicles
|
|
The optic vesicle makes the surface ectoderm develop into the ______
|
Lens
|
|
Lens ______ will break off and form a little vesicle that becomes the lens
|
Placode
|
|
Optic ______ begins initial development of all ocular structures
|
Cup
|
|
Optic cup invaginates dorsally and ventrally and it’s ventral invagination forms the ______ fissure
|
Choroid
|
|
The choroid fissure allows passage of blood from brain area through the eye and to the lens, but these will eventually ______
|
Degenerate
|
|
Inner layer of optic cup gives rise to ______
|
Retina
|
|
Outer later of optic cup is 1 layer, retinal ______ epithelium
|
Pigmented
|
|
Space of optic cup gets smaller and smaller and in mature eye, there is no space but is a ______ space where ______ can become detached
|
Potential, retina
|
|
Outermost area of neural retina has the actual ______
|
Photoreceptors
|
|
Most of inner layer of optic cup is ______ sensitive (posterior 4/5)
|
Light
|
|
Anterior 1/5 of optic cup is ______ ______ and gives rise to iris and ciliary bodies
|
Pars ceca
|
|
Sphincter pupillae come from optic ______
|
Vesicle
|
|
______ ______ cells form cilliary muscles
|
Neural crest
|
|
Non-pigmented iris is from the ______ layer of optic cup
|
Inner
|
|
______ fibers are cells just like any other and divide throughout life
|
Lens
|
|
The choroid is a ______ layer that supports the retina
|
Vascular
|
|
Just outside the choroid is the ______ which comes from neural crest cells
|
Sclera
|
|
Surface of ______ is continuous with inner lining of the eyelid
|
Cornea
|
|
Anterior ______ is a space in the neural crest between cornea and lens
|
Chamber
|
|
______ membrane must degrade so the pupil can become completely clear
|
Iridopupillary
|
|
The optic stalk connects the optic cup and brain and will eventually form the optic ______
|
Nerve
|
|
Choroid fissure closes at around ______ days
|
37
|
|
______ cells fill optic stalk
|
Ganglion
|
|
There are many transcription factors in eye development, the most famous of which is ______ because it induces further development of the lens
|
Pax 6
|
|
If no lens form, no optic ______ invagination
|
Cup
|
|
______ is where the choroid fissure does not completely close and can continue into the iris
|
Coloboma
|
|
Persistent iridopupillary membrane is where that membrane does not breakdown and can impair ______
|
Vision
|
|
Micropthalmia is a ______ eye and ______ is failure of an eye to form
|
Small, anopathalmia
|
|
The middle ear connects to the outside through the ______ tube
|
Auditory
|
|
Inner ear is sensory organ of the ear which receives vibrations from bony ______
|
Ossicles
|
|
2 major parts to inner ear: ______ ______ canals and cochlea
|
Semi circular, cochlea
|
|
Thickening of surface ectoderm on rhombencephalon form otic ______
|
Placodes
|
|
Otic placodes invaginate and form otic ______
|
Pits
|
|
Otic pit breaks off and forms otic ______
|
Vesicle
|
|
Inner ear comes from ______
|
Ectoderm
|
|
Dorsal portion is ______ portion that form into semicircular canals while ventral portion is ______ portion that forms into cochlea
|
Uticular, sacular
|
|
Organ of ______ is the sensory organ for hearing in the middle of choclear duct which coils in the bone
|
Corti
|
|
CN ______ sends impulses to spiral ganglion from Organ of Corti
|
8
|
|
______ ______ vibrations cause basilar membrane to move and hit tectoral membrane which bend cilia and send action potentials to spiral ganglion
|
Scala tympani
|
|
Cells of ______ duct are what form the organ of corti
|
Cochlear
|
|
Walls of ______ portion fuse and the connection degenerates to form loops
|
Utricular
|
|
______ ______ detects motion and movement
|
Crus ampullare
|
|
Inside the crus ampullare are ______ that bend based on how your head is moved
|
Capula
|
|
______ recess will enclose cells of neural crest in arch 1 and 2 which give rise to bony ossicles in ______ ear (malleus, incus are arch 1, stapes is arch 2)
|
Tubotympanic, middle
|
|
Tympanic membrane is between arch ______ and groove ______
|
1, 1
|
|
Tensor tympani inserts on ______ and prevents it from moving too much, innervated by CN ______ and is from arch 1
|
Malleus, 5
|
|
Stapedius controls ______ muscles and is innervated by CN ______
|
Stapes, 7
|
|
Auricle develops on either side of the neck and form from 6 auricular ______
|
Hillocks
|
|
1st arch syndrome is associated with low set ______
|
Ears
|
|
Embryo folds to form gut tube and become more ______ shaped
|
Cylindrically
|
|
Connecting stalk gets narrower as embryo folds and will become ______ cord
|
Umbilical
|
|
Fertilized egg becomes the zygote which forms a cavity and becomes the ______
|
Blastocyst
|
|
The ______ ______ mass will give rise to the embryo proper
|
Inner cell
|
|
______ allows for anchoring and burrowing of blastocyst into uterine wall
|
Syncytiotrophoblast
|
|
Within the inner cell mass, the ______ cavity forms
|
Amnionic
|
|
Inner cell mass forms ______ cells
|
Amnioblast
|
|
______ of uterus is where blastocyst is embedded
|
Endometrium
|
|
______ form in syncytiotropoblast to allow maternal blood to bathe the embryo
|
Lacunae
|
|
______ ______ forms spaces that coalesce into 1 cavity forming the extraembryonic celoem (aka chorionic cavity)
|
Extraembryonic mesoderm
|
|
Splanchnic mesoderm surrounds the ______ ______
|
Yolk sac
|
|
Amnionic fluid is used for 4 things, what are they?
|
Cushion, prevent adhesion, freedom of movement, control body temperature
|
|
______ membrane consists of extraembryonic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotropblast
|
Chorionic
|
|
______ , which are extentions of syncytiotrophoblast, begin developing at 13 days
|
Vili
|
|
Eventually, all ______ chorionic layers will fold into the vili (#)
|
Three
|
|
Tertiary villus have ______ blood
|
Embryonic
|
|
Cytotrophoblastic ______ extends to anchor the embryo
|
Shell
|
|
Chorion ______ is the part of the chorion adjacent to the embryo wile the chorion leavae are on the outside
|
Frondosum
|
|
______ is a way to test amnionic fluid to look for malformations and cannot be done until late in the pregnancy
|
Amniocentesis
|
|
Chorionic villus sampling can be done earlier then amniocentesis and has a slightly (higher/lower) risk of miscarry
|
Higher
|
|
______ ______ gives rise to digestive system as well as blood vessels
|
Yolk sac
|
|
Germ cells from yolk sac migrate to developing ______
|
Gonads
|
|
______ is extension of yolk sac that extends into connecting stalk and doesn’t really do anything except form the median umbilical ligament
|
Allantois
|
|
______ refers to endometrium of pregnancy
|
Decidua
|
|
Decidua ______ is immediately underlying site of implantation and oppose vilis chorion, decidua ______ is everything outside region of embryo, and decidua ______ is the potion covering the embryo
|
Basalis, parietalis, capsularis
|
|
As the embryo grows, it grows into the ______ cavity which in turn fills the ______ cavity
|
Chorionic, uterine
|
|
The amnion fuses with chorion eventually, and will cause decidua ______ to degenerate so the decidua parietalis fuses with the chorion
|
Capsilaris
|
|
______ -______ membrane is the final membrane formed that ruptures before birth
|
Chorio-amnionic
|
|
Villous chorion is fetal portion of placenta and decidua ______ is maternal portion of placenta
|
Basalis
|
|
Intervillus space is where ______ blood is located
|
Maternal
|
|
Branch villi is where ______ exchange occurs between mother and fetus
|
Blood
|
|
After ______ weeks, tertiary villus thins
|
20
|
|
Barrier between maternal and fetal blood is called ______ membrane; also site of ______ exchange for fetus
|
Vasculosyncytial, gas
|
|
Fetal surface of placenta is covered with smooth ______
|
Amnion
|
|
Maternal surface of placenta is not covered with amnion but has clumps of ______ instead
|
Vili
|
|
______ insertion of umbilical cord is where umbilical vessels travel in smooth chorion before inserting into vilis chorion and can make them vulnerable to damage.
|
Velamentous
|
|
What passes through the placenta via simple diffusion?
|
gas, lipids, water electrolytes
|
|
What passes through the placenta via facilitated diffusion?
|
carbs
|
|
What passes through the placenta via active transport?
|
amino acids, water soluble vitamins
|
|
What passes through the placenta via pinocytes?
|
protein, -IgG
|
|
Placenta has large endocrine function, mainly by ______ cells
|
Syncytiotrophoblast
|
|
After 10 weeks, embryo is making enough ______ to bring it to full term
|
Progesterone
|
|
______ is earliest sign of pregnancy and is a hormone made by syncitiotrophoblast so that the corpus lutium is maintained
|
hCG
|
|
Parturition has 4 stages, the first of which is cervical dilation as a result of uterine contractions and is the ______ stage, lasting ______ or more hours
|
Longest, 12
|
|
Stage 2 of parturition is ______
|
Delivery
|
|
Stage 3 is the delivery of the placenta to prevent ______ loss from the mother and is removed
|
Blood
|
|
Stage 4 is ______ where the uterine size decreases and maternal blood is sealed off to avoid excess bleeding
|
Recovery
|
|
______ twins are identical twins, and ______ twins are fraternal twins
|
Monozygotic, dizygotic
|
|
When twins are born, it is often (quite easy/hard) to tell if they are identical or not
|
Hard
|
|
______ maternal age causes an increase in dizygotic twins
|
Increased
|
|
Dizygotic twins are the result of two ______ being fertilized by two different sperm so they are only as identical as a normal brother and sister because the two embryos develop independently
|
Oocytes
|
|
______ twins implant separately, but if the implant close enough, the placenta can fuse and make it look like ______ twins
|
Dizygotic, monozygotic
|
|
Monozygotic twins are (more/less) common than dizogotic
|
Less
|
|
Monozygotic twins occur when a ______ splits so the fetuses are genetically identical and you can have and early or late split
|
Zygote
|
|
______ splitting in monozygotic twins appear as though they are dizygotic because they are free to implant separately
|
Early
|
|
______ splitting is more common and happens after blastocyst forms so you only have chorionic cavity but one or two amnionic cavities
|
Late
|
|
______ space does not contain fetal blood, just maternal blood
|
Intervillous
|
|
Amnionic cavity is a space between the ______ and the ______ ______ ______
|
Trophoblast, inner cell mass
|