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130 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Embryo
1) What is the most sensitive period of development of the fetus?
A. The first month
B. 1st to 3rd week
C. 3rd to 8th week
D. 1st to 2nd week
E. None of the above
C
2) Which proteins controls cell invagination in gastrulation?
A. FGF8
B. Brachyury (T)
C. TGF β
D. lefty 2
E. BMP4
A
3) What is not a congenital malformation due to rubella virus?
A. Cataract
B. Heart defects
C. Deafness
D. Glaucoma
E. mental retardation
E
4) What is the main function(s) of the placenta ?
A. Transmission of maternal antibodies
B. Hormone production
C. Exchange of gases
D. exchange of nutrients and electroytes
E. all of the above
E
5) What is the only monosomy compatible with life?
A. Down syndrome
B: Kinefelter syndrome
C. Turner Syndrome
D. Parder- Willi syndrome
E. There is no monosomy compatible with life
C
6) Which of the hormones may be important for establishment of right sidedness?
A. FGF8
B. Snail
C. Lefty 1
D. Nodal
E. PITX2
B
7) When is the physiological umbilical hernia completely withdrawn into the body of the embryo?
A. end of 1st week
B. during 2nd week of gastrulation
C. end of 1st week
D. end of 3rd month
E. end of 6th month
D
8) On what day does the primitive streak clearly visible?
A. 12-13 day
B. 13-14 day
C. 14-15 day
D. 15-16 day
E. 16-17 day
D
9) How long is a pregnancy?
A. 280 days, 40 weeks, after fertilization
B. 266 days, 38 weeks after fertilization
C. 266 days, 38 weeks after normal menstrual period
D. 266 days, 40 weeks, after normal menstrual period
E. 280 days, 38 weeks, after fertilization
B
10) Which of the following is not a fetal membrane?
A. chorion
B. yolk sac
C. amnion
D Heuser’s membrane
E. Allantois
D
11) What is not a structure of tertiary villus in the 3rd week?
A. capillaries
B. intervillous space
C. cytotrophoblasts
D. spiral artery
E.syncytiotrophoblast
D
12) Which of the structures does not derivate from the mesoderm germ layer?
A. Urinary bladder
B. Spleen
C. Vascular system
D. kidneys
E. somitomers
A
13) At what day does the neural tube approximately close?
A. Cranial part at day 25th, caudal part at day 29th
B. Cranial part at day 27th, caudal part at day 25th
C. Cranial part at day 27th, caudal part at day 29th
D. Both at day 25th
E. Cranial part at day 25th, caudal part at day 27th
E
14) What is the rate for monozygotic twins?
A. 3-4 pr 100 births
B. 3-4 pr 1000 births
C. 3-4 pr million births
D. 3-4% of the population
E. 7-11 pr 1000 births
B
15) What is true about homeobox genes?
A. Are transcription factors that contain a homeobox
B. Important for pattering of embryonic axis
C. Helps establishing different regions of the brain
D. Plays a role in determining the origin and type of gut derivatives
E. All of the above is correct
E
16) Why will a fetus born early in the sixth month have difficulties surviving?
A. The lungs haven’t started to develop
B. The digestive system is not fully developed
C. The coordination between the respiratory system and cns is not well established
D. The subcutaneous layer under the skin is lacking
E. The fetus weight is under 2000 g
C
17) Where those most of ectopic (extrauterine) pregnancy take place?
A. implantation on abdominal cavity
B. Ovarian implantation
C. Intestinal implantation
D. Uterine tube
E. Implantation in the region of internal os
B
18) Which processes does not take place in the 3rd week?
A. Apperance of somites
B. Closure of neural tube
C. Tertiary villus begins to form
D. Implantation occurs
E. the first blood island appear in mesoderm
D
19) What does the groups of GDF (growth and differentiation factors) include?
A.FGF, (fibroblast growth factor), WNT, Hedgehog, TGFβ (Transforming growth factor β) family
B.WNT, FGF, Hedgehog
C.FGF, TGFβ, Hedgehog
D. WNT, TGFβ, FGF
E. none of the above is correct
A
20) What is an example o f genomic imprinting?
A. Pader- Willi and Angelman syndrome
B. Miller- Dieker and Shprintzer syndrome
C. cri-du-chat syndrome
D. chromosomal trisomy
E. any alternation of germ cells
A
21) Which hormone is produced in both the corpus luteum and placenta during pregnancy?
A. Human Chorionic gonadotropin
B. estrogenic hormones
C. Progresteron
D. Luteinizing hormone
E. Somatomammotropin
C
22) In which order do the phases of the mucosa go when pregnancy occurs?
A. Menstrual phase, follicular phase, proliferativ phase, gravid phase
B. Menstrual phase, follicular phase, secretory phase, gravid phase
C. Menstual phase, secretory phase, proliferativ phase, gravid phase
D. Menstrual phase, progestational phase, secretory phase, gravid phase
E. Menstrual phase, proliferative phase, progestational phase, menstrual phase
B
23) At which day those the lacunar stage of the trophoblast development occure?
A. day 8
B. day 9
C. day 11
D. day 12
E. day13
B
24) Crest cells that migrate fro the neural tube along the ventral pathway of tha anterior halv of each somite become:
A. melanocytes
B. Cranial gila
C. craniofacial skeleton
D. otic placodes
E. cells of adrenal medulla
E
25) What are the stage(s) of labor?
A. Effacement
B. Delivery of the fetus
C. Delivery of the placenta and fetal memebranes
D. all of the above
E. Answer A & B
D
26) What is the leading cause of mental retardaction
A. Alcohol
B. Hyperthermia
C. cigarette smoking
D. birth control pills
E. nutritional deficiencies
A
27) What is not a type of fetal therapy?
A. Transfusion
B. Fetal medical treatment
C. Fetal surgery
D. Ultrasound
E. Stem cell transplantation
D
28) Which of the following is not a malformation associated with alcohol?
A. Short palpebral fissures
B. Maxillary hypoplasia
C. Cleft lip
D. Heart defects
E. Mental retardation
C
29) If the α-fetoprotein (AFP) decreases in the amnionic fluid this may be an indication of:
A. Omphalocele
B. Amniotic band syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
E. Bladder exstrophy
C
30) In which ways does the egg respond as soon as the spermatozoon enters?
A. Cortical and zona reactions
B. Resumption of the secondary meiotic division
C. Metabolic activation of the egg
D. B & C
E. A, B,& C
E
1. Vemix caseosa is a fatty substance covering by the end of the intrauterine life.
A. Fetal part of the placenta
B. Umbilical cord
C. Skin of the fetus
D. Luminal surface of intestine of the fetus
E. Intraembryonic cavity
C
2. The buccopharyngeal membrane is formed by
A. Ectoderm and endoderm
B. Ectoderm and mesoderm and endoderm
C. Ectoderm and mesoderm
D. Endoderm and mesoderm
E. Mesoderm
A
3. Placenta previa result from implantation in
A. Douglas pouch
B. Uterine tube
C. Ovary
D. Posterior wall of the body of the fetus
E. The region of the internal opening (os) of the cervix
E
4. Erythboblastosis is fetalis disease may occur in cases where
A. The fetus is RH(+) and the mother is RH(-)
B. The fetus is RH(-) and the mother is RH(-)
C. The fetus is RH(+) and the mother is RH(+)
D. The fetus is RH(-) and the mother is RH(+)
E. Fetal red blood cells are not able to contact the maternal blood
A
5. Cotyledons are compartments of
A. Somites
B. Nephrogenic cord
C. Neural crest
D. Placenta
E. Umbilical cord
D
6. Situs inversus is a condition occurring in approximately 20% of patients with
A. Down syndrome
B. Kartagener syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Tumer syndrome
E. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
B
7. The embryo at the time of implantation is in the
a. 2-cell stage
b. 8-cell satge
c. Morula stage
d. Blastocyst stage
e. Three germ layers stage
B
8. Maintaining of structure and function of corpus luteum during the first intrauterine of pregnancy depending on
a. hCG
b. somatommamotropin production
c. progesterone production
d. growth hormone production
e. estriol production
A
9. the length of a normal pregnancy is considered to be
a. 280 days after fertilization
b. 266 days after fertilization
c. 238 days after fertilization
d. 210 days after fertilization
e. 140 days after fertilization
B
10. During ovulation extruded from ovary to the uterine tube is the
a. Oogonium
b. Primary oocyte in prophase
c. Primary oocyte in metaphase
d. Secondary oocyte in prophase
e. Secondary occyte in metaphase
E
11. The lens placode is a derivative of
a. Ectodermal germ layer
b. Endodermal germ layer
c. Mesodermal germ layer
d. Mesenchyme
e. Both, endodermal and mesodermal germ layer
A
12. Which one is not the approach used for assisted reproductive technology?
a. ICSI
b. ZIFT
c. OMI
d. IVF
e. GIFT
C
13. A phenomenon occurring during the third week of development is
a. Formation of the bilaminar germ disc
b. Formation of the notochord
c. Exocelomic cavity formation
d. Formation of the cytotrophoblast and syncytitrophoblast
e. Cortical reaction
B
14. The parenchyma of the thyroid gland develops from the
a. Mesoderm
b. Mesenchyme
c. Endoderm
d. Ectoderm
e. Both, mesoderm and ectoderm
C
15. Which one is the derivative of somite?
a. subcutaneous tissue of the skin
b. adrenal medulla
c. melanocytes
d. odontoblast
e. none of them
A
16. The process of compaction occurs at:
A. two-cell stage
B. Four cell stage
C. Eight cell stage
D. Blastocyst stage
E. Bilaminar germ layer stage
C
17. The secondary yolk sac in an embryo is at age of
a. 8 days
b. 9 days
c. 13 days
d. 18 days
e. 20 days
C
18. The umbilical cord during the end of 4th month containg
a. One artery and one vein
b. Two arteries
c. One artery and two veins
d. Two artery and two veins
e. None of them
E
19. The uteroplacental circulation begins by the end of the
a. First week of the development
b. Secondary week of the development
c. Third week of the development
d. Fourth week of the development
e. Fifth week of the development
B
20. An abnormal number of sex chromosomes occurs in
a. Down syndrome
b. Angelman syndrome
c. Tumer syndrome
d. Prader-Willi syndrome
e. Cir-du-chat syndrome
C
21. Interior parathyroid gland develops from
a. 1st pharyngeal pouch
b. 2nd pharyngeal pouch
c. 3rd pharyngeal pouch
d. 4th pharyngeal pouch
e. Another structure
C
22. Vitelline duct
a. Is lined with parietal mesoderm
b. Connects amniotic cavity with midgut
c. Connects chorionic cavity with midgut
d. Is lined with epithelium of exocoelmic cyst
e. Connects cavity of yolk sac with midgut
E
Chorion frondosum has got contact with
A. Decidua parietalis
B. Decidua basalis
C. Decidua capsularis
D. Pharyngeal gut
E. Hindgut
B
24. Ultimobranchial body contributes cells to
A. inferior parathyroid gland
B. superior parathyroid gland
C. Thymus
D. Thyroid
E. None of them
D
25. Which one is a phenomenon occurring during the acrosome reaction?
A. Release of second polar body
B. Release first polar body
C. Release of trypsin-like enzymes and acrosin
D. Fusion of spermatozoon and oocyte plasma membranes
E. Removall of sialoglycoproteins from the surface of spermatozoon head
C
26. Sirenomelia (caudal dysgenesis) results from insufficient formation in the lumbosacral region
A. Endodoerm and ectoderm
B. Ectoderm
C. Endoderm
D. Ectoderm and mesenchyme
E. Mesoderm
E
27. Which one is a component of the uterus?
A. Granular layer
B. Recticular layer
C. Papillary layer
D. Basal layer
E. Plexiform layer
D
28. Spermatogenesis is a process resulting in the transformation of:
A. Primary spermatocytes into spermatozoa
B. Secondary spermatocytes into spermatozoa
C. Primary spermatocytes into secondary spermatocytes
D. Spermatids into spermatozoa
E. Spermatogonia into spermatozoa
E
29. The process of formation of blood vessels by sprouting from existing vessels
A. Arteriogenesis
B. Cardiogenesis
C. Angiogenesis
D. Erythrogenesis
E. Vasculogenesis
C
30. Most frequently the ectopic pregnancies occur in the:
A. Ampulla off the uterine tube
B. Isthemus of the uterine tube
C. Douglas pouch
D. Peritoneal covering of the intestine
E. Ovary
A
1. What is a common feature of all forms of spinal bifida?
a) failure of vertebral arch formation or fusion at the dorsal midline
b) severe neurological defects at birth
c) failure to close the neural tube in one or more regions along the cranio-caudal axis
d) protrusion of the neural tube into a cyst-like sac due to defective vertebral arch development
e) none of the above
a) failure of vertebral arch formation or fusion at the dorsal midline
. Working in the delivery room you deliver conjoined twin babies. Without looking you KNOW that the extraembryonic tissues will consist of the following:
a) two amnions and two chorions
b) one amnion and one chorion
c) two amnions and one chorion
d) one amnion and two chorions
e) impossible to predict without genetic testing
b) one amnion and one chorion
5. Which of the following is true of somites and their derivatives?
a) Somite and neural tube formation begin during the same week of development.
b) All muscles of the trunk, including limb musculature, are derived from somites.
c) The regional identity of somites along the cranio-caudal axis is regulated by the MyoD family
of transcription factors.
d) Accessory ribs are rarely observed in humans (less than 1 per 100,000).
E) Two of the above are correct
E:
a) Somite and neural tube formation begin during the same week of development.
b) All muscles of the trunk, including limb
6. Place the following events of preimplantation development in chronological order.
1) hatching
2) compaction
3) fertilization
4) second polar body extrusion
5) cleavage

a) 4 3 2 5 1
b) 4 3 1 5 2
c) 3 4 5 2 1
d) 1 3 4 5 2
e) 1 3 5 2 4
c) 3 4 5 2 1
7. Embryonic induction is involved in the development of which of the following cells/tissues?
a) neural tube
b) neural crest
c) vertebral column
d) apical ectodermal ridge
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
11. The tyrosine kinase receptor c-kit and its ligand Steel are involved in the migration of what two cell populations in the early embryo:
a) primordial germ cells and neural crest
b) limb mesenchyme and cranial nerves
c) mesoderm through the primitive streak and primordial germ cells
d) neural crest and extraembryonic mesodermal cells
a) primordial germ cells and neural crest
Vitamin A can disrupt the normal development of a number of organs/tissues. If a pregnant woman was exposed to high doses of Vitamin A during the fourth week of development, what cells/structures might be affected?
a) neural tube
b) GI tract
c) blastocyst
d) epiblast
e) all of the above
a) neural tube
. Which of the following is true of the neural crest?
a) A single neural crest in the neural tube can often give rise to multiple cell types.
b) Transplantation experiments have shown that neural crest cell fate is determined entirely by
position along the cranio-caudal axis.
c) The pathway taken by a neural crest cell is not correlated with its eventual fate.
d) all of the above
a) A single neural crest in the neural tube can often give rise to multiple cell types.
. An epithelial to mesenchymal transition is important for development of which cells/structures?
a) neural crest cells
b) ingressing epiblast cells during gastrulation
c) sclerotome
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
31. Which of the following is NOT true of syncytiotrophoblast cells?
a) They surround the blastocoele cavity.
b) They secrete HCG.
c) They are critical for implantation of the embryo.
d) Their progenitors are located on the outside of the compacted morula.
a) They surround the blastocoele cavity.
Order the following events chronologically, as they occur to an individual cell.
1) spermiogenesis
2) capacitation
3) migration into the gonad
4) meiosis
5) acrosome reaction

a) 4 3 1 5 2
b) 3 4 1 5 2
c) 3 4 2 5 1
d) 4 3 2 1 5
e) 3 4 1 2 5
e) 3 4 1 2 5
In the production of female gametes, which of the following cells can remain dormant for approximately 12 to 50 years?
a) second polar body
b) primordial germ cells
c) primary oocyte
d) secondary oocyte
e) first polar body
c) primary oocyte
43. What is the relationship between neural tube closure defects and spina bifida?
a) Defects in vertebral arch formation can result in failure to close the caudal neuropore.
b) A neural tube closure defect will disrupt vertebral arch formation.
c) The neural tube closes after the vertebral arches have formed.
d) Spina bifida is defined as failure to close the neural tube.
e) More than one is correct
b) A neural tube closure defect will disrupt vertebral arch formation.
44. The limb is a composite of cell types from various sources. Which limb cell types/structures are derived from the somites?
a) limb skeleton
b) pigment cells of the skin
c) skeletal muscle cells
d) connective tissues
e) two of the above
c) skeletal muscle cells
Mesenchymal to epithelial transitions (MET) also occur during embryogenesis. One example of this occurs during:

A. Somite development
B. Gastrulation
C. Neural crest delamination
D. Syncytotrophoblast invasion
A. Somite development
6. Excess exposure to retinoic acid has been show to cause defects in patterning of the neural tube, the neural crest and the axial skeleton. This is most likely due to retinoic acid’s affect on the expression of:

A. Shh
B. Hox genes
C. Wnts
D. Bmps
B. Hox genes
Capacitation is required for what process?
A. Establishing the inside versus the outside of the preimplantation embryo.
B. Ovulation.
C. Implantation.
D. Fertilization.
>D. Fertilization.
9. The mature somite consists of three compartments. These compartments are the:
A. ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
B. vertebral body, vertebral arch and intervertebral disc
C. dermatome, myotome and sclerotome
D. connective tissue, muscle and cartilage
C. dermatome, myotome and sclerotome
13. Which of the following gene families regulates the cranial-caudal identity of the axial skeleton:

A. Hox
B. Wnt
C. BMP
D. Hedgehog
A. Hox
14. MyoD is a transcription factor that regulates which of the following processes:

A. cranial-caudal patterning of the axial skeleton
B. determination of skeletal muscle
C. differentiation of vertebral cartilage
D. resegmentation of the sclerotome
B. determination of skeletal muscle
Sacrococcygeal tumors can contain various types of tissue (bone, teeth, muscle, nerve). The source of these different cell types is:

A. Embryonic stem cells
B. PGCs that have migrated incorrectly
C. Transformed neural crest cells
D. Pluripotent cells of the primitive streak.
D. Pluripotent cells of the primitive streak.
18. Which of the following is NOT a derivative of the sclerotome:

A. vertebral arch
B. annulus fibrosus
C. costal process
D. nucleus pulposus
D. nucleus pulposus
24. Which cell type secretes cerebrospinal fluid into the neural canal:

A. ependymal cells
B. glial cells
C. neuroblasts
D. floor plate cells
A. ependymal cells
The somites form by segmentation of the paraxial mesoderm. Segmentation proceeds in which of the following directions:

A. dorsal to ventral
B. cranial to caudal
C. proximal to distal
D. medial to lateral
B. cranial to caudal
. Which of the following statements describes a Rhombomere:

A. a subdivision of the neural tube formed at the marginal zone
B. a subdivision of the neural tube derived from the alar plate
C. a subdivision of the neural tube formed at the hindbrain
D. a subdivision of the neural tube derived from the caudal eminence
C. a subdivision of the neural tube formed at the hindbrain
32. All of the following statements concerning limb development are true EXCEPT:

A. the forelimb bud forms before the hindlimb bud
B. limb muscle is derived from the somites
C. the AER regulates anterior-posterior patterning
D. Wnt signals regulate dorsal-ventral patterning
C. the AER regulates anterior-posterior patterning
Sonic hedgehog regulates anterior-posterior patterning of the limb by which of the following mechanisms:

A. regulation of mesenchyme proliferation
B. activation of Wnt expression in the dorsal ectoderm
C. activation of FGF expression in the AER
D. regulation of Hox gene expression
D. regulation of Hox gene expression
Where is estrogens
progesterone produce during MENSTRUAL CYCLE, ovary
What are caspases
? – protease
What are cadherins?
- CAM molecules
What do uteric buds become?
- Collecting tubules
What is the origin of the uteres?
– Paramesonephric ducts
What is the origin of the urinary bladder?
– Hindgut, endoderm and mesoderm
What is the origin and function of the otic vesicle?
- Invaginated ectoderm that develops into the membranous labyrinth of the internal ear
What is the origin of eye
– NCC, surface ectoderm
What is the origin of olfactory cells?
– Basal cells – surface ectoderm
What is the origin of the pituitary gland?
– Anterior (adenohypophysis) – Rathke’s pouch from ectoderm of stomadeal roof,

Posterior (neurohypophysis – Neuroectoderm from the floor of the diencephalon
Function of HOX gene in the development
CNS , vertebral column-, control limb development
What are the derivatives of the mesonephric duct?
– The duct of epididymis and ductus deferens from the influence of testosterone from leydig cells
Where do nephrons come from?
– metanephric blastoma
The facial muscle comes from which pharyngeal arch?
– 2nd
The trigeminal nerve comes from which pharyngeal arch?
– 1st
What does the wall of the primary gut consists of?
- Endoderm and lateral splanchnic mesoderm
Where and when does the umbilical herniation occur?
– Herniation of intestines into the unbilical cord from the 7th to 10th week
What is the function of the notocord?
- Induces differentiation of germ layers, then becomes the nucleus pulposus of IV disks
What does neuroectoderm become?
– They create NTC and NCC
During the 28th week lungs have ________ that produce ________
– Pneumocytes II, Surfactant
After which week can the fetus survive?
- After the 26-28 week
When and where does hematopoesis take place?
– Yolk sac – 0-2 months, liver and spleen 2-8 months, bone marrow 5 months +
What is the function of the SRY gene?
– Produce TDF (testis differentiation factor), creates leydig cells from gonadal ridge that secrete testosterone
What inactivates the barr body?
- Xist
What covers the fetus during the 1st month
- Ectoderm
Origin of vertebra
- sclerotome (paraxial mesoderm) – somites
From which tissues are vertebrae formed?
– Formed from 2 sclerotomes
When can you call an embryo a fetus?
– After the 8th week
When does the primitive streak form?
– 15th day
What makes up the sinus venousus
- Three veins – 2 vitalline, 2 cardinal (anterior and posterior) and 2 umbilical
Parts of the placenta
– Fetal side – decidua capsularis, maternal side – decidua basalis, cervical side – decidua parietalis
2. Wall of the primary gut is built of:
A. hypoblast
B. only endodermc
C. endoderm and splanchnic lateral mesoderm
D. only splanchnic lateral mesoderm
E. endoderm and somatic lateral mesoderm
C. endoderm and splanchnic lateral mesoderm
7. Ureteric buds:
A. come from urogenital sinus
B. differentiate into metanephric blastema
C. are the primoda of the ureter, renal pelvis, renal calyxes collecting tubules
D. differentiate into nephrons
E. differentiate into urinary bladder
C. are the primoda of the ureter, renal pelvis, renal calyxes collecting tubules
10 . Uterus:
A. comes from urogenital sinus
B. comes from urogenital ridge
C. develops from paramesonephric ducts
D. develops before ovaries
E. TDF influence its development
C. develops from paramesonephric ducts
13. The primitiv streak:
A. appears about 15-16th day
B. leads to the formation of epiblast
C. leads to the formation of definivtive hypoblast
D. indicates the development of the brain through the migration of cells into the cranial section
E. still remains up to the end of the 2nd month of the embryonic development
A. appears about 15-16th day
14. Cleft lip result from lack o fusion of the
A. nasomedial and nasolateral processes
B. nasomedial and maxillary processes
C. nasolateral and maxillary processes
D. nasolateral and mandibular processes
E. nasomedial and mandibular processes
B. nasomedial and maxillary processes
29. During mentrual cycle:
A. progesterone and estrogens are secreted to prepare endometrium for implantation
B. ovulation lasts 14 days
C. LH influences growth of uterus
D. FSH stimulates growth of follicles
E. progesterone and estrogens are secreted to stimulate corpus luteum differetiation
D. FSH stimulates growth of follicles
38. Yolk sac:
A. exist up to the end of pregnancy
B. is not connected with primary gut development
C. is connected with midgut by a connecting stalk
D. in the wall of yolk sac gonocytes develop and angiogenesis taked place
E. spermatogonia and oogonia develop in the wall of the yolk sac
D. in the wall of yolk sac gonocytes develop and angiogenesis taked place
40. Physiological umbilical herniation:
A. appears twice- at 6th and at 10th week
B. is connected with foregut development
C. is connected with hundgut development
D. is connected with midgut development
E. appears in the late fetal period
D. is connected with midgut development
44. HOX are:
A. growth factors
B. Adhesion molecules
C. receptors
D. genes participating in embryogenesis
E. parts of digestive tract
D. genes participating in embryogenesis
47. Mesonephric ducts:
A. develop into elements of nephrons
B. appear only in male embryo
C. comes from endoderm
D. at 6th week degenrate
E. build elements in urinary system and male genital system
E. build elements in urinary system and male genital system
49. Liver:
A. is a hematopoetic organ after birth
B. is a hematopoetic organ in fetus up to 7th month
C. hapatocytes come from endoderm
D. hapatocytes come from somites
E. B and C are correct
E. B and C are correct
50. Sinus venosus:
A. has 3 horns
B. each horn enters 3 arteries
C. each horn enters 3 veins
D. is up to the end of fetal time
E. after 4th week does not exist
C. each horn enters 3 veins