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214 Cards in this Set

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______. Procedures that are used to change the chemical, physical, or microbiological quality of water.
Water Treatment. Procedures that are used to change the chemical, physical, or microbiological quality of water.
_______. A process of killing infectious agents outside the body by direct exposure to chemical or physical agents.
Disinfection. A process of killing infectious agents outside the body by direct exposure to chemical or physical agents.
_______. A water treatment process that uses chlorine or a chlorine compound.
Disinfection. A process of killing infectious agents outside the body by direct exposure to chemical or physical agents.
A total contact time of at least ____ minutes is required for satisfactory water disinfection.
A total contact time of at least 30 minutes is required for satisfactory water disinfection.
____ and _______ will cause chlorine to evaporate/dissipate more rapidly; therefore, periodic rechlorination of water may be required.
Heat and sunlight will cause chlorine to evaporate/dissipate more rapidly; therefore, periodic rechlorination of water may be required.
To rechlorinate a full 400-gallon water trailer with calcium hypochlorite, mix ____ meal, ready-to-eat (MRE) spoonful of calcium hypochlorite from the 6- ounce bottle (or ___ ampules) with 1/2 canteen cup of water.
To rechlorinate a full 400-gallon water trailer with calcium hypochlorite, mix one meal, ready-to-eat (MRE) spoonful of calcium hypochlorite from the 6- ounce bottle (or 22 ampules) with 1/2 canteen cup of water.
Boiling water at a rolling boil for ___ to ___ _________ kills most organisms that are known to cause intestinal diseases.
In an emergency, even boiling water for ___ _______ will help.
Boiling water at a rolling boil for 5 to 10 minutes kills most organisms that are known to cause intestinal diseases. In an emergency, even boiling water for 15 seconds will help.
True or False. Vehicles used for transporting food must be clean and completely enclosed, if possible. Vehicles used for transporting garbage, trash, petroleum products, or similar materials may be used for transporting food even if the vehicles haven’t been properly cleaned and sanitized.
False. Vehicles used for transporting food must be clean and completely enclosed, if possible. Vehicles used for transporting garbage, trash, petroleum products, or similar materials must not be used for transporting food unless the vehicles have been properly cleaned and sanitized.
______ hours cumulative time is the maximum such food can be in the danger zone and not be a health hazard. After _____ hours in the danger zone, enough bacteria may have grown in the food to cause foodborne disease outbreaks.
Three hours cumulative time is the maximum such food can be in the danger zone and not be a health hazard. After 4 hours in the danger zone, enough bacteria may have grown in the food to cause foodborne disease outbreaks.
Food items that can support the rapid growth of foodborne disease microorganisms are called potentially hazardous foods (PHF).
Any temperature between ___°F and ___ °F is in the DANGER ZONE.
Food items that can support the rapid growth of foodborne disease microorganisms are called potentially hazardous foods (PHF).
Any temperature between 41°F and 139°F is in the DANGER ZONE.
The six factors that most often cause foodborne disease outbreaks are failure to:
-Refrigerate potentially hazardous cold foods and maintain a product temperature of _____°F or below.
-Cook food to proper temperature.
-Maintain potentially hazardous hot foods at a product temperature of _____°F or above.
-Protect foods from cross-contamination.
-Use proper transportation and storage practices.
-Protect food contact surfaces, pots and pans, eating utensils, and cutting boards from contamination.
The six factors that most often cause foodborne disease outbreaks are failure to:
-Refrigerate potentially hazardous cold foods and maintain a product temperature of 40°F or below. -Cook food to proper temperature.
-Maintain potentially hazardous hot foods at a product temperature of 140°F or above.
-Protect foods from cross-contamination.
-Use proper transportation and storage practices. -Protect food contact surfaces, pots and pans, eating utensils, and cutting boards from contamination.
In a standard mess kit laundry line, what is in each can.
1st: Scrap can
2nd: Hot soapy water (120-140'F)
3rd: Clear boiling water
4th: Clear boiling water
(The food waste is placed in a scrap can. Wash the kit in warm, soapy water (120° F to 140° F) using a long-handled brush to scrub. Rinse the mess kit in clear, boiling water. Disinfect the mess kit by immersing it in clear, boiling water for 10 seconds. Each mess kit laundry setup of four cans will support 80 personnel. Air-dry mess kits.)
Latrines are so constructed to prevent the contamination of food and water. They are located at least ____ yards downwind (prevailing wind) and down gradient from the unit food service facility and at least ___ feet from any unit ground water source.
Latrines are so constructed to prevent the contamination of food and water. They are located at least 100 yards (90 meters) downwind (prevailing wind) and down gradient from the unit food service facility and at least 100 feet (30 meters) from any unit ground water source.
Garbage must not be buried within ___ _____ of any natural source of water, such as a stream or well, used for cooking or drinking.
Garbage must not be buried within 100 feet (30 meters) of any natural source of water, such as a stream or well, used for cooking or drinking.
Liquid and solid wastes produced under field conditions may amount to ____ pounds per person per day, especially when shower facilities are available.
Liquid and solid wastes produced under field conditions may amount to 100 pounds (45 kilograms) per person per day, especially when shower facilities are available.
Liquid kitchen waste accumulates at the rate of ___ to ___ gallons per man per day.
Liquid kitchen waste accumulates at the rate of 1 to 5 gallons (4 to 19 liters) per man per day.
In temporary bivouac areas (1 to 3 days), the ________ latrine is used unless more permanent facilities are provided for the unit. During short halts when troops are on a march, each soldier uses a brief relief bag or a ______ latrine.
______ latrines are the preferred human waste disposal devices for use during field exercises or missions.
In temporary bivouac areas (1 to 3 days), the straddle trench latrine is used unless more permanent facilities are provided for the unit. During short halts when troops are on a march, each soldier uses a brief relief bag or a cat-hole latrine.
Chemical latrines are the preferred human waste disposal devices for use during field exercises or missions.
Name the 3 types of heat injuries and which one is a medical emergency.
Heat cramps
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke. Medical Emergency.
There are certain factors that influence the incidence, prevalence, type and severity of the injuries that occur as a result of exposure to the cold name the 3 Influencing Factors.
Also name the two cold injury categories.
Agent factors, environmental factors, and host factors.
Freezing and nonfreezing.
Name at least 6 host factors that influence cold injury.
Age
Rank
Previous Cold Injury
Fatigue
Discipline
Training and Experience.
True or False.
Tobacco and alcohol decrease peripheral circulation and make a soldier more susceptible to frostbite.
True.
Tobacco and alcohol decrease peripheral circulation and make a soldier more susceptible to frostbite.
True or False
Blood pressure medications increase the circulation making the soldier more susceptible to injury to the extremities.
False
Blood pressure medications reduce the circulation making the soldier more susceptible to injury to the extremities.
Name the 3 environmental factors associated with cold injuries.
Weather Clothing Combat action
Malaria is a serious disease occurring most commonly in tropical and semitropical regions. It is caused by a microscopic parasite carried by the ______ mosquito. Yellow fever is a viral disease transmitted by the _____ mosquito.
Malaria is a serious disease occurring most commonly in tropical and semitropical regions. It is caused by a microscopic parasite carried by the Anopheles mosquito. Yellow fever is a viral disease transmitted by the Aedes mosquito.
These are the four properties or characteristics of noise which determine whether a given noise is likely to be hazardous to workers hearing.
Frequency
Intensity
Nature of the Noise
Exposure Duration
These are the 4 routes of entry that toxic industrial chemicals can enter the body.
-Inhalation- most important route of entry.
-Absorption- most common occupational disease seen is dermatitis.
-Ingestion- occurs as a result of eating or smoking with contaminated hands, contaminated utensils, or in contaminated areas.
-Injection- Accidental injection may occur from
the use of high-pressure air or from liquid lines rupturing, or from puncture wounds caused by contaminated objects.
Name the 4 diseases carried by rodents and
the 3 diseases spread by rodents.
Diseases Carried by Rodents:
1. Leptospirosis.
2. Salmonellosis.
3. Hantavirus.
4. Rat bite fever.
Diseases Spread by Rodents:
1. Plague.
2. Murine typhus.
3. Rickettsial pox.
These arthropods are responsible for the spread of epidemic typhus.
Also, name the disease transmitted to humans by the rat flea.
These arthropods are responsible for the spread of epidemic typhus?
The body louse.
Disease transmitted to humans by the rat flea?
Bubonic plague.
If you meet resistance while inserting a nasopharyngeal airway you should __________________________.
What is remove the tube and attempt to insert it in the other nostril?
When the oxygen cylinder regulator pressure gauge reads
___ psi or lower, the oxygen tank is considered empty. The ____ _____ flowmeter is affected by gravity and must be maintained in an upright position. The _____ ____ flowmeter is not affected by gravity and can be used in any position. United States oxygen tanks are color coded (painted) _____. The international color code is _____.
Whentheoxygencylinderregulatorpressuregaugereads 200 psi or lower, the oxygen tank is considered empty. The pressure-compensated flowmeter is affected by gravity and must be maintained in an upright position. The Bourdon gauge flowmeter is not affected by gravity and can be used in any position. United States oxygen tanks are color coded (painted) green. The international color code is white.
A _______ upper airway obstruction is an indication to perform a needle cricothyroidotomy.
What is a total upper airway obstruction?
The vehicle load capacity for Light Vehicle Air Drop/Air Delivery, 2 1/2 Ton, M-1081 is __ litters or ____ ambulatory.
What is 7 litters or 12 ambulatory?
The vehicle load capacity for a M998 (four-man configuration) is ____ litters and for a M998 (two-man configuration) is ___ litters.
What is for a M998 (four-man configuration) is three litters and for a M998 (two-man configuration) is five litters?
When obstacles are in the approach or departure routes on a helicopter LZ, a ___ to ____ ratio must be used to lay out the landing site. A helicopter requires a relatively level landing area ____ meters in diameter. The ground slope must be no more than ____ degrees. VS-17 marker panels may be used to mark the landing site, but MUST NOT be used any closer than ____ feet to the touchdown point.
What is when obstacles are in the approach or departure routes on a helicopter LZ, a 10 to 1 ratio must be used to lay out the landing site. A helicopter requires a relatively level landing area 30 meters in diameter. The ground slope must be no more than 15 degrees. VS-17 marker panels may be used to mark the landing site, but MUST NOT be used any closer than 50 feet to the touchdown point.
When treating an abrasion the principle of management
What is Principles of Infection, Promotion of rapid healing, Prevention of “tattooing” from retained foreign bodies.
Antivenom is indicated in casualties who, within ___ to ___ minutes following the bite,
show progressive swelling involving the injured area, complain of paresthesia of the mouth, scalp, fingertips, or toes, or who have any signs or symptoms of poisoning.
What is 30 to 60 minutes?
Give the type of spider that corresponds with the bite: A small blister may form, mild to severe pain within hours, the area becomes red, swollen, and tender.
What is the Brown Recluse Spider?
When measuring a patient’s blood pressure, the cuff should not remain inflated for more than 2 minutes. Place the cuff so the lower edge is __ to __ inches above the elbow and the bladder portion is over the brachial artery. Inflate the cuff until the gauge reads at least ___ mm Hg or until you no longer hear the pulse sounds.
When measuring a patient’s blood pressure, the cuff should not remain inflated for more than 2 minutes. Place the cuff so the lower edge is 1 to 2 inches above the elbow and the bladder portion is over the brachial artery. Inflate the cuff until the gauge reads at least 140 mm Hg or until you no longer hear the pulse sounds.
When clearing an upper airway obstruction on a conscious patient, the two prescribed methods are the _______ or _____ thrusts.
What are the abdominal or chest thrusts?
________is an accumulation of fluids in the tissue surrounding an IV needle site. ______ is an inflammation of the wall of the vein. _____ _____ is an increased blood volume that is caused by excessive IV fluid infused too rapidly into the vein (overhydration). ____ ______is the obstruction of a blood vessel by air carried via the bloodstream.
What is, Infiltration is an accumulation of fluids in the tissue surrounding an IV needle site. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the wall of the vein. Circulatory overload is an increased blood volume that is caused by excessive IV fluid infused too rapidly into the vein (overhydration). Air embolism is the obstruction of a blood vessel by air carried via the bloodstream.
You are performing rescue breathing on a child (one year of age to the onset of puberty). You would give ___ to ___ breaths per minute.
What is 25 to 30?
Describe the method for selecting the appropriate size of nasopharyngeal airway.
What is:
Measure the tip of the patient's nose to earlobe.
Use an oropharyngeal airway for an ________ casualty only. When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, ensure that the airway reaches from the corner of the casualty's _____ to the ______.
What is use an oropharyngeal airway for an unconscious casualty only. When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, ensure that the airway reaches from the corner of the casualty's mouth to the ear lobe?
Determine the ambulance that corresponds with the load capacities:
___________: 2 litter patients or 6 ambulatory patients or 1 litter and 3 ambulatory patients.
___________: 4 litter patients or 8 ambulatory patients or 2 litter and 4 ambulatory patients.
___________: 4 litter patients or 10 ambulatory patients or 2 litter and 5 ambulatory patients.
What is:
•Truck, ambulance, 4X4, 2 litter, utility (M996).
•Truck, ambulance, 4X4, 4 litter, utility (M997).
•Carrier, personnel, full tracked, armored (M113, T113E2).
• These are the minimum blocks that must be completed on a DD Form 1380 (Field Medical Card) ___________________.
What are blocks 1, 3, 4, 7, 9, and 11.
The following are the approved abbreviations for the FMC, state what they stand for.
Abr W--_____________
FC-_________
FCC______________________
LW--________________
Pen W--________________
SL--_____________
Cont W--___________
FS--_____________
MW--_____________
Perf W--_____________
SV--______________
Abr W--Abraded wound.
FC--Fracture (compound) open.
FCC--Fracture (compound) open comminuted.
Cont W--Contused wound.
FS--Fracture (simple) closed.
LW--Lacerated wound.
Pen W--Penetrating wound.
SL--Slight.
MW--Multiple wounds.
Perf W--Perforating wound.
SV--Severe.
State the amount of time you should leave the thermometer in place for the various sites:
Oral--at least ___ minutes. Rectal--at least ___ minutes. Axillary--at least ___ minutes.
What is
Oral--at least 3 minutes. Rectal--at least 2 minutes. Axillary--at least 10 minutes.
Determine the non-standard vehicle’s loading capacities:
2 1/2 Ton, 6X6 or 5 Ton, 6X6, Cargo Truck: ___ litters or ___ ambulatory.
Long Wheelbase, 5-Ton, M-1085: ___ litter or ___ ambulatory.
Light Vehicle Air Drop/Air Delivery, 5 Ton, M-1093: ___ litters or ____ ambulatory.
Light Vehicle Air Drop/Air Delivery, 2 1/2 Ton, M-1081: ___ litters or ___ ambulatory.
•What is:
2 1/2 Ton, 6X6 or 5 Ton, 6X6, Cargo Truck: 12 litters or 16 ambulatory. Long Wheelbase, 5-Ton, M-1085: 12 litter or 22 ambulatory.
Light Vehicle Air Drop/Air Delivery, 5 Ton, M-1093: 8 litters or 14 ambulatory.
Light Vehicle Air Drop/Air Delivery, 2 1/2 Ton, M-1081: 7 litters or 12 ambulatory.
Name the hip injury. ______ dislocation is very rare and is caused by the legs suddenly being forced widely apart with the hip drawn away from the midline of the body and the leg rotated away from the midline of the body. ______ dislocation is the most common type of hip dislocation with the hip drawn toward the midline of the body and the leg rotated toward the midline of the body.
Anterior dislocation is very rare and is caused by the legs suddenly being forced widely apart with the hip drawn away from the midline of the body and the leg rotated away from the midline of the body. Posterior dislocation is the most common type of hip dislocation with the hip drawn toward the midline of the body and the leg rotated toward the midline of the body.
Recite Article II of the Code of Conduct.
What is "I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist."?
The acronym SALUTE stand for this.
What is
• Size
• Activity
• Location
• Unit
• Time
• Equipment
Name the four types of burns. Also, should you attempt to remove clothing that is stuck to the wound?
What are thermal, electrical, chemical, and laser? Do NOT attempt to remove clothing that is stuck to the wound. Additional harm could result.
Immersion foot/trench foot normally occurs from fairly long exposure of feet to wet conditions at temperatures about __° F to __° F. In which stage do parts of the affected area may feel hot and burning and shooting pains may begin.
What is 50°F to 32°F. and what is stage 2?
Keep your body off of the ground, Rest your weight on your forearms and lower legs, Cradle your weapon in your arms, keeping its muzzle off the ground, keep your knees well behind your buttocks, so your buttocks stays low describes what movement.
What is High Crawl
When practicing individual Preventive Medicine Countermeasures, fluid intake should not exceed ___quarts of water every hour. Daily fluid intake should not exceed ___ quarts. If your urine is dark yellow, you are not drinking enough water.
What is 1 1⁄2 quarts an 12 quarts
Recite Article VI of the Code of Conduct.
What is "I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United States of America."?
The two types of resection are the____and_____method and resection without a _______. To perform a _______ resection, you must be located on a linear feature such as a road, stream bank, railroad, or ridge. ____ ______is a technique of following a set route or line for a determined distance. The _____ ____is the main constellation used as a guide South of the equator.
What is the two types of resection are the map and compass method and resection without a compass. To perform a modified resection, you must be located on a linear feature such as a road, stream bank, railroad, or ridge. Dead reckoning is a technique of following a set route or line for a determined distance. The Southern Cross is the main constellation used as a guide South of the equator.
When interacting with news media, you must recognize your rights. Name the 3 listed in the CTT manual.
What are:
• You do not have to speak to the media.
• You do not have to answer all the questions.
• You control the length of the interview.
Name the five major terrain features and then name the three minor terrain features (map reading) listed in the CTT manual.
What are hill, saddle, depression, valley, and ridge? (MAJOR)
• What are spur, cliff, draw? (MINOR)
Use the outer, (color) ring of numbers and tick marks for finding direction in ____. Use the inner (color) ring of numbers and tick marks for finding direction in _____.
What is use the outer, black ring of numbers and tick marks for finding direction in mils. Use the inner red ring of numbers and tick marks for finding direction in degrees.
When you are performing a needle chest decompression on a casualty with a tension pneumothorax, insert the needle into the skin over the top of the ____ rib into the second intercostal space, until the chest cavity has been penetrated.
What is over the top of the third rib?
Name the nine signs and symptoms of shock listed in the CTT manual.
What are:
• Sweaty but cool skin
• Pale skin
• Restlessness or nervousness
• Thirst
• Severe bleeding
• Confusion
• Rapid breathing
• Blotchy blue skin
• Nausea and/or vomiting
Name the hand-to-hand technique that is a dominant position because it allows the Soldier to strike the enemy with punches without the danger of effective return punches. Also the one that gives the Soldier the best control of the fight.
What is the front mount and what is the rearmount?
If your westerly GM angle is 9 degrees and you need to convert your magnetic azimuth of 161 degrees to grid azimuth, give the grid azimuth.
What if you had a easterly GM angle of 9 degrees?
What is 152 degrees (westerly)? What is 170 degrees (easterly)?
In regards to contour lines on a map, widely spaced contour lines show a _____ slope. Close lines indicate a _____ slope. Every ____ contour line is heavier and has a number that gives its ______. Widely spaced contour lines at the top of a hill show a ______ hilltop. Close lines indicate a ______ hill.
What is in regards to contour lines on a map, widely spaced contour lines show a gentle slope. Close lines indicate a steep slope. Every fifth contour line is heavier and has a number that gives its elevation. Widely spaced contour lines at the top of a hill show a flat hilltop. Close lines indicate a pointed hill.
This type of detainee is described as any person who is detained for imperative reasons of security in accordance with the mandate set forth in the UN Security Council Resolution 1546.
What is a Security internee?
Describe the four levels/stages of sick call.
Stage 1: involves care through the wire, with or without offering medication. Health care specialists may also offer OTC medications for simple problems, such as headache, upset stomach, or minor musculoskeletal pain. Blood draws and intravenous (IVs) fluids/medications can be completed at the wire as well.
Stage 2: involves evaluation by a licensed provider at the wire and the detainee may be removed from the wire if necessary for a more complete examination.
Stage 3: requires movement of the detainee into the treatment tent for more in-depth evaluation and treatments, as needed.
Stage 4: requires transport to the hospital facility for urgent evaluation and treatment.
Name and describe each of the four categories of abuse prevention.
What are
• Priorities—Have a command philosophy that places
honor and dignity at the top of priorities.
• Policies—It is not good enough to tell everyone to do the right thing...put it in writing.
• Procedures—Have systems in place that by nature reduce the potential for abuse.
• Practices—Continuous exercise of a professional demeanor and conduct.
This type of detainee is described as any person previously held as a detainee.
What is a former detainee?
Detainees should be entitled to copies of their ______ ______upon release from the theater internment facility (TIF).
What is their medical records?
No weapons are allowed in clinic when detainees are scheduled. Weapons are turned in at the __________ office.
What is the Patient Administration Division (PAD) office?
Name the four “Ps” of abuse prevention.
Priorities
Policies
Procedures
Practices
Name the three categories of abuse.
What are physical, emotional, and sexual?
To ensure the continued health of detainees, _________ law requires that each detainee be screened monthly by medical personnel.
What is international law?
Sexual _______ is the intentional touching, whether directly or through clothing, of a person’s genitalia, anus, groin, breast, inner thighs, or buttocks with the intent to gratify the lust or sexual desires of the person being touched or of the person touching.
What is sexual contact?
When re-chlorinating a full 400 Gallon water trailer, flush the four water taps for several seconds. Wait _____ minutes, then flush the taps again and check the chlorine residual.
What is 10 minutes?
These are the four major medical threats that occur most often in the field. They exist in peacetime as well as wartime operations.
What are Heat, Cold, Arthropod borne Illness and Diarrheal Disease?
These are the 2 types of noise.
What are impact/impulse and steady?
Once acclimated, the Soldier will retain his/her adaptation for _______ after leaving the hot environment.
What is one week?
When a urine soakage pit is to be abandoned or it becomes clogged, it is sprayed with a __________ and mounded over with a 2 foot covering of compacted earth.
What is residual insecticide?
This is the daily water requirement per Soldier for a unit that is deployed to an arid (dry) Climate (Improvised showering facilities are not constructed).
What is 3 to 6 gallons?
The rules of water discipline are to drink approved water only, ______ water, and protect water sources by good sanitary practices.
What is conserve water?
_____ ____ can be used to kill rodents in situations where poison baits cannot be used (such as around food) and where rodent infestations are not excessive. Based on the range of these rodents, rat traps should be placed 15 to 30 feet apart.
What are snap traps?
Unit latrines should be sanitized how often.
What is daily?
This is the width and depth of a straddle trench latrine.
What is 1 foot wide and 2 1⁄2 feet deep?
What are the three phases of Tactical combat casualty care (TCCC)? In combat, the most likely threat to the casualty’s life is from ________.
1. Care under fire
2. Tactical field care
3. Combat casualty evacuation care
In combat, the most likely threat to the casualty’s life is from bleeding.
Sexual_______includes, but is not limited to, any acts or attempts to commit acts that involve sexual contact, sexual abuse, sexual assault, or sexual harassment.
Sexual Misconduct
Sexual_______is verbal or physical sexual conduct that creates a hostile, offensive, or intimidating work environment.
harassment
Sexual_____or______includes, but is not limited to, forced or coerced sexual intercourse, oral or anal sodomy, and sex with instruments.
abuse or assault
The following are symptoms of ________: Profuse sweating with pale, moist, cool
skin; Headache; Weakness; Dizziness; Loss of appetite; Cramping; Nausea (with or without vomiting); Urge to defecate; Chills (gooseflesh); Rapid breathing; Tingling of the hands and/or feet; Confusion (not answering easy questions correctly).
What is heat exhaustion?
Name the terrain feature described: _____: Contour lines are V-shaped with
the point of the V toward high ground.
_____: Contour lines forming a U or V and closed end points away from high ground.
_____: Closed contour lines that have tick marks pointing toward low ground.
What is a:
– Draw; Ridge; Depression.
There are three major components of the medical threat to field forces.
Name them.
What are environmental factors, diseases caused by zoonotic/animal bites, and diseases endemic to the area of operations?
Name the six sources of water that may be used.
What are: Surface Ground Rain
Ice Snow Seawater
Describe (in detail) how to rechlorinate a full 400-gallon water trailer with calcium hypochlorite.
1. Mix one meal, ready-to-eat (MRE) spoonful of calcium hypochlorite from the 6-ounce bottle (or 22 ampules) with 1/2 canteen cup of water.
2. Thoroughly mix the slurry and then add it to the water in the trailer. Use a clean stick or other clean device to mix the chlorine slurry in the water.
3. Flush the four water taps for several seconds. Wait 10 minutes, then flush the taps again and check the chlorine residual; if the residual is at least 1 ppm/mg/l or greater, wait an additional 20 minutes before releasing the water for consumption.
Any temperature between__°F and__°F is in the DANGER ZONE, in regards to maintaining foods. ____ hours cumulative time is the maximum such food can be in the danger zone and not be a health hazard. After ____ hours in the danger zone, enough bacteria may have grown in the food to cause foodborne disease outbreaks.
What is between 41°F (5°C) and 139°F (59°C)
Three
Four
Restraints will be________when detainee patients are transported between areas of the MTF. Restraints in addition to the ___ ____ _______ will be applied when detainee patients become combative or dangerous to themselves or others.
What is, restraints will be removed when detainee patients are transported between areas of the MTF. Restraints in addition to the two-point standard will be applied when detainee patients become combative or dangerous to themselves or others.
Any detainee refusing food for ___ hours is considered to be on a hunger strike and will be referred for medical evaluation and possible treatment.
Take and record weight and vital signs at least once every ___ hours during the hunger strike.
What is 72 hours; 24 hours?
By Army Regulation, Soldiers must have _________ approval to wear their _______ during media interviews.
By Army Regulation, Soldiers must have command approval to wear their uniform during media interviews.
“ If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.”
Article III of the Code of Conduct
If identification or press credentials are not produced, refer the individual to your _____ __ _______ or ______ _______ representative.
If identification or press credentials are not produced, refer the individual to your chain of command or public affairs representative.
Article V of the Code of Conduct states “When questioned, if I should become a prisoner of war, I am required to give ____, ____, _______ ______, and ____ __ _____.
Article V of the Code of Conduct states “When questioned, if I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth.
The three rights you have when interacting with news media.
1.) You do not have to speak to the media
2.) You do not have to answer all the questions
3.) You control the length of the interview
To protect yourself from CB contamination you have __ seconds to don, clear and check your assigned pro mask.
9 seconds
While conducting a PMCS on your protective mask, record all uncorrected deficiencies or shortcomings on _________ or __________.
DA Form 2404 or DA Form 5988-E.
M8 and M9 paper will NOT detect ________ agent vapors.
M8 and M9 paper will NOT detect
Chemical agent vapors
If you are right handed place a strip of M9 paper around your _____ upper arm, ____ wrist and _____ ankle.
If you are right handed place a strip of M9 paper around your right upper arm, left wrist and right ankle.
While reacting to a CB attack, you must assume MOPP level 4. In an emergency situation put your _________ on last.
When reacting to a CB attack, you must assume MOPP level 4. In an emergency situation put your overboots on last.
When gathering information pertaining to explosive hazards that are associated with the AO. Get this information from -
1.) Leader disseminated information
2.) References
3.) Mine or ordnance recognition boards
4.) Intelligence briefings
The ____ _____ individual movement technique is used when the route provides cover and concealment and poor visibility reduces enemy observation.
The high crawl individual movement technique is used when the route provides cover and concealment and poor visibility reduces enemy observation.
The first thing you do when responding to an overhead flare without warning.
Assume the prone position, behind concealment when available, before the flare burst.
When there is a breach in the exterior wall and when you plan on using this breach to enter the building, throw a hand grenade in using all available cover. Before you throw the hand grenade, let it cook off for __ seconds.
Let the hand grenade cook off for 2 seconds
Name the four types of UXO.
1.) Dropped
2.) Projected
3.) Thrown
4.) Placed
Name the six colors on a military map.
1.) Black
2.) Blue
3.) Brown
4.) Green
5.) Red
6.) Red-Brown
Two methods of holding the lensatic compass and sighting.
Compass to cheek method and Center hold method.
Terrain feature –
Contour lines forming a U or V; closed end points away from high ground.
Ridge.
A _______ is the direction from one point to another, either on the ground or on a map.
An Azimuth is the direction from one point to another, either on the ground or on a map.
Identify five methods of determining direction within the target area.
1.) Estimation
2.) Scaling from a map
3.) Using a compass
4.) Measuring from a reference point
5.) Using other measuring devices
The proword that means that I have received your signal, understand it and will comply.
WILCO (never to be used together with ROGER).
When sending your message, you must use correct ________ and
pronunciation of letters and numbers.
When sending your message, you must use correct prowords and pronunciation of letters and numbers.
Reserved for important messages which must have precedence over routine traffic. This is the highest precedence which normally may be assigned to a message of administrative nature.
Priority.
(True or False)
Repeat is the proword used to have the sender to repeat all of their last transmission.
False
Say Again is the proword used to the have sender to repeat all of their last transmission.
When you receive a call from the NCS who issues a close down order you must answer in _________ ________.
When you receive a call from the NCS who issues a close down order you must answer in alphanumeric sequence.
This firing position is steady, easy to use, provides a low silhouette, and can be easily adapted to the use of cover and support
The prone firing position is steady, easy to use, provides a low silhouette, and can be easily adapted to the use of cover and support
Describe the steps to clearing a rifle.
1. Attempt to put the selector lever on safe
2. Remove the magazine from the weapon
3. Lock the bolt to the rear
4. Inspect the receiver and chamber
5. Allow the bolt to go forward
6. Place the selector lever on SEMI
7. Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release
8. Place the selector lever on SAFE
If your rifle malfunctions, remember S-P-O-R-T-S: Slap upward on the ______, Pull the __________, Observe the _______, Release the __________, Tap the _______, Squeeze the ________
If your rifle malfunctions, remember S-P-O-R-T-S: Slap upward on the
magazine, Pull the charging handle to the rear, Observe the ejection of a round, Release the charging handle, Tap the forward assist, Squeeze the trigger
This firing position is used to fire from behind something, used on ground that is level or gently sloping upward.
The kneeling firing position is used to fire from behind something, used on ground that is level or gently sloping upward
The first three steps to performing a function check on an M16/M4 Rifle are to pull the charging handle to the rear and release, place the selector lever in the SAFE position, and _____ ___ _______.
The first three steps to performing a
function check on an M16/M4 Rifle are to pull the charging handle to the rear and release, place the selector lever in the SAFE position, and pull the trigger
When observing the M8 detector paper for color change, a yellow-gold color indicates the presence of a _____ agent, a red-pink color indicates the presence of a _______ agent, a dark green color indicates the presence of a _____ agent.
When observing the M8 detector paper for color change in liquids:
Yellow-gold color = nerve (G) agent
Red-pink color = blister (H) agent
Dark green color = nerve (V) agent
If you are left-handed, place a strip of M9 detector paper
around your ____ upper arm, _____ wrist, and ____ ankle.
If you are left-handed, place a strip of M9 detector paper
around your left upper arm, right wrist, and left ankle.
During MOPP gear exchange, the buddy grasps the coat at the shoulders and instructs the Soldier to make a fist to prevent the chemical-protective gloves from coming off. If it is difficult to remove the coat in this manner, pull ___ ___ ___ at a time.
During MOPP gear exchange, the buddy grasps the coat at the shoulders and instructs the Soldier to make a fist to prevent the chemical-protective gloves from coming off. If it is difficult to remove the coat in this manner, pull one arm off at a time
The M295 kit only removes the ______ hazard.
The M295 kit only removes the liquid hazard
When reacting to a nuclear attack without warning, drop to the ground in a prone position, _____ the blast.
When reacting to a nuclear attack without warning, drop to the ground in a prone position, facing the blast
When clearing the M9 Pistol, you should hold the pistol in the ______ pistol position and depress the _________ release button.
When clearing the M9 Pistol, you should hold the pistol in the raised pistol position and depress the magazine release button
When applying the fundamentals of quick fire and using the pistol grip, hold the pistol in your non-firing hand. Form a ___ with the thumb and forefinger of your firing hand.
When applying the fundamentals of quick fire and using the pistol grip, hold the pistol in your non-firing hand. Form a “V” with the thumb and forefinger of your firing hand
The ____ -supported grip is done by placing your non-firing hand under your firing hand. Wrap your non-firing fingers around the back of your firing hand. Place your non- firing thumb over the middle finger of your firing hand.
The Palm-supported grip is done by placing your non-firing hand under your firing hand. Wrap your non-firing fingers around the back of your firing hand. Place your non- firing thumb over the middle finger of your firing hand
The _________ position is the same as the standing-without-support position, except you must bend your knees slightly. Balance by leaning forward at the waist.
The crouching position is the same as the standing-without-support position, except you must bend your knees slightly. Balance by leaning forward at the waist
The M9 pistol will fire in the single- or ______-action mode. With the safety in the FIRE position, squeezing the trigger automatically cocks and fires the pistol. This is the ______-action mode of firing the pistol.
The M9 pistol will fire in the single- or double-action mode. With the safety in the FIRE position, squeezing the trigger automatically cocks and fires the pistol. This is the double-action mode of firing the pistol
When firing from a window select a firing position that is well back from the window. This will help conceal your ____ and your ____ ____.
When firing from a window select a firing position that is well back from the window. This will help conceal your body and your rifle's muzzle
You are performing guard duty. You challenge a group in almost
the same manner as one person. True or False
True
The ___ ready position is assumed by placing the butt of the weapon firmly in the pocket of your shoulder, with the barrel pointed downward at a 45-degree angle. This is the safest ready position.
The Low ready position is assumed by placing the butt of the weapon firmly in the pocket of your shoulder, with the barrel pointed downward at a 45-degree angle. This is the safest ready position
Conduct ____-gender searches when possible. If mixed-gender searches are necessary for speed and security, conduct them in a respectful manner and in the presence of an additional witness to address false claims of misconduct.
Conduct same-gender searches when possible. If mixed-gender searches are necessary for speed and security, conduct them in a respectful manner and in the presence of an additional witness to address false claims of misconduct
When used alone, flag colors have the following meanings:
______—danger or enemy in sight.
______—all clear, ready, or understood.
______—disregard or vehicle out of action.
When used alone, flag colors have the following meanings:
Red—danger or enemy in sight.
Green—all clear, ready, or understood.
Yellow—disregard or vehicle out of action.
To determine direction using the watch method without a compass and you are _____ of the equator, point the hour hand at the sun.
_____ will be halfway between the hour hand and 12 o'clock.
To determine direction using the watch method without a compass and you are North of the equator, point the hour hand at the sun.
South will be halfway between the hour hand and 12 o'clock.
An azimuth in degrees can be any number up to ___, since a circle has ___ degrees. An azimuth in mils can be any number up to ____, since a circle has ____ mils. The square protractor (GTA 5-2-12) has two scales. The inner scale is a ____ scale, and the outer scale is the ___ scale.
An azimuth in degrees can be any number up to 360, since a circle has 360 degrees. An azimuth in mils can be any number up to 6,400, since a circle has 6,400 mils. The square protractor (GTA 5-2-12) has two scales. The inner scale is a degree scale, and the outer scale is the mil scale.
The back azimuth of 65 degrees is what.
245 degrees.
Your back azimuth is 65 + 180 = 245 degrees.
Military vehicles are designed to climb ___ degree slopes if the surface is dry and firm. If gravel, vegetation, or mud is on the slope, the practical slope-climbing capability is about ___ degrees
Military vehicles are designed to climb 30 degree slopes if the surface is dry and firm. If gravel, vegetation, or mud is on the slope, the practical slope-climbing capability is about 20 degrees
Great distances can be covered quickly, develop the ability to estimate the distance traveled. Meanwhile, use the odometer, which shows the distance traveled. Remember that 0.1 mile is about ___ meters, and 1 mile is about ___ meters (___ kilometers).
Great distances can be covered quickly. develop the ability to estimate the distance traveled. Meanwhile, use the odometer, which shows the distance traveled. Remember that 0.1 mile is about 160 meters, and 1 mile is about 1,600 meters (1.6 kilometers).
When measuring a patient’s pulse you count the pulse rate for one minute and evaluate what three things (include how each may be evaluated)?
What is pulse
-rate
-pulse rhythm (regular or irregular / intermittent)
-pulse strength (strong or full pulse, bounding, and weak / thready)?
Word for temporary absence of breathing.
What is apnea?
The normal pulse rate range for an adult patient.
What is 60 – 100 beats per minute?
How much more you would inflate a blood pressure cuff if pulsation was heard after reaching 140 mm Hg.
What is 20 mm Hg beyond the point the last pulsation was heard?
The normal blood pressure range for an adult male.
What is 90– 140 mm Hg (systolic) • 60–90mmHg(diastolic)?
How often you would move sensing probes and adhesive sensors when continuously measuring a patients pulse oxygen saturation.
What is every 2 hours (sensing probes) and every 4 hours (adhesive sensors)?
Type of thermometer used when taking an axillary temperature, where taken, how long left in place, normal temperature range, how you would label a axillary temperature reading, and how you would label the reading.
What is with an oral thermometer (blue tip and may be labeled oral), in the patient’s dry armpit, left in place at least ten minutes, and 96 – 98 degrees, and labeled with an “A”?
The blood pressure cuff shouldn’t be left inflated on a patient’s arm for longer than this amount of time.
What is not more than 2 minutes?
How a rectal thermometer may be labeled and is colored, how far it is inserted into rectum, how long it is left in place after insertion, and the normal rectal temperature range.
What has a red tip and may be labeled rectal, inserted one or two inches, 98 – 100 degree temperature range, and left in place for at least two minutes?
What methods is used to open (establish) a patient’s airway? Which one is used if there is a suspected neck or spinal injury? How long you would check for breathing after opening the airway?
What is the head-tilt / chin lift method and the jaw thrust method (used for suspected neck or spinal injury), and look, listen, and feel for 3 – 5 seconds?
You are performing CPR on a patient. You note signs of gastric distention. You should do these things and not do this.
What is recheck and reposition the airway, watch for the rise and fall of the chest, and ventilate only enough to cause the chest to rise? What is do not push on the abdomen?
The two types of thrusts used to clear an upper airway obstruction and which one is used if a patient is in the advanced stages of pregnancy or very obese.
What is the abdominal thrust and the chest thrust (used on the pregnant or obese patient)?
You are administering external chest compressions on a patient with no pulse. This is how far you would depress straight down on the sternum, the number of compressions you would do, and the rate you would perform them per minute.
What is 1.5 to 2 inches, 30 compressions, and at a rate of 100 per minute.
The number of breaths per minute given when performing rescue breathing on an adult patient, and for how long and where you would check for a pulse after giving them.
What is 12 to 20 rescue breaths per minute and 5 sec. but no longer then 10 sec. to check carotid pulse?
The arterial pressure point used to control bleeding from the distal end of an upper extremity, and the one used to control bleeding from a lower extremity.
What is the brachial artery (upper extremity) and the femoral artery (lower extremity)?
An unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless patient is a candidate for an AED. AED stands for this and these are the locations that the pads are placed.
What is Automatic External Defibrillator and the right pad is placed below the right midclavicular and the left pad is placed over the lower left ribs?
You are under hostile fire and are very limited as to the care you can provide.
What is the care under fire phase of Tactical Combat Casualty Care?
When using a tourniquet to treat life threatening injuries, if the source of bleeding was due to a traumatic amputation, wrap the amputated part in a sterile dressing and wrap or bag it in a plastic bag, label it, and transport it how.
What is transport the amputated part along with the patient in a cool container?
This is how long each rescue breath is given by mouth to mouth or mouth to nose methods. Also, if a BVM with reservoir supply is used, this is the amount of oxygen concentration that can be reached.
What is one full breathe lasting 1 second, and what is almost 100%?
DD Form 1380 is called this and these are the minimum required blocks that must be completed.
What is the Field Medical Card and blocks 1, 3, 4, 7, 9, and 11?
A "D" size oxygen cylinder is being used. There is 2000 psi remaining pressure. How many liters of oxygen are available for use.
What is a .16 conversion factor x 1800 psi available pressure (2000 psi – 200 safe residual level)= 288 liters of oxygen available for use?
This block of a DD Form 1380 is completed if a tourniquet was applied, along with the date and time applied. If you are a combat medic, you do this in the far right side of block 11 when completing the FMC.
What is block 6 for tourniquet? What is initial in the far right side of block 11?
You have a patient who has had restraints applied. This is how often you would remove and replace the mitts and how often you would change the patient’s position.
What is remove and replace mitts every 8 hours and change the patient’s position every 2 hours?
You are orally suctioning a Adult patient. Ensure that you suction no longer than this long, because it removes oxygen as well as secretions.
What is suction no longer than 15 seconds?
A blue, yellow, amber, red, or pink eardrum indicates this abnormality.
What is disease or infection of the eardrum?
You are observing a patient’s heart rhythm on an EKG. This is a ventricular arrhythmia characterized by broad QRS complexes and a regular rate that falls between 100 to 200 beats per minute.
What is Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tach)?
A J-tube is also known as this. This is how would determine the correct size of one after placing along the outside of the casualty’s jaw with the mouth closed.
• What is an oropharyngeal airway? What is measure it from the corner of
the casualty’s closed mouth to the corner of the earlobe?
Oxygen cylinders should be cracked/opened only with what.
hand wheel or non-sparking wrench
The method you could use to select the appropriate size of a nasopharyngeal airway. Also, most nasopharyngeal airways are designed to be placed in this nostril.
What is measure the tip of the patient's nose to earlobe? What is the right nostril?
A casualty has a total upper airway obstruction and his airway cannot be opened using manual methods or an endotracheal tube. You are performing a needle cricothyroidotomy. This is where you would insert the large bore needle into.
What is the cricothyroid membrane?
Dizziness, nausea, and/or headache; cherry-red colored skin and mucous membranes; tachycardia or tachypnea; respiratory distress or arrest are signs and symptoms of what?
What is carbon monoxide poisoning?
Condition in which air enters the chest cavity (pleural space) through a hole in the lung, expanding the space with every breath the casualty takes. The air becomes trapped and cannot escape.
What is a tension pneumothorax?
You are inspecting your equipment prior to initiating an IV. This is how far you would clamp the tubing below the drip chamber.
What is clamp the tubing 6 to 8 inches below the drip chamber?
This is an accumulation of fluids in the tissue surrounding an IV needle site caused by penetration of the vein wall by the needle/catheter or later dislodgement of the needle/catheter. This is an inflammation of the wall of the vein caused by injury to the vein during puncture, from later needle movement, or from irritation to the vein caused by long term therapy, incompatible additives, or use of a vein that is too small to handle the amount or type of solution
What is infiltration and what is phlebitis?
This type of seizure may be preceeded by an aura, has two distinct phases, and may involve incontinence, cyanosis, mental confusion, and biting of the tongue (rare). What type of seizure is it and what are the two distinct phases.
What is a Grand Mal (generalized) seizure and what are tonic/colonic, and postictal?
Grand Mal is one type of seizure. Name the two other types listed in the 68W manual. Also, which one is characterized by two or more seizures without an intervening period of consciousness.
What is Petit Mal, Status Epilepticus (two or more seizures)?
The acronym AVPU is used for assessing a patient’s level of consciousness and stands for this.
The acronym DCAP-BTLS is used during casualty assessment and stands for this.
What is Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive (AVPU), and Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures/Penetrations, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, Swelling
(DCAP-BTLS)?

What term explains each of the following:
– The motion of the injured segment of a flail chest,
opposite to the normal motion of the chest wall.
– Shift of the trachea from the midline toward the unaffected side due to pressure buildup on the injured side.
What is
– Paradoxical breathing?
–Tracheal deviation?
Which closed chest injury goes with:
– Caused by the bleeding from lacerated blood vessels in the chest cavity and/or lungs. It results in the accumulation of blood in the chest cavity but outside the lungs.
– Involves two or more ribs fractured in two or more places or a fractured sternum.
– Condition in which air enters the chest cavity through a hole in the lung(s), expanding the space with every breath the casualty takes. Air becomes trapped and cannot escape.
What is:
– Hemothorax?
– Flail chest?
Using the Rule of Nines, what is the percentage of BSA burned on a patient with burns to the anterior of chest, both arms, and head and neck.
What is 45 % BSA?
You are immobilizing a patient to a long spine board with a suspected spinal injury. You already immobilized the head and head supports with straps. At a minimum you must also secure the patient with straps across where. Also, what are the two techniques for placing the patient on the spine board.
What is across the chest, hips, thighs, and lower legs? Include the arms if the straps are long enough. What are the log roll and straddle slide techniques?
You have a casualty with white phosphorus (WP) burns. You want to deprive it from oxygen by doing what and remove the WP particles with what.
What is submerge the entire area, cover with a moistened cloth or mud, and remove the WP particles by brushing with wet cloth or with a stick, forceps, or knife?
The acronym “RICE” is a method used for remembering how to treat soldiers with extremity injuries. What does “RICE” stand for?
What is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation?
Low blood sugar and High blood sugar are also known as these terms. Which one could have a sweet, fruity breath odor and which one would have an intoxicated appearance.
Also, you would give a hypoglycemia patient oral glucose. Where and how would you give it?
What is Hypoglycemia (intoxicated appearance) and Hyperglycemia (sweet, fruity breath)? Apply glucose to a tongue depressor and place it in the patient's mouth between the cheek and gum.
You are obtaining a SAMPLE history while performing a medical patient assessment. You will use the acronym OPQRST. It stands for this.
What is Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time.
You have a conscious patient who is complaining of chest pain. You are going to assist him in taking his nitroglycerin. Where do you place the tablet in the patient’s mouth?
If there is no relief, you may give additional tablets. How long do you wait in between giving tablets and how many tablets may be given TOTAL?
What is under the patient’s tongue with a gloved hand and every five minutes up to three tablets TOTAL?
Helicopter landing sites should be free of ____ ____, _____ _____, _____ _____ or _____, and similar obstructions on the approach or departure ends of the landing site.
What are tall trees, telephone lines, power lines or poles?
Use an __ ____ to immobilize a dislocated shoulder. Use a _____ or an ______ splint for a fractured forearm. Use a ___ ____ splint for a fractured humerus, and for multiple fractures of an arm or a forearm when the elbow is bent. Use a ___ _____ splint for a fractured or dislocated humerus, elbow, or forearm when the elbow is straight.
What is an arm sling; basswood or an improvised splint; wire ladder splint; wire ladder splint?
Name the three types of heat injuries. Which is a medical emergency and
has hot, dry skin?
What are heat cramps, heat exhaustion, and heat stroke (med emergency)?
The five rights for medication administration are:
What are:
– Right PATIENT
– Right MEDICATION
– Right DOSAGE
– Right TIME
– Right ROUTE
Name the appropriate cold injury:
– Caused by repeated prolonged exposure of bare skin to low temperatures from 60° down to 32° F.
– Caused by exposure of the skin to cold temperatures that are usually below 32° F depending on the windchill factor, length of exposure, and adequacy of protection.
Chilblain, Frostbite
Hard ticks can transmit _____ and _____. The brown recluse spider has a ______ shaped mark on its back. The black widow spider has a red or orange _____ shape on the underside of the abdomen. Nonpoisonous snakes have _ - _ rows of teeth and no fangs. Poisonous snakes have __ rows of teeth and two fangs which cause puncture marks.
What is Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and Lyme's disease; violin; hourglass; four – six; two?
What type of chemical agent are these signs and symptoms of:
– Vertigo, nausea, increased respirations, headache, pink color of the skin, violent convulsions, coma, respiratory arrest, cardiac arrest.
– Watery eyes, coughing, choking, tightness in the chest, nausea, vomiting, headache, transient blindness, increased salivation, tingling burning sensation on the skin.
– Skin: Itching, redness, blisters, pain. Eyes: Extremely sensitive to light, gritty feeling, painful, watery, involuntary spasms of the eyelids, swelling and blistering of eyelids, corneal lesion, permanent blindness (direct contact), redness.
What is blood agent (hydrogen cyanide); choking agent; blister agent?
These are the four factors that should be considered when selecting a helicopter LZ. When the ground slope is 7 – 15 degrees how must the helicopter land. VS-17 marker panels may be used to mark the landing site, but MUST NOT be used any closer than __ feet to the touchdown point
What are size, ground slope, surface conditions, and obstacles? Sideslope.
50 feet?
These are the priorities used for assessing casualties and establishing priorities for treatment. These are the precedence categories used for establishing MEDEVAC priorities.
What are immediate, delayed, minimal, and expectant? What are urgent, urgent surgical, priority, routine, and convenience?
Give the treatment priority for each injury:
– Open wounds of the chest without respiratory distress.
– Minor lacerations and contusions.
– Treatment to save life, limb or eyesight
– Burns, mostly third degree, covering more than 85% of the total body surface area.
What is:
– Delayed
– Minimal
– Immediate
– Expectant
The information given on each line of a MEDEVAC request (All 9 lines).
• Line 1: Pickup location.
• Line 2: Radio frequency, call sign, and suffix.
• Line 3: Number of patients by precedence category.
• Line 4: Special equipment.
• Line 5: Number of patients by type.
• Line 6: Security of the pickup site.
• Line 7: Method of marking the pickup.
• Line 8: Patients' nationality and status.
• Line 9: NBC contamination, if any.
Name the MEDEVAC precedence for each:
– Open chest and/or abdominal wounds with decreased blood pressure.
– Simple fractures.
– Burns covering 20% to 85% of the total body surface area.
– Sprains and strains.
- Urgent surgical
- Routine
- Urgent
- Convenience
You are going to give a patient a Morphine intramuscular injection.
Name the three sites you could give it.
What is the deltoid muscle, buttocks, or outer thigh?
If giving an intramuscular injection to the buttocks, in what quadrant should you give it to avoid hitting the sciatic nerve or the gluteal artery.
What is the upper outer quadrant of the buttock?
In which MEDEVAC request precedence requires evacuation within:
– 4 hours
– 24 hours
– 2 hours
What is:
– Priority
– Routine
– Urgent
The following injuries fall under this MEDEVAC precedence:
– Burns covering 20% to 80% of the total body surface area if the casualty is receiving and responding to IV therapy.
– Simple fractures.
– Open wounds including chest injuries without
respiratory distress.
– Psychiatric cases.
– Terminal cases.
What is Routine?
The following injuries fall under this MEDEVAC precedence:
Cardiorespiratory distress.
Shock not responding to IV therapy.
Prolonged unconsciousness.
Head injuries with signs of increasing intracranial pressure.
Burns covering 20% to 85% of the total body surface area.
What is Urgent?
The following injuries fall under this MEDEVAC precedence:
Closed-chest injuries, such as rib fractures without a flail segment, or other injuries that interfere with respiration.
Brief periods of unconsciousness.
Soft tissue injuries and open or closed fractures.
Abdominal injuries with no decreased blood pressure.
Eye injuries that do not threaten eyesight.
Spinal injuries.
Burns on the hands, face, feet, genitalia, or perineum even if under 20% of the total body surface area.
What is Priority?
The following injuries fall under this MEDEVAC precedence:
Minor open wounds.
Sprains and strains.
Minor burns under 20% of total body surface area.
What is Convenience?
The following injuries fall under this MEDEVAC precedence:
Decreased circulation in the extremities.
Open chest and/or abdominal wounds with decreased blood pressure.
Penetrating wounds.
Uncontrollable bleeding or open fractures with severe bleeding.
Severe facial injuries.
What is Urgent-Surgical?
During the approach and departure a helicopter must fly over trees which are 15 meters high, that means the helicopter LZ must be how long.
What is 150 meters?