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370 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
* What is the instruction for EAWS?
OPNAVINST 1414.2A
Who is the SECNAV?
Gordon England
Who is the SECDEF?
Donald Rumsfeld
* What are the six areas of Naval Doctrine?
1. Command and Control 2. Operations 3. Warfare 4. Logistics 5. Intelligence 6. Planning
* Who is the CO of USS Carl Vinson?
Captain Wren
* Who is the MCPON?
MC Scott
* Who is the CNO?
ADM Vern Clark
* Who is the CMC?
MC Rose
* State the 3 different methods for controlling bleeding
Tourniquet, Direct, and Indirect pressure
* Describe the symptoms for shock
Rapid, weak pulse; profuse sweating; dilated pupils; pale, cold and clammy skin; etc…
* How many classes of burns are there?
3: 1st degree, 2nd degree, and 3rd degree
* Describe Hypothermia
Cooling of the body caused by falling temperatures. Limbs are rigid, blue, etc…
* Who must comply with safety regulations and report safety hazards?
All Hands
* How often does the enlisted safety committee convene?
Monthly
* What does the Enlisted Safety Committee discuss?
Safety related concerns and issues involving the command
* What is the biggest contributor to aviation mishaps?
Human Error
* What is a Class A mishap?
Material property damage of 1 million or more. Could also be death or permanent disability
* What is a Class B mishap?
Property damage of $200,000 + but less than 1 million. Could also be permanent partial disability
* What is a Class C mishap?
Property damage of $10,000 - $200,000. Could also be 5 lost working days or more.
* What is a Class D mishap?
Property damage less than $10,000 or a non-fatal injury that doesn’t meet Class C criteria
* What is ORM?
Operational Risk Management
* How many Fleet Commanders are there?
4: Atlantic, Pacific, Europe, and MSC(Military Sealift Command)
* Is the SECNAV a civilian or a military official?
Civilian
* Navy commands must have what # of people in order to have a CMC billet?
250
* What is the Navy’s Birth Date?
13 October 1775
* What is the biggest contributor to aviation mishaps?
Human Error
* What is a Class A mishap?
Material property damage of 1 million or more. Could also be death or permanent disability
* What is a Class B mishap?
Property damage of $200,000 + but less than 1 million. Could also be permanent partial disability
* What is a Class C mishap?
Property damage of $10,000 - $200,000. Could also be 5 lost working days or more.
* What is a Class D mishap?
Property damage less than $10,000 or a non-fatal injury that doesn’t meet Class C criteria
* What are the 3 levels of war?
Tactical, Operational, and Strategic
* What was significant about the Battle of Coral Sea?
Japanese and American fleets never saw each other. War was fought with planes. The US carrier Lexington was sunk.
* What was significant about the Battle of Midway?
American war planes were able to sink all 4 of the Japanese carriers while the US only lost the Yorktown
* What was significant about 8 May 1911?
Navy purchased it’s first aircraft(the Triad)
* What was the first aircraft carrier?
USS Langley(CV-1)
* What are the 3 levels of war?
Tactical, Operational, and Strategic
* What was significant about the Battle of Coral Sea?
Japanese and American fleets never saw each other. War was fought with planes. The US carrier Lexington was sunk.
* What was significant about the Battle of Midway?
American war planes were able to sink all 4 of the Japanese carriers while the US only lost the Yorktown
* What was significant about 8 May 1911?
Navy purchased it’s first aircraft(the Triad)
* What was the first aircraft carrier?
USS Langley(CV-1)
* What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
FJ-1 Fury
* What US naval carrier was the first to receive a jet aircraft landing?
USS Boxer(CV-21)
* Who was the first naval aviator in space?
Alan Shepard
* What rate is an AC?
Air Traffic Controller
* What is an AME?
Aviation Structural Mechanic – Safety Equipment
* AM’s are divided into how many ratings?
3: AME, AMS, and AMH
* What are the 2 enlisted aviation ratings that do not begin with an ‘A’?
PR and PH
* What is Bernoulli’s principle?
When fluid flows through a constricting line the speed increases as the pressure decreases
ple?
* What is a Small Craft wind warning?
Wind speeds below 33 knots
* What is a Gale warning?
Wind speeds from 34 to 47 knots
* What is a Storm warning?
Wind speeds above 48 knots
* How fast are the winds during a Hurricane?
64 knots or more
* What are the 3 different axis in relation to aircraft aerodynamic terms?
Longitudinal, Lateral, and Vertical
* Pitch is movement along what axis?
Lateral axis
* Yaw is movement along what axis?
Vertical axis
* Roll is movement along what axis?
Longitudinal axis
* What are aircraft Slats?
Attached to leading edge of wing to help control below normal speed landings. Can be extended or retracted.
* Name some of the components of landing gear
Strut, Tire, Wheel Brake, Retracting and Extending mechanism
* Name the 5 basic sections of a jet engine
Intake, Compressor, Combustion, Turbine, and Exhaust
* Name the 4 different types of engine systems
Turbojet, Turbofan, Turboprop, and Turboshaft
* Why is JP5 used onboard instead of other JP fuels?
JP5’s minimum flashpoint of 140 degrees F meets naval approval onboard ships
* What is an NDI inspection?
Non-Destructive Inspection used to provide 100% evaluation of a part by using liquid penetrant, ultrasound, eddy current, etc…
* The Pitot-Static on an A/C contains what 3 indicators?
Altimeter, Airspeed, and Rate-of-Climb indicators
* What is IFF?
Identification Friend or Foe
* What does RADAR stand for?
Radio Detection and Ranging
* What does Ohm’s Law state?
E=IR (Voltage equals Current times Resistance)
* What is the speed limit within 50’ of an A/C?
5 MPH
* What is the speed limit on a runway?
10 mph
* What is the towing speed of an A/C?
5 mph or as fast as the slowest walker
* Name the 4 categories of tie down requirements
Initial, Intermediate, Permanent, and Heavy Weather
* What constitutes a full flight deck uniform?
Cranial, jersey, goggles, flotation gear, whistle, flight deck shoes, survival light, sound attenuators
* A runway # of 18 means the approach end of the runway is how many degrees on the magnetic compass?
175 degrees(if the last digit is a 5 or above round up) or above but no greater than 180
* A military airport has what color beacons?
2 alternating white and 1 green
* A civilian airport has what color beacons?
1 green and 1 white
* What is TACAN?
Tactical Air Navigation – provides pilot with bearing and distance to TACAN station
* What is a VAQ squadron?
EA-6B used for electronic countermeasures
* What modification of the SH-60 Helo do we carry onboard?
SH-60F
* VFA squadron is what type of aircraft?
F/A-18
* VF squadron is what type of aircraft?
F-14
* What is a VP squadron?
P-3 Orion
* What is an SH-60F used for?
Submarine Warfare
* What is a VS squadron?
S-3 Viking
* Both the S-3 and the P-3 can be used for what?
Antisubmarine warfare
* What kind of ship is an LCC?
Amphibious Command Ship
* What is an AOE ship?
Oiler/Ammunition Ship
* Which ship has a floodable deck well?
LSD
* What is an LPD ship?
Amphibious Transport Dock
* What is an AFS ship?
Combat Stores Ship
* What is an ASR ship?
Submarine Rescue Ship
* What is an AD ship?
Destroyer Tender
* What is an SSBN?
Ballistic Missile Submarine(Nuclear)
* What is the difference between an SSBN and a SSN?
SSBN has a strategic mission and is on constant patrol
* What does CBR stand for?
Chemical, Biological, and Radiological warfare
* What is the designation of the CBR protective mask used onboard?
MCU-2/P
* What can be used to treat the initial symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
Atropine/2 Pan chloride
* What are the 4 different types of chemical agents?
Nerve, Blister, Blood, and Choking
* Of the different types of nuclear explosions which one causes the worst fallout?
Surface burst
* What does MOPP stand for?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
* How many MOPP levels are there?
4
* At which MOPP level does the ship go to GQ?
MOPP level 3
* What does NATOPS stand for?
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
* What is the purpose behind the NATOPS program?
Standardize procedures for operating naval aircraft to reduce aircraft mishaps and improve combat readiness
* Under NATOPS, what does the word ‘Shall’ mean?
A procedure that is mandatory
* A warning under NATOPS could cause what?
Injury or death
* Aircraft assigned under COMNAVAIRLANT are identified by what means?
First character “A – M”; second character “A – Z”
* What are the 4 different types of chemical agents?
Nerve, Blister, Blood, and Choking
* Of the different types of nuclear explosions which one causes the worst fallout?
Surface burst
* What does MOPP stand for?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
* How many MOPP levels are there?
4
* At which MOPP level does the ship go to GQ?
MOPP level 3
* Which ship has a floodable deck well?
LSD
* What is an LPD ship?
Amphibious Transport Dock
* What is an AFS ship?
Combat Stores Ship
* What is an ASR ship?
Submarine Rescue Ship
* What is an AD ship?
Destroyer Tender
* Which ship has a floodable deck well?
LSD
* What is an LPD ship?
Amphibious Transport Dock
* What is an AFS ship?
Combat Stores Ship
* What is an ASR ship?
Submarine Rescue Ship
* What is an AD ship?
Destroyer Tender
* Aircraft assigned to COMNAVAIRPAC are identified by what means?
First character “N – Z”; second character “A – Z”
* Who is the XO of CVN-70?
CDR Manazir
* What are some of the duties of the Ombudsman?
Keeps CO informed of problems command families are facing and to provide various services to families
* What does DAPA stand for?
Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor
* What does CMEO stand for?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity
* An honorable discharge requires a performance average of at least what?
2.7
* A good conduct requires what performance average or above?
3.0
* Good conduct awards are given how often?
Every 3 years
* Break down this Date Time Group(DTG): 250701ZAUG00
25 = calendar day; 0701 = time; Z = Greenwich time; AUG = month; 00 = year
* What part of a naval message is known as the body?
Text
* What 4 or 5 digit code on a message stands for the subject of a document?
SSIC(Standard Subject Identification Code)
* Page 2 of your service record contains what?
Emergency data such as beneficiary and addresses
* What is a Page 13?
Administrative remarks
* What is a MOVREP(movement report) used for?
Lets higher authorities know the location of the ship
* What are the 5 types of MOVREP’s?
Departure, Arrival, Position, Cancellation, and Change of Status
* What is a LOGREQ(logistics requirement) used for?
Lets a command know prior to a ship pulling into it’s port the logistic requirements needed while the ship is in port
* What is a SITREP(situation report) used for?
Used to report crime onboard, sexual harassment, suicide, etc…
* What does NAMP stand for?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
* What is the purpose of the NAMP?
To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards
* How many volumes to the NAMP?
5
* What does Vol. II cover?
Depot level maintenance
* Vol. III of the NAMP covers what?
Maintenance Data Systems(MDS)
* Vol. V of the NAMP covers what?
Naval Aviation SOP’s
* What are the 3 levels of maintenance?
Organizational, Intermediate, and Depot
* Who’s the head man in an IMA(Intermediate Maintenance Activity)?
MO(Maintenance Officer)
* Which division in an IMA schedules the workload and controls production for the other IMA divisions?
Production Control
* How long is a Daily Inspection on A/C good for?
72 hours provided no flights occur
* When is a Turnaround Inspection done on A/C?
Between flights
* When is a Special Inspection conducted on A/C?
During prescribed intervals such as 7 days, 28 days, 50 hours, 100 hours, etc…
* What is an A/C logbook used for?
Contains history of A/C such as maintenance, flight time, repair and rework, inventory, etc…
* Who is authorized to sign A/C logbook entries?
Anyone designated in writing by the CO. It’s usually the MO, Maintenance Senior Chief Petty Officer, and Maintenance Chief Petty Officer
* What is an IPB?
Illustrated Parts Breakdown that shows parts plus part #’s for all parts on A/C for which the IPB was issued for
* What are MIM’s?
Maintenance Instruction Manuals
* What is the concept behind the QA(Quality Assurance) program?
Prevention of the occurrence of defects
* What is a QAR?
Quality Assurance Representative
* Which division in an IMA schedules the workload and controls production for the other IMA divisions?
Production Control
* How long is a Daily Inspection on A/C good for?
72 hours provided no flights occur
* When is a Turnaround Inspection done on A/C?
Between flights
* When is a Special Inspection conducted on A/C?
During prescribed intervals such as 7 days, 28 days, 50 hours, 100 hours, etc…
* What is an A/C logbook used for?
Contains history of A/C such as maintenance, flight time, repair and rework, inventory, etc…
* What is a CDI and what does he do?
Collateral Duty Inspector – inspects work to ensure QA compliance
* What does MMP stand for?
Monthly Maintenance Plan
* What is contained in the MMP?
Upcoming requirements, flight hours, chain of command, upcoming CDI audits, list of qualified CDI’s for each workcenter, etc…
* What does NALCOMIS stand for?
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
* What is the purpose of NALCOMIS?
It’s a computer based program used by IMA activities to collect, process, store, review, and report data to support NAMP requirements
* What is the most valuable form that can be generated on NALCOMIS for use by the workcenter?
MAF – Maintenance Action Form
* What kind of data blocks can you find on a MAF?
WUC: Work Unit Code, JCN: Job Control Number, MCN: Maintenance Control Number, W/D: When Discovered code, T/M: Type Maintenance code
* What is an SMQ(special maintenance qualification) used for in relation to NALCOMIS?
Used to grant individuals certain access within NALCOMIS to maintain security
* What is the responsibility of Material Control?
To ensure workcenters are able to order and obtain the correct parts to complete the maintenance task
* What kind of items can be procured with the OPTAR fund?
Aviation fuel, flight deck shoes, liquid oxygen, liquid nitrogen, consumable office supplies, aerial film, publications, and flight deck PPD
* What kind of items can be purchased with the Aviation Fleet Maintenance fund?
Paints, test bench repair parts, oils, MAF bags, condition code tags, consumable tools, flight clothing, and fuels for SE
* When receiving or sending, what must accompany the material?
MILSTRIP document DD 1348
* What is the ICRL and it’s use?
Individual Component Repair List – shows what the IMA is allowed to repair by part #
* What is the CRIPL and it’s use?
Consolidated Remain-In-Place List – contains a list of all parts that do not have to be turned into Supply before the replacement part is ordered
* How many digits in an NSN?
13
* What do the first 4 and last 9 digits in an NSN classify?
First 4 make up the FSC(Federal Supply Code) and the last 9 make up the NIIN(National Item Identification Number)
* What does AWP mean?
Awaiting Parts
* What is IMRL and it’s purpose?
IMRL = Individual Material Readiness List. Shows the SE requirements(quantity and type) to support material readiness
* What does EXREP stand for?
Expeditious Repair
* FYI – Items on the EXREP get priority repair due to the A/C not being able to perform part or all of it’s missions
* What should be submitted if a broken, stolen, or lost tool is discovered?
* What should be submitted if a broken, stolen, or lost tool is discovered?
DD Form 200
* List various forms and items that can be found in the flight packet which are issued to pilots making extended flights
DD 1348(requisitioning parts), SF 44(Procure supplies), DD 1896 or DD 1897(Procure jet fuel), VIDS/MAF, SF 95(Claim of Damage), SF 94(Statement of Witness), fuel sample log sheets, and MRC’s
* What are the 6 categories of HM(Hazardous Material)?
1. Flammables 2. Toxic material 3. Corrosives 4. Oxidizers 5. Aerosols 6. Compressed gases
* What is the AUL(authorized user list) used for in relation to HM?
Shows what HM an activity is allowed to acquire for local use
* What are the PPE requirements when handling HM/HW?
Eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves
* Who is the top dog in the Engineering department?
CHENG(Engineering Officer)
* What divisions make up engineering?
A = Auxiliaries, R = Repair, E = Electrical
* Who is responsible for damage control onboard CVN-70?
DCA(Damage Control Assistant)
* Who is responsible for CBR defense?
DCA
* Where is steam stored before it goes to the catapults for launch?
Steam Accumulators on the 01 level
* What are the ranges of HP and LP air?
HP = 1,000+ psig/ LP = 0-150 psig
* What are some uses for LP air?
Laundry, laboratories, hospitals, pneumatic tools, and various shops
* What type of switchboards does CVN-70 have?
450 volt dead-front type
* Heavy cylinders arranged in pairs are called what in relation to ground tackle?
Bits
* A heavy fitting with a smooth surface in which a mooring line may pass is called what?
Chock
* How many anchors does CVN-70 have and how much do they weigh?
2 – each weighs 30 tons
* Each shot of anchor chain splayed out equals how many feet/fathoms?
90 feet or 15 fathoms
* How are the detachable links colored on the anchor chain?
Red, White, and Blue then back to Red
* How many shots per anchor chain?
12 shots
* What are the parts of a Chain Stopper?
Pelican Hook, Shackle, Turnbuckle, Toggle Pin
* What are the ranges of HP and LP air?
HP = 1,000+ psig/ LP = 0-150 psig
* What are some uses for LP air?
Laundry, laboratories, hospitals, pneumatic tools, and various shops
* What type of switchboards does CVN-70 have?
450 volt dead-front type
* Heavy cylinders arranged in pairs are called what in relation to ground tackle?
Bits
* A heavy fitting with a smooth surface in which a mooring line may pass is called what?
Chock
* What are the ranges of HP and LP air?
HP = 1,000+ psig/ LP = 0-150 psig
* What are some uses for LP air?
Laundry, laboratories, hospitals, pneumatic tools, and various shops
* What type of switchboards does CVN-70 have?
450 volt dead-front type
* Heavy cylinders arranged in pairs are called what in relation to ground tackle?
Bits
* A heavy fitting with a smooth surface in which a mooring line may pass is called what?
Chock
* How many anchors does CVN-70 have and how much do they weigh?
2 – each weighs 30 tons
* Each shot of anchor chain splayed out equals how many feet/fathoms?
90 feet or 15 fathoms
* How are the detachable links colored on the anchor chain?
Red, White, and Blue then back to Red
* How many shots per anchor chain?
12 shots
* What are the parts of a Chain Stopper?
Pelican Hook, Shackle, Turnbuckle, Toggle Pin
* What can be used to hold the anchor and chain or to slow the descent of the anchor when being splayed out?
Anchor Brake
* What are the 3 methods used for RAS(Replenishment At Sea)?
UNREP, VERTREP, and CONREP
* Who orders abandon ship?
CO
* How many phases are there for abandoning ship?
3 phases
* What are some items that can be found with each inflatable life boat?
Signal mirror, flashlight, whistle, food rations, first aid kit, distress signal, and a dye sea marker
* Name some watch personnel you can find on the Bridge
OOD, Lookouts, Conning Officer, BMOW, Helmsman, Lee Helmsman, QMOW
* List a few conditions that may warrant an emergency breakaway during UNREP
Steering casualty, man overboard, enemy detection nearby, emergency launch or recovery of A/C
* What are the 3 common types of man-overboard recovery?
Helo, small boat, and coming alongside
* What is the Oscar Flag used for?
Used for man overboard
* What is the Five Flag used for?
Breakdown
* What is the Papa Flag used for?
Personnel recall back to ship
* What is the Code Pennant Alpha used for?
Divers are in the water
* What are the 3 types of visual communications?
1. Flags/Pennants/Day Shapes 2. Flashing light 3. Semaphore
* Of the 3 types of visual communications, which one is the most secure and why?
Semaphore – much faster, several ships can receive the same message at once, staffs and flags are all that’s required
* List the Administrative Bills
Berthing, Maintenance, and Cleaning
* List the Operational Bills
Boat Bill, Civil Disaster, Cold Weather, and Darken Ship
* List the Emergency Bills
General Emergency, A/C Crash and Rescue, Emergency Steering
* What does the Watch, Quarter and Station bill contain?
List of personnel by division, berthing assignment, work space, GQ station, and Watch stations
* How many CONFLAG stations do we have onboard?
1 for each hangar bay
* How fast can the deck edge elevator doors be opened or closed?
28 seconds
* How fast can the hangar deck ballistic doors(doors that divide the hangar bays) be opened or closed?
28 seconds
* Condition I for fixed wing aircraft means what?
A/C shall be spotted on the catapult and all flight stations manned up
* Condition II for fixed wing aircraft means what?
Flightcrews are to be near A/C
* Condition III for fixed wing means what?
Flightcrews geared up and standing by in the ready rooms
* Condition IV for fixed wing means what?
Same as Cond. III except minor maintenance can be performed on the A/C
* What is the designation for the A/C tiedown chain and it’s SWL(safe working load)?
TD-1A/B: SWL of 10,000 pds
* How many lengths does the ALBAR(Adjustable Length Towbar) come in?
9ft, 15ft, 20ft, and 25ft
* How many people does it take to move an A/C and what are their positions?
6 - Director, Safety Observer, Wing Walkers x 2, Chockman, and a Brake Rider
* Of the following personnel list the color of jersey worn by each member: 1. Plane captain 2. Chockman 3. Crash and salvage 4. Fuels 5. LOX 6. Plane director 7. LSO 8. Troubleshooter
1. Brown 2. Blue 3. Red 4. Purple 5. White 6. Yellow 7. White 8. Green
* Who wears a yellow jersey with a blue vest?
Tractor King
* Who wears a white jersey with no cranial?
LSO(Landing Signal Officer)
* Who wears a green jersey with a red cranial?
Helo LSE(landing signal enlisted)
* What color is the foul line on the flight deck?
Alternating red and white segments. Runs parallel to the ship’s runway
* What is the wheel-stop coaming?
Raised outer edge of the flight deck
* What is painted on the flight deck to indicate an access ladder?
2’’ wide white stripe shaped like a rectangle that’s the same width as the access ladder
* Which upper stage ordnance elevators serve the flight deck?
Upper Stages 1, 2, and 4
* What is used to smother a fire in the catapult trough?
Steam
* What color is painted on the coaming to indicate a steam smothering valve?
18’’ black stripe with the word ‘STEAM’ stenciled in white
* What is used in an emergency when an aircraft cannot make a normal pendant arrestment?
Barricade
* What is the designation of the arresting gear engine?
MK 7
* How many arresting gear engines do we have onboard CVN-70?
1 for each deck pendant and 1 for each barricade
* What is the reeve ratio for the MK 7 arresting gear engine?
18:1
* Pads that help minimize damage to the purchase cable and deck pendants are called what?
Impact Pads
* The retractable deck sheaves can be operated by what 2 means?
Electric motor or handwheel
* The launch bar on an A/C is connected to what in order for the A/C to be catapulted off the deck?
Shuttle
* What propels the shuttle forward to launch the A/C?
2 pistons assemblies per catapult
* When an A/C is about to be launched, what protects personnel from the hot exhaust gases being emitted from the A/C?
JBD(Jet Blast Deflector)
* What stops the shuttle and the piston assemblies once they reach the end of the power stroke?
Water Brake Cylinder
* What test can be performed to cycle the catapult and associated components?
Catapult No-Load Test
* An enclosure that can be retracted into the deck and houses the catapult-officer control console and monitor control console is called what?
ICCS(Integrated Catapult Control System)
* What is FLOLS and who’s responsible for it’s operation?
Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System – operated by the Air Boss
* What is one of the worst hazards during thunderstorm flying?
Hail
* How many turbulence classes are there?
4
* Which turbulence class is the airspeed fluctuation between 5 and 15 knots?
Light
* Which turbulence class is the airspeed fluctuation above 50 knots?
Extreme
* During Case I flight operations, how high is the cloud ceiling and what is the visibility range?
Ceiling = 3,000 ft or more Visibility = 5 Nautical Miles
* What are the conditions for Case II flight operations?
Ceiling above 1,000 ft Visibility 5 nm
* What are the conditions for Case III flight operations?
Ceiling is below 1,000 ft Visibility 5 nm ½ hr after sunset or ½ hr before sunrise
* How many different controllers are in CATCC?
4: Departure, Marshal, Approach, and Final
* What is the term applied when the flight deck is kept ready to launch and recover A/C at short and irregular intervals of time?
Flex Deck
* Define the term Ramp Time
Time specified by the Air Boss for the first recovering A/C to hit the ramp
* What duties does the LSO(Landing Signal Officer) have?
Responsible for visual control of the A/C in the terminal phase of approach immediately prior to landing
* The Bullseye is displayed by what instrumental device installed onboard ships?
AN/SPN-41
* The AN/SPN-46 is also known by what other 2 names?
PALS(Precision Approach Landing System) or the Easy Rider
* What does TARPS stand for and what A/C is it used on?
Tactical Air Reconnaissance Pod, used on the F-14
* In relation to AIMD, what 3 check lists should the jet engine test facility custodians have?
Start up, Shutdown, and Emergency procedures
* ALSS stands for what?
Aviation Life Support System
* What type of gear can you find in the ALSS rotatable pool?
Escape systems, environmental systems, fire extinguishing systems, aircrew clothing, parachutes, life rafts, etc…
* What type of A/C equipment does the AESR(Aeronautical Equipment Service Record) pertain to?
Power plants and propellers
* What is SEAOPDET?
Sea Operational Detachment
* What 2 corrosion publications does the ERT(Emergency Reclamation Team) use?
NAVAIR 01-1A-509 and the NAVAIR 16-1-540
* What are MEPP’s used for?
Mobile Electric Power Plant – used to supply electrical power to A/C for testing
* What is the designation of the A/C spotting dolly?
A/S32A-33
* What is the max lifting capacity of the A/S32A-33?
16,000 pds
* The NS-60 aircraft crash crane has a lifting capacity of how many pounds?
60,000 pds
* What are the 2 categories of Aircraft Armament Equipment(AAE)?
1. Aircraft Inventory Material 2. Mission-Oriented Material
* What is the difference between both types of AAE?
Aircraft Inventory Material is semipermanently attached to the A/C and is transferred along with the A/C. Mission-Oriented Material is assigned to and configured by the AIMD
* The SSC(Supply Support Center) is composed of what 2 sections?
1.SRS(Supply Response Section) 2. CCS(Component Control Section)
* SRS is divided into how many units?
6
* CCS is divided into how many units?
4
* Which unit of SRS is responsible for the verification of requisition data?
TRU(Technical Research Unit)
* Which CCS unit is responsible for the processing of all items received from the AIMD after the repair cycle?
SSU(Supply Screening Unit)
* What is the FEDLOG(Federal Logistics) used for?
Used to cross-reference part #’s and NSN’s, obtain management data, freight standards, and identify the source of supply
* What is the AVCAL used for?
Aviation Consolidated Allowance List – list of A/C materials that are needed to support maintenance requirements for a specified mix of A/C for a predetermined period of time
* What instruction covers the Explosives Handling Personnel Qualification and Certification Program?
OPNAVINST 8023.2
* How many classifications of HERO is there?
1. HERO safe 2. HERO unsafe 3. HERO susceptible
* What is TALD?
Tactical Air Launched Decoy
* What are the different guidance systems a missile can incorporate?
Active, Passive, or Semiactive
* How many Upper and Lower stage elevators are on CVN-70?
4 Upper Stage 6 Lower Stage
* In relation to ordnance, what color identifies high explosives?
Yellow
* If the weapon is gray in color and has a red band, what does that signify?
The weapon contains an irritant agent
* What does the color brown signify in relation to ordnance?
Rocket Motors/Low explosives
* What stations are manned in PRI-FLY?
Air Boss, Mini Boss, Sound Powered Phone Talker, FLOLS controller, Status Board Keeper
* What stations are manned in Flight Deck Control?
A/C handling officer, Fuels rep, Phone talkers, Elevator operators, CAG rep, GSE trouble shooters, Weapons rep, Corpsmen, Crash and Salvage
* The Catapult and Arresting Gear officer is what division officer?
V-2 Division
* What is the name of the cable that spools out of the retractable deck sheaves once the tailhook of the A/C catches the deck pendant?
Purchase Cable
* Inside the arresting gear engine the ram acts against what to slow the forward motion of the A/C?
Hydraulic Fluid
* The primary control for the FLOLS is in PRI-FLY. Where is the secondary control?
FLOLS control room in 03-123-12-Q
* If the FLOLS should ever be inoperable, what device can be used in it’s place?
MOVLAS(Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System)
* What television system is used for recording A/C launch and recovery operations under both day and night conditions for post flight analysis and evaluation?
ILARTS(Integrated Launch and Recovery Television System)
* Why are there 2 types of arresting barricades?
One for jet engine a/c One for prop engine a/c BONUS: One for training
* What division of air department is aviation fuels?
V-4
* How often is the Aviation Fuels Security Watch stood when not at flight quarters?
24 hours a day
* What are the 3 causes of nearly all a/c handling mishaps/incidents?
Poor supervision 2. Disinterest 3. Disregard of applicable handling instructions
* What is METOC and what is their duty?
Meteorology and Oceanography – collect, interpret, and disseminate weather info
* What does CATCC stand for?
Carrier Air Traffic Control Center
* Who’s in charge of CATCC?
AirOps Officer
* Name the positions manned in CATCC
Air Ops Officer, Assistant Air Ops Officer, Watch Officer, Supervisor, Plotters, Board Keepers, Launch/Land Recorder
* What are some of the duties of the ATO(Air Transfer Officer)?
Safe and orderly handling of all COD/VOD passengers, mail, and cargo arriving or departing the carrier
* What is CDC?
Combat Direction Center
* How many warfare modules does CDC encompass?
7
* What are the duties of CDC?
Detection, evaluation, and reporting of air, surface, and subsurface contacts to the appropriate control stations
* Who gives the orders in CDC?
TAO(Tactical Action Officer)
* What are the duties of Strike Ops?
Planning daily a/c operations to support the requirements of the Battle Group Commander and writing the Air Plan
* What is CVIC and their responsibilities?
Carrier Intelligence Center – brief and debrief pilots, collection and display of intelligence info
* What 3 departments does an IMA (Intermediate Maintenance Activity) normally consist of?
AIMD 2. Supply 3. Weapons
* What unit screens all components to determine if the IMA activity has the capability to repair, test, or check the part?
AMSU(Aeronautical Material Screening Unit)
* What is METCAL and it’s purpose?
Metrology and Calibration Program – ensures items that require a calibration are within established tolerance limits
* What is the SE Misuse/Abuse report?
OPNAV 4790/108
* What are the responsibilities of SSC?
Processing all items received from the AIMD after the repair cycle
* How many warfare modules does CDC encompass?
7
* What are the duties of CDC?
Detection, evaluation, and reporting of air, surface, and subsurface contacts to the appropriate control stations
* Who gives the orders in CDC?
TAO(Tactical Action Officer)
* What are the duties of Strike Ops?
Planning daily a/c operations to support the requirements of the Battle Group Commander and writing the Air Plan
* What is CVIC and their responsibilities?
Carrier Intelligence Center – brief and debrief pilots, collection and display of intelligence info
* What are the duties of SRS?
Processing material requirements, transmit material requests to other on-station supply processing points as required, and delivery of parts
* List all the divisions in the Weapons Department along with their function
G-1: Flight deck, Bomb Farm, Pyrotechnics G-2: Ship’s armory, .50 cal mounts, small arms G-3: Magazine spaces, Bomb assembly and stowage G-4: Weapons elevators G-5: Ordnance Control and Ammo Accounting EOD: Explosive Ord. Disposal
* Which a/c has a radar that is capable of surveying thousands of square miles of air space?
E-2C Hawkeye
* What are 2 types of Electronic Countermeasures(ECM)?
Passive(cannot be detected) Active(can be detected)
* Which type of radar moves only as necessary to stay fixed on the target?
Fire Control radar
* The F-14 has how many seats?
2
* The F/A-18 can carry up to how many pounds of ordnance?
17,000 pds
* What is the designation of the 20mm a/c gun system?
M61A1
* How many barrels does the M61A1 have?
6
* What system is used to process acoustic data in real-time or fast-time display?
FTAS(Fast Time Analyzer System)
* Which type of a/c houses the MAD system to detect submerged contacts?
S-3B
* Which a/c houses the LAMPS Mark III weapons system?
SH-60
* Which 2 a/c onboard CVN-70 can be used to carry and launch torpedoes?
S-3B and the SH-60
* What is the designation of the primary torpedoes used today?
MK-46 and the MK-50
* Which a/c has long-range early warning, and a command-data link to the F-14?
E-2C Hawkeye
* On which a/c is the HARM(High Speed Anti-Radiation Missile) the primary surface attack weapon?
EA-6B Prowler
* Which a/c employs a long range dipping sonar?
SH-60
* What type of ships have powerful radars to detect surface contacts?
Surface Combatants’ ship
* What system allows target data to be displayed to other ships equipped with the same system?
NTDS(Naval Tactical Data System)
* What does AGM mean in relation to ordnance and give 2 examples
Air to Ground Missile: 1. AGM-88(HARM) 2. AGM-84(HARPOON)
* What are the .50 cal mounts used for?
Point defense against swimmers and small boats
* How many .50 cal mounts are onboard CVN-70?
10
* What does NSSMS stand for?
Nato Sea Sparrow Missile System
* What type of sea sparrow missile is used in the NSSMS launchers?
RIM-7
* How many NSSMS mounts do we have and how many tubes per mount?
3 mounts – 8 tubes each
* What does CIWS stand for?
Close-In Weapon System
* How many CIWS mounts does CVN-70 have?
4 mounts - #’d 21-24
* What type of ammunition is used in the CIWS mounts?
20mm
* What is BFIMA?
Battle Force Intermediate Maintenance Activity – includes all members of the battle force than can provide I-level repair capabilities
* What is the organizational breakdown of the carrier air wing?
Air Wing 2. Air Wing Commander 3. Air Wing Staff 4. Squadrons