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345 Cards in this Set

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102.1 State the three objectives of first aid.
Save life, prevent further injury, and prevent infection.
102.2 State the methods of controlling bleeding.
1. Direct Pressure
2. Elevation
3. Pressure Points
4. Tourniquet (last resort only)
102.3 Identify an example of a pressure point.
A place where a main artery to the injured part lies close to the skin surface and over a bone. There are eleven principle points on each side of the body: jaw, temple, collar bone, neck, inner upper arm, inner elbow, wrist, upper thigh, groin, knee, and ankle.
102.4 Describe the symptoms and treatment for shock.
Shock: a disruption of the circulatory system.
Symptoms: vacant, lackluster eyes, shallow or irregular breathing, cold, pale skin, nausea and weak or absent pulse.
Treatment: lay victim down with feet elevated 6-12 inches, cover to maintain body heat, reasure and calm victim is conscious.
102.5 Describe the three classifications of burns.
1st Degree: redness, increased warmth, tenderness and mild pain.
2nd Degree: red and blistered skin, severe pain.
3rd Degree: destroying tissue, skin and bone in severe cases (pain may be absent due to nerve damage).
102.6 A Describe the symptoms and treatment for the following heat injuries: Heat Exhaustion.
Heat Exhaustion: serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart and lungs.
Symptoms: skin is cool, moist and clammy, the pupils are dilated, and normal or subnormal body temprature.
Treatment: move victem to a cool or A/C area, loosen clothing, apply wet cloths to head, groin, and ankles, fan, do not let victem become chilled. If conscious give a solution of one teaspoon salt disolved in one liter or water. Transport to medical.
102.6 B Describe the symptoms and treatment for the following heat injuries: Heat Stroke.
Heat Stroke: a breakdown of the sweating ability of the body, no longer able to eliminate excess heat.
Symptoms: hot and/or dry skin, uneven pupils, weak, rapid pulse.
Treatment: reduce heat by cooling body through moisture/cold (wet body or use cold packs). Move from source of heat.
102.7 State the differance between "open" and "closed" fracture.
Closed: entirely internal, bone is broken but skin is not (simple).
Open: open wound, bone may be protruding (compound).
102.8 A State the following as applied to electric shock: Personnel Rescue.
Extreme caution to avoid electrucution of rescuer. Do not touch victim, wire or anything else that could be conducting electricity. Turn off current immediatly. If unable to do this, use a non-conductive item (board) to remove the conductive item from victim.
102.8 B State the following as applied to electric shock: Treatment.
If the person has stopped breathing/pulse begin CPR and get victim to medical.
102.9 Describe the methods of clearing an obstructed airway.
Clear mouth of any foreign objects then: stand behind victem utilizing hiemlich manuver (quick upward thrusts to abdomen) or reclining abdominal thrusts if victim is prone (quick upward thrusts to abdomen).
102.10 A Describe the effects of the following cold weather injuries: Hypothermia.
General cooling of whole body caused by exposure, pale and unconcious, breathing is slow and shallow, body may seem stiff. Bring body temprature to normal using warmth (no hot drinks or stimulants). Take victem to medical.
102.10 B Describe the effects of the following cold weather injuries: Superficial Frostbite.
Ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to temp. of 32 degrees or lower. Take victim to medical.
102.10 C Describe the effects of the following cold weather injuries: Deep Frostbite.
Ice crystals forming in the deeper tissue layers after exposure to temp. of 32 degrees or lower (do not rub affected areas). Take victim to medical.
103.1 Define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Program.
The primary objective is to preserve human and material resources. The program enhances operational readiness by perserving the human and material resources used in accomplishing the naval aviation mission.
103.2 A Explain the safety responibilities of the following personnel: Commanding Officer.
The CO will require that persons are instructed and drilled in all safety precautions and procedures that they are complied with, and that applicable safety precautions are posted. In instances where safety precautions have not been issued, the CO will issue or augment such safety precaustions as deemed necessary.
103.2 B Explain the safety responibilities of the following personnel: Aviation Safety Officer.
The Aviation Safety Officer is the princible advisor to the CO on all aviation safety matters. He/she will advise and assist the CO in the establishment and management of a Command Aviation Safety Program, maintain appropriate aviation safety records and mishap statistics. He/she will coordinate safety matters among the organization staff.
103.2 C Explain the safety responibilities of the following personnel: Ground Safety Officer.
The Ground Safety Officer is the princible advisor to the CO on all ground safety matters. He/she will advise and assist the CO in the establishment and management of a Command Ground Safety Program, maintain appropriate ground safety records and mishap statistics. Additionally, he/she will coordinate safety matters among the organization staff.
103.2 D Explain the safety responibilities of the following personnel: Department Head.
The Department Head coordinates the department's safety program with the unit's Safety Officer and supervise the Department's Division Safety Officer. They ensure that all safety precautions are strictly observed by all persons within the department and all others concerned. He/she will ensure that safety precautions are kept posted and personnel are frequently and thoroughly instructed and drilled.
103.2 E Explain the safety responibilities of the following personnel: Division Officer.
The Division Officer will ensure that personnel comply with all safety instructions. He/she will prepare and submit for publication additional safety instructions deemed necessary for Command safety.
103.2 F Explain the safety responibilities of the following personnel: Safety Petty Officer.
The Safety PO will ensure that personnel are instructed in all safety matters and are familiar in safety instructions. He/she will be a central point for all safety related matters or concerns within a work center.
103.2 G Explain the safety responibilities of the following personnel: All Hands.
All personnel will familiarize themselves with safety regulations and instructions applicable to themselves and their assigned duties. They will comply with established safety standards, and report hazards and mishaps in accordance with their Command Safety Program and OPNAVINST 3750.6.
103.3 Explain the functions of the Safety Council/Enlisted Safety Committee.
A Safety Council is formed to set goals, manage assets, and review safety related recommendations. These Councils are formed in activities that are large in number such as an aircraft squadron or air station or larger. A record of meetings is kept. The council will review command plans, policies, procedures, conditions, and instructions for accuracy, content, currency, and responsiveness to corrective recommendations. The ground, aviation, and aeromedical (flight surgeon) safety officers must be standing members of the council. The Enlisted Safety Committee is formed of representatives from each work center and other activities, such as AIMD, Medical, etc. They will meet once a month and discuss safety issues and provide recommendations for improved safety procedures.
103.4 A Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Human Error.
Human error causes an alarmingly high number of mishaps. Human error is part of nearly every mishap. It includes those personnel who may have maintained or repaired equipment or even the worker at the factory where a part was manufactured. Human error involves both physical and mental factors including ergonomics (design of the workplace), physical strength of the individual, physical stress, and mental factors including the person's attitude, behavorial factors, etc.
103.4 B Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Maintenance and Support Factors.
Maintenance and support factors include improper maintenance, inproper priority assignments on work requests, or lack of proper quality assurance. Mishaps may occurr from the way the manufacturer made, assembled, or installed the equipment. Material damage and personnel injury mishaps can result from improperly maintained equipment.
103.4 C Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Administrative and supervisory factors.
Reviewing whether regulations and their enforcement by all levels in the chain of command could have contributed to the mishap is essential during a mishap investigation. Mishaps can result from an improper level of supervision or a failure to require personnel to meet personnel qualification standards. They can result from a lack of formal and informal training.
103.4 D Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Material failures or malfuncions.
Consider all material failures and malfunctions thoroughly, whether the failures or malfunctions occurred because of faulty design, defective manufacture, or repair. Most mishaps blamed on material failure may really involve maintenance factors or human error.
103.4 E Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Environmental factors.
Very few mishaps are caused by "acts of God." The cause of a mishap may be excessive speed for existing sea conditions or failure to secure for sea. Being struck by lightening may be an act of God, but being outside during during a thunderstorm was a contributing cause, therefore, the mishap was probably preventable. Environmental factors include extreme exposure to heat, cold, vibration, noise, illumination, radiation, or atmospheric contaminants.
103.5 A Define the following mishap classes: Class A.
The resulting total cost of reportable material property damage is $1,000,000 or more; or an injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.
103.5 B Define the following mishap classes: Class B
The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $200,000 or more, but less than $1,000,000; or an injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability; or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
103.5 C Define the following mishap classes: Class C.
The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $10,000 or more, but less than $200,000; a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred; or a non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time from work or disabilty at any time (lost time case). For reporting purposes, reportable lost workday Class C mishaps are those which result in 5 or more lost workdays beyond the date of injury or onset of illness (exceptions apply).
103.5 D Define the following mishap classes: Class D.
The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is less than $10,000 or a non-fatal injury (no lost time or first aid case) that does not meet the criteria of a Class C mishap.
103.6 State the objective of the Aviation Gas-Free Engineering Program.
The objective of the AVGFE Program is to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel systems. AVGFE requirements are outlined in NA 01-1A-35. An AVGFE technician shall be a QAR or CDQAR and must be a graduate of an AVGFE course. Gas free engineering technical quidance will be provided by the supporting ship, MALS, or station. OMAs not having a sufficient demand for AVFGE and feel an organic technician is impractical, may use the services of the supporting command. IMA AVGFE technicians shall provide support to tenant squadrons not having sufficient demand to maintain their own technician. Insufficient demand is defined as less than 3 GFE requirements in 6 months.
103.7 Explain the hazards associated with Radio Frequency (RF) energy.
Radio frequency energy can generate electrical currents and/or voltage large enough to cause life-threatening electric shock, burns, biological changes, and cataracts. Premature or unwanted activation of electro-explosive devices (EED) in ordnance, can cause sparks and arcs which may ignite flammable materials.
103.8 State the purpose of the Laser Safety Hazard Control Program.
The program is to design a series of safety factors established when using lasers. These include appointing a Lasar System Safety Officer, establishing safety regulations and standard operating procedures, eyeware, posting warning signs, training, safety surveys, medical surveillance, etc.
103.9 State the purpose of a safety stand down.
Safety stand downs are used to devote time to safety training, awareness, and enhancement of the command safety climate.
103.10 Discuss the concept of Operational Risk Management (ORM).
Operational Risk Management is a systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources. ORM is a tool used to make informed decisions by providing the best baseline of knowledge and experience available. Its purpose is to increase operational readiness by anticipating hazards and increase the potential for success to gain the competitive advantage in combat. ORM is not just related to naval aviation; it applies across the warfighting spectrum.
103.11 A Explain the following terms as they apply to ORM: Identify Hazards.
Begin with an outline or chart of the major steps in the operation or operational analysis. Next, conduct a preliminary hazard analysis by listing all of the hazards associated with each step in the operational analysis along with possible causes for those hazards.
103.11 B Explain the following terms as they apply to ORM: Asses Hazards.
For each hazard identified, determine the associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity. Although not required, the use of a matrix may be helpful in assessing hazards.
103.11 C Explain the following terms as they apply to ORM: Make Risk Decisions.
Develop risk control options. Start with the most serious risk first and select controls that will reduce the risk ot a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment. With selected controls in place, decide if the benefit of the operation outweighs the risk. If risk outweighs benefit or if assistance is required to implement controls, communicate with higher authority in the chain of command.
103.11 D Explain the following terms as they apply to ORM: Implement Controls.
The following measures can be used to eliminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk. These include: Engineering controls, administrative controls, and personnel protective equipment.
103.11 E Explain the following terms as they apply to ORM: Supervise.
Conduct follow-up evaluations of the controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect. Monitor for changes which may require further ORM. Take corrective action when necessary.
104.1 Discuss the dual chain of command for operating forces.
There is a dual chain of command to the operating forces: An operational chain from the President, through the Secretary of Defense to a commander of a unified or specified command to the assigned operational forces.
And an administrative chain through the Secretary of the Navy and the Chief of Naval Operations to the operating forces. In some cases, as with the Military Sealift Command, a portion of the operating forces may operate or be temporarily assigned directly under the CNO and outside the chain of command of the unified command structure. Operating forces are organized in a permanent fashion in the administrative chain of command. The operational chain of command is task-oriented, and can be structured as necessary to meet operational requirements.
104.2 A Discuss the following as they apply to the operational chain of command: Unified / Specified.
Unified and specified commanders operate under the control and direction of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

A unified command is composed of elements of two or more services. It has a broad continuing mission, and has a single commander. The unified commands are: Atlantic Command
Pacific Command
European Command
Southern Command
Central Command
Readiness Command
Strategic Command

A specified command has a broad continuing mission, but it is composed of forces from one service. They are:
NORAD
Air Mobility Command
104.2 B Discuss the following as they apply to the operational chain of command: Fleet Commanders.
Pacific and Atlantic Fleets include ships and craft classified and organized into commands by types, the titles of which are: training commands, surface forces, fleet marine forces, naval air forces, and submarine forces. Below are a list of Fleet Commanders: CINCPACFLT: Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet; commands the Third and Seventh Fleets
CINCLANTFLT: Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet; commands the Second Fleet
CINCUSNAVEUR: Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Naval Forces Europe commands the Sixth Fleet
104.2 C Discuss the following as they apply to the operational chain of command: Task Force Commander.
This system, developed during World War II, further divides fleets into forces, groups, units, and elements. Each subdivision has a numbered designation and an appropriate communication call sign. A fleet numbering system is used. The Commander Sixth Fleet, would assign certain numbered task forces. This may include: A striking force, TF 60; an amphibious force, TF 61; a service force, TF 62, etc. Within each task force there may be further subdivisions, called task groups (TG). With this system, the task commander has a task force that is adaptable to any change in size.
104.2 D Discuss the following as they apply to the operational chain of command: Task Unit Commander.
Task groups may be further subdivided into task units (TU). For example, TG 60.1 (the carrier group), may have a carrier unit designated TU 60.1.1.
104.3 A Discuss the following as they apply to the administrative chain of command: SECNAV.
A civilian in charge of the Department of the Navy. SECNAV is responsible for the policies and control of the Department of the Navy, including its organization, administration, operation, and efficiency.
104.3 B Discuss the following as they apply to the administrative chain of command: CNO.
The CNO is the senior military officer of the Department of the Navy and outranks all other naval officers (unless a naval officer is serving as chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff). The CNO is the principal advisor to the President and SECNAV on the conduct of war, and he/she is the principal naval advisor and executive of the Secretary of the Navy on conduct of Department of the Navy activities. As the Navy representative on the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the CNO keeps the SECNAV informed on the Joint Chiefs of Staff activities and is responsible to the President and the Secretary of Defense for duties external to the Department of the Navy as prescribed by law. The CNO commands the Chiefs of the Naval Material Command and Bureaus, the operating forces of the Navy, and shore activities as assigned by the SECNAV.
104.3 C Discuss the following as they apply to the administrative chain of command: Fleet Commander in Chief (CINC).
The Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet (CINCPACFLT), commands the Third and Seventh Fleets.
The Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet (CINCLANTFLT), commands the Second Fleet.
The Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Naval Forces, Europe (CINCUSNAVEUR), commands the Sixth Fleet.
Pacific and Atlantic Fleets include ships and craft classified and organized into commands by types, the titles of which are: training commands, surface forces, fleet marine forces, naval air forces, and submarine forces.
104.3 D Discuss the following as they apply to the administrative chain of command: Naval Air Force Commander (Type Commander/Aircraft Controlling Custodian).
The Naval Air Force Commander, U.S. Pacific Fleet (CDRAIRPAC) and Naval Air Force Commander U.S. Atlantic Fleet (CDRSIRLANT), are directly below Commander-in-Chief, Pacific or Atlantic Fleet, in the administrative chain of command. The Commander is usually a Vice Admiral in rank.
Type Commanders are in command of a certain type of squadron. They may be in command of VA, VAW, VS, VR, HS, HC, VX, etc. type commands.
Aircraft Controlling Custodians is the term applied to air commands and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM for exercising administrative control of assignment, employment, and logistics support of certain aircraft and aircraft engines as specified by the CNO. The following ACC's have been designated by CNO: COMANVAIRLANT, COMNAVAIRPAC, CNATRA, COMNAVAIRESFOR, and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM.
104.3 E Discuss the following as they apply to the administrative chain of command: Functional Wing Commander.
Wing Commanders are responsible for the aircraft material readiness, adminsitration, training, and inspection of squadrons under their command.
104.3 F Discuss the following as they apply to the administrative chain of command: Type Squadron Commander.
Type Squadron Commanders are responsible for the maintenance and material condition of aeronautical equipment assigned to their cognizance for the operation and support of the naval aviation mission. Additionally, they coordinate the Naval Aviation Maintenance Plan (NAMP) in the operating and training forces.
104.4 A Discuss the role of the following: MCPON.
The MCPON is the Navy's senior enlisted member. Assigned to the office of the CNO for a three-year duty, he or she serves as senior enlisted representative of the Navy and acts as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO and the Chief of Naval Personnel in all matters pertaining to enlisted personnel.
104.4 B Discuss the role of the following: Fleet Master Chief.
The Fleet Master Chief serves as the principle enlisted advisor to the Fleet Commander in Chief. He or she keeps the Fleet Commander up-to-date on situations, procedures, and practices that affect the welfare, morale, and well-being of the enliste crew. Presently there are 6 Fleet Master Chiefs. These are: Fleet M/C Pacific Fleet, Atlantic Fleet, Naval Forces Europe, Material Command, Shore Activities, and Naval Education and Training.
104.4 C Discuss the role of the following: Force master Chief.
The Force Master Chief serve as principle enlisted advisors to various Force Group Commanders. They keep the Force Group Commanders up-to-date on situations, procedures, and practices that affect the welfare, morale, and well-being of the enlisted crew. Presently there are 22 Force Master Chiefs.
104.4 D Discuss the role of the following: Command Master Chief.
The criteria for a command to have a CMC is based on the number of personnel assigned to that command. Navy commands with 250 or more personnel assigned are eligible to have a CMC billet. Commands that do not meet this criteria may designate a Master CPO from within the command to serve as a collateral duty CMC. The CMC is the principle advisor on enlisted matters to the Commanding Officer. He or she keeps the CO advised on situations, procedures, and practices that affect the welfare, morale, and well-being of the enlisted crew.
105.1 State the six areas of naval doctrine.
1. Naval Warfare, describes the inherent nature and enduring principles of naval forces.
2. Naval Intelligence, points the way for intelligence support in meeting the requirements of both regional conflicts and operations other than war.
3. Naval Operations, develops doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of U.S. Navy and Marine Corps expeditionary maritime traditions.
4. Naval Logistics, addresses the full range of logistical capabilities that are essential in the support of naval forces.
5. Naval Planning, examines force planning and the relationship between our capabilities and operational planning in the joint and multinational environment.
6. Naval Command and Control, provides the basic concepts to fulfill the information needs of commanders, forces, and weapon systems.
105.2 A Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare areas: Reconnaissance / Surveillance.
Reconnaissance and surveillance includes the search for and interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy, used in support of military operations and tasks. Certain select commands serve as elements of the Worldwide Airborne Command Post System and provide relay services.
105.2 B Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare areas: Antisubmarine.
Used to locate and destroy submarines.
105.2 C Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare areas: Amphibious Assault.
An amphibious assault involves the taking of an area of land where the land and sea meet. This may include the landing of troops and equipment. Aircraft provide bombardment by missiles, bombs, and other ordnance. Helicopters may be employed to transport troops and their equipment to be moved from the ship to the shore.
105.2 D Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare areas: Logistics Support.
Involves the transport of troops, personnel, and cargo or equipment where needed by the military.
105.2 E Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare areas: Search and Rescue.
Naval aircraft and helicopters may be assigned to search and rescue of downed, stranded, or disabled military personnel either by land or sea. They provide search data and surveillance of an area where the rescue is to take place. Helicopters or aircraft may provide the actual rescue actions required once the member in need is identified. These may include rescue by a rescue swimmer, litter rescue, helicopter hoist, etc.
105.2 F Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare areas: Mine Warfare.
The use of ships, aircraft, submarines, and helicopters to locate and destroy enemy mines.
105.3 Discuss the conditions that led to the formation of the U.S. Navy.
The areas of our country that became the 13 original states were colonies of England in the mid-1700's. The king of England allowed the colonies to trade only with England. Problems arose between the colonists and England as the years passed. English Parliament passed several tax laws that affected the colonists in a problem known as "taxation without representation". The colonists formed Committes of Correspondence to communicate the problems to England. They convened a Continental Congress to discuss these problems. This first congress met in 5 September 1774.
At the meeting, the Congress produced a statement of rights it believed England should grant to the colonists. Then in October of 1774 the statement of rights was presented to the king.
A second Continential Congress convened on 10 May 1775. The colonists appointed George Washington as Commander in Chief of the Continential American army on 15 June 1775. The Continential Congress felt forced to act as the provisional government for the colonies. They issued money, established a postal service, and created a Continential navy.
The U.S. Navy has its birth on 13 October 1775. On this date the Second Continential Congress authorized the purchase of two vessels. The first commander in chief was Esek Hopkins, who put the first squadron of the Continential Navy to sea in February 1776.
105.4 State the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine Corps team as instruments to support national policies.
Naval forces have been organized for fighting at sea - or from the sea - for more than two thousand years. The qualities that characterize most modern naval forces as political instruments in support of national policies are the same as those that define the essence of our naval Services today. These qualities are readiness, flexibility, self-sustainability, and mobility. They permit naval forces to be expeditionary - that is, being able to establish and maintain a forward-based, stabilizing presence around the world. Naval expeditionary operations are offensive in nature, mounted by highly trained and well-equipped integrated task forces of the Navy and Marine Corps, organized to accomplish specific objectives. Naval expeditionary forces draw upon their readiness, flexibility, self-sustainability, and mobility to provide the National Command Authorities the tools they need to safeguard such vital national interests as the continued availability of oil from world producers and maintenance of political and economic stability around the globe.
105.5 State the three levels of war.
There are three levels: tactical, operational, and strategic - each increasingly broader in scope.
The concept of "levels of war" can help us visualize the relative contribution of military objectives toward achieving overall national goals and offer us a way to place in perspective the causes and effects of our specific objectives, planning, and actions.
Although the levels do not have precise boundaries, in general we can say that the tactical level involves the details of individual engagements.
The operational level concerns forces collectively in a theater; and the strategic level focuses on supporting national goals. World War II, for example, a strategic-level and global war, included operational-level combat in the Pacific theater consisting primarily of U.S. led maritime, air, and supporting allied land campaigns. Within each specific campaign were a series of important and often decisive battles.
At the tactical level, each contributed to the achievement of that campaign's objectives. The culmination of these campaign objectives resulted in overall victory in the Pacific theater.
105.6 Explain how Naval Intelligence Operations, more than any other service, support peace time operational decision making.
Intelligence is central to the decision making process. Proliferation of technology increases the complexity of joint battlespace information management, and compresses the time cycle for decisionmaking. Space systems rapidly collect and distribute large volumes of information. They also provide services that link widely separated forces and provide an important advantage to naval forces in all areas of the world.
Intelligence estimates, disseminated in a timely fashion, center on the focus of effort, identify critical vulnerabilities, and enhance combat effectiveness.
105.7 State the mission of Naval Logistics.
Sustained naval and joint operations are made possible by a logistic support system that has two major components: fleet-based sustainment assets and strategic sustainment assets.
Fleet-based sustainment assets include replenishment ships of the combat logistics force providing direct fleet support, combat service support units, mobile repair facilities, and advanced logistic support hubs.
Strategic sustainment is provided by air and sea assets that are shared by all Services. Successful global response to contingencies depends upon our ability to project and sustain U.S. forces in all theaters of operations.
Integrated support resources in the form of fleet-based sustainment assets and strategic assets provide naval expeditionary forces and joint and multinational forces the ability to operate in peacetime and in war wherever and whenever our national interests demand.
Our ability to move and sustain forces at great distances from our shores is critical to the forward presence component of our military strategy.
105.8 State the importance of planning to Naval Operations.
When military action is one of the potential responses to a situation threatening U.S. interests, a plan is prepared using either the joint deliberate-planning process or crisis-action procedures. Although military flexibility demands a capability to conduct short-notice crisis planning when necessary, U.S. military strength is best enhanced by deliberate peacetime analysis, planning, and exercises.
An operation plan is a commander's complete description of a concept of operation. It is based on the commander's preparation of the battlespace, a formal evaluation, supported by intelligence, that integrates enemy doctrine with such factors as physical and environmental conditions.
From this evaluation, the commander identifies the forces and support needed to execute the plan within a theater of operations. Naval forces operation plans are integrated into the complete inventory available to the Joint Force Commander. For execution, plans become operation orders. Operation plans include: the theater strategy or general concept and the organizational relationships; the logistics plan shows ways the force will be supported; and the deployment plan sequences the movement of the force and its logistical support into the theater.
Elements of planning that produce a concept of operations include the commander's estimate, deciding possible courses of action, preparation of the mission statement and it's execution strategy, situation analysis, and formulation of the commander's intent. These elements are applicable up, down, and across chains of command.
105.9 A Discuss the importance of the following conflicts as they relate to naval aviation: Coral Sea.
7-8 May 1942: Thanks to the breaking of the Japanese Navy code, the U.S. was alerted to a large Japanese force moving to the Coral Sea to seize Port Moresby on the southwest coast of New Guinea. It was to be the first step of a planned invasion of Australia.
The Japanese operation centered around three aircraft carriers and dozens of troop transports, but the Americans met them with two carriers of their own. On May 7, the Japanese planes sank two minor ships, while U.S. planes sank an isolated enemy carrier.
The next day, both sides launched all their planes against the other. The aircraft passed each other unseen in the clouds, in the world's first carrier verses carrier battle. One Japanese carrier was damaged. The U.S. carrier Lexington was sunk, and the carrier Yorktown was damaged. After this action, both sides withdrew.
Although a tactical victory, Coral Sea was a strategic set-back for the Japanese who never again threatened Australia.
105.9 B Discuss the importance of the following conflicts as they relate to naval aviation: Midway.
3-6 June 1942: Midway was the turning point of the Pacific war. The U.S. breaking of the Japanese naval code was again the key element as it had been at Coral Sea a month earlier. A huge Japanese armada of 160 warships was involved, but commander-in-chief Admiral Yamamoto split his force, sending some ships north to the Aleutian Islands in a diversionary attack. The Japanese retained superior numbers approaching Midway which included 4 aircraft carriers and 11 battleships.
At Midway the U.S. had 3 carriers and no battleships. The Americans knew what was coming because of the broken codes, and Admiral Nimitz positioned his 3 carriers, the Hornet, Enterprise, and Yorktown, out of Japanese reconnaissance range.
As the Japanese carriers launched their planes to assault the Midway defenses, the U.S. planes headed for the enemy carriers. It took attack after attack, but finally the U.S. crews got through and sank 3 Japanese carriers. The next day the fourth carrier was sunk. Japanese planes sank the Yorktown.
In one day Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific.
105.9 C Discuss the importance of the following conflicts as they relate to naval aviation: Guadalacanal.
13-15 November 1942: After three days of bitter fighting, the Japanese naval forces retreated and U.S. Marines were able to secure the island of Guadalcanal. The Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6 destroyers.
The U.S.S. Juneau was involved in the battle. Navy policy was to place members of the same family on different ships, but the five Sullivan brothers,
from Waterloo, Iowa, insisted on staying together. An exception was made and they all became crewmen onboard the Juneau.
The Juneau was damaged during the battle in a close-range night encounter. As it limped off for repairs, it was torpedoed. The Sullivans along with 700 others were lost.
Because of this tragedy, Navy policy concerning family member separations was reinstated. A ship
was later named in their honor.
With the fall of the island, the southern Solomons came under Allied control and Australia was in less danger of attack.
105.10 Discuss the significance of 8 May 1911, as it applies to naval aviation.
Captain W. I. Chambers prepared requisitions for two Glenn Curtiss
biplanes. One, the Triad, was to be equipped for arising from or alighting on land or water; with a metal tipped propeller designed for a speed of at least 45 miles per hour; with provisions for carrying a passenger alongside the pilot; and with controls that could be operated by either the pilot or the passenger.
The machine thus described, later became the Navy's first airplane, the A-1.
Although these requisitions lacked the signature of the Chief of the Bureau of Navigation, necessary to direct the General Storekeeper to enter into a contract with the Curtiss Company, they did indicate Captain Chambers' decision as to which airplanes the Navy should purchase.
The planes were purchased for $5,500 each.
From this, May 8 has come to be considered the date upon which the Navy ordered its first airplane and has been officially proclaimed to be the birthday of naval aviation.
105.11 State the name of the first aircraft carrier.
20 March 1922: U.S.S. Langley.

The Jupiter, a former collier or coal-carrier, was recommissioned after conversion to the Navy's first carrier, the Langley (CV-1).
105.12 What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
21 July 1946, FH-1 Phantom
105.13 Who was the first naval aviator in space?
5 May 1961: Alan Shepard

Flew a 15-minute suborbital flight onboard the Mercury capsule, Freedom 7.
106.1 A Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AB.
Aviation Botswain Mate
106.1 B Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AC.
Air Traffic Controller
106.1 C Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AD.
Aviation Machinist's Mate
106.1 D Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AE.
Aviation Electrician's Mate
106.1 E Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AG.
Aerographer's Mate
106.1 F Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AK.
Aviation Storekeeper (now SK)
106.1 G Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AM.
Aviation Structural Mechanic
106.1 H Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AO.
Aviation Ordnanceman
106.1 I Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AS.
Aviation Support Equipment Technician
106.1 J Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AT.
Aviation Electronics Technician
106.1 K Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AW.
Airwarfare Systems Operators
106.1 L Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: AZ.
Aviation Maintenance Administrationman
106.1 M Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: PR.
Aircrew Survival Equipmentman
106.1 N Identify and explain the purpose of the following
aviation community ratings: PH.
Photographer's Mate
107.1 A Describe the following terms pertaining to motion: Inertia.
The willingness of an object to remain at rest or to continue is motion unless acted upon by an outside force.
107.1 B Describe the following terms pertaining to motion: Acceleration.
The rate of change of the speed and/or velocity of matter with time.
For example, if a ship, is moving at 10 knots, is moving at 18 knots one hour from now, and 21 knots 2 hours from now, it is said to be accelerating at a rate of 3 knots per hour.
107.1 C Describe the following terms pertaining to motion: Speed.
The rate of movement or motion in a given amount of time. Speed is the term used when only the rate of movement is meant.
For example, if the rate of movement of a ship is 14 knots, we say its speed is 14 knots per hour.
107.1 D Describe the following terms pertaining to motion: Velocity.
The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.
For example: 200 mph due north.
107.2 A Define the following laws of motion: Newtons First Law.
According to Newton's first law of motion (inertia), an object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by an outside force.
For example, once an airplane is moving, another force may act on it to bring it to a stop, otherwise it will continue in its motion.
107.2 B Define the following laws of motion: Newtons Second Law.
The second law of motion (force) states that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
Simply stated, an object being pushed by 10 pounds of force will travel faster than it would if it were pushed by 5 pounds of force.
107.2 C Define the following laws of motion: Newtons Third Law.
The third law of motion (action and reaction) states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
This law is demonstrated with a balloon. If you inflate a balloon and release it without securing the neck, as the air is expelled, the balloon will move in the opposite direction of the air rushing out of it.
107.3 Define Bernoulli's principle.
The principle states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and its pressure decreased.
The general lift of an airfoil is dependent upon the airfoil's being able to create circulation in the airstream and develop the lifting pressure over the airfoil surface.
As the relative wind strikes the leading edge of the airfoil, the flow of air is split. Part is deflected upward and aft, and the rest is deflected down and aft. Since the upper surface of the wing has camber or a curve on it, the flow over its surface is disrupted, and this causes a wavelike effect to the wing. The lower surface is relatively flat. Lift is accomplished by the difference in the airflow across the airfoil.
107.4 A Discuss the following weather warnings and their effect on naval aviation: Wind Warning
Destructive weather poses a significant threat to personnel, aircraft, ships, installations, and other resources. Adequate and timely weather warnings, coupled with prompt and effective action by commanders concerned, will minimize loss and damage from destructive weather.
1. Small craft
Harbor and inland waters warning for winds, 33 knots or less, of concern to small craft. The lower threshold for issuing such warnings is set by local authority.
2. Gale
Warning for harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 34 to 47 knots.
3. Storm
Warning for harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 48 knots or greater.
107.4 B Discuss the following weather warnings and their effect on naval aviation: Tropical Cyclone Warning.
Tropical cyclones are systems of cylonically rotating winds characterized by a rapid decrease in pressure and increase in winds toward the center of the storm. Their size may vary from 60 nautical miles to over 1000 nautical miles. Three stages of intensity are associated with tropical cyclones:
1. Tropical depression
Warning for land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 33 knots or less.
2. Tropical storm
Warning for land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 34 to 63 knots.
3. Hurricane/typhoon
Warning for land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 64 knots or greater.
107.4 C Discuss the following weather warnings and their effect on naval aviation: Thunderstorm / Tornado Warnings.
Thunderstorms are small scale storms, invariably produced by a cumulonimbus cloud and always accompanied by lightening and thunder. A tornado is a violently rotating column of air, usually in the form of a funnel, extending from a thunderstorm cloud to the ground.
A tornado is one of the most violent and destructive storms known. Its winds can reach from 100 to 250 knots, although their winds have never been measured directly.
1. Thunderstorm warning
Thunderstorms are within 3 miles of the airfield, or in the immediate area.
2. Severe thunderstorm warning
Thunderstorms with wind gusts to 50 knots or greater and/or hail of 3/4 inch in diameter or greater is forecast to impact the warning area.
3. Tornado warning
Tornadoes have been sited or detected by RADAR in or adjacent to the warning area, or have a strong potential to develop in the warning area.
107.5 A Describe the following aerodynamic terms: Lift.
The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. It sounteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained.
107.5 B Describe the following aerodynamic terms: Weight.
The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft.
107.5 C Describe the following aerodynamic terms: Drag.
The force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of the air about the wings, fuselage or body, and all protruding objects on the aircraft. Drag resists motion.
107.5 D Describe the following aerodynamic terms: Thrust.
The force developed by the aircraft's engine, and it acts in the forward direction. Thrust must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained.
107.5 E Describe the following aerodynamic terms: Longitudinal Axis.
An imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail. The axis about which roll occurrs.
107.5 F Describe the following aerodynamic terms: Lateral Axis.
An imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings and about which pitch occurrs.
107.5 G Describe the following aerodynamic terms: Vertical Axis.
An imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft. The movement associated with this axis is yaw.
107.6 State the three primary movements of aircraft about the axis.
a. Pitch - The movement of the aircraft about its lateral axis. The up and down motion of the nose of the aircraft.
b. Yaw - The movement of the aircraft about its vertical axis. The drift, or right or left movement of the nose of the aircraft.
c. Roll - The movement of the aircraft about its longitudinal axis. The movement of the wing tips; one up and the other down.
107.7 A Identify and state the purpose of the primary flight controls for: Fixed Wing Aircraft.
The ailerons provide control about the longitudinal axis, the elevators provide control about the lateral axis, and the rudder provides control about the vertical axis.
107.7 B Identify and state the purpose of the primary flight controls for: Rotary Wing Aircraft.
The collective stick controls the pitch of the rotor blades which translates to "up and down". The cyclic stick tilts the plane of the rotor blades forward, aft or sideways, giving the helicopter its directional motion. Lateral control is provided using the foot pedals to control the blades on the tail rotor.
107.8 A State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces: Flap.
Gives the aircraft extra lift. The purpose is to reduce the landing speed, thereby shortening the length of the landing rollout. They also facilitate landing in small or obstructed areas by permitting the gliding angle to be increased without greatly increasing the approach. The use of flaps during takeoff serves to reduce the length of the takeoff run. Some flaps are hinged to the lower trailing edges of the wings inboard of the ailerons. Leading edge flaps are in use on the Navy F-4, Phantom II.
107.8 B State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces: Spoiler.
Used to decrease wing lift. However, the specific design, function, and use vary with different aircraft. On some aircraft, the spoilers are long narrow surfaces, hinged at their leading edge to the upper surfaces of the wings. In the retracted position, they are flush with the wing skin. In the raised position, they greatly reduce wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surfaces.
107.8 C State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces: Speed Brakes.
Hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of aircrft. On some aircraft, they are hinged to the sides or bottom of the fuselage; on others they are attached to the wings. They keep the speed from building too high in dives. They are also used to slow the speed of the aircraft prior to landing.
107.8 D State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces: Slats.
Slats are movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing. When the slat is retracted, it forms the leading edge of the wing. When open, or extended forward, a slot is created between the slat and the wing leading edge.
High-energy air is introduced into the boundary layer over the top of the wing. At low airspeeds, this improves the lateral control handling characteristics, allowing the aircraft to be controlled at airspeeds below the normal landing speed. This is known as boundary layer control. Boundary layer control is intended primarily for use during operations from carriers; that is, for catapult takeoffs and arrested landings.
107.8 E State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces: Horizontal Stabilizer.
Provides stability of the aircraft about its lateral axis. This is longitudinal stability. It serves as the base to which the elevators are attached. On some high-performance aircraft, the entire vertical and/or horizontal stabilizer is a movable airfoil. Without the movable airfoil, the flight control surfaces would lose their effectiveness at extrememly high speeds.
107.8 F State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces: Vertical Stabilizer.
Maintains the stability of the aircraft about its vertical axis. This is known as directional stability. The vertical stabilizer usually serves as teh base to which the rudder is attached.
107.8 G State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces: Tail Rotor.
Mounted vertically on the outer portion of the helicopter's tail section. The tail rotor counteracts the torque action of the main rotor by producing thrust in the opposite direction. The tail rotor also controls the yawing action of the helicopter.
107.9 Explain the term angle of attack.
The angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or fuselage, meets a flow of air. Defined as the angle between the chord line of the wing (an imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing) and the relative wind. The relative wind is the direction of the airstream in relationship to the wing.
For example, an aircraft in straight and level flight has the relative wind directly in front of it and has zero angle of attack since the relative wind is directly striking the leading edge of the wing. An aircraft flying parallel to the ground which has the nose trimmed significantly up, now has the leading edge of the wing (chord line) pointed at an upward angle; however, the relative wind is striking the bottom of the wing. An analogy is to hold your hand out of the car window with your palm facing the ground (zero angle of attack), and then to rotate your hand slightly in either direction. Angle of attack is measured in "units" as opposed to degrees.
107.10 Explain the term autorotation.
A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power by making use of the reversed airflow up through the rotor system to reduce the rate of descent.
Accomplished by lowering collective pitch lever to maintain rotor rpm while helicopter is decreasing in altitude, then increasing collective pitch at a predetermined altitude to convert inertial energy into lift to reduce the rate of descent and cushion the landing.
107.11 State the components of a basic hydraulic system.
a. A reservoir to hold a supply of hydraulic fluid.
b. A pump to provide a flow of fluid.
c. Tubing to transmit the fluid.
d. A selector valve to direct the flow of fluid.
e. An actuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful work.
107.12 Describe and explain the purpose of the main components of landing gear.
a. Shock Strut Assembly - Absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe.
b. Tires - Allows the aircraft to roll easily and provides traction during takeoff and landing.
c. Wheel brake asembly - Used to slow and stop the aircraft. Also used to prevent the aircraft from rolling while parked.
d. Retracting and extending mechanism - All the necessary hardware to electrically or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear.
e. Side struts and supports - Provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear.
107.13 State the safety precautions used when servicing aircraft tires on aircraft.
Modern aircraft wheels and tires are among the most highly stressed parts of the aircraft.
High tire pressure, cyclic loads, corrosion and physical damage contribute to failure of aircraft wheels. The wheel fragments can be propelled several hundred feet. Always approach the tires from fore and aft.
When inflating, stand off to the side. Deflate when removing from the aircraft.
107.14 State the 5 basic sections of a jet engine.
a. The intake which is an opening in the front of the aircraft engine that allows outside or ambient air to enter the engine.
b. The compressor which is made of a series of rotating blades and a row of stationary stator vanes. The compressor provides high-pressure air to the combustion chamber (or chambers).

c. The combustion chamber where fuel enters and combines with the compressed air.

d. The turbine section which drives the compressor and accessories by extracting some of the energy and pressure from the combustion gases.

e. The exhaust cone which is attached to the rear of the engine assembly and eliminates turbulence in the emerging jet, thereby giving maximum velocity.
107.15 A Describe the following engine systems: Turbojet.
Projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity. The resulting effect is to propel the aircraft in the opposite or forward direction.
107.15 B Describe the following engine systems: Turboshaft.
Delivers power through a shaft to drive something other than a propeller. The power take off may be coupled directly to the engine, but in most cases it is driven by it's own free turbine located in the exhaust stream that operates independently on the engine. They have a high power-to-weight ratio and are currently used in helicopters.
107.15 C Describe the following engine systems: Turboprop.
Propulsion is accomplished by the conversion of the majority of the gas-energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller. This is done by the addition of more turgine stages. Only a small amount of jet thrust is obtained on a turbo prop engine.
107.15 D Describe the following engine systems: Turbofan.
Basically the same as a turbo prop except that the propeller is replaced by a duct-enclosed axial-flow fan. The fan can be part of the first stage compressor or mounted as a separate set of fan blades driven by an independent turbine depending on the fan design, it will produce somewhere around 50 percent of the engine's total thrust.
107.16 State the purpose of an afterburner.
Used during takeoff and combat maneuvering to boost the normal thrust rating of a gas turbine engine through additional burning of the ramaining unused air in the exhause section.
107.17 A State the NATO symbols for the following fuels and briefly explain the characteristics and reasons for the use of each: JP4-NATO Code F-40.
Has a flamespread rate of 700-800 feet per minute and a low flashpoint of -10 degrees F or -23 degrees C. Never used on ships. Use of JP4 will normally cause an engine to operate with a lower exhaust gas temperature (EGT), slower acceleration, and lower engine RPM.
107.17 B State the NATO symbols for the following fuels and briefly explain the characteristics and reasons for the use of each: JP5-NATO Code F-44.
Has a flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 140 degrees F or 60 degrees C. JP-5 is the only approved fuel for use aboard naval vessels. The lowest flashpoint considered safe for use aboard naval vessels is 140 degrees F. This is the Navy's primary jet fuel.
107.17 C State the NATO symbols for the following fuels and briefly explain the characteristics and reasons for the use of each: JP8-NATO Code F-34.
Has a flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 100 degrees F or 40 degrees C.
107.18 Describe the 3 hazards associated with jet fuel.
Explosion from fuel fumes, vapor inhalation, and toxic contact with skin, eyes, or swallowing can cause illness or death.
107.19 Describe the symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation.
The symptoms include nausea, dizziness, and headaches. Fuel vapor inhalatin can cause death.
107.20 Explain the purpose of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU).
These power units furnish electrical power when engine-driven generators are not operating or when external power is not available. Most units use a gas turbine to drive the generator. The gas turbine provides compressed air for air conditioning and pneumatic engine starting. This makes the aircraft independent of the need for ground power units to carry out its mission.
107.21 Identify the reasons for and methods of Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI)
It is essential that defects be found and corrected before they reach catastrophic proportion. NDI can provide 100 percent sampling with no affect to the use of the part or system being inspected. Methods used may include visual, optical, liquid penetrant, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, radiographic, etc.
NDI is the practice of evaluating a part or sample of material without impairing its future usefullness.
107.22 Discuss icing and its effects on the performance of naval aircraft.
Ice on the airframe decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and stalling speed. The accumultion of ice in exterior movable surfaces affects the control of the aircraft. If ice begins to form on the blades of a propeller, the propeller's efficiency is decreased or further power is demanded of the engine to maintain flight. Most aircraft have sufficient resere power to fly with a heavy load of ice, but airframe icing is a serious problem because it results in increased fuel consumption and decreased range. The possibility always exists that engine system icing may result in loss of power. Icing can cause: loss of engine power, aerodynamic efficiency, loss of proper operation of control surfaces, brakes and landing gear, loss of outside vision, false instrument indications, and loss of radio.
107.23 A State the purpose of the following: Pilot-static.
The pitot-static system in an aircraft includes some of the instruments that operate on the principle of the barometer. It consists of a pitot-static tube and 3 indicators, all connected with tubing that carries air. The three indicators are the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and the rate-of-climb indicator. Each operates on air taken from outside the aircraft during flight.
The tube or line from the pitot tube to the airspeed indicator applies the pressure of the outside air to the indicator. The indicator is calibrated so various air pressures cause different readings. The pitot tube is mounted on the outside of the aircraft at a point where air is least likely to be turbulent. It points in a forward direction parallel to the aircraft's line of flight.
Static means stationary or not changing. The static port introduces outside air, at its normal outside atmospheric pressure, as though the aircraft were standing still in the air. The static line applies this outside air to the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and rate-of-climb indicator.
107.23 B State the purpose of the following: Airspeed Indicator.
The airspeed indicator displays the speed of the aircraft in relation to the air in which it is flying. In some instances, the speed of the aircraft is shown in Mach numbers. The Mach number gives the speed compared to the speed of sound in the surrounding medium (local speed). For example, if an aircraft is flying at a speed equal to one-half the local speed of sound, it is flying at Mach 0.5. If it moves at twice the speed of sound, its speed is Mach 2.
107.23 C State the purpose of the following: Altimeters.
The altimeter shows the height of the aircraft above sea level. The face of the instrument is calibrated so the counter or pointer displays the correct altitude of the aircraft.
107.23 D State the purpose of the following: Rate-of-Climb.
The rate-of-climb indicator shows the rate at which an aircraft is climbing or descending.
107.23 E State the purpose of the following: Attitude Indicator.
A pilot determines aircraft attitude by referring to the horizon. Often, the horizon is not visible. When it is dark, overcast, smokey, or dusty, the earth's horizon may not be visible. When one or more of these conditions exists, the pilot refers to the attitude indicator. It is also called the vertical gyro indicator or VGI. The instrument shows the pilot the relative position of the aircraft compared to the earth's horizon.
107.23 F State the purpose of the following: Turn and Bank Indicator.
Shows the correct execution of a turn and bank. It also shows the lateral attitude of the aircraft in straight flight. It consists of a turn indicator and a bank indicator. The turn indicator is a gyro mounted in a frame that is pivoted to turn on a longitudinal axis. The direction of the turn is shown on the dial by a pointer. The gyro consists of a glass ball that moves in a curved glass tube filled with a liquid. When the pilot is executing a properly banked turn, the ball stays in the center position. If the ball moves from the center, it shows the aircraft is slipping to the inside or outside of the turn.
107.23 G State the purpose of the following: Navigation System.
Navigation systems and instruments direct, plot, and control the course or position of the aircraft. These may include the radios, transmitters, TACAN, LORAN, etc.
107.23 H State the purpose of the following: Identification Friend or Foe (IFF).
IFF is an electronic system that allows a friendly craft to identify itself automatically before approaching near enough to threaten the security of other naval units. A transponder in the friendly aircraft receives a radio-wave challenge. The transponder transmits a response to a proper challenge. All operational aircraft and ships of the armed forces carry transponders to give their identity when challenged.
107.23 I State the purpose of the following: Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR).
A radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater than is visually possible. Detectable objects include aircraft, ships, land, clouds, and storms. Radar also shows their range and relative position. Radar works on a echo principle. Sound waves travel out and by knowing the speeds and the time it takes for them to return as an echo, the distance can be measures.
One radar range mile is 12.36 microseconds. That is the time it takes for a radio wave to travel out and return back for one mile.
107.23 J State the purpose of the following: Magnetic (standby) compass.
A direct-reading magnetic compass is mounted on the instrument panel. The face of the compass is read like the dial of a gauge.
107.23 K State the purpose of the following: Communication Systems.
Radio equipment does not require interconnecting wires between the sending and receiving stations. It is the only practical means of communication with moving vehicles, such as ships or aircraft. Modern aircraft use navigation aids such as simple radio direction finders to complex navigational systems.
107.24 A State the purpose of the following armament: Bombs.
Any weapon other than a torpedo, mine, rocket or missile, dropped from an aircraft. Bombs are free-falling explosive weapons and may be unguided or "smart" or guided.
Designed for release over enemy targets to reduce and neutralize the enemy's war potential by destructive explosion, fire, nuclear reaction, etc.
107.24 B State the purpose of the following armament: Rockets.
A weapon contraining an explosive section and a propulsion section. A rocket is unable to change its direction of movement once fired. It can be launched from an aircraft without the need of heavy or complex gun platforms and without violent recoil. Since rockets are usually launched at close range, it's accuracy as a propelled projectile is higher than that of a free-falling bomb dropped, from high altitude.
107.24 C State the purpose of the following armament: Missiles.
A vehicle containing an explosive section, propulsion section, and guidance section. A missile is able to change direction or movement after being fired. Missiles are classified according to their range, speed, launch environment, mission and vehicle type.
107.24 D State the purpose of the following armament: Mines.
An underwater explosive put into position by surface ships, submarines, or aircraft. A mine explodes only when a target comes near or in contact with it. Their primary objective is to effectively defend or control vital straits, port approaches, convoy anchorages and seaward coastal barriers.
107.24 E State the purpose of the following armament: Torpedoes.
Self-propelled underwater missiles used against surface and underwater targets. Torpedoes are the primary weapon employed in antisubmarine warfare. They are designed to search, detect, attack and destroy submarines and surface ships.
107.25 A Explain the purpose of the following: Circuit Breaker.
A protective device that opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value. Circuit breakers can be reset.
107.25 B Explain the purpose of the following: Fuse.
A protective device inserted in-line with a circuit. It contains a metal that will melt or break when current is increased beyond a specified value, thus disconnecting the circuit from its power source to prevent damage.
107.26 A Explain the following avionics terms: Voltage.
The "driving force" behind current. Voltage, as applied to Ohm's Law, can be stated to be the base value in determining unknown circuit values. Designated by the letter (E). Note: Ohm's Law states E=IR.
107.26 B Explain the following avionics terms: Current.
The flow of electrons. Ohm's Law states that current is directly proportional to the applied voltage and inversely proportional to the circuit resistance. Designated by the letter (I). Note: Ohm's Law states E=IR.
107.26 C Explain the following avionics terms: Resistance.
The opposing force to the flow of electrons. As stated in Ohm's Law, current is inversely proportional to resistance. This means, as the resistance in a circuit increases, the current decreases proportionally. Designated by the letter (R). Note: Ohm's Law states E=IR.
108.1 Define the term aircraft handling.
Aircraft handling is a general term that describes any movement of aircraft or associated equipment.
108.2 State the purpose of standard aircraft taxi signals.
Used by all branches of the Armed Forces so that there will be no misunderstanding when a taxi signalman of one service is signaling a pilot of another.
108.3 State the vehicle speed limits on the flight line and around the aircraft.
The speed limit within 50 feet of aircraft is 5 mph. Along runways, taxiways, parking ramps and work areas it is 10 mph.
108.4 State the maximum towing speed of an aircraft.
As fast as the slowest walker.
108.5 Name the 4 categories of tie down requirements.
a. Initial
b. Intermediate
c. Permanent
d. Heavy weather
108.7 State the purpose of the MA-1A overrun barrier.
The MA-1A is an emergency arresting system comprised of a net barrier and cable system.
It is designed to stop aircraft not equipped with tail hooks but the aircraft must have a nosewheel for the barrier to be effective. The MA-1A is always in a standby status, in case there is an aborted takeoff or an emergency overrun landing.
All MA-1A barrier nets are in use by the Air Force. The Navy uses other devices known as E-5, E-28 or M-21 barriers. The MA-1A is no longer available for procurement, and is being replaced.
108.8 A State the minimum personal protective equipment required on the flight line and ramp areas during the following operations: Routine Maintenance.
The work area shall be assessed as to hazards which may be present. Each worker shall be given and briefed on the use of the proper PPE for that area.
108.8 State the minimum personal protective equipment required on the flight line and ramp areas during the following operations: Flight Operations.
All personnel whose duties require them to work on the flight deck shall wear:
a. Cranial
b. Jersey, with the appropriate color as noted by the position of the individual; i.e. Plane Captains wear brown jerseys.
c. Goggles
d. Sound attenuators
e. Flight deck shoes
f. Flotation gear
g. Survival light
h. Whistle
108.9 A Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following: Intakes.
The air intake ducts of operating jet engines are an ever present hazard to personnel working near the ducts of the aircraft. They are also a hazard to the engine itself if the area around the front of the aircraft is not kept clear of debris. The air intake duct may develop enough suction to pull an individual or hats, glasses, etc., into the intake. The hazard is greatest during maximum power settings.
108.9 B Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following: Exhaust (engine and APU).
Jet engine exhausts create many hazards to personnel. The 2 most serious hazards of jet engine exhaust are the high temperature and high velocity of the exhaust gases from the tailpipe. High temperatures can be found up to several hundred feet from the tailpipe. The closer you get to the aircraft, the higher the exhaust temperatures. When a jet engine is starting, sometimes excess fuel can accumulate in the tailpipe. When the fuel ignites, long flames shoot out of the tailpipe. Personnel should be clear of this danger area at all times.
108.9 C Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following: Propellers.
Personnel should NOT approach or depart an aircraft with the propellers turning. Personnel should walk well around the propeller area at all times.
108.9 D Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following: Rotor Blades.
Personnel should NOT approach or depart a helicopter while the rotors are being engaged or disengaged.
108.9 E Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following: Hot Brakes.
Never face the side of the wheel, as an explosion of the wheel will follow the line of the axle, which may be outboard depending on the landing gear configuration. Always approach the wheel from fore or aft, never from the side.
108.10 A Explain the significance of: Runway Numbering System.
Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees, i.e. Runway 01: A runway heading of 250 degree is runway 25. If there are 2 runways whose centerline is parallel, the runway will be identified as L (left) and R (right) or 36L or 36R, if there are 3 parallel runways, they are identified as L (left), R (right), or C (center).
108.10 B Explain the significance of: Threshold Markings.
Runways 200 feet wide have 10 stripes marking the landing threshold, each 12 feet wide by 150 feet long. For runways that are less than 200 feet wide, the markings cover the width of the runway less 20 feet on both sides. These markings designate the landing area.
108.10 C Explain the significance of: Airfield Lighting System.
Procedures for the operation of airport lighting are in FAA Handbook 7110.65. Operation of the airport lighting at controlled airports is normally the responsibility of the tower. When the airfield is closed, all associated lighting is shut down with the following exceptions:
1. Navigable airspace obstruction lights
2. Rotating beacons used as a visual orientation aid in a metropolitian area.
Airport lighting systems are standardized by the Air Force, Navy, and FAA to present a uniform and unmistakable appearance. These standards specify the location, spacing, and color of lighting components in use.
108.10 D Explain the significance of: Runway / Taxiway Markings.
Runway lights are installed to provide visual guidance at night under low-visibility conditions during aircraft takeoff and landing operations. Taxiway lights are blue. Their spacing is variable. Two blue lights, called entrance-exit lights, are spaced 5 feet apart and are placed on each side of a taxiway entrance to or exit from a runway or parking area. The taxi lights are turned on as soon as the pilot of an aircraft is cleared to taxi out. They are turned off when the the aircraft is on the runway or another taxiway. For inbound aircraft, they are turned on as the aircraft approaches the taxiway and turned off when the aircraft is parked.
108.10 E Explain the significance of: Arm / Dearm Areas.
An area where ordnance is changed from a state of a safe condition to a state of readiness and vice versa. All evolutions are conducted using the individual stores loading manual/checklist. The area ahead of or behind and/or surrounding the aircraft shall be kept clear until all weapons/ordnance are completely safe. When aircraft are being taxied from the landing area to the dearm area, care must be taken to minimize exposure of the armed ordnance to personnel and equipment.
108.10 F Explain the significance of: Overrun Area.
Provides a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft. The area may also serve as an emergency all-weather access for fire-fighting, crash, and rescue equipment. Some are paved and some have yellow chevrons across them. An area with this type marking is a nontouchdown area for aircraft.
108.10 G Explain the significance of: Parking Apron.
Required for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft. They are connected to the runways by taxiways or tow ways. Parking sizes are based on the type and number of aircraft to be parked and requirement for squadron integrity.
108.11 A Explain the purpose of the following: Wind Indicator.
Provides a method for prompt issuance of wind directions and velocities to pilots.
108.11 B Explain the purpose of the following: Airfield Rotating Beacon.
When the airport is below VFR weather conditions, the airport rotating beacon is used to identify the airport's location during darkness and daylight hours. Rotation is in a clockwise direction when viewed from above. The beacon is always rotated at a constant speed, which produces the visual effect of flashes at regular intervals. The flashing rate is 12 to 15 flashes per minute.
108.11 C Explain the purpose of the following: Tower Visual Communications.
A coordination device between the radar controller and the control tower. Visual communication provides a sequence of lights and switches that supplement other circuits on the interphone system and serve to reduce the number of voice contacts between the tower and radar controller.
108.11 D Explain the purpose of the following: Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN).
TACAN uses a bearing determining system to determine aircraft position and distance from a TACAN station. The primary navigation aid used by carrier based aircraft.
108.11 E Explain the purpose of the following: Crash / Rescue.
Within the ship damage control organization is the Crash, Salvage, and Rescue Team. This team is the flight deck repair team. From its station in the island structure it serves to effect rescue of personnel from damaged aircraft on the flight deck, clear away wreckage, fight fires on and make minor emergency repairs to the flight deck and associated equipment.
108.11 F Explain the purpose of the following: Compass Calibration Pad.
A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated. A minimum of one area is provided at each airport.
108.11 G Explain the purpose of the following: Liqued Oxygen (LOX) exchange area.
A designated area which is used for the servicing of aircraft which require Liquid Oxygen (LOX). Liquid Oxygen is a light blue liquid that flows like water and is extremely cold (-297 degrees F). It has an expansion rate of 860 to 1. It is a strong oxidizer and vigorously supports combustion. The area must be kept free of flammable or combustible materials such as wood, cloth, paper, oil, or kerosine.
109.1 A State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: HC.
Helicopter Combat Support - Rotary Wing
They perform duties such as plane guard,
sea-air rescue, mail delivery, and personnel transfer
Aircraft: H-1, H-3, C-HH-46D, CH-53E
109.1 B State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: HCS.
Helicopter Combat Support Special Squadron- Rotary Wing
Provides dedicated deployable combat rescue detachments in
support of aircraft carrier and amphibious operations for quick
reaction contingencies.
Aircraft: HH-60H
109.1 C State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: HM.
Helicopter Mine Countermeasures - Rotary Wing
Provides aerial mine hunting and minesweeping by deploying into
and towing through the water, sleds designed to detect or
clear minefields.
Aircraft: CH/RH-53, MH-53
109.1 D State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: HS.
Helicopter Antisubmarine - Rotary Wing
Used for carrier based anti-submarine warfare, plane guard,
search and rescue and logistics. RegNav flies the SH-60F
Oceanhawk and reserves fly the SH-3H Sea King.
Aircraft: SH-3, SH-60F
109.1 E State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: HSL.
Helicopter Antisubmarine Light
Fly smaller helicopters from ships such as DDG's or FFG's.
They also perform search and rescue and logistics. RegNav
flies SK-60B Seahawk and reserves flies SH-2G Sea Sprite.
Aircraft: SH-2G, SK-60B
109.1 F State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: HT.
Helicopter Training
Provides basic and advanced training of student Naval Aviators
in rotary wing aircraft.
Aircraft: TH-57
109.1 G State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VAQ.
Tactical Electronic Warfare -Fixed Wing
Tactically exploits, surpresses, degrades and decieves enemy
electromagineic defensive and offensive systems including
communication, in support of air strike and fleet operations.
The EA-6B Prowler is used from carriers and EP-3A is land based.
Aircraft: EA-6B, EA-7, EP-3A
109.1 H State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VAW.
Carrier Airborne Early Warning - Fixed Wing
Carrier based and provide early warning against weather,
missiles, shipping and aircraft.
Aircraft: E-2C
109.1 I State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VC.
Fleet Composite - Fixed Wing
Perform duties such as utility and air services for the fleet
such as simulations and target towing.
Aircraft: TA-4J, S/UH-3A, CH-53E, VP-3A
109.1 J State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VF.
Fighter - Fixed Wing
Fighter squadrons are used against aircraft and ground installations to defend surface units. They escort attack
aircraft and give close air support to landing forces. They
use maximum firepower with speed.
Aircraft: F-14, F-16N, T-38
109.1 K State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VFA.
Strike Fighter - Fixed Wing
Employed for both fighter and attack missions.
Aircraft: F/A-18
109.1 L State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VMFA.
Marine Fighter Attack - Fixed Wing
Marine Corps Strike Fighter squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions.
Aircraft: F/A-18, AV-8B
109.1 M State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VP.
Patrol - Fixed Wing
Land based squadrons that perform anti-submarine warfare,
anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance and mining.
Aircraft: P-3
109.1 N State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VQ.
Fleet Air Reconnaissance - Fixed Wing
Electronic warfare support including search for, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy.
Selected squadrons serve as elements of the Worldwide Airborne
Command Post System and provide communications relay services.
ES-3, EP-3, E-6, EC-130
109.1 O State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VR.
Logistics Support - Fixed Wing
Transport of personnel and supplies.
Aircraft: C-9, C-12, C-20, CT-39, C-130, C-131
109.1 P State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VRC.
Carrier Logistics Support - Fixed Wing
Transports personnel and supplies including carrier onboard
delivery aircraft such as the C-2 Greyhound or US-3
Aircraft: C-2, US-3
109.1 Q State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VS.
Carrier Antisubmarine Warfare - Fixed Wing
Perform surface search and sea control. Referred to as "Sea
Control" squadrons even though their letter designation is VS.
Note: As of 1998 VS no longer is employed in the ASW role.
Aircraft: S-3
109.1 R State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VT.
Training - Fixed Wing
Provide basic and advanced training for student naval aviators
and flight officers.
Aircraft: T-2, TA-4, T-34, T-44, T-47, T-45
109.1 S State the primary mission of the following aviation communities: VX/VXE.
VX - Air Test and Evaluation - Fixed Wing
Tests and evaluates the operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in an operational environment. They
develop tactic and doctrines for their most effective use.
Aircraft: A4M/T, TA-4J, A-6, AV-8, F/A-18A/B,
S-3A/B, P-SH-2F, SH-3H, SH-60B/F, OV-10A/D

VXE - Antarctic Development - Fixed Wing
Supports operation Deep Freeze.
Aircraft: LC-130, UH-1H
109.2 A Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: AV-8 HARRIER.
Fighter Attack
109.2 B Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: C-130 HERCULES.
Logistics Support
109.2 C Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: C-2 GREYHOUND.
Carrier Logistics Support
109.2 D Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: C-20.
Logistics Support
109.2 E Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: C-9 SKY TRAIN.
Logistics Support
109.2 F Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: EA-6B PROWLER.
Tactical Electronic Warfare
109.2 G Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: E-2 HAWKEYE.
Airborne Early Warning
109.2 H Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: C-12 HURON.
Logistics Support
109.2 I Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: E-6 MERCURY.
Fleet Air Reconnaissance
109.2 J Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: F/A-18 HORNET.
Fighter / Attack
109.2 K Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: F-14 TOMCAT.
Fighter
109.2 O Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: H-46 SEA KNIGHT.
Helicopter Antisubmarine Light
109.2 P Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: SH-60B SEAHAWK.
Helicopter Antisubmarine
109.2 Q Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: SH-60F OCEANHAWK.
Helicopter Mine Countermeasures
109.2 R Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: HH-60H SEAHAWK.
Helicopter Antisubmarine Light
109.2 S Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: P-3 ORION.
Patrol
109.2 T Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: S-3 VIKING.
Carrier Anti-Submarine Warfare
109.2 U Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: TA-4 SKYHAWK.
Training
109.2 V Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: T-2 BUCKEYE.
Training
109.2 W Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: T-45 GOSHAWK.
Training
109.2 X Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: UH-1N IROQUIS
Helicopter Combat Support
109.2 Y Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: T-34 MENTOR.
Helicopter Combat Support
109.2 Z Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: T-44 PEGASUS.
Training
109.2 AA Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: F-5 TIGER II.
Fighter
109.2 BB Identify the mission of the following naval aircraft: AH-1 COBRA.
Helicopter Combat Support
110.1 A State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: AE.
They operate with replenishment groups to deliver ammunition and missiles to ships at sea. These ships are handle all types of missiles. They carry two H-46 helicopters for vertical replenishment and support.
110.1 B State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: AD.
Despite their title, destroyer tenders service a variety of ships besides destroyers. Destroyer tenders provide a mobile base and intermediate level maintenance support facilities for destroyers, cruisers and frigates.
Ship used to provide base facilities for destroyer type combat vessels. Provides, accommodation for flag staff, ships crews, light repair, training and resupply facilities.
110.1 C State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: AFS.
Provides a mixture of combat stores (ammunition and the like) and general stores such as food.
110.1 D State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: AS.
Ship used to provide base facilities for submarines. Provides, accommodation for flag staff, ships crews, light repair, training and resupply facilities.
110.1 E State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: AO / AOE.
AO: These ships carry fuel, jet fuel, and other petroleum products. They operate with replenishment groups adn deliver their cargo to ships at sea. They can service from both sides of the ship simultaneously.

Replenishment at sea enables the fleet to remain at sea and to make successive strikes without returning to base for fuel, ammunition, or supplies.

AOE: The largest and most powerful auxiliary ship in the Navy. AOE ships carry missiles, fuel, ammunition and general cargo. They can also carry refrigerated cargo and supplies. They carry two H-46 helicopters for vertical replenishment and support.
110.1 F State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: CG.
These ships serve provide protection against surface and air attacks, and gunfire support for land operations. They have a large cruising range and are capable of speeds over 30 knots. Some cruisers are capable of conducting antiair warfare, antisubmarine warfare, and antisurface ship warfare at the same time. They carry a LAMPS Mk III SH-60B helicopter.
110.1 G State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: CV / CVN.
Carriers are designed to carry, launch, retrieve and handle combat aircraft quickly and efficiently. It can approach the enemy at high speed, launch planes, recover them, and retire before its position can be determined. Attack carriers are excellent long-range offensive weapons and are the center of the modern naval task force or task group.

CV's use boilers for their power plant, while CVN's use nuclear reactors.

There are currently 12 aircraft carriers. One, the U.S.S. Ronald Reagan, is under construction. All but 3 are nuclear powered. These include the John F. Kennedy, U.S.S. Constellation, and Kitty Hawk. CV's use boilers for propulsion.
110.1 H State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: DD / DDG.
Multipurpose ships used in any kind of naval operation. Fast ships with a large variety of armament and little or no armor. They depend on their speed and mobility for protection. They operate offensively and defensively against subs and surface ships. They can take defensive action against air assaults. They provide gunfire support for amphibious assaults. They can preform patrol, search and rescue missions, if needed. They can accomodate two SH-60B or 2 SH2G helicopters.
110.1 I State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: FFG.
Frigates are used for open-ocean escort and patrol. They resemble destroyers in appearance, but are slower, have only a single screw, and carry less armament. They can carry two SH-60B helicopters.
110.1 J State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: LCC.
Provides accomodations and command and communication facilities for various commanders and their staffs. They can serve as a command ship for an amphibious task force, landing force, and air support commanders during amphibious operations. They are the most modern and capable command facilities afloat.
110.1 K State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: LHA.
These ships are able to embark, deploy, and land a Marine battalion landing team by helicopters, landing craft, amphibious vehicles, and combinations of these methods. They are versatile and combine the same features of the Amphibious Assault ship (LPH), Amphibious Transport Dock (LPD), Amphibious Cargo Ship (LKA), and Dock Landing Ship (LSD) in a single ship.
110.1 L State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: LHD.
They are designed based on that of an Amphibious Assault Ship, but are intended to be convertible from an Assault Ship to an Anti-submarine Warfare ship with Harrier fighters for ground assault.
110.1 M State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: LPD.
Combines the features of a Dock Landing Ship (LSD), with the features of an Amphibious Assault Ship (LPH). They can transport troops and equipment in the same ship. It has facilities for 8 helicopters.
These are among the largest amphibious ships in the world.
They are primary landing ships, resembling small aircraft carriers, designed to put troops on hostile shores.
101.1 N State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: LPH.
Designed to embark, transport, and land 1,800 troops and their equipment via transport helicopterss in conjunction with a beach assault. They can also assist with antisubmarine warfare.
101.1 O State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: LSD.
Dock Landing Ships support amphibious operations including landings via Landing Craft Air Cushion (LCAC), conventional landing craft and helicopters, onto hostile shores.
In order to launch craft, the LSD must have the well flooded for the craft to move out on their own power. It has one CH-53 helicopter landing spot.
101.1 P State the mission of each of the following classes of aviation capable ships: MCS.
They provide command, control and support ship for mine countermeasures operations.
There is only one of these in the naval inventory - the USS Inchon.
111.1 A Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships: ATF.
Provide the U.S. Navy with towing service, and when augmented by Navy divers, assist in the recovery of downed aircraft and ships.
111.1 B Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships: ARS.
Render assistance to disabled ships, provide towing, salvage, diving, firefighting and heavy lift capabilities.
111.1 C Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships: ASR.
Serve as surface support ships for deep submergence rescue vehicles (DSRV's) during submarine rescue operations.
111.1 D Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships: AR.
A conversion of a ship that has been modified to provide structural repairs to a damaged vessel.
111.1 E Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships: MCM.
Avenger class MCM ships are designed as mine hunter-killers capable of finding, classifying and destroying moored and bottom mines. The last three MCM ships were purchased in 1990, bringing the total to 14 fully deployable, oceangoing Avenger class ships
111.1 F Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships: MHC
These ships use sonar and video systems, cable cutters and a mine detonating device that can be released and detonated by remote control. They are also capable of conventional sweeping measures.
111.1 G Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships: PC
These ships provide coastal patrol and interdiction surveillance. These ships also provide full mission support for Navy SEALs and other special operations forces.
111.1 H Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships: SSBN.
Strategic deterrence has been the sole mission of the fleet ballistic missile submarine (SSBN) since its inception in 1960. The SSBN provides the nation's most survivable and enduring nuclear strike capability.
111.1 I Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships: SSN
Attack submarines are smaller than ballistic missile submarines and do not, as a rule, stay at sea as long. The mission of these fast and silent SSNs include attacking enemy ships-- both surface and submarine and in supporting land-based campaigns.
112.1 A Explain the following: Chemical Warfare.
Intentional use of lethal or nonlethal chemical agents to produce casualties; harass or temporarily incapacitate, and demoralize personnel; or contaminate or destroy areas, equipment, and supplies.
112.1 B Explain the following: Biological Warfare.
Intentional use of living organisms to disable or destroy people or their domestic animals, to damage their crops, and/or to deteriorate their supplies.
As of this writing, large-scale biological warfare attacks by an enemy are as yet an untried weapon. As far as is it known, there has been no open attempt by any country to use this form of attack.
The earliest known use of biological warfare as a weapon in history had a profound impact. In the 14th century Tatar warriors catapulted the bodies of sick people over the walls of Caffa, a Black Sea port. The illness spread throughout the town.
Biological warfare elements are difficult to detect, and slow to identify.
112.1 C Explain the following: Radiological Warfare.
Radiological warfare is the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce injury and death in man.
112.2 A Describe the purpose of the following: MCU-2/P Protective Mask.
The mask, or gas mask, is the most important piece of protective equipment against CBR agents. It protects your face, eyes, nose, throat and lungs. Inhaling CBR agents is much more dangerous than getting them on the outside of the body. Without filtration, a large amount of contamination could be inhaled in a short time. The mask filters the air, removing particles of dust that may be radioactive or contaminated; and it purifies the air of many poisonous gases. The mask does not provide oxygen, protection against smoke or against toxic gases such as carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and ammonia; however, it may be used for emergency escape as a last resort.
112.2 B Describe the purpose of the following: Chemical Protective Overgarment.
The overgarment is treated with chemicals that neutralize blister agent vapors and sprays, but do not stop penetration by liquid agents. It also gives limited protection against other types of CBR contaminants. The suit consists of trousers, hip-length jumper with attached hood, and associated gloves and foot coverings. Except in unusual circumstances, you do not have to wear outer wet-weather clothing over the CBR suit. The danger of heat prostration is significantly reduced. Wear wet-weather clothing during heavy seas. Wear the CBR suit for up to one hour in engineering spaces. Gloves afford hand protection against nerve and blister agent liquids and gases. Foot covers are worn over your own shoes. Boots come in 2 sizes and can be worn on either foot. They are made of black butyle rubber, are impermeable, and have a non-slip rubber sole.
112.2 C Describe the purpose of the following: Wet Weather Clothing.
Worn over other types of clothing, wet-weather clothing protects impregnated and ordinary clothing and skin from penetration by liquid agents and radioactive particles. It also reduces the amount of vapor that penetrates to the skin. Wet-weather gear, which includes a parka, trousers, rubber boots, and gloves, is easily decontaminated.
112.2 D Describe the purpose of the following: Atropin/2 Pan Chloride Autoinjector.
Used for specific therapy for nerve agent casualties. Issued in automatic injectors for intramuscular injection self-aid or first aid.
112.2 E Describe the purpose of the following: IM_143 Pocket Dosimeter.
The self-reading pocket dosimeter is an instrument about the size and shape of a fountain pen and comes in several ranges: 0 to 5, 0 to 200, and 0 to 600 roentgens; and 0 to 200 millroentgens. These instruments measure exposure to radiation over a period of time, not dose rates at any given time. By holding the dosimeter up to a light source and looking through the eyepiece, the total radiation dose received can be read directly on the scale. After each use, the dosimeter must be recharged and the indicator line set to zero.
112.2 F Describe the purpose of the following: DT-60 Personnel Dosimeter.
Is in the Nonself-reading catagory; the DT-60 is the high-range casualty dosimeter, which must be placed in a special radiac comptuer-indicator to determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed. Its range is 0 to 600 roentgens.
112.3 List the 4 types of chemical casualty agents and their physical symptoms.
a. Chocking agents
First used in World War I, these agents produce an action on the respiratory system that results in the accumulation of fluid in the lungs. This effect may lead to death. Exposure can produce immediate dryness of the throat, coughing, choking, tightness in the chest, headache, nausea, and watering of the eyes.
A mild exposure accompanied by immediate symptoms can cause fluid to accumulate in the lungs within 2 to 24 hours after exposure.
One example of a choking agent may be Chlorine CL, which is a yellow gas.

b. Nerve agents
As a group, nerve agents are probably the most effective because only small doses are needed to produce death.
Even in low concentrations, the pupils of the eyes may contract. Tightness of the chest may be noticed, which will increase deep breathing. Liquids penetrate the skin, and poisons the body.
A 1 to 5 minute exposure may cause difficulty with a person's vision.
Liquid concentrations of Nerve agents to the skin are a real hazard. Sweating and twitching of the muscles at the site of contamination may be noticed. Small amounts of liquid, left in contact with the skin, can cause death in a matter of minutes. A lethal dose would include getting liquid into the eyes, and inhaling concentrated vapors.
One example of a Nerve agent would be Sarin Gas. It is a colorless liquid, with almost no odor.
Sarin gas was used in 1994 and 1995 by a Japanese religious cult Aum Shinrikyo. Twelve people were killed in a Tokyo subway after the gas was released there. Click here to read an article on the subway event in Japan.

c. Blood agents
Blood agents interfere with the distribution of oxygen by the blood.
Symptoms of blood agents depend on the concentration of the agent, and duration of exposure. Typically either death occurs rapidly or recovery takes place within a few minutes after removal from the contaminated area.
After inhaling a blood agent, the victim begins to breathe deeply and has violent contractions after only 20 to 30 seconds. The heart can stop after only a few minutes.
Long exposure and low concentrations may result in damage to the central nervous system.
One example of a blood agent may be Hydrogen Cyanide, which is a colorless gas or liquid, and smells like bitter almonds.

d. Blister agents
Immediate exposure to blister agents produces no noticable symptoms. But exposure for more than half hour produces a gritty feeling in the eyes, then soreness, and a bloodshot look. Eyelids become red and swollen, and infections are frequent.
Burns caused by blister agents are particularily bad in moist areas of the body, such as in the armpits, groin, bends of elbows and knees. Intense itching and blisters may occur accompanied by swelling and stiffness.
The throat may be very sore, and pneumonia may develop.
If the entire body is exposed to blister agents, the victim usually goes into shock followed by nausea and vomiting.
One example of a blister agent would be mustard gas or liquid. Mustard liquid is dark yellow, and have a musty or fish-like smell.
112.4 A Describe the following type of nuclear explosions: High Altitude Air Burst.
One in which the point of detonation is at an altitude in excess of 100,000 feet. Above this level, air density is so low that interaction of the weapon energy with the surroundings is markedly different from that at lower altitudes and varies with the altitude. High-altitude nuclear explosions create spectacular visible effects that can be seen both locally and at great distances. Detonation causes widespread disturbances in the ionosphere, which effects the propagation of radio waves and similiar electromagnetic radiations of relatively long wavelengths (EMP).
112.4 B Describe the following type of nuclear explosions: Air Burst.
Immediately after a nuclear explosion, a huge, intensely hot fireball is formed. An airburst is one in which the fireball does not touch the earth's surface. All materials within the fireball are vaporized. As the fireball rises, it cools to the point where the vapor condenses to form a highly radioactive cloud. At sufficiently low altitudes, the rising fireball creates strong circulating winds that suck up dust and other debris from the surface. This debris combines with the condensed vapor to form the familiar mushroom-shaped cloud. Detonation of the nuclear bomb creates a blast wave that travels out in all directions at an initial speed greater than the speed of sound. When the wave strikes the earth's surface, another wave is formed by reflection. At some distance from ground zero, the primary and reflected waves combine to form a reinforced blast wave. Pressure at the wave front, called overpressure, is many times that of normal atmospheric pressure and is what causes most of the physical damage. Overpressure decreases as distance from the blast increases. Initial radiation occurs within the first minute after an explosion; residual radiation occurs thereafter. The greatest danger from residual radiation is fallout or the return to earth of radioactive particles of the cloud. In an airburst, most of the particles are carried high into the air where they are scattered by the winds and returned to the earth slowly. Fallout from low-altitude airburst presents a greater hazard because the heavy particles of debris picked up from the surface settle rapidly and are highly radioactive, but the hazard is not so great as that from surface and subsurface bursts.
112.4 C Describe the following type of nuclear explosions: Surface Burst.
Produces the worst fallout. The fireball touches the ground. Vast amounts of surface material is vaporized and taken into the fireball. As the fireball rises, the debris is sucked up by the strong afterwinds. Much of this debris returns to earth as radioactive fallout. The area endangered by fallout is much larger than the area affected by heat and shock.
112.4 D Describe the following type of nuclear explosions: Shallow Underwater Burst.
A fireball is formed, but is smaller than an airburst and normally is not visible. The explosion creates a large bubble or cavity which, upon rising to the surface, expels steam, gases, and debris into the air with great force. Water rushing into the cavity is thrown upward in the form of a hollow column that may reach a height of several thousand feet. When the column collapses, a circular cloud of mist, called the base surge, is formed around the base of the column. Practically all thermal radiation is absorbed by the surrounding water, but a highly destructive shock wave is formed and is many times greater than the blast wave from an airburst. large water waves are created, some reaching heights of 90 feet within a few hundred feet of the blast.
112.4 E Describe the following type of nuclear explosions: Deep underwater Burst.
Produce the same effects as the shallow underwater burst, but with more of the impact absorbed by the deep ocean currents. The visual effects will be less, but the amount of contaminated water will be greater.
112.5 A Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions: Blast.
Injuries caused by blast can be divided into primary injuries and secondary injuries. Primary blast injuries result from the direct action of the air shock wave on the body. The greater the weapon's size, the greater the blast wave's effective range will be, with an increase in casualties. Secondary blast injuries are caused by collapsing buildings and by timber and other debris flung about by the blast. Personnel may be hurled against objects or thrown to the ground. At sea, the shock wave produced by an underwater burst, can produce various secondary injuries.
112.5 B Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions: Flash Burn / Blindness.
Burns caused by a nuclear explosion are primary and secondary. Primary burns are a direct result of the thermal radiation from the bomb. Secondary burns are the result of fires caused by the explosion. Flash burns are likely to occur on a large scale as a result of an air or surface burst of a nuclear weapon. Thermal radiation travels in straight lines, so it burns primarily on the side facing the explosion. Under hazy atmospheric conditions a large proportion of the thermal radiation may be scattered, resulting in burns received from all directions. Depending on the size of the weapon, second-degree burns may be received at distances of 25 miles or more. The intense flash of light that accompanies a nuclear blast may produce flash blindness at a range of several miles. Flash blindness is normally of a temporary nature, though, as the eye can recover in about 15 minutes in the daytime and 45 minutes at night. A greater danger lies in receiving permanent damage to the eyes caused by burns from thermal radiation, which may occur 40 miles or more from the nuclear weapon.
112.5 C Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions: Radiation.
Radiation hazards are alpha and beta particles, gamma and neutron radiation. Alpha particles have little skin penetrating power and must be taken into the body through ingestion or cuts. Beta particles can present a hazard to personnel if the emitters of these particles, such as dust or dirt, come in contact with the skin or inside the body. Beta particles with enouth intensity will cause skin burns.
Gamma rays, which are pure energy, are not easily stopped. They can penetrate every region of the body. Gamma rays can pass right through a body without ever touching it. Gamma rays that do strike atoms in the body cause ionization of these atoms, which may result in any number of possible chemical reactions that damage the cells of the body.
Neutrons, which have the greatest penetrating power of the nuclear radiation hazards, create hazards to personnel when the neutron is captured in atoms of various elements in the body, atmosphere, water or soil. As a result of this neutron capture, the elements become radioactive and release high-energy gamma rays and beta particles. Initial radiation contains both gamma and neutron radiation. Residual radiation, our greatest concern, contains both gamma and neutron radiation.
112.5 D Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions: Radiation.
Produced by high altitude, air and surface bursts. The initial nuclear ionizing radiation will ionize the atmosphere around the burst point and produce the EMP, which will contain frequency components in the range from a few to several hundreds of kilocycles per second. The EMP has magnetic and electric field components which exist for only fractions of a second. The magnetic field component is significant inside the radius of the ionized atmosphere and can induce large currents in cables and long-lead wires. These large transient currents may burn out electronic or electrical equipment. The electric field component may also produce transient signal overloads and spurious signals on communication nets and in computer-driven systems. At ranges where ships suffer minor damage from other weapon effects, the major effect of the EMP is expected to be the tripping of circuit breakers and blowing of fuses in protective circuits. At close ranges, there is a good probability of permanent damage to electronic and electrical equipment. EMP can totally destroy entire phone and communication systems, radios, vehicle ignition systems, etc. Conventional aircraft exposed to it can lose all navigation, communication, and electronic flight control systems.
112.5 E Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions: Blackout
The loss of lights or electrical power failure during a nuclear attack.
112.6 Define/discuss Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP).
Defines the amount of protective CBR gear to wear or have readily availabe. There are several levels of protection, MOPP 1 through 4. MOPP 1 - gas mask issued and kept at battle stations. MOPP 2 - gas mask carried by individuals, decom pre-positioned. MOPP 3 - don overgarments, got to GQ, post detection / monitoring teams. MOPP 4 - don gas mask, gloves, and secure hood, secure air vents, protect against overheating.
113.1 Discuss the purpose of the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) Program.
The NATOPS program is a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps. It is issued by the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO). NATOPS instructions prescribe general flight and operating instructions and procedures applicable to the operation of all naval aircraft and related activities.
113.2 Explain general aircraft prestart precautions.
a. Before starting an engine, the wheels of the aircraft shall be chocked and the parking brake set unless a deviation from this requirement is specifically authorized by the applicable model NATOPS manual.
b. Where applicable, intake screens shall be installed on jet aircraft.
c. Prior to starting jet engines, intakes and surrounding ground/deck shall be inspected to eliminate the possibility of Foreign Object Damage (FOD).
d. When an engine is started by nonpilot personnel for testing and warmup purposes on aircraft other than transport and patrol class equipped with parking brakes, the plane shall be tied down.
e. Whenever an engine is started, personnel with adequate fire extinguishing equipment, if available, shall be stationed in the immediate vicinity of the engine but safely clear of intakes or propellers.
113.3 A State the meaning of the following terms as they apply to NATOPS: Warning.
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.
113.3 B State the meaning of the following terms as they apply to NATOPS: Caution.
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.
113.3 C State the meaning of the following terms as they apply to NATOPS: Note.
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized.
113.3 D State the meaning of the following terms as they apply to NATOPS: Shall.
Means a procedure that is mandatory.
113.3 E State the meaning of the following terms as they apply to NATOPS: Should.
Means a procedure that is recommended.
113.3 F State the meaning of the following terms as they apply to NATOPS: May.
"May" and "need not" mean procedure is optional.
113.3 G State the meaning of the following terms as they apply to NATOPS: Will.
Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.
113.4 State the purpose of a NATOPS evaluation.
The standard operating procedures prescribed in NATOPS manuals represent the optimum methods of operating various aircraft and related equipment. The NATOPS evaluation is intended to evaluate individual and unit compliance by observing and grading adherence to NATOPS procedures.
113.5 State the purpose of the naval Flight Records Subsystem (NAVFLIRS).
The NAVFLIRS, OPNAV 3710/4, also known as the "yellow sheet", provides a standardized Department of the Navy flight activity data collection system.
NAVFLIRS is the single-source document for recording flight data and is applicable in specific areas to aircraft simulators. The form shall be prepared for each attempt at flight of naval aircraft or training evolution for simulators.
The NAVFLIRS is a single-source document that collects flight activity data in support of the maintenance data system (MDS).
Data collected includes:

1. A statistical description of the flight pertaining to the aircraft and crewmembers.
2. A record of all logistic actions performed during the flight.
3. A record of weapons proficiency.
4. A record of training areas utilized and other miscellaneous data.
113.6 State the purpose of master flight files.
The master flight files shall be the only official flight record of naval aircraft and shall be maintained in accordance with OPNAVINST 3710.7 by every reporting custodian of naval aircraft as defined in OPNAVINST 5442.2.
113.7 Explain the aircraft visual identification system for the following Type Commanders (TYCOMs): COMNAVAIRLANT.
The visual identification system for naval aircraft provides for the assignment of aircraft markings and side numbers that identify aircraft of one unit from those of another using unit identification assigned by the CNO. Aircraft use the last 3 or 4 digits of their BUNO or aircraft number, as their side number or tail number.
Side numbers and colors they are painted in are based on unit type. For COMNAVAIRLANT the first character shall be "A through M"; second character "A through Z".
113.7 Explain the aircraft visual identification system for the following Type Commanders (TYCOMs): COMNAVAIRPAC.
The visual identification system for naval aircraft provides for the assignment of aircraft markings and side numbers that identify aircraft of one unit from those of another using unit identification assigned by the CNO. Aircraft use the last 3 or 4 digits of their BUNO or aircraft number, as their side number or tail number.
Side numbers and colors they are painted in are based on unit type. For COMNAVAIRPAC the first character shall be "N through Z";
second character "A through Z".
113.7 Explain the aircraft visual identification system for the following Type Commanders (TYCOMs): CNATRA (Naval Air Trng).
The visual identification system for naval aircraft provides for the assignment of aircraft markings and side numbers that identify aircraft of one unit from those of another using unit identification assigned by the CNO. Aircraft use the last 3 or 4 digits of their BUNO or aircraft number, as their side number or tail number.
Side numbers and colors they are painted in are based on unit type. For CNATRA the first character shall be "A through G"; there is no second character.
114.1 A Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Commanding Officer (CO).
The duties and responsibilities of the Commanding Officer are established by U.S.Navy Regulations, general orders, customs, and tradition. The authority of the Commanding Officer is commensurate with his responsibility, subject to the limitations prescribed by law and U.S. Navy regulations. The CO is ultimately responsible for those under his or her command and their actions.
114.1 B Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Executive Officer (XO).
Is the direct representative of the Commanding Officer. The XO is primarily responsible for the organization, performance of duty, and good order and discipline of the entire command. All orders issued by him will have the same force and effect as though issued by the CO.
114.1 C Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Command Master Chief (CMC).
Is the enlisted advisor to the command on the formulation and implementation of policies pertinent to morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization and training of all enlisted personnel.
114.1 D Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Department Head.
Is the representative of the CO in matters pertaining to the department. All persons assigned to the department will be subordinate to him and all orders issued by him will accordingly be obeyed by them.
114.1 E Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Command Managed Equal Oppurtunity Officer (CMEO).
Provides equal opportunity training to the command. This includes the education and emphasis on giving equal opportunity to all members regardless of race, creed, or religious preference.
114.1 F Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Division Officer.
Is responsible under the Department Head, for the duties assigned to the division and for the conduct of subordinates, following regulations and orders of the Commanding Officer and other superiors.
114.1 G Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: LCPO / LPO.
The CPO and LPO designated by the Division Officer. Normally will be the senior CPO/LPO in the division. The LCPO assists the Division Officer in administering, supervising, and training division personnel. The LPO will assist the LCPO and Division Officer.
114.1 H Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Work Center Supervisor.
His or her primary job is to respond to the hour-by-hour work center functions. This requires constant communication throughout the chain of command. The W/C supervisor is responsible for the personnel under his supervision.
114.1 I Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Command Career Counselor (CCC).
Runs the ship or squadron's career counseling program, and makes sure that current programs and opportunities are available to all crew members.
114.1 J Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Ombudsman.
The Ombudsman is the link between the command and families of command personnel. The CO appoints the Ombudsman after consultations with various advisors. The Ombudsman performs varied services, such as keeping the CO informed about family morale and problems families are facing. They assist families needing different services.
114.1 K Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Financial Specialist.
Provide financial counseling to members in their command. This may include budgets, financial planning, investment opportunities, debt consolidation, etc.
114.1 L Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA).
Advises the CO/XO on drug and alcohol abuse aboard ship and the approaches necessary to cope effectively with the problem. He or she will also coordinate Navy policies and procedures on drug and alcohol education, rehabilitation, identification, and enforcement.
114.1 M Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Security Manager.
Keeps the CO/XO advised as to all matters of security. Works in close relation with Squadron Duty Officers and the entire duty section.
114.1 N Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel: Career Information Program Management (CIPM).
Provide career information to the squadron, work centers, and divisions. They act as divisional career counselors.
114.2 A Discuss the purpose and general rules for the following types of counseling: Personnel.
There are times when a person has special problems that will require special help. These problems should be handled by specialists such as the chaplin, legal, and/or medical officer. Effective personal counseling will recognize situations in which referral is necessary. Your first duty in counseling is to recognize whether the problem is beyond your ability to help or not. This can be determined during counseling.
114.2 B Discuss the purpose and general rules for the following types of counseling: Performance.
Counsel your personnel on a regular basis to let them know how they are doing and where they need to improve.
114.3 A Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Types of Discharges.
The basis for determining the type of discharge received by the member is called the type discharge. Honorable requires at least an average of 2.7, conduct 3.0 average, otherwise a "general" discharge is awarded.
114.3 B Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Advancement.
Single most important factor in determining who will be selected for advancement. Eval marks are as follows:
4.0 = Early Promote
3.8 = Must Promote
3.6 = Promotable
3.4 = Progressing
2.0 = Significant Problems
114.3 C Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Good Conduct Awards.
There can be no performance mark below 2.0 in any trait subsequent to, (after), 1 January 1996.
The member can have no convictions by court martial, no prior Non-Judicial Punishment (NJP), and no civil convictions or offenses involving moral turpitude (shameful acts).
The award is given every 3 years. Before 1996, the award was given for every 4 years service.
114.3 D Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Eligibility for Reenlistment.
A member with marks under 3.0 will not normally be able to reenlist. Decision weights on the discretion of the CO.
114.3 E Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Assignment.
Certain assignments require good evaluations. Some of these assignments may be Instructor duty, Recruit Company Commander, Formal Schools, etc. However, an overall 3.0 average is required and approval is at the discretion of Naval Military Personnel Command (NMPC).
114.4 A Explain the use of the following: Naval Message.
The principal means by which commanders communicate is the Naval message. Messages are written thoughs, ideas, or information expressed briefly and to the point. It is transmitted electronically to avoid delays to that of the normal mailing system.
114.4 B Explain the use of the following: E-Mail.
The method of corresponding electronically by computers. E-mail can be used within individual activities and between activities.
114.5 A Explain the purpose of the following message components: Date Time Group.
Includes the date and time expressed in Greenwich Mean Time. The DTG is expressed in 6 digits. The first 2 digits being the day. The next 4 digits being the time, followed by a zone suffix, usually expressed in Zulu, or Greenwich time. The last part is the date and year.
For a message that is sent out on 31 October 1998 at 0800 Zulu time, the DTG would be as follows: 310800ZOCT98.
114.5 B Explain the purpose of the following message components: From Line.
The first line of the address component and contains the originator or drafter's plain language address. Note: a message MUST have only ONE originator.
114.5 C Explain the purpose of the following message components: To Line.
Contains the address of the person or command who the message is going to.
114.5 D Explain the purpose of the following message components: Info Line.
Contains the addresses of those who you would like to look at or send the message for information purposes.
114.5 E Explain the purpose of the following message components: Classification / Declassification.
The first line of text which must give the message's classification. It is listed as Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential.
114.5 F Explain the purpose of the following message components: Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC)
The 4 or 5 digit number that stands for the subject of a document. SSIC's are required on all Navy and Marine Corps messages. The use of SSIC's provides a tested method for filing correspondence documents consistently and retrieving them quickly. There are 14 SSIC groups dealing with particular subjects.
114.5 G Explain the purpose of the following message components: Subject Line
The main topic of the message is listed here. These are always written in capital letters.
114.5 H Explain the purpose of the following message components: Passing Instructions.
Navy automated message processing system relay for the most part on certain elements at the beginning of the text such as flagwords, codewords, subject lines, and outgoing or incoming message references. These guides assist in the automatic internal routing of messages.
114.5 I Explain the purpose of the following message components: Refrence Line.
An alternative to repeating lengthy reference material within the text of a message. References are always lettered and used in the order that they are referred to. They are written:
"As per reference (a), ....."
114.5 J Explain the purpose of the following message components: Amplifying Information Line.
Used to amplify or supplement the data text.
114.5 K Explain the purpose of the following message components: Narrative Information Line.
Used to provide amplifying information which pertains to the data text.
114.5 L Explain the purpose of the following message components: Text.
That part of the message known as the "body" or that part which contains the thought or idea the drafter desires to communicate; the reason for the existence of all other parts of the message.
114.6 A Explain what each of the following enlisted service record pages are and what entries are made on each: Page 2.
Record of Emergency Data; Used as a reference for beneficiary data should the servicemember die while on active or reserve duty.
114.6 B Explain what each of the following enlisted service record pages are and what entries are made on each: Page 4.
Enlisted Qualifications History, for enlisted members. It is a chronological history of occupational and training related qualifications, awards, and commendations. Entries should made as events occur.
114.6 C Explain what each of the following enlisted service record pages are and what entries are made on each: Page 13.
Administrative Remarks; Serves as a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere or where detailed information may be required to clairify entries elsewhere in the service record.
114.7 State the purpose and discuss the contents of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report(EDVR).
A monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel. Lists all individuals assigned and provides a summary of the present and future manning status. Used heavily by the Command Master Chief and detailers for billet assignment. Gives the individual's name along with his rate, date assigned, Naval Enlisted Classifications (NECs), billet assigned to, date reported, projected rotation date, etc.
114.8 Explain the use of a Report and Disposition of Offense(s)(NAVPERS Form 1626/7).
Court Memorandum; Page 7 of the enlisted service record. It shall be used to record court-martial and nonjudicial punishment which affect pay.
114.9 A Discuss the purpose of the following: Operational Report (OPREP).
Used by any unit to provide the National Comand Authorities (NCA) and appropriate naval commanders with immediate notification of any accidential or unauthorized incident involving a possible detonation of a nuclear weapon which could create the risk of outbreak of nuclear war. This message has the highest precedence.
114.9 B Discuss the purpose of the following: Movement Report (MOVEREP).
A MOVREP is the primary source of location information concerning ships. A properly filed MOVREP will assist the chain of command all the way up to National Command Authority in the knowledge of locations/tracks/destinations of all vessels for emergency or operational use. Movement Report Centers and Movement Report Offices are part of the movement report systems. Their task is to account for all ship and command movements.
114.9 C Discuss the purpose of the following: Logistical Requirements (LOGREQ).
A LOGREQ is submitted by a ship prior to entering a port to notify the proper commands of its logistics requirements while visiting that particular port. It should be transmitted to arrive at the destination port no later than 48 hours prior to the ship's arrival.
114.9 D Discuss the purpose of the following: Status of Requirement and Training Support (SORTS).
Reports the ship's status of conditions of readiness in all warfare areas in our ability to conducr operations.
114.9 E Discuss the purpose of the following: Situation Report (SITREP).
Used by any unit commanding officer, officer-in-charge, or other commander to provide appropriate operational commanders and higher authority with timely notification for any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special incident reporting criteria. Submitted: When directed, when considered appropriate, when bomb threats have been evaluated as a hoax, when reporting violent crime, including assault, robbery, abuse, etc by active or dependent personnel, discrimination or sexual harassment, and incidents of suicide or attempted suicide.
115.1 State the objective of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program(NAMP).
The aircraft maintenance department supports naval operations by the upkeep of aircraft and associated Support Equipment (SE) to the assigned level of maintenance. This support is accomplished by complying with the NAMP. Principles of the NAMP are found in volumn 1 of the OPNAVINST 4790.2 series. Since all maintenance activities have similarities in mission, operation, and administration, these areas have standardized organization and administration. The NAMP helps to standardize operations of any naval aviation command. The Chief of Naval Operations is in charge of the NAMP.
115.2 State the titles and briefly describe the five volumes of the NAMP: Volume I.
Concepts, policies, organizations, maintenance support procedures, and Organizational and Intermediate Level Maintenance.
115.2 State the titles and briefly describe the five volumes of the NAMP: Volume II.
Depot Level Maintenance.
115.2 State the titles and briefly describe the five volumes of the NAMP: Volume III.
Maintenance Data Systems (MDS).
115.2 State the titles and briefly describe the five volumes of the NAMP: Volume IV.
Aviation 3M data processing requirements.
115.2 State the titles and briefly describe the five volumes of the NAMP: Volume V.
Standard operating procedures.
115.3 A Describe the three levels of aviation maintenance: Organizational.
Maintenance which is performed by an operating unit on a day-by-day basis in support of its own operations. The O-level mission is to maintain assigned aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a full mission capable status while continually improving the local maintenance process. Some O-level functions include servicing, inspections, handling, on-equipment corrective and preventive maintenance, record keeping, reports preparation, etc.
115.3 B Describe the three levels of aviation maintenance: Intermediate.
Maintenance which is the responsibility of, and performed by, designated maintenance activities in support of using organizations. Their mission is to enhance and sustain the combat readiness and mission capability of supported activities by providing quality and timely material support at most approximate location with the lowest practical resource expenditure. I-level maintenance consists of on and off equipment material support.
115.3 C Describe the three levels of aviation maintenance: Depot.
Maintenance performed at naval aviation industrial establishments to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems during subsequent operational service periods or Special Depot Level Maintenance (SDLM) inductions. They preform what is commonly referred to as "overhaul" maintenance. They also perform maintenance on material requiring major overhaul, rebuilding of parts, assemblies, subassemblies, and end items. They provide rework and repair of engines, components, weight and balance, etc.