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565 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Describe the term inertia?
Inertia is the willingness of an object to remain at rest or to continue in motion unless acted upon by an outside force.
describe the term acceleration?
the rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time.

. if our ship is moving at 10 knots is moving at 18 knots one hour from now and 21 knots 2 hours from now it si said to be accelerationg at a rate of 3 knots per hour.
what is the term speed?
the rate of movement or motion in a given amt of time. speed is the term used when only the rate of movement is meant. if the rate of movement of a ship is 14 knots we say its speed is 14 knotsper hour.
what is velocity?
velocity is the quickness or speed of an object in a given time, such as mph
107 aviation

Define newtons first law?
According to newtons 1st law of motion (inertia), an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will continue in motion unless acted on by an outside force.
107 avaiation

define newtons second law?
2nd law of motion is FORCEm states that if an object moving at a uniform speed is acted on by an external force the change in motion will be directly proportional to amt of forece and inversely proportional to mass of object being moved.
107 avaiation

define newtons 3rd law?
3rd law is ACTION AND REACTION states that for every action there is an obisite and equal rection.
107 avaiation

what is bernoullis prioncipal?
states that when a fluid is flowing through a tube reaches a narrowing of tube the speed of the fluid passing through the narrowing is increased and pressure is decreased.
107 avaiation

what is a wind warning and its effect on aviation?
1 knot = 1.1 mph
adequet and timely weather/wind warning coupled w/ prompt effective action by commanders concerned will minimize loss and damage.
1)small craft -harbor and inland waters warning for winds, 33knots of less of concern to small craft.
2)gale- warning for harbour,inland waters and ocean areas for winds of 34-47 knots.
3) storm warning for harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas, for winds of 48 knots of greater.
107 aviation

discuss thunderstorm/tornado warnings?
tunderstorms are small scale storms, produced by a cumulonimbus cloud and accompanied by lightning/thunder.
a tornado is a violently rotating column of air usually in form of funnel, very violent/destructive, its winds can reach 100-250 knots.
1)thunderstorm warning- thunrderstaomr is within 3miles of airfield
2) severe thunderstorm warning- thunderstorms with wind gusts to 50 knots or greater and hailof 3/4 or greater in diameter.
3) tornado warning- tornador hhave been detected by radar or have strong potential to develop.
107 aviation
describe lift?
the force that acts, in an upward direction, to support aircraft in air, it conteracts effects of weight, lift must be greater or equal to weight for plane to get off ground.
107 aviation
describe weight?
the force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft
107 aviation
describe drag?
. the force that tends to hold the aircraft back.
. caused by a disruption in air about the winds, fusealauge, or body
107 aviation
describe longitudinal axis?
. an imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and the tail. the axis about which roll occours.
107 aviation

describe lateral axis?
. an imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings and about which pitch occours.
107 aviation

describe vertical axis?
- an imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of aircraft. the movement associated w/ this axis is yaw.
107 aviation

What is pitch?
pitch is the movement of aircraft about its lateral axis. the up and down motion of the nose of the aircraft.
107 aviation

what is Yaw?
Yaw is the movement of the aircraft about its vertical axis. The drift, or right or left moveemtn of the nose of the aircraft.
107 aviation

What is Roll?
Roll is the movement of the aircraft about its longitudinal axis. The movement of the wing tips; oneup and the other down.
107 aviation

What is purpos of the primary flight controls for FIXED WING AIRCRAFT?
1) Later control (elevator)
2) Longitudinal control (AILERON)
3) Directional Control (RUDDER)
107 aviation

State the purpose of the primary flight controls for Rotary Wing Aircraft?
1) Cyclic Pitch
2) collective pitch
3) rotary rudder
107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; the flap?
- gives aircraft extra lift.

- purpose to reduce landing speed, thereby shortening length of the landing rollout.
- serves to reduce the length of the takeoff run.
107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; spoiler?
-used to decrease wing lift
107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; speed brakes?
hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing speed of aircraft

- also used to reduce speed of plane before landing
107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; slats?
- slats are moveable control surfaces attatche dto the leading edge of the wing.
- at low airspeeds it improves the lateral control handling characteristics, allowing the aircraft to be controlled at airspeedsbelow the normal landing speeds. this is known as boundry layer control, boundry layer control is intended primaryaly for use during operations from carriers that is catapult takeoffs and arrested landings.
107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; horizontal stabilizer?
provides stability of aircraft about its lateral axis. this is longitudinal stability. serves as base to which elevators are attatched.
107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; tail rotor?
- mounted vertically on outer portion of helicopters tail section. the tail rotor counteracts the torque action of the main rotor by producing thrust in opposite direction. the tail rotor also controls the yawing action of the helicopter.
107 aviation

Explain the term angle of attack?
- the angle at which a body, such as airfoil or fusealage, meets a flow of air.
107 aviation

Explain the term autorotation?
a method of aloowing a helicopter to land saftely from altitude without using engine power by making use of the reversed airflow up through the rotor system to reduce the rate of descent.
107 aviation

state the component sof a basic hydraulic system?
1. a resivoir to hold a supply of hydraulic fluid
2. a pump to provide a flow of fluid
3. tubing to transmit the system
4. a selector valve to direct the flow of fluid
5. an acctuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful work.
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HC ?
- HC = helicopter combat support
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HCS ?
- hcs= helicopter combat support special squadron
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HM ?
-HM = helicopter mine countermeasure
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HS ?
- HS = helicopter antisubmarine
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HSL ?
- HSL = helicopter antisub light
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HT ?
- HT = helicopter training
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VAQ?
- VAQ= tactical electronic warfare
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VAW?
- VAW = carrier airborne early warning
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VC ?
- VC = fleet composite
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VF ?
- VF = fighter
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VFA ?
- VFA = strike fighter
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VMFA ?
- VMFA = marine fighter attack
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VP ?
- VP = patrol
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VQ ?
- VQ = fleet air reconisance
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VR ?
- VR = aircraft logistics support
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VR ?
- VR = aircraft logistics support
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VRC ?
- VRC = carrier logistics suport
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VS ?
- VS = carrier antisub warfare
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VT ?
- VT = training
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VX/VXE ?
- VX/VXE = air test and evaluation
109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VXE ?
- VXE = antartic development
109 naval aircraft

what is a AV-8?
- AV-8 harrier it is a fighter attack
109 naval aircraft

what is a c-130 ?
- a c-130 hercules is logistics support
- workhorse of the millitary
-people/cargo hauler
109 naval aircraft

what is a c-2 greyhound?
-provides critical ligistics supposrt to carriers
-primary mission is carrier delivery
-carriers cargo/passengers
109 naval aircraft

what is a c-20 gulfstream?
- used for logistics support
109 naval aircraft

what is c-9 skytrain?
- used for logistics support
-cargo/passenger plane
-medvac, cargo carrier, spec missions etc
109 naval aircraft

what is a EA-6B prowler?
- tactical electronic warfare
109 naval aircraft

what is ea-6b prowler?
-tactical electronic warfare
- provides an umbrella of protection over strike aircraft, ground troops, and ships
-primary mission = to support aircraft and troops by interupting electronic activity and obtaining electronic intel
109 naval aircraft

what is a E-2 hawkeye?
- airborne early warning
109 naval aircraft

what is a c-12 huron?
-logistics support
-carring cargo/passengers
109 naval aircraft

what is e-6 mercury?
- fleet air reconisnance
-communications relay and strategic airborne command post aircraft
109 naval aircraft

what is F/A-18 hornet?
- all weather fighter and attack plane
109 naval aircraft

what is f-14 tomcat ?
-primary msiision is air superiority, fleet air defence, and precision strike against ground target
109 naval aircraft

what is an H-2 seasprite?
-helicopter anti sub light
109 naval aircraft

what is an H-3 sea king?
- helicopter antisub
- replaced by sh-60f sea hawk helicopters
- -remaing sea kings have been configured for logistical support
109 naval aircraft

what is H-46 sea knight?
- helicopter combat support
-medium lift assault helicopter
-used to move cargo/troops (shipboard delivery of cargo and people)
109 naval aircraft

what is H-53 sea stallion?
-helicopter mine countermeasures
-medium lift helo designed to transport prersonel, supplies and equipment is support of amphib and shore ops.
109 naval aircraft

what is SH-60B seahawk?
- helicoptrer antisub light
109 naval aircraft

what os SH-60f oceanhawk?
-helicopter antisub light
109 naval aircraft

what is HH-60H seahawk?
- helicopter antisub light
109 naval aircraft

what is an S-3 Viking?
- carrier antisub warfare
109 naval aircraft

what is TA-4 sky hawk?
- training
109 naval aircraft

what is a T-45 Goshawk?
109 naval aircraft

what is a UH-1N iriqouis?
-helicopter combat support
109 naval aircraft

what is T-34C Turbomentor?
- used to give flight traing to student pilots
-also usede for pilot proficiency tests
109 naval aircraft

what is a T-44 pegasus?
- training
109 naval aircraft

what is F-5 tiger?
109 naval aircraft

what os AH-1 Cobra?
-helicopter combat support
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AE?
- AE = ammunition ship
- operate w/ replenishment groups to deliver ammo and missles to ships at sea
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AO?
- Oilers
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AO?
- AO = oiler
- carry fuel, jet fuel, and other petroleum protucts
- operate w/ replenishment ships
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AOE?
- AOE - ammunition support ships
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AOE ?
- most powerful auxillarly ship in the navy.
- AOE ships carry missles, fule, ammunition and general cargo.
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the CG?
- CG= Guided missle cruiser
- provide protection agaianst surface and air attacks and gunfire support for land operations.
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the CV/CVN?
-CV/CVN? = carrier/nuclear powered carrier

-carriers are designed to carry, launch, retrieve and handle combat aircraft quickly and efficently.
- it can approach the enemy at high speed, launch planes, recover them, and retire before position is determined.
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the DD/DDG?
-DD/DDG = Destroyer/guided missle destroyer
-multipurpose ships used in any kind of naval operation
-fast ships with lots of weapons and little or no armor
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the FFG?
-FFG = guided missle frigates
- frigates are used for open ocean escort and patrol
-look like destroyers but slower w/ less weapons
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LCC?
- LCC = amphibious command ships
- provides command and control post and comm facility for various commanders and staff.
-also can serve as command ship for an ampibious task force.
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LHA?
-LHA - amphibious assault ship
- able to empark, deploy and land a marine battalion
- combine lpd, lka, lph, and lsd in a single ship
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LHD?
- LHD = amphibious warfare ship
- desinged as amphib assault ship but can convert to anti sub ship
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LPD?
- LPD = amphibious transport dock
- can tranport troops and equipment in same ship
- combines features of LSD and LPH
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LPH?
- LPH = amphibious assault ship
- transport, land 1800 troops and their equipment via transporrt helos w/ a beach assaultk
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LSD?
- LSD = dock landing ship
- can transport and launch a variety of loaded amphibious craft and vehicles
- limited docking and repair to small ships and crafts, can refeul helos
110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the MCS?
-MCS = mine countermeasure ship
- only one the USS Inchon
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an AD ?
AD = destroyer tender
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an AFS?
AFS = combat stores ship
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an ATF?
ATF= fleet ocean tugs
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an ARS?
ARS= rescue and salvage ship
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an ASR?
ASR= submarine rescue ship
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an AR?
AR= repair ship
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an AS ?
AS= sub tender
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an MCM ?
MCM = mine countermeasure ship
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an MHC ?
MHC = coastal mine hunters
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an PC ?
PC = patrol craft
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an SSBN ?
SSBN = balistic missle submarine (nuke prupolsion)
111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an SSN ?
SSN = sub (nuke propolsion)
112 CBR Fundamentals

explain Chemical warfare?
- intentional use of lethal and nonlethal chemical agents to produce caualties;harrass, or temp incapacitate and demoralize personel.
- or contamine or destory areas or equipment
112 CBR Fundamentals

explain biological warfare?
intentional use of living organisms to disable/destroy people or their domestic animals or crops
112 CBR Fundamentals

explain radiological warfare?
-radiological warfare is the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce injury and death
112 CBR Fundamentals

explain MCU-2/P protective mask ?
the gas mask is most important piece of equipment against cbr agents.
-protects eyes, nose, throat, and lungs
112 CBR Fundamentals

explain chemical protective overgarment?
- treated w/ chemicals that neutralize blister agent vapors and sprays, but dont stop penetration by liquid agents.
-has pants, juper w/ hood, gloves, and foot coverings.
112 CBR Fundamentals

explain wet-weather clothing?
-worn over other types of clothes, protects clothes and skin from penetration by liquid agents and radioactive particles.
-includes parka, trousers, boots, and gloves
112 CBR Fundamentals

explain Atropine/ 2pan chloride (oxime) autoinjector?
- used for specific therapy for nerve agent casualties.
112 CBR Fundamentals

explain IM-143 pocket dosimeter?
-self reading pocket dosimeter is size of pen
-measures exposure to radiation over a period of time, not dose rates at any given time
112 CBR Fundamentals

explain DT-60 personal dosimeter?
-non self reading, high range casualty dosimeter, must be placed in a special rediac computer to determine total amt of gamma radiation.
112 CBR Fundamentals

list 4 types of chemical casualty agents and their physical symptoms?
1. chocking agent
2. nerve agent
3. blood agent
4. blister agent
112 CBR Fundamentals

describe the nuclear explosion, high altitude air burst?
-causes widespread disturbances in ionosphere, which effects the propogation of radio waves and similar electromagnetic radiations of relatively long wavelengths (EMP)
112 CBR Fundamentals

describe the nuclear explosion, air burst?
- an airburst is one in which the fireball doesnt touch the earths surface
-all material within the fireball is vaporized.
- fallout from low altitude airburst presents a greater hazard because the heavy particles of debris picked up from the surface settle rapidlt and are highly radioactive.
112 CBR Fundamentals

describe the nuclear explosion, surface burst?
- fireball touches ground
-vast amount surface material is vaporizzed or returned to earth as radioactive fallout
112 CBR fundamentals

explain the nuclear explosion, shallow underwater burst?
-fireball is formed but is small and usually not visible
-creates large bubble that when rises to surface expels gas, steam and debris with great force.
-creates high waves and shock waves
112 CBR fundamentals

explain the nuclear explosion, deep underwater burst?
- produce same effects as shallow burst but w/ more of the imapcts absorbed by the deep ocean currents.
-more contaminated water
112 CBR fundamentals

describe the effect of nuclear explosion, BLAST ?
- injuries by blast can be divided into primary injuries and secondary injuries
-primary injuries result from direct action of the air shock wave on body
-seconday injuries caused by, collapsing buildings and debris etc
112 CBR fundamentals

describe the effect of nuclear explosion, flash burn/blindness?
-burns caused by a nuclear explosion are primary and secondary
-primary burns are a direct result of thermal radiation from bomb.
- secondary burns are result of fires caused by explosion
-flahs burns will occour on a large scale as a result of an air or surface burst of a nuclear weapon.
-intense flash of light from bomb may cause temp flash blindness
112 CBR fundamentals

describe the effect of nuclear explosion, radiation?
- radiation hazards are alpha and beta particles, gamma and neutron radiation.
112 CBR fundamentals

describe the effect of nuclear explosion, electromagnetic pulse (emp) ?
produced by high altitude, air and surface bursts
112 CBR fundamentals

explain the effect of nuclear explosion, electromagnetic pulse (EMP) ?
-produced by high altitude air and surface bursts
-will burn out/make inactive electronic and electrical equipment
-will blow fuses and trip circuit breakers
112 CBR fundamentals

explain the effect of nuclear explosion, blackout?
- the loss of lights or electrical power failure during a nuclear attack
112 CBR fundamentals

define/discuss mission oriented protective posture (MOPP)
-defines the amount of protective CBR gear to wear or have readily available.
112 CBR fundamentals

describe MOPP 1 ?
- gas masks are issued to all hands and are kept at battle station.
-inventory of stowed chem/biological equipment
112 CBR fundamentals

define MOPP 2?
- gas masks carried by all personell
-per position decontamination supplies at decontamination station
-set condition ZEBRA
112 CBR fundamentals

define MOPP 3?
- new filters on gas masks
-don chemical protective overgarnemnt smock w/ hood down, trousers, and overboots.
- stow personal decontamination kit in the mask carrier
-stow chemical protective glovrs and med supplies in jumper pocket
- go to gen quarters
- set zebra
- fill canteens
- avtivate decontamination stations and contaminiation control station CCA for operability
-post detection and monitoring teams
-post and monitor detection equipment materials in accordance w/ cbr bill.
112 CBR fundamentals

describe MOPP 4 ?
- don gas masks and secure hood over head and arounnd mask.
-don gloves
- initiate continuous monitoring of detection equipment
-set condition circle william (secure air vents)
-activate CMWD (washdown sys)
what does NATOPS stand for?
naval air training and operating procedures standerdization

what is purpose of NATOPS?
-is a positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps. it is issued by CNO/
-NATOPS instructions prescribe general flight and operating instructions and procedures applicable to the operation of all planes and related activities

explain general aircraft prestart precautions?
a. before starting an engine, the wheels shall be chocked and the parking brake set
b. where applicable intake screens shall be installed on jet aircraft
c. prior to starting jet engines, intakes and surrounding ground/deck shall be inspected for fod.
d. when an engine is started by nonpilot personale for testing and warmup purposes in planes w/ parking brakes, the plane shall be tied down
e. whenever an engine is started people w/ fire equipment will be ready and waiting

what is meaning of term, warning?
- an operating procedure, practice, condition etc. that may result in injury or death if not carefully followed.

what is meaning of term, caution?
- an operating procedure, practice etc that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed

what is meaning of term, note>
an operating procedure, practice, or condition that must be emphasized

what is meaning of term, note?
an operating procedure, practice, or condition that must be emphasized

what is meaning of term, shall?
means a procedure thats mandatory

what is meaning of term, should ?
means a procedure that is recomended

what is meaning of term, may?
"may" and "need not" procedure is optional

what is meaning of term, will?
indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requiment for application of a procedure

what is purpose of a NATOPS evaluation?
intended to evaluate individual and unit compliancr by observing and grading adherence to natops procedure.
101 a/c characteristand capabilities

1. What is wingspan of p-3?
- 99’8”
2. what is length of p-3 ?
- 116’10”
3. what is height to top of fin (antenna) ?
- 34’3”
4. top of fin(antenna) to lower skin?
- 24’4”
5. what are all weather capabilities of p-3?
- ice control sys on plane enable plane to perform mission under almost any condition
6. explain the aircrew job of mission commander ?
- responsible for all phases of mission except the maintanance condition of plane which is out of his hands
7. explain the aircrew job of PATROL PLANE COMMANDER (PPC) ?
- when mission commander is not assigned his duties responsibilities go to pilot in command
8. explain the aircrew job of PATROL PLANE PILOT (PPP) ?
- assists PPC in preparing crew for flight and in ascertaining g readiness for plane flight and plane systems.
- Pilots plane when PPC is away from his station
9. explain the aircrew job of PATROL PLANE COPILOT (PPCP) ?
- acts as relief pilot for PPC or PPP during long flights
10. explain the aircrew job of FLIGHT ENGINEER ?
- directly responsible to pilot in command
- performs exterior and interior checks
- during flight the FE will continually monitor engine and system flight station and control indicators
11. explain the aircrew job of SECOND FLIGHT ENGINEER?
- acts as relief to FE during long flights
12. explain the aircrew job of TACTICAL COORDINATOR? (TACCO)
- employs appropriate tactics/procedures to most effectively carry out planes mission
- also acts as senior navigator and is responsible for safe/accurate navigation
13. explain the aircrew job of Navigator/communication (NAV/COMM) officer?
- maintains accurate record of present past position etc acts as navigator
- maintains record of flight
14. explain the aircrew job of ACOOUSTIC OPERATOR ?
- responsible for detection, classification, and report contact info
15. explain the aircrew job of ELECTRONICS WARFARE OPERATOR?
- uses radar, esm, mad/sad, irds, and iff systems and subsystems to detect and analyze targets
16. explain the aircrew job of SAFETY OF FLIGHT RADAR OPERATOR (SOFRO) ?
- provides weather, terrain, and plane avoidance using radar and IFF systems
17. explain the aircrew job of ORDANCEMAN ?
- obtains mission search and kill stores required by TACCO and ensures they are properly loaded , and does system checks
18. explain the aircrew job of ORDANCE QUALIFIED CREWMEMBER?
- ensures mission search and kill stores required by TACCO are properly loaded
- assists primary ordnance qualified crew member
19. explain the aircrew job of in flight technician (IFT) ?
- does pre flight checks on data processing system and for in flight repair of all equipment
20. explain the aircrew job of OBSERVER?
- an in flight crewmember qualed to perform basic safety of flight duties
21. explain the aircrew job of RADIO OPERATOR?
- maintains HF communications as directed by mission commander
- will request position report 10 min prior to time report is due, authenticate messages etc
22. what’s max number of ditching stations ?
- 23, 21 usually, on Update III aircraft ditching stations 16 and 17have been deleted
23. purpose of engine loiter operations?
- to extend amt of time aircraft can stay on station
24. what’s general arrangement of p-3 plane as stated in NATOPS flight manual?
- fuselage is pressurized from forward bulkhead of flight station to aft bulkhead in the cabin
- entrance to cabin is by way of door in port side of fuselage
- flight station is entered from cabin
- a ladder which stows in cabin can be used by personnel loading and unloading at stations where ramps aren’t avail
- emergency exit hatches are located over each wing in sides of fuselage aft of pilot side windshield panel and in the top of the flight station
- head, galley etc are located aft
25. what is history of VP-10?
- originally a derivate of VS-15
- vp-10 traces back to July 1, 1930 with commissioning of Patrol Bombing Squadron 10s
- in 1935 vp10 estab a world record for non-stop formation transpacific flight
- 8 out of 12 were damaged or destroyed in pearl harbor attack
- on June 1942 squadron PBY-5A identified 4 islands which helped begin greatest victory in naval aviation history

- disestablished after war on Jan 25, 1946
- reestab in JAX in march 1951
- in feb 1952 vp-10 moved to Brunswick and stated using P2-V Neptune planes
- in 1965 p-3 were delivered
1. define RADAR?
- radio detection and ranging\g
2. Define IFF?
- identification friendly or foe
3. define ADF?
- Automatic direction finder
4. define TACAN?
Tactical Air Navigation
5. Define IRDS?
- infrared detector system
6. define MAD?
- magnetic anomaly detector
7. define ESM?
- electronic support measures
8. define ISAR?
- inverse synthetic aperture radar
9. explain importance of aircraft static dissipation system?
- used to ensure good operation of navigation and radio communications systems during bad conditions by limiting static buildup on plane by controlling interference generated by corona
- attached at numerous points of plane area wick or wire to provide high operations
- Resistance discharge path between plane and air
10. what is purpose of p-3 electrical power supply system as stated in NATOPS?
- provides necessary AC and DC power for plane
11. what are 7 primary mission areas of marine patrol aircraft (MPA) ?
1. ASU – anti surface warfare
2. ASW- ant sub warfare
3. C2W- command and control warfare
4. CCC- command, control and communications
5. INT- intelligence
6. MIW- mine warfare
7. MOB- mobility
12. what are 6 secondary mission of MPA’s?
1. AAW- anti air warfare
2. FSO- fleet support operation
3. LOG- logistics
4. NCO- non combat operation
5. STK- strike
6. MOS- missions of state
13. what is purpose of instrument training?
- provides proficiency training for pilot and NFO’s in radio communication and navigation procedures
14. purpose of dedicated field work (DFW)?
- pilots can enhance skills in all phases of flight as well as maintain minimum hours of flight time
- all pilots should;
a. complete one DFW per month w/ min of 6 landing
b. complete one night DFW per quarter with minimum of 6 landing
c. complete one instructor DFW per quarter which includes a 3 engine, 2 engine etc landing
15. purpose of NATOPS instrument eval?
- admin by pilots and NFO’s
- NFO take written but pilots take a written evaluation which evaluates their ability to fly an instrument approach and interpret/use flight pubs
16. what is purpose of Airways training?
- encompasses many types of flights such as logistics flights, airlifts, sleigh rides etc
- provides proficiency training in flights under IFR flight plans and conducted along ATC controlled flight routes
17. what is purpose of CREW TRAINING FLIGHT?
- ensures all aircrew have all appropriate quals and training
18. purpose of NATOPS evaluation flight?
- an evaluauation flight in which a NATOPS instructor evaluates knowledge/proficiency of a crewmember for a specific position in aircraft.
- MAD checks designed to provide in-flight checks to validate the repair of previous MAD discrepancies and to determine need for MAD compensation
20. explain NATOPS flight condition 1?
- (battle) all stations manner for low altitude anti sub warfare
21. explain NATOPS flight condition 2?
- (surveillance/high altitude ASW operation/transit) all stations manned for routine search, patrol, high altitude ASW
22. explain NATOPS flight condition 3?
- (operational check) all stations manned by primary operators. Perform ICS check, obtain equipment status. Make status report to taco who reports it to pilot
23. explain NATOPS flight condition 4?
- (aircraft inspection) crewmembers designated by pilot in command during crew briefing leaves ditching station and inspects following.

1. Doppler well, main load center, and hydraulic service center for loose equipment, leaks, smoke, fumes etc
2. visible external surfaces of aircraft
3. visually check the weapons in bomb bay for security
24. explain NATOPS flight condition 5?
takeoff/landing) – all crewmembers shall take assigned ditching stations
1. what’s purpose of search stores?
- used for searching for and localizing a submarine target
- they are transmitter/receiver dropped into water receive sounds from water and transmit to plane
2. explain kill stores?
- torpedoes, mines, bombs, rockets, and guided missiles
3. what AGM?
air launched, surface attack guided missile
4. what’s ATM?
- air launched, training guided missile
5. what’s CATM?
- captive air launched, training missile (harpoon, maverick and slam)
6. what’s MK-20 ?
- (rockeye) cluster bomb unit (cbu)
7. what’s BDU-45?
- simulates MK-82 depth bomb for training
8. what’s MK 80 series?
- low drag general purpose bombs, depth bombs with fusing differences (delayed/impact)
9. what types of air/land mines does a p-3 use?
- mk-55 bottom mine
- mk-60 anti sub mine
- mk-62, 63, 64 quick strike mines
- mk-25
- mk-36
- mk-65 quick strike mine
10. what’s AGM-84 harpoon?
- all weather anti ship attack weapon
11. what’s AGM-65F MAVERICK?
- a laser guided rocket propelled air to ground missile
12. what’s AGM-84E slam?
- a standoff land attack missile.
13. what’re the 2 torpedoes on a p-3?
- mk-46 and mk-50
basic types of sonobouys?
- special purpose- e.g. bathythermograph buoy which measures the ocean temp from surface to 1000 ft. , also an ambient noise buoy which measures ambient (background) noise
- passive- underwater microphones(hydrophones) which listens to sounds in water
- active- mini sonar which ping for subs and transmit info to plane.
what is purpose of a mk-84 signal underwater sound (sus) device?
-SUS devices are used to signal underwater targets during ASW exercises.
what are 3 types of deployable countermeasures?
1. chaff- creates radar decoys or confuses radar seekers
2. flares – decoys heat seeking missiles
3. electronic jamming – jams radar
what’s a pyrotechnic device?
- item that produce a right light for illumination or colored lights of smoke for signaling
what are 2 types of marine location markers?
1. mk-25
2. mk-58
explain bomb rack ?
- carry, arm and release stores such as bombs and torpedoes suspended internally or externally from pylons
explain pylon ?
- used to suspend launchers or bombs from aircraft wings, fuselage, or bomb bay
explain LAU-117 missile launcher?
- AGM-65 (maverick) rack 48 tubes
explain sonobuoy launch tubes (PSLTs)?
- used for loading and launching internal stores 3 tubes
1. what is IDTC?
- inter deployment training cycle
- submitted no later then 45 days after return from deployment
- used to evaluate the capability of a squadron to perform ROC assigned operational missions as set forth in existing operational orders
- the ore provides a final measure and validation of effectiveness of the wing and squadrons long range training and demploymernt plan before squadrons deploy.
- goal of TPC is to enhance combat aircrew performance over broad spectrum of MPA mission areas, course emphasizes crew coordination, tactical awareness and in flight standardization
4. explain Maintanance training improvement program (MTIP) ?
- training through NAMTRA’s and FREST schools
- purpose is to recognize training deficiencies and focus trianing efforts for maintanance personnel.
5. explain AW training improvement program (AWTIP) ?
- designed to measure and monitor AW training program effectiveness and streamline overall effectiveness.
- training that has 7 behavior skills

1. decision making
2. assertiveness
3. mission analysis
4. communication
5. leadership
6. adaptability/flexibility
7. situational awareness
8. what is CREWQUAL?
- crewqual events are designed to demonstrate the ability of the critical crewmembers to coordinate their efforts in order to use p-3 as a weapon
- for a CREWQUAL TO BE AWARDED 2 conditions must be met
1. all p-3 training matrix required crewmember positions for a specific CREWQUAL event must be occupied in accordance w/ current crew list
2. individual on station effectiveness (OSE) grades must be at least 85% for all required crewmembers
9. what is CREW CURRENCY?
- LOSS OF CURENCY IN A PARTICULAR CREQUAL RESULTS in loss of associated p-3 training matrix readiness points occors when;
1. crewqual crew reaches the p-3 training matrix defined expiration date without requalification
2. more then 2 crewmembers as defined in p-3 training matrix who participated in appropriate crew position when crewqual was awarded have left crew in accordance with the current crew list
- to coordinate planning among all departments
11. what’s level of readiness, T-4?
- not combat ready
- should not be sent on operational or independent fleet exercise detachments
12. what’s level of readiness, T-3?
- not combat ready
- shouldn’t be sent on operational detachment
- may be sent on independent fleet exercise detachments
13. what’s level of readiness, T-2?
- combat ready
- may be sent on prolonged independent operational or independent fleet exercise detachments
- may be tasked for special high priority assignments
- ready for deployment
14. what’s level of readiness, T-1?
- has achieved the highest degree of overall training and combat readiness in accordance with the required operational capability and projected operational environment (ROC/POE)
1. what are corrosion prone areas of p-3 plane?
- along seams of 7075-T6 aluminum alloy structures
- in box beam skin centroid areas and around cadmium plated steel fasteners
- surfaces of actuating mechanisms
- painted surfaces that are chipped or peeled
- skin seems etc etc
- automatic flight control and stabilization systems ease the pilots workload and provide stability at all speeds. Allows computer control of plane
3. what is p-3 engine?
- four T56-A-14 turboprop engines power the p-3, each engine provides 4,600 shp for takeoff
4. what’s purpose of the constant speed propeller?
- 5 (maj mods) 4(blades) H(shank size, type material) 60(spline) 77(minor mods)
- designed top maintain a preselected rpm automatically
- keeps turboprop engine at 100%rpm
5. explain p-3 fueling method?
1. center-point pressure fueling
a. the normal fueling method
b. accepts 600 gallons of fuel per min from two simultaneous pump fuel trucks
c. or 300 gallon per minute by one truck
2. overwing gravity feed
a. the center section and fuselage tank do not incorporate a gravity filter well
6. what kind of construction used by p-3 planes?
- all metal
- wing is a box beam compromising 2 main spars with upper and lower surfaces of integrally stiffened skins
- ribs are provided at frequent intervals to stabilize the structure and maintain contour ,
- the fuselage is of semimoncoque construction consisting of skins, stringers, longerons, and bulkheads of frames
7. explain p-3 landing gear?
Fully retractable tricycle type gear consisting of two main gears and a nose gear

- each gear extends down and aft so that in event of a hydraulic failure, gravity, assisted by airflow loads and a bungee spring extends the gear
1. explain purpose of aircft cabin pressurization and air conditioning?
- air conditioning and pressurization sys provides crew environment control and electronic equipment cooling both in flight and on ground.
- Oxygen required above 10000 ft of altitude in an unpressurized cabin
- Crew can walk around at altitudes above 10000 ft because system keeps cabin pressurized to an equivalent of an altitude less then 10000 feet
2. what aircraft oxygen systems?
- oxygen system designed to supply an active flight crew of 3 members for 3.5 hrs at altitude of 25000 feet
- oxygen supplied via 3 high pressure bottles through 3 regulators one for each flight crewmember
- also 7 portable oxygen bottles are stowed at the tactical crew stations giving 22 minutes of oxygen in normal conditions or 5-10 min under exertion
1. fuselage?
a. forward section – includes the flight station
b. midbody section – the midsection of plane
c. aft fuselage section – includes tail cone
2. wings?
a. center section – integral part of fuselage, consist of a box-type beam which is an assembly of the front and rear spars, top and bottom skin panels, and ribs. After the structure assembly is completed the box beam is sealed to form an auxiliary fuel tank.
b. Left wing outer panel- outer wing consist of wing flaps, leading and trailing edges, wingtips, ailerons, and engine nacelled
c. Right wing outer panel – outer wing consists of wing flaps leading and trailing edges, wingtips, ailerons, and engine nacelles
3. tail ?
- horizontal stabilizers – provides stability of plane about lateral axis, this is longitudinal stability. Serves as base for which elevators are attached
- vertical stabilizers- maintains stability of plane about its vertical axis this is known as directional stability
4. flight controls/surfaces?
a. flaps – wing flaps are the high lift fowler type, uses a combo of aft movement to increase the wing area and a drooping/downward movement to change the airfoil section, powered by combined no 1 and no 2 hydraulic systems
b. ailerons – operated by a lateral (side-by side) movement of control stick or turning of wheel, are interconnected and work simultaneously but in opposite directions from one another. As one moves down to increase lift the other moves up to increase lift on its side. This opposing action allows more lift to be produced by the wing one the wing on one side then the other. This results in a controlled movement or roll because of unequal forces on wings
c. rudder – used to move the aircraft about the vertical axis, if pilot turns rudder to right the plane turns to right and vice versa, done by pushing right or left rudder pedal
d. elevators – rising the elevators causes plane to climb , and lowering it causes It to descend., done by a control stick
5. landing gear
a. strut – absorbs shock that would otherwise be sustained by the airframe , navy plans use the air-oil shock strut.
b. Brakes – engine propeller combo is usually effective in stopping plane and reduces the work brakes normally do. Four multiple disk brake assemblies one for each main gear wheel are mounted on the strut side of the main gear axle
c. Wheels – either aluminum or magnesium alloy, on navy planes the wheels are either divided or demountable flange, tires are 36 ply
1. engine
a. power section – consists of an axial flow compressor, a combustion chamber, a multistage turbine and an exhaust section.
b. Torque meter – electronically measures the torsional deflection (twist), recorded as horsepower
c. Reduction gear system- reduces engine rpm within range of efficient propeller rpm. Large reduction necessary cause gas turbine must operate at very high rpm to produce power efficiently
2. propeller blades
- four bladed Hamilton standard propeller provides an efficient and flexible means of converging engine shp to thrust, consists of;
a. rotating section- compromises blades, hub, spinner, and dome which houses the pitch changing mechanisms
b. nonrotating section – consists of an oil reservoir, pressure and scavenger pumps, the governor, and control mechanism
2. propeller blades
5(mod#) 4 (#blades) H(shank size/type) 60(spline size) 77(minor mod#)
3. auxiliary power unit
- makes plane a self sustaining aircraft, made up of a turbine compressor driving a generator that is identical to the engine driven generators.
4. fuel cells
- four integral wing tanks and an auxiliary tank carry fuel supply for the .
- engines.
- Tank 5 = auxiliary tank, consisting of a bladder type fuselage tank connected to an integral center section tank.
5. vents
- the tanks are vented by float type vent valves located one in each wing tank and one in each cell of tank no 5 that prevent over pressurization and overflow or siphoning during maneuvering.
6. fuel boost pumps
- each wing tank is equipped with a fuel boost pump consisting of a scavenge section and a boost section. The scavenge section routes fuel into a surge box while boost section pumps fuel from surge box to engine driven pump
7. fuel transfer pumps
- bladder cell is equipped with two transfer pump each transfer pump consists of scavenge section and boost section. Boost section pumps fuel from fuselage from fuselage cell to any or all wing tanks. The scavenge section pumps fuel to the fuselage cell from the bottom of the center section tank. A thermal switch disconnects a transfer pump whenever the case temp of the pump exceeds 400 degrees ferignheight
8. explosion suppressant foam
- aircraft incorporating AFC-517 have explosion suppressant foam installed in the four integral wing tanks. The fuel cell foam is a fully reticulated fire screen designed to prevent fuel tank explosions caused by tracers or high explosive incendiary rounds, thereby igniting oxygen rich fuel vapors. The foam adheres to fuel droplets in order to deep the fuel cell cavity too fuel rich to support combustion.
9. control panels
- the fueling control panel located between the pressure fuel adapters, is the control center for fueling and defueling. Also the panel enables the pressure fueling valves to be checked before fueling begins. Service lights on fueling control panel will illuminate whenever the fueling panel service door is opened. An inclinometer is mounted adjacent to the panel for attitude reference when using the hydrostatic fuel quantity gauge equipment.
10. propulsion system, POWER SECTION
- consists of a 14-stage, axial FLOW COMPRESSOR, SIX cylinderal combustion liners that comprise the combustion section, a 4 stage turbine section, an accessory drive unit, an oil sytem, and a fuel control unit.
11. torque meter
- the struts and the torque meter housing rigidly connect the reduction gear and the power unit. The torqumeter transmits torque from the power unit to the reduction gear assembly and provide an accurate means of measuring this torque. The torqumeter housing is also the primary support structure between the power unit and the reduction gearbox.
12. reduction gear system
- reduces the high rpm, low torque output of the power station to a low rpm high torque output to be utilized by the propeller shaft
13. propeller
- the purpose of the constant speed propeller is to maintain a pre selected rpm automatically
14. fuel cells/tanks
- four integral wing tanks and an auxiliary tank carry the fuel supply for the engines
15. vents
- the tanks are vented by a float type vent valves, located one in each wing tank and one in each cell of tank number 5, that prevent the overpressurization and overflow or siphoning during maneuvering
16. pumps
- each wing tank is equipped with a fuel boost pump consisting of a scavenge section and boost section, the scavenge section discharges into a surge box while the boost section pumps fuel from the surge box to the engine driven pump in addition they supply fuel flow for cross feeding, normal boost pump pressure is 15-30 psi
17. control panel
- the control center for fueling and defueling
18. what is fuel capacity for p-3 ?
- 9,200 gallons total
19. how does ambient air temp influence the operation of the fuel system?
- temp causes fuel weight to change with a constant quality, can make fuel heavier, the colder it is the heavier it is
20. how does fuel sys interface with propulsion system?
- each of the 4 wing tanks can supply fuel to its respective engine or fuel can be supplied from any tank to any engine through a cross feed system
21. how does fuel system interface with hydraulic system?
- the no2 and no3 fuel tanks provides a means of cooling from hydraulic pumps. Minimum of 1000 lbs of fuel required in each tank to provide adequate hydraulic cooling.
22. safety precautions during fueling?
- don’t use any equipment that gives off RF transmission during fueling cause it can ignite fuel
- allow at least 3 min following refuel to use dipstick, or else you could get a static discharge
- aircraft following fuel/defuel of plane with AFC 517 installed allow 15 min to dissipate electrostatic charges prior to using the dipstick or hydrostatic fuel gauge (dipstick cant be used in temp below –34)
- stop fueling if;
a. any wing tank or tank 5 is overfilled
b. wing tank fuel spills from a wingtip vent
c. loud/unusual noise is accompanied by wing vibration or aircraft decking vibration.
- ensure that fueling pressure doesn’t exceed 55 psi
- note dipstick wont read unless inboard tanks have at least 4225 lbs (650 gal) of fuel or more and outboard tank has at least 8775 lbs(1350 gal)
- provides communication functions for crewmembers
- has 12 headset one for each crew station
- allows pilot, taco, etc to talk to others on plane
- is a AN/AIC –22 ICS
2. purpose of ultra high frequency (UHF)?
- 2 identical ARC-143 UHF transceivers are on a p-3
- the UHF-1 is in flight station and ahs plain voice, cipher voice, and UHF-DF in conjunction w/ the ARA-50 amplifier and DF loop antenna
- the UHF-2 is mounted at NAV/COMM station and has plain voice, cipher voice, teletype, data link, sonobuoy command and IACS
3. purpose of VERY HIGH FREQUENCY (VHF)?
- p-3 has ARC-182 VHF/UHF radio sys installed incorporating AFC-485 to allow communication w/civilian and military agencies in VHF-AM band and UHF band, maritime units in high VHF-AM band, and tactical military units in low VHF-FM band.
- Located by copilot
- Only for plain voice
4. purpose of high frequency (HF)?
- 2 ARC-161 HF receiver/transmitters are on p-3
- mounted on NAV/COMM station
- both have plain voice, cipher voice, data link, and teletype
5. explain Inertial NAVIGATION SYSTEM (INS)?
- automatic aid to navigation that is idependent of outside references
- provides accurate velocity attitude, and heading to a digital processing unit
6. explain tactical air navigation (TACAN) ?
- primary navigation aid for carrier based planes
- has distance measuring equipment (DME)
- the AN/ARN-15 is worldwide all weather positioning system which provides NAV/COMM with a fixed position that’s accurate to 5-8 meters
- also provides various navigation and tracking info
- enables OPTI receiver to provide bearings to a selected sonobuoy channel.
- is the CP-2044/ASQ-212 digital computer real time multipurpose
- the ARR-72 sonobuoy receiver system consists of 31 fixed tuned receivers that receive RF inputs form two blade antennas.
- the APS-115 is a radio device used to detect objects at a much greater distance then is visually possible, ships storms planes etc
- APX-76 is electronic system that allows a friendly craft to automatically identify itself
- the ASQ-81 system utilizes the principle that a metallic sub disturbs the magnetic lines of force of the earth
- ALR-66 gather Intel from the enemies electronic devices and also makes the devices ineffective
- Electronic countermeasures have two types of actions, active, and passive.
- AAS-36 converts infrared radiation emanating from a heat source and displays target images on a little TV display located at EW station
- APS-137 radar is a processing system that generates true, recognizable, 2-D images of any ship target
- ADANCED Electro-Optical (EO) imaging sys that provides high-res pictures and video.
18. explain APG-66 RDAR?
- airborne, multimode, digital, pulse Doppler sysytem designed to provide all weather detection of airborne and surface targets in low and high clutter environments
- provides reserve electrical power for selected electrical systems
- p-3 utilizes ac as primary power source
- supplied by 4 interchangeable brush less generators supplying 120 volt three phase power at 400 Hz.
- heart of DC power system
- transformer rectifiers 1 and 2 recieve AC power directly from main AC uses A and B, respectively they in turn rectify the AC to a 28 volt DC output for use at main DC bus. Transformer rectifier 3 receives its AC power input from the NEAC bus and routes its 28 VDC output to the MEDC bus
- each generator has an associated supervisory panel located in main electrical load center each contains its respective GCR, ACR and voltage regulator. The panels provide over voltage, under voltage, off frequency, and feeder fault protection to their respective generators.
- left and right main Acbuses provide power to nonessential equipment through the plane.
- The monitor ac bus currently has no load on it, when used it provides power to nonessential equipment only
- With both generators running ac essential buses 1 and 2 and the 115 volt ac instrument bus powers safety of flight equipment
- A step down transformer provides 26 Volt AC for instruments and navigation systems, the output of transformer also helps power safety of flight equipment
24. explain STROBE LIGHTS?
- 2 high intensity strobe lights are installed along the centerline of aft fuselage, top and bottom, to provide anticollsion warning to other plane
26. explain WING TIP LIGHTS?
- on tips of each wing, port is red, and starboard one is green. The diff colored wingtips are used for identifying the heading of approaching planes in flight
27. explain TAIL LIGHTS
- the tail position lights are located on the bottom of aft fuselage and the top forward section of mad boom.
28. explain LANDING LIGHTS?
- installed on trailing edge of port and starboard wings, between inboard and outboard nacelles.
- Used during takeoff, approach and landings
29. explain TAXI LIGHTS?
- installed on left and right of nose gear struts
- used during taxing
- p-3 consist of max of 8 stations for loading weapon (4 upper, and 4 lower
- the max amt of “Charlie” stations is 3
a. pylons – used to suspend launchers or bombs from plane wings, fuselage or bomb bay
b. bomb rack (BRU-15) – plane bomb, torpedoes, mines etc are suspended internally or externally from pylons by bomb racks. Bomb racks, carry, arm, and release stores.
1. internal launch tubes – consist of 3 pressurized tubes for launching son buoys
2. external launch tubes – consist of 48 non pressurized tubes for launching sonbouys
3. free fall chute – single chute aft of the 3 PSLTs. A protective sleeve is required to be inserted into free fall chute prior to usage, this will illuminate damage to aft undersection of plane


- the AN/ALE-29 DISPENSER MODULE – aka CMDS or countermeasure dispensing system designed to provide protection for p-3 from missile attack
- can dispense up to 60 passive radar (chaff) cartridges, infrared decoy (flare) cartridges, or jamming cartridges, but cant yet dispense active jammers
1. internal launch tubes – consist of 3 pressurized tubes for launching son buoys
2. external launch tubes – consist of 48 non pressurized tubes for launching sonbouys
3. free fall chute – single chute aft of the 3 PSLTs. A protective sleeve is required to be inserted into free fall chute prior to usage, this will illuminate damage to aft undersection of plane
- the AN/ALE-29 DISPENSER MODULE – aka CMDS or countermeasure dispensing system designed to provide protection for p-3 from missile attack
- can dispense up to 60 passive radar (chaff) cartridges, infrared decoy (flare) cartridges, or jamming cartridges, but cant yet dispense active jammers
5. what special precautions apply to bomb bay doors?
- bomb bay switch shall be placed to match the door position before further action is taken, failure of switch to match door position could lead to door failure
- flight station personnel shall retain hands in view and bomb bay operator shall take no action while the outside observer is out of sight
- anytime the bb doors are open and hydraulic power is required an outside observer shall be posted to ensue door remains clear
6. safety precautions of sonobuoy safety switch?
- prior to walking under (load, unload inspection etc) external SLT’s ensure sono safety switch door is open, roller switch is fully extended, and SONO DISABLED light in cockpit is illuminated. If sono safety switch door is closed ensure an outside observer is posted to prevent personnel form entering sono launching area
7. safety precautions for countermeasure dispenser?
- safe the MCDS prior to securing power to the MWS to preclude a possible inadvertent command countermeasures signal from dispensing a countermeasure
1. explain squadron mission statement?
- home ported in Brunswick
- deploys throughout the Atlantic six months out of every 18 months
- primary mission is all weather antisub warfare (ASW) operation
- secondary mission is ASUW or anti surface ship warfare , recon ops, fleet support ops (FSO0 and search and rescue
1. commander in chief
2. sec of defense
3. sec of navy
4. CNO
5. command in chief, u.s. Atlantic fleet
6. command naval air force u.s. Atlantic fleet
7. commander patrol wings, u.s. Atlantic fleet
8. commander, patrol reconnaissance wing five
9. co of vp-10
1. command in chief
2. sec of defense
3. joint chiefs of staff
4. commander in chief Atlantic
5. commander in chief, u.s. Atlantic fleet commander, second fleet
6. commander patrol wings, u.s. Atlantic fleet
7. commander of wing 5
8. co of vp-10
4. define ASU?
- anti surface warfare
5. what’s role of a p-3 on ASU missions?
- employ p-3 to effectively conduct OTH – targeting and a coordinated strike with dissimilar OTH strike platforms
- provides tactical data to SAC, CWC, and ASUWC
what are the sensors employed by a p-3 on a ASU mission?
1. radar
2. IFF
3. ESM
6. AVX
8. what are weapons a p-3?
1. harpoon
2. bombs
3. maverick
9. what is ASW?
- anti submarine warfare
10. role of p-3 on ASW mission?
- p-3 effectively conduct an all sensor search off area, to detect, localize, attack and attack a sub
11. what are sensors of a p-3 on a ASW mission?
- SASP (acoustics)
12. weapons of a p-3 on ASW mission?
- MK-46/MK-50 torpedoes
13. what’s CCC?
- Command, Control, And Communications
14. what’s role of p-3 on a CCC mission?
- employ p03 to search an area via EW sensors to find surface targets, and deter fire and tracking radars
15. sensors a p-3 uses on a CCC mission?
16. what’s EW?
- electronic warfare
17. what’s role of p-3 on EW mission?
- p-3 conduct passive/active detection of surface targets, airborne targets, and land targets. The collection, anazlyzation, and dissemination of electronic capabilities of each target is desired
18. what sensors does a p-3 use on EW mission?
b. IFF
c. ESM
19. what’s role of p-3 on Intel mission?
- employed to collect, analyze, and record, pertinent data for info About enemies
20. p-3 sensors on an Intel mission?
c. IFF
d. ESM
21. what’s MIW?
- mine warfare
22. what’s role of p-3 on MIW mission?
- conduct aerial mine laying
23. sensors on p-3 used for MIW missions?
a. visual
b. radar
24. discuss weapons on p-3 for a MIW mission?
1. MK-62, 63, 64 (QUICKKILL)
2. MK-60 (CAPTOR)
25. what’s MOB?
1. trim tabs?
- small airfoils recessed in the trailing edge of a primary control surface.
- Purpose is to enable the pilot to neutralize any unbalanced condition that might exist during flight, without exerting any pressure on the control stick or rudder pedals.
2. explain hydraulics, pumps?
- 3 electrically driven variable displacement type hydraulic pumps.
- Each pump has max output of 8 gpm
3. explain hydraulics, reservoirs?
- 2 hydraulic sys have individual reservoirs
- no 1 has max of 5.6 gal w/ empty brake accumulator or 5 gal w/ fully charged accumulator
- no 2 is full as 1 gal
4. explain hydraulics, booster assemblies?
- designed so that pilot has normal feel of control forces when hydraulic pressure is avail to the booster cylinders
- w/o hydraulic pressure the controls can be moved but would be hard to move unless booster shift handles are pulled
5. explain hydraulics, actuators?
- a unit that transforms hydraulic fluid pressure into mechanical force, which performs work
- 2 types are actuating cylinders and hydraulic motors
6. explain airframe component; forward radome?
- conical shaped fiberglass structure weighing 15o lbs
- houses forward radar antenna, esm components, iff components, and 2 sensors for the missile warning system
7. explain airframe component; aftradome?
- fiberglass structure that houses aft radar antenna, the MAD equipment, and 2 sensors for missile warning system
8. explain airframe component; Bombay ?
- located under belly of plane aft of nose gear, function is to transport weapons and cargo
9. explain cabin pressurization system; engine driven compressor (EDC)?
- air cond and pressurization requires the 2 engine driven compressors mounted on engine no 2 and 3
- heated compressed air from EDC’s is ducted through 2 air cycle cooling units in nose wheel well and then into cabin
10. explain cabin pressurization system; cabin exhaust fan?
- air is drawn through the plane by the cabin exhaust fan
11. explain cabin pressurization system; outflow valve?
- the air drawn in is ducted overboard through the outflow valve
12. explain air condition system, refrigeration turbine?
- as cooled bleed air enters the compressor end of the refrigeration turbine its compressed to twice its inlet temp. it is cooled by rapid expansion
13. explain air condition system, heat exchanger?
- passing hot engine bleed air through the primary heat exchanger where ram air forced across the heat exchanger by planes forward motion, absorbs heat from the bleed air, reducing the air temp.
- plane equipped w/ 2 independent electronically controlled high rate of discharge fire extinguishing systems, one for each side of plane,.
- When activated a fire extinguishing chemical is discharged simultaneously into all 3 zones of engine selected.
- Activated by pressing discharge button under the emergency shutdown handle.
- the extinguishing agent is released from flight station by manual release switch located adjacent to APU fire detection indicator lights on right side of glare shield panel.
- At a temp of 400 F warning lights glow, flight station and cabin warning horns sounds, and apu shut down. When intake and exaust doors close the fire extinguishing agent discharges
- 7 bottles stored at crew stations except 9 and 10 (cause their bottles are at aft end of sonobouy storage bins) on a p-3 A or B 4 oxygen bottles are stored at the bulkhead forward of starboard forward observer, and 3 stored above aft radar rack
- have 22 min of air under good conditions or 5-10 for people who are breathing faster
- designed to keep 3 members of flight crew with are for 3.5 hrs at 25,000 ft
18. explain purpose of plane foul weather systems elements are used to anti ice and deice propellers
- on a p-3 they’re are ice control sys to allow plane to fly in all weather
- engine bleed air from 14th stage of compressor is used to deice wings and anitice the engine air scoop, compressor inlet etc
19. describe foul weather system, ice detector?
- probe mounted on lower starboard side of fuselage just aft of nose radome tells when ice is present
- also triggers a switch that melts ice and then light indicator goes off
20. describe foul weather system, angle of attack (AOA) heat ?
- a thermostat controlled probe heater prevents ice formation on the fuselage mounted AOA probe
21. describe foul weather system, engine ice control ?
- uses 14th stage bleed air to prevent ice forming on engine air scoop, torqumeter shroud, and compressor inlet assembly
22. describe foul weather system, propeller ice control (prop deicer) ?
- electric heat element are used to deice propellers
- continuous heat applied to front spinners of all 4 propellers
- propeller blade cuffs, aft spinner, and islands are cydrically heated one propeller at a time
23. describe foul weather system, wing deice?
- 14th stage engine bleed air is used to deice wings
24. describe foul weather system, empennage ice control (emp deice)?
- portions of horizontal and vertical stabilizer leading edges are electrically heated in a system that simultaneously anti-ices a series of parting strips while momentarily heating power is applied sequentially to deice 20 cycling strips
25. describe foul weather system, windshield heating?
- windshields are electronically heated to prevent icing
- consists of pilot and copilot system separately
- turned on when temp gets so low and off when it gets so high
26. describe foul weather system, windshield wipers?
- 2 speed selection, can be controlled by pilot or copilot
27. describe foul weather system, pitot heat?
- two pitot tubes are mounted symmetrically on either side of lower fuselage just aft of nose radome. Each pitot tube is anti iced by an integral heating element
30. explain structures?
- fuselage structure of plane is of a semimonoque construction consisting of sheet skin panels, bulkhead rings, and longitudinal stringers.
- Divided into 3 parts;
a. forward
b. center
c. aft
31. explain flight controls/surfaces?
- primary flight controls operated through flight station through conventional cable systems
32. explain hydraulics?
- hydraulically operated booster assemblies for all 3 primary control surfaces are utilized, and are operated from independent 3000 psi systems 1 and 2
33. explain antiicing?
- systems that prevents ice formation
34. explain deicing?
- refers to a system that removes ice buildup
35. what are 3 methods that generate air conditioning?
1. EDC’s
2. ambient air
3. air multiplier
36. what type of aviators breathing oxygen is used on a p-3?
- aviators breathing oxygen (MIL-0-2721OD) is supplied in two types, type 1 and type II
- type I = gaseous oxygen
- type II = liquid oxygen
37. normal operating pressure of hydraulic system?
3000 psi
38. what safety precautions for opening forward and aft radomes?
- cant open if wind is gusting or if wind exceeds 20 knots
39. what effect does HRD extinguishing agent exposure have on people?
- its colorless, tasteless, and odorless
- trifluorobromomethane is most common it is a fluorinated hydrocarbon
- nontoxic but you could suffocate cause it replaces oxygen when breathed.
1. State the components of a basic hydraulic system?
1. A reservoir to hold a supply of hydraulic fluid
2. A pump to provide a flow of fluid
3. Tubing to transmit the fluid
4. A selector valve to direct the flow of the fluid.
5. An actuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful work.
2. Describe and explain the purpose of the main components of landing gear.
1. Shock strut assembly –absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe.
2. Tires- allow aircraft to roll easily and provide traction during takeoff/landing
3. Wheel brake assembly- used to sloe and stop aircraft. Also used to prevent aircraft from rolling while parked.
4. Retracting and extending mechanism- all the necessary hardware to electrically or hydraulically exent/retract the landing gear.
5. Side struts/supports- provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear.
3. State the safety precautions used when servicing aircraft TIRES on aircraft?
-Always approach tires from fore and aft.
- When inflating stand off to side.
- Deflate when removing from their aircraft.
4. State the 5 basic sections of a jet engine?
1. The INTAKE –an opening in front of aircraft engine that allows outside or ambient air to enter engine.
2. COMPRESSOR- provides high pressure air to the combustion chamber/s
3. COMBUSTION CHAMBER- where fuel enters and combines with the compressed air.
4. TURBINE- drives the compressor and accessories by extracting some of the energy and pressure from the combustion gases.
5. EXAUST CONE- eliminates turbulence in the emerging jet thereby giving max velocity. M?
5. Describe the TURBOJET engine system?
-Turbojet projects a column of air to the rear at high velocity. Resulting effect is to propel aircraft in the opposite or forward direction.
6. Describe the TURBOSHAFT engine system?
Turbo shaft delivers power through a shaft to drive something other then a propeller.
- They have high power to weight ratio and are currently used in helos.
7. Describe the TURBOPROP engine sys?
Propulsion is accomplished by convert of the majority of gas-energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller. This is done by addition of more turbine stages. Only a small amt of jet thrust is obtained on a turboprop engine.
8. Describe the TURBOFAN engine sys?
- Same as turboprop except the propeller is replaced by a duct enclosed axial flow fan. Will produce 50% of engines total thrust.
9. State the purpose of the afterburner?
The afterburner is used during takeoff and combat maneuvering to boost the normal thrust raring of a gas turbine engine.
10. Explain the fuel JP4/F40?
-Has a flame spread rte of 700-800 feet per min and a low flashpoint of –10 feringheight or –23 Celsius.
-Never used on ships
-Use of jp4 will normally cause an engine to operate w/ lower exhaust gas temperature, slower acceleration, and lower engine rpm
11. Explain the fuel JP5/F44?
-Has flam spread rate of 100 ft per min and flashpoint of 140 ferinheight or 60 degrees Celsius?
- Is the only approved fuel aboard navy ships?
- Is navies primary jet fuel
12. Explain the fuel JP8/F34?
-Has a flame spread rate of 100 feet per min and flashpoint of 100F and 40C?
13. What are the 3 hazards of jet fuel?
-Skin irritant
- Inhalation hazard
14. What are symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation?
-May cause death
15. What is purpose of auxiliary power unit (apu)?
These power units furnish electrical power when engine driven generators aren’t operating or when external power isn’t available.
-Use a gas turbine to drive the generator, the gas turbine provides compressed air for air conditioning and pneumatic engine starting. Which makes aircraft independent of need for ground power.
16. What are the reasons for and methods of non-destructive inspection (NDI)?
-It is essential that defects are found and corrected before too late
-NDI can provide 100% sampling w/ no affect to the use of the part or sys being inspected
-Methods include, visual, optical, liquid penetrate, eddy current etc
-NDI is practice of evaluating a part or sample of material without messing it up.
17. What is icing and what’s its effect on planes?
-Ice on the plane decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and stalling speed
18. What is the purpose of pilot static?
- Pilot static sys in a plane includes some of the instruments that operate on the principal of the barometer, consists of a pilot static tube and 3 indicators, the three indicators are the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and rate of climb indicator. It is all calibrated so that different air pressures cause diff readings.
19. What is purpose of an airspeed indicator?
Displays speed of plane in relation to air in which it’s flying.
20. What is purpose of altimeters?
- Shows height of plane above sea level
21. What is purpose of rat of climb indicator?
-Shows rate at which plane is climbing or descending.
22. What is purpose of an altitude indicator?
At distances much greater then is visually possible.
- Used when pilot cannot determine altitude by horizon (at night, fog etc)
- Also called vertical gyro or vgi
- Shows pilot the relative position of plane compared to horizon
23. What is purpose of turn and bank indicator?
-Shows correct execution of a turn and bank
-Also shows lateral attitude of plane in a straight flight.
24. What is purpose of navigation systems?
- Direct, plot, and control course or position of plane
- may include radios, transmitters, tacan, loran, etc
25. What is purpose of identification friend or foe (IFF)?
- Is an electronic sys that allows a friendly craft to identify itself automatically before approaching near enough to threaten naval units?
- Signal is sent to plane responds in certain manner automatically letting them know they are friendly.
26. What is purpose of radio detection and ranging (RADAR)?
- A radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater then what’s visually possible. E.g. planes, ships, clouds, storms
- Works on echo principal
- -One radar range is 12.36 microseconds
27. What is purpose of magnetic (standby) compass?
- A direct reading magnetic compass is mounted on instrument panel
28. What is purpose of communications sys?
- Radio equipment is only practical means of communication on a plane.
29. What’s purpose of bombs?
- Any weapon other then a torpedo, rocket, missile, or mine dropped from a plane.
- They are free falling explosive weapons, may be unguided or guided (smart)
30. What is purpose of rockets?
-A weapon containing an explosive section and a propulsion section
-Cannot change direction once fired
-High accuracy since usually launched from close range
31. What is purpose if missiles?
- A vehicle containing a propulsion part, a guidance part, and an explosive part.
- Can change direction once fired.
- Classified according to range, speed, launch environment and vehicle type
32. What is a mine?
- An underwater explosive put into position by subs, ships, or plane
- Explodes when something comes into contact with it.
33. What is a torpedo?
- Self propelled underwater missile
- Designed to search, detect, and destroy subs and surface ships
34. What is purpose of a circuit breaker?
- A protective device that opens a circuit when current exceeds a predetermined value.
35. What is purpose of a fuse?
- Protective device inserted in-line with a circuit, contains a metal that will melt or break when current is increased beyond a set value.
36. What is ohms law?
- E=IR
E= voltage I= current R= resistance
37. What is voltage?
- Driving force behind current
38. What is current?
-Current is the flow of electrons, ohms law says current is directly proportional to the 3710.7 bbyapplied voltage and inversely proportional to circuit resistance.
39. What is resistance?
- The opposing force to the flow of electron
40. what is purpose of natops evaluation?
- natops eval is intended to evaluate individual and uinit acompliance by observing and grading adherence to natops procedures.
41. what is purpose of naval flight records subsystem (NAVFLIRS)
-aka the yellow sheet
- provides standardized don flight activity data collection system.
- NAVFLIRS is single source document for recording flight data and is applicable in specific areas to aircraft simulators
42. what is purpose of master flight files
- only official fliht record of naval aircraft and shall be maintained in accord with opnav 3710.7 by every reporting custodian of naval aircraft
43. explain the aircraft visual identification sys for the following type commanders (TYCOMs)
- visual ident sys for naval aircraftprovides for the assignment of aircraft markings and side numbers that identify aircraft of one unit from those of another unit using unit identifications assigned by cno.
- Sys provides rapid identification sys for navy and marine planes
- Planes use last 3 digits of BUNO of plane number as their side number or tail number.
- Side number and colors they are painted in are based on unit type e.g. vaq uses maroon.
44. COMNAVAIRLANT first and second character on tail number will be what?
- 1st shall be A through M
- 2nd shall be A through Z
45. COMNAVAIRPAC first and second character of tail number shall be what?
- 1st character shall be N through Z
- 2nd charcter shall be A throught Z
46. CNATRA first and second character of tail number shall be what?
- 1st character shall be A through G
- no second character
47. what is a CO?
- ultimately responsible for those under his or her command and their actions
48. duties of XO ?
- direct rep of CO
- responsible for the organization, performance of duty and good order and discipline of whole command.
49. duties of CMC ?
- enlisted advisior oto command, deals with morale, discipline, utilization and training of command.
50. duties of department head?
- rep of CO in matters pertaining to department
51. Duties of Command managed equal opportunity officer (CMEO)/ equal opportunity program specialist (EOPS)?
- provides equal training to command
52. duties of division officer?
- responsible under dept head for duties assigned to division
- cpo and lpo designated by division officer
- senior cpo and senior lpo
- lcpo asits div officer
- lpo assists lcpo and div officer
- cpo and lpo designated by division officer
- Senior cpo and senior lpo
- Lcpo assist div officer
- lpo assists lcpo and div officer
54. work center supervisor
- job is to respond to hour by hour work center functions
55. command career counselor
- runs ship or squadron career counseling program
56. ombudsman
- link b/w command and families of command personnel
- -co appoints ombudsman
- keeps co informed on family morale/problems etc.
- assist families who need service
57. financial specialist
- provide financial counseling
58. drug and alcohol program advisor (dapa)
59. - advises co/xo on drug and alcohol abuse in ship or squadron and approaches necessary to cope effectively with the problem
60. security manager
- keeps co/xo advised on all security matters
- works with squadron duty officers and duty sec
61. career information program managment (cipm) program manager
- provide career info to squadron act as divisional career counselor
62. what is type of counseling, personnel
- personal counseling e.g. Chaplin, legal, etc concerns personal matters
what is type of counseling, performance?
- counseling on a reg basis for personnel to let them know how they are doing
64. effect on eval of , types of discharge?
- the basis for determining the type of discharge received by member is called the type discharge. Honorable requires at least an average of 2.7 conduct =3.0 otherwise general discharges is warded.
65. effect on eval of , advancement?
- single most important factor in determine who will be selected for advancement eval marks are as follows
- 4.0 = early promote
- 3.8 = must promote
- 3.6= promotoable
- 3.4 = progressing
- 2.0 = significant problems
66. good conduct awards
-won’t be awarded to anyone with eval mark below 3.0 or prior njp or court martial conviction
-given every 3 years
67. eligibility for reenlistment
-a member with marks under 3.0 will not be able to reenlist
- decision and discretion of the co
68. assignment
-certain assignments require good evals eg. Rtc, ntc
69. explain naval messages
- principal means by which commanders communicate
- always transmitted electronically
70. explain following message components, date time group
-includes date and time expressed in GMT
-dtg expressed in 6 digits
-first 2 digits being day next 4 being time followed by zone suffix usually expressed in Zulu or Greenwich time. Last part is date and year.
-eg. Message sent 31 October 1998 at 0800 Zulu time has a dtg of 310800zoct98
71. explain following message components, from line?
- first line of the address component and contains the originator or drafters plain language address
- a message must have only one originator
72. explain following message components, to line?
-contains address of a person or command who the message is going to
73. explain following message components, info line?
-contains the addresses of those who you would like to look at or send a message for information purposes.
74. explain following message components, classification/declassification line
-the first line of text which must give the message’s classification. It is listed as top secret, secret, or confidential.
75. explain following message components, standard subject identification code (ssic)?
the 4 or 5 digit number that stands for the subject of a document. Ssic’s are required on all navy and marine corps messages. The use of ssic’s provides a tested method for filing correspondence documents consistently and retrieving them quickly. There are 14 ssic groups dealing with particular subjects. Such as the 1000 series deals with personnel matters.
76. explain following message components, subject line?
-the main topic of the message is listed here. These are always written in capital letters.
77. explain following message components, passing instructions?
navy automated message processing system relay for the most part on certain elements at the beginning of the text such as flag words, codeword, subject lines, and outgoing or incoming message references. These guides assist in the automatic internal routing of messages.
78. explain following message components, reference line?
- an alternative to repeating lengthy reference materials within the text of message e.g. as per reference (a) note: referencees are always lettered
79. explain following message components, amplifying information line?
- used to amplify or supplement the data text
80. narrative information line?
- used to provide amplifying info which pertains to the data text
81. explain following message components, text?
- that part of message known as body or part that contains the thought or idea the drafter wished to communicate, the reason for message.
82. explain part of service record, page 2?
- record of emergency contact data and for benifiary data
83. explain part of service record, page 4?
- enlisted qualification history, a chronological history of occupational and training related quals, awards and commendations
84. explain part of service record, page 13?
- administrative remarks list of significant and miscellaneous entries which aren’t provided for elsewhere where detailed info may be required to clarify entries elsewhere in serviced record
85. explain the contents of enlisted destitution verification report (EDVR)?
- monthly statement of an activities enlisted personnel.
- Lists all individuals assigned and a summary of present and future manning status
- Used by cmc and detailers
- Give name, rate, date assigned and nec’s etc
86. explain use of a report and disposition of offence (navpers form 1626/7) ?
- court memorandum, page 7 of enlisted service record
- used to record court martial and nonjuditial punishment which affect pay
87. explain operational report (OPREP)?
- used by any unit to provide the national command authorities (NCA) and appropriate naval commanders with immediate notification of any accidental or unauthorized incident involving a possible detonation of a nuclear weapon which could create the risk of nuclear war, message has highest precedence
88. explain movement report (MOVEREP)?
- source of location info for ships
- -task is to account for all ships and command movement
89. explain logistics requirements (LOGREG)
submitted by ship prior to entering a port to notify proper commands of its logistics requirements in that port
90. explain status of equipment and training support (SORTS)?
reports the ships status of conditions of readiness in all warfare areas in our ability to conduct operations
92. explain situation report (sitrep)?
- used by a co or other commander to provide higher authority with any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special incident reporting criteria e.g. robbery, abuse etc
93. what does NAMP stand for?
- Naval Aviation Maintance Program
94. explain NAMP?
- helps to standardize operations of any naval command
- CNO is in charge of NAMP
- Found in OPNAV 4790.2
- Deals with aviation maintance
95. how many volumes are in NAMP?
96. explain NAMP vol 1?
- concepts, policies, organization, maintance support procedures, and organizational and intermediate level maintance
97. explain NAMP vol 2?
- depot level maintance
98. explain NAMP vol 3?
- maintance data systems (MDS)
99. explain NAMP vol 4?
- aviation 3M data processing requirements
1.explain NAMP VOL 5?
- standard operating procedures
2. how many levels of aviation maintance are there?
- 3 organizational, intermediate, depot
3. what is organizational level maintance?
- maintance performed by operating unit on day by day basis, work that the squadron itself does for itself
4. what is intermediate level maintance?
- maintance which is responsibility of and performed by AIMD and other designated maintance commands/activates
5. what is depot level maintanance?
- maintance performed at naval aviation industrial establishments, do overhaul maintance.
6. what is responsibility of maintance officer (MO)?
- responsible for accomplishment of department mission
- overhaul person in charge of all maintance
7. responsibility of aircraft maintance officer ?
- assistant head of maintance department
- -assists MO
8. responsibility of Maintance/Material control officer (MMCO) ?
- - responsible for overall production and material support of the department.
9. responsibility of Material control officer?
- will be a supply corps officer
- responsible for tool control program
- in charge of BOSS III program (where navy cuts costs by improving reliability of in weapons or support sys)
10. what is mission of maintance/production control?
- strives to maintain full mission capable aircraft
11. mission of maintance administration division?
- provides all admin functions of maintance dept
12. what is scheduled maintance?
- periodic prescribed inspections/servicing of equipment done on hours, mileage etc basis.
13. what is unscheduled maintance?
- maintance on discrepancies and problems found during operations, e.g. troubleshooting, repair etc
14. what is purpose of a DAILY inspection?
- inspects for defects to a greater depth then turnaround/post flight inspections
- valid for 72 hrs (as long as it doesn’t fly and no maintance other then servicing is performed)
- planes can fly for 24 hrs without another daily
15. what is purpose of a TURNAROUND inspection?
- conducted b/w flights to ensure plane is okay b/w flights
- good for 24 hrs
16. purpose of SPECIAL inspection?
- inspection w/ a prescribed interval other then daily, calendar or phase, e.g. 14 day, 2000 landing etc
- intervals assigned in periodic maintance information card deck (PMIC)
17. what is CONDITIONAL inspection?
- when unscheduled conditions require an inspection e.g. fod damage, lighting strike, hit bird etc
18. purpose of PHASE inspection?
Divides total number of scheduled maintance requirements into smaller packages or phases of the same work content.
what is ACCEPTANCE inspection?
- performed when CO gets a new plane form any source and on return of plane from depot level maintace, includes inventory etc
20. what is TRANSFER inventory?
- performed at time the CO transfers a plane or SE equipment includes inventory, inspection etc.
- depot level eval of planes general material condition
- performed by certified ASPA evaluators includes inspection and going over logs etc
22. What’s purpose of Function Check Flight (FCF)?
- used to determine if plane, engine, equipment etc. are working as they should, if its up to standards
- done at end of depot maintance, after acceptance, any time plane hasn’t flown for more then 30 day etc.
23. what is purpose of weight and balance program ?
- provides standard sys of field weight and balance control.
- Also gives max operating etc
. State purpose of the aircraft logbook.
contains history of the aircraft
Who is authorized to sign aircraft logbook entries?
anyone designated in writing by the commanding officer.
-following personnel are authorized to sign aircraft logbooks and records:
1. Commanding Officer
2. 2. O-level
3. 3. I-level
4. D-level Director of Operations
5. OMD Officer
Who is authorized to release aircraft safe for flight?
-Maintenance Officer, Maintenance Material Control Officer, or maintenance control officer.
-Other persons if designated in writing by CO
a. Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRC) :
-Provides instructions for scheduled maintenance tasks.
-contains tasks related to a particular system, subsystem, area, or component using logical sequence for accomplishment. Identifies recommended rating of person to perform maintenance, performance time, and work area or zone involved. Lists what support equipment is needed, consumables, replacement parts, and assistance requirements for task performance.
Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (PIMC)
identify scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals.
-contain component or assembly removal and replacement, airframe structural life limits, maintenance requirements system indexes such as MRCs, conditional inspections, phase change inplementation cards, etc.
a. Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)
-contains illustrations and part numbers for all parts of the aircraft or equipment on which it is issued. IPB contains information required for ordering parts, and identifying parts and arrangements of parts in assemblies.
a. Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)
-contains illustrations and part numbers for all parts of the aircraft or equipment on which it is issued. IPB contains information required for ordering parts, and identifying parts and arrangements of parts in assemblies.
b. Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIM)
-contains instructions of "O" and "I" level maintenance and servicing of a specific model aircraft. Identifies each maintenance task to the responsible maintenance level.
. Discuss Workcenter Supervisor's responsibilites.
-Primary job of W/C supervisor is hour-by-hour maintenance situation.
-requires constant communication between work center and Maintenance Control.
-keep Maintenance Control constantly notified.
Define concept of Quality Assurance (QA).
concept of QA is of the prevention of the occurrence of defects.
a. Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)
-when performing inspections, are considered to be direct representative of the CO for ensureing safety of flight of item concerned.
-certify that the work involve has been personally inspected by them, it has been properly completed, and is in accordance with current instructions and directives.
b. Collateral Duty QAR (CDQAR)
-assigned on a temporary or permanent basis in accordance with OPNAV 4790.2 series
-Termorary CDQARs may be assigned when temporary severe shortages of skills will not support the assignment of a QAR in one of the billets or to relieve QARs during short periods of absence.
-Permanent CDQARs may be assigned for Aircrew Personal Protective or Survival Equipment billet, and Armament billet when the activity has a minimal ordnance delivery in the assigned mission, for Egress/Environmental Systems when the activity does not have ejection seats, to supplement multiple work shifts, and on certain detachments or activities with 4 or less planes.
c. Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI)
-assigned to production work centers to inspect all work and comply with the QA inspections .
-are monitored by QA and QA will establish minimum qualifications for personnel selected for CDI. They are given a written or oral exam.
.Explain purpose of following QA audits.
a. Special
-conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs. Maintained copies of audits are held for one year.
b. Quarterly/work center
-conducted quarterly to evaluate the overall performance of each work center.
-all areas of work center are evaluated including personnel, monitored and managed programs, logs and records, licenses, etc.
Discuss the two functions of the Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL).
QA manages the CTPL program.
-function includes the determination of technical manuals required to support the maintenance organization, receipt and distribution control of manuals, and for ensuring manuals are updated throughout the maintenance organization.
-Internal control and distribution of the NAMP is a responsibility of the CTPL.
Discuss the elements of a successful Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Program.
-FOD prevention program identifies, corrects, and eliminates causal factors whicha are a command responsibilty and must be a part of the maintenance program.
-QA monitors the FOD program.
State the primary objective of the Tool Control Program.
-provides a means to rapidly account for all tools after completing a maintenance task.
. Explain the purpose of: Fuel Surveillance.
Free water and foreign contaminants constitute a hazard.
-Fuel samples will be monitored and sampled.
-QA monitors.
Explain the purpose of: Navy Oil Analysis.
- - a diagnostic technique to monitor aeronautical equipment wihtout removal or extensive dissembly.
- - QA ensures samples are taken from engines and accessories at intervals established in appropriate MRCs and MIMs.
c. Explain the purpose of Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO) Surveillance
all persons in ABO program will be familiar with the characteristics of ABO, Liquid Oxygen (LOX), and gaseous hazards.
-The handling of LOX or gaseous oxygen will be preformed by 2 or more qualified persons.
d. Explain the purpose of Hydraulic Contamination Control.
-achieve and maintain a level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems.
e. Explain the purpose of Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety.
-persons handling tires and wheels will be properly trained and aware of safety hazards.
State the purpose of the Maintenance Training Improvement Program (MTIP).
-training management system which evaluates the technical knowledge levels of aviation technicians.
Explain the purpose of the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP).
-provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work.
-prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month.
Discuss the importance of the Electro-Static Discharge (ESD) Program
-ESD is the transfer of electrostatic charge between objects at different potentials caused by direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field.
-ESD program provides protected areas for material, equipment, and procedures required to control and minimize electrostatic discharges.
-protected areas are required when handling ESD parts, assemblies, and equipment outsied of their ESD protective covering or packaging.
1. What requirements of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP) are satisfied by the organizational maintenance activity's NALCOMIS?
-improve mission capability, improve aircraft maintenance and supply support.
-improve upline reporting to satisfy Department of Defense program requirements, and modernize magagement support.
2. What requirements of the NAMP are satisfied by the intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS?
-provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review, and report info required by the organization.a
maintance nalcomis subsytem
collects and processes maintenance related data and provides data to other subsystems on the data base.
b. Flight nalcomis subsytem
collects and processes flight related data.
c. Logs/records nalcomis subsytem
-Establishes and maintains configuration profiles for engines, aircraft, and any Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) records.
personel nalcomis substem?
-Reserved for future use. Can be used to monitor qualifications.
assets nalcomis subsystem
-processes inventory and inspection criteria for support equipment and Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS).
data system nalcomis substem?
approves or disapproves Maintenance Action Forms (MAF's), Naval Flight Records (NAVFLIRS), for upline submission.
reports nalcomis subsystem?
-Selects and produces various reports.
h. Ad hoc query nalcomis subsytem?
Creates user-specific needed or requested reports.
Explain the purpose of a Maintenance Action Form (MAF) as applied to NALCOMIS documentation.
-used to document maintenance actions to on-equipment maintenance actions.
-used to document maintenance as preventative maintenance, such as corrosion prevention and treatment.
-used to document the removal/installation, and processing of a repairable component or item to an Aviation Intermediate Maintenance Department (AIMD) or On Site Storeroom (OSS).
5. 5. Explain the purpose of a Maintenance Action Form (MAF) as applied to NALCOMIS documentation.
-used to document maintenance actions to on-equipment maintenance actions.
-used to document maintenance as preventative maintenance, such as corrosion prevention and treatment.
-used to document the removal/installation, and processing of a repairable component or item to an Aviation Intermediate Maintenance Department (AIMD) or On Site Storeroom (OSS).
. Work Unit Code (WUC)on a MAF form
-identifies the system or subsystem being worked upon.
b. b. Job Control Number (JCN) on an MAF form?
a 9, 10, or 11-character code. Serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reporting (MDR) and maintenance control procedures.
Maintenance Action Form (MAF) Control Number (MCN) on MAF form?
-a 7-character alpha/numeric code assigned by the system that serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reports and maintenance control procedures. Tracks MAF's through the maintenance process.
Discrepancy block on a MAF form
A narrative description of a reported discrepancy.
Corrective action block on a MAF form
-a narrative description of the corrective action taken on a discrepancy.
When Discovered (W/D) code on a MAF form
-a single alpha-character, indicating when the need for maintenance was discovered.
Type Equipment (TYPE EQUIP) code
-Identifies the type of equipment being worked on.
. Type Maintenance (T/M) code on an MAF form
a one character alpha or numeric code used to describe the type work being performed.
What is a special Maintenance Qualification (SMQ)?
-used to screen the levels of security.
-determines which screens or parts of the NALCOMIS an individual has access to.
Discuss the security considerations that apply to an individual's NALCOMIS log in and password.
a. a. Protect your password.
b. b. Do not share, loan, or write down your password.
c. c. Proctect passwords from unauthorized viewing.
d. d. Do not leave your terminal or computer while logged in; always log off when complete
e. e. Know who the security personnel are.
1. 1. Define the term HM.
-any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.
. Define the term HW.
Any discarded material (liquid, solid, or gas) which meets the definition of HM and/or is designated as a hazardous waste by the Environmental Protection Agency or a State authority.
1. 1. Define the term HM.
-any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.
2. 2. Define the term HW.
-Any discarded material (liquid, solid, or gas) which meets the definition of HM and/or is designated as a hazardous waste by the Environmental Protection Agency or a State authority.
. Discuss HM storage and inspection requirements.
-Storage locations will be inspected weekly and quarterly, inspect for tightness of closure, corrosion, leakage, aimporper or inadequate labeling, and expired shelf-life.
4. 4. State the purpose and info contained on the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
-MSDS are technical bulletins containing info about materials, such as composition, chemical, and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use.
-they are located with the HM/HW Coordinator at Medical, Supply Officer, Work Center, and the HM container.
What are the 6 categories of HM?
a. a. Flammable or combustible materials
b. b. Toxic materials
c. c. Corrosive materials (including acids and bases)
d. d. Oxidizing materials
e. e. Aerosol containers
f. f. Compressed gases
6. 6. Explain the general procedures to be followed when a HM/HW spill is discovered.
-Because of hazardous nature of materrials used aboard ships, only trained personnel respond to a hazardous material (HM) spill.
-Personnel will be trained by divison officers or supervisory personnel to clean up small spills of HM.
-Appropriate MSDS sheets will be used to conduct training.
State the personal protection equipment required when handling HM/HW.
Eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves.
Explain the general procedures to be followed when a HM/HW spill is discovered.
a. a. Discovery
b. b. Notification
c. c. Initiation of action.
d. d. Evaluation
e. e. Containment
f. f. Damage control
g. g. Dispersion of Gases/vapors
h. h. Cleanup and decontamination
i. i. Disposal
j. j. Certification for re-entry
k. k. Follow-up reports
grease disposal?
-Oily solid materials such as contaminated rags, absorbents, and oil filters can be thrown overboard beyond 50 nautical miles off shore,.
-If within 50 nautical miles containerize for shore disposal..
-Keep petroleum lubricants separate from synthetic lubricants.
hydraulic fluid disposal?
-Keep synthetic fluids from other types of fluids.
fuel disposoal?
Keep synthetic and petroleum lubricants separate.
Hm/wm-Training will include
a. a. Types of HM in their work area and aboard ship
b. b. What HMs are and how they are disposed of .
c. c. How to read and interpret hazard warning labels.
d. d. What an MSDS is, how to read it, and where a copy is available to review. General info on HM handling, stowage, use, and disposal.
e. e. Protective measures when handling HM.
f. f. Emergency procedures.
Describe the purpose of secondary labeling of HM when removed from the original container.
Use only approved containers, ensure that existing precautionary labeling is retained and that subsequent containers are marked with appropriate precautionary labeling.
Discuss the purpose of the HM Authorized Use List (AUL).
current inventory of HM, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HM used for local acquisition and use.
State the function and responsibilities of material control.
-to provide material support to their cognizant organizations and coordinate indirect material requirements to ensure the material ordered is the material required and delivered to the work centers.
Material control shall:
a. a. establish delivery/pickup points for material ordered.
b. b. Maintain liaison with the supporting ASD on maintenance material matters to ensure the material needs of the organization are satisfied.
c. c. Prepare documents for material required for operational support, for example, aviation fuel, lube oil, flight clothing, and material carried in service market outlets.
d. d. Furnish info to the Supply activity on the identity and quantity of material.
e. e. Establish procedures to ensure proper operation of tool rooms and the performance of tool inventories.
f. f. Ensure surveys are prepared in the event of loss, damage, or destruction of accountable material.
g. g. Perform memorandum OPTAR funding, accounting, charting, and budgeting of costs. A separate material control register is maintained for each OPTAR held.
h. h. Maintain adequate accountability of material and equipment on custody.
i. i. Maintain inventory control of authorized allowances of material listed in the IMRL and authorized allowance lists.
j. j. Validate NMCS/PMCS requisitions daily and maintain (by aircraft BUNO) current NMCS/PMCS status records.
k. k. Perform an inventory of aircraft, with technical assistance, upon receipt or transfer to ensure inventory log entries are made, and inventory shortage listings are prepared and forwarded to Maintenance Control for inclusion in the AIR.
Define the acronym MILSTRIP and state its purpose.
-Military Standart Requistioning and Issue Procedure - A uniform procedure established by DOD for its own use to govern requistion and issue of material within standard priorties.
Define and explain: ICRL (Individual Component Repair List)
- - A detailed statement of IMA's component repair capability that contains existing repair capability data on items previously processed by the IMA. It also identifies items that re capable of repair or for which future repair is not planned.
Define and explain: CRIPL (Consolidated Remain-In-Place List)
- - A listing of all authorized remain in place items which is published by NAVICP and approved by the TYCOMs and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM.
Define and explain: NMCS (Not Mission Capable Supply)
- - Material condition of and aircraft that is not capable of preforming any of its mission because maintenance required to correct the discrepancy cannot continue due to a supply shortage.
Define and explain: PMCS (Partial Mission Capable Supply)
- - Material condition of and aircraft that can perform at least one but not all of its mission because maintenance required to correct the discrepancy cannot continue due to a supply shortage.
Define and explain: NSN (National Stock Number)
A 13 digit stock number assigned by the Defense Logistics Services Center (DLSC) to identify an item of material in the supply distribution system. It consists of a four digit federal supply classification (FSC), and a nine digit national item identification number (NIIN).
Define and explain: AVDLR (Aviation Depot Level Repair)
- - AVDLRs are financed by the NWCF. Under this process, the end user finances the D-level repair and procurement of 7R COG repairables through the local replenishment of these repairables to replace BCMd, lost, or missing components. Although the squadron usually initiates repairable demands, the IMA has primary control over whether these transactions would result in an AVDLR NWCF charge. Thus, the IMA or station will retain control of the AVDLR replenishment OPTAR and corresponding accounting responsibilites.
Define and explain: AWP (Awaiting Parts)
nd explain: AWP (Awaiting Parts)
- - The condition that exists when materials required to complete a maintenance action are not abailable on station/ship. AWP is that time when no work can be performed on the item being repaired due to a lack of ordered parts. Parts are not considered to be ordered until the demand has been forwarded to the Supplu Response Section of the Supply Department. The time when QWP sccurred and the length of time it lasted is recored in the Maintenance/Supply Record Sectionl Items which cause AWP during on-equipment work are identified in the Removed/Old Item Section. Items which cause AWP during off-equipment work are identified in the (H-Z) Failed/Required Material Section.
Define and explain: IMRL (Individual Material Readiness List)
- - A consolidated list that shows items and quantities of certain SE required for material readiness of the aircraft ground activity to which the list applies.
Define and explain: AIR (Aircraft Inventory Records)
- - AIR is used to establish a formal, continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment and material installed on or designated for use on any aircraft of a specified T/M/S. An AIR is applicable to all aircraft of a specified T/M/S and lists selected material and equipment accountable by all Navy or Marine Corps organizations that are assigned or physicaly possess operational aircraft.
Define and explain: EXREP (Expeditious Records)
-The processing for repair of NIS or NC components (repairable or consumable) which must be in support of, related to, an NMCS or PMCS situation.
6. 6. Explain the importance of the aeronautical allowance lists in relation to mission sustainability.
Lists of equipment and material determined from known or estimated requirements as necessary to place and maintain aeronautical activities in a material readiness condition. In the case of aerological and photographic material, the requirement is extended to all applicable naval activities.
. State the purpose of: Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form 200)
- - A form used to document the report of survey and certify the survey process when government property is lost, damaged, or destroyed. This form is the official document to support establishment of debts, relief from accountability, and adjustment to accountable records for Supply System Stock and Property Book Material.
State the purpose of: Missing/Lost/Stolen Report
-Reports of missing, lost or stolen items are made by a completed copy of a Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form 200) or Report of Discrepancy (ROD) (SF Form 364).
. What is a flight packet used for?
- Supply officers or Material Control officers of aviation activities responsible for flight packets for issue to pilots making extended flight.
- - Flight packets contain instructions to assist pilots of aircraft involved in extended flights to obtain material or services which may be necessary for the continuation of a flight.