Eaws

Front 1

Describe the term inertia?

Back 1

Inertia is the willingness of an object to remain at rest or to continue in motion unless acted upon by an outside force.

Front 2

describe the term acceleration?

Back 2

the rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time.

. if our ship is moving at 10 knots is moving at 18 knots one hour from now and 21 knots 2 hours from now it si said to be accelerationg at a rate of 3 knots per hour.

Front 3

what is the term speed?

Back 3

the rate of movement or motion in a given amt of time. speed is the term used when only the rate of movement is meant. if the rate of movement of a ship is 14 knots we say its speed is 14 knotsper hour.

Front 4

what is velocity?

Back 4

velocity is the quickness or speed of an object in a given time, such as mph

Front 5

107 aviation

Define newtons first law?

Back 5

According to newtons 1st law of motion (inertia), an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will continue in motion unless acted on by an outside force.

Front 6

107 avaiation

define newtons second law?

Back 6

2nd law of motion is FORCEm states that if an object moving at a uniform speed is acted on by an external force the change in motion will be directly proportional to amt of forece and inversely proportional to mass of object being moved.

Front 7

107 avaiation

define newtons 3rd law?

Back 7

3rd law is ACTION AND REACTION states that for every action there is an obisite and equal rection.

Front 8

107 avaiation

what is bernoullis prioncipal?

Back 8

states that when a fluid is flowing through a tube reaches a narrowing of tube the speed of the fluid passing through the narrowing is increased and pressure is decreased.

Front 9

107 avaiation

what is a wind warning and its effect on aviation?

Back 9

1 knot = 1.1 mph
adequet and timely weather/wind warning coupled w/ prompt effective action by commanders concerned will minimize loss and damage.
1)small craft -harbor and inland waters warning for winds, 33knots of less of concern to small craft.
2)gale- warning for harbour,inland waters and ocean areas for winds of 34-47 knots.
3) storm warning for harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas, for winds of 48 knots of greater.

Front 10

107 aviation

discuss thunderstorm/tornado warnings?

Back 10

tunderstorms are small scale storms, produced by a cumulonimbus cloud and accompanied by lightning/thunder.
a tornado is a violently rotating column of air usually in form of funnel, very violent/destructive, its winds can reach 100-250 knots.
1)thunderstorm warning- thunrderstaomr is within 3miles of airfield
2) severe thunderstorm warning- thunderstorms with wind gusts to 50 knots or greater and hailof 3/4 or greater in diameter.
3) tornado warning- tornador hhave been detected by radar or have strong potential to develop.

Front 11

107 aviation
describe lift?

Back 11

the force that acts, in an upward direction, to support aircraft in air, it conteracts effects of weight, lift must be greater or equal to weight for plane to get off ground.

Front 12

107 aviation
describe weight?

Back 12

the force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft

Front 13

107 aviation
describe drag?

Back 13

. the force that tends to hold the aircraft back.
. caused by a disruption in air about the winds, fusealauge, or body

Front 14

107 aviation
describe longitudinal axis?

Back 14

. an imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and the tail. the axis about which roll occours.

Front 15

107 aviation

describe lateral axis?

Back 15

. an imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings and about which pitch occours.

Front 16

107 aviation

describe vertical axis?

Back 16

- an imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of aircraft. the movement associated w/ this axis is yaw.

Front 17

107 aviation

What is pitch?

Back 17

pitch is the movement of aircraft about its lateral axis. the up and down motion of the nose of the aircraft.

Front 18

107 aviation

what is Yaw?

Back 18

Yaw is the movement of the aircraft about its vertical axis. The drift, or right or left moveemtn of the nose of the aircraft.

Front 19

107 aviation

What is Roll?

Back 19

Roll is the movement of the aircraft about its longitudinal axis. The movement of the wing tips; oneup and the other down.

Front 20

107 aviation

What is purpos of the primary flight controls for FIXED WING AIRCRAFT?

Back 20

1) Later control (elevator)
2) Longitudinal control (AILERON)
3) Directional Control (RUDDER)

Front 21

107 aviation

State the purpose of the primary flight controls for Rotary Wing Aircraft?

Back 21

1) Cyclic Pitch
2) collective pitch
3) rotary rudder

Front 22

107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; the flap?

Back 22

- gives aircraft extra lift.

- purpose to reduce landing speed, thereby shortening length of the landing rollout.
- serves to reduce the length of the takeoff run.

Front 23

107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; spoiler?

Back 23

-used to decrease wing lift

Front 24

107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; speed brakes?

Back 24

hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing speed of aircraft

- also used to reduce speed of plane before landing

Front 25

107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; slats?

Back 25

- slats are moveable control surfaces attatche dto the leading edge of the wing.
- at low airspeeds it improves the lateral control handling characteristics, allowing the aircraft to be controlled at airspeedsbelow the normal landing speeds. this is known as boundry layer control, boundry layer control is intended primaryaly for use during operations from carriers that is catapult takeoffs and arrested landings.

Front 26

107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; horizontal stabilizer?

Back 26

provides stability of aircraft about its lateral axis. this is longitudinal stability. serves as base to which elevators are attatched.

Front 27

107 aviation

State purpose of the following flight control surfaces; tail rotor?

Back 27

- mounted vertically on outer portion of helicopters tail section. the tail rotor counteracts the torque action of the main rotor by producing thrust in opposite direction. the tail rotor also controls the yawing action of the helicopter.

Front 28

107 aviation

Explain the term angle of attack?

Back 28

- the angle at which a body, such as airfoil or fusealage, meets a flow of air.

Front 29

107 aviation

Explain the term autorotation?

Back 29

a method of aloowing a helicopter to land saftely from altitude without using engine power by making use of the reversed airflow up through the rotor system to reduce the rate of descent.

Front 30

107 aviation

state the component sof a basic hydraulic system?

Back 30

1. a resivoir to hold a supply of hydraulic fluid
2. a pump to provide a flow of fluid
3. tubing to transmit the system
4. a selector valve to direct the flow of fluid
5. an acctuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful work.

Front 31

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HC ?

Back 31

- HC = helicopter combat support

Front 32

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HCS ?

Back 32

- hcs= helicopter combat support special squadron

Front 33

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HM ?

Back 33

-HM = helicopter mine countermeasure

Front 34

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HS ?

Back 34

- HS = helicopter antisubmarine

Front 35

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HSL ?

Back 35

- HSL = helicopter antisub light

Front 36

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, HT ?

Back 36

- HT = helicopter training

Front 37

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VAQ?

Back 37

- VAQ= tactical electronic warfare

Front 38

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VAW?

Back 38

- VAW = carrier airborne early warning

Front 39

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VC ?

Back 39

- VC = fleet composite

Front 40

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VF ?

Back 40

- VF = fighter

Front 41

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VFA ?

Back 41

- VFA = strike fighter

Front 42

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VMFA ?

Back 42

- VMFA = marine fighter attack

Front 43

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VP ?

Back 43

- VP = patrol

Front 44

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VQ ?

Back 44

- VQ = fleet air reconisance

Front 45

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VR ?

Back 45

- VR = aircraft logistics support

Front 46

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VR ?

Back 46

- VR = aircraft logistics support

Front 47

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VRC ?

Back 47

- VRC = carrier logistics suport

Front 48

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VS ?

Back 48

- VS = carrier antisub warfare

Front 49

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VT ?

Back 49

- VT = training

Front 50

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VX/VXE ?

Back 50

- VX/VXE = air test and evaluation

Front 51

109 naval aircraft

what is primary mission of the aircraft community, VXE ?

Back 51

- VXE = antartic development

Front 52

109 naval aircraft

what is a AV-8?

Back 52

- AV-8 harrier it is a fighter attack

Front 53

109 naval aircraft

what is a c-130 ?

Back 53

- a c-130 hercules is logistics support
- workhorse of the millitary
-people/cargo hauler

Front 54

109 naval aircraft

what is a c-2 greyhound?

Back 54

-provides critical ligistics supposrt to carriers
-primary mission is carrier delivery
-carriers cargo/passengers

Front 55

109 naval aircraft

what is a c-20 gulfstream?

Back 55

- used for logistics support

Front 56

109 naval aircraft

what is c-9 skytrain?

Back 56

- used for logistics support
-cargo/passenger plane
-medvac, cargo carrier, spec missions etc

Front 57

109 naval aircraft

what is a EA-6B prowler?

Back 57

- tactical electronic warfare

Front 58

109 naval aircraft

what is ea-6b prowler?

Back 58

-tactical electronic warfare
- provides an umbrella of protection over strike aircraft, ground troops, and ships
-primary mission = to support aircraft and troops by interupting electronic activity and obtaining electronic intel

Front 59

109 naval aircraft

what is a E-2 hawkeye?

Back 59

- airborne early warning

Front 60

109 naval aircraft

what is a c-12 huron?

Back 60

-logistics support
-carring cargo/passengers

Front 61

109 naval aircraft

what is e-6 mercury?

Back 61

- fleet air reconisnance
-communications relay and strategic airborne command post aircraft

Front 62

109 naval aircraft

what is F/A-18 hornet?

Back 62

- all weather fighter and attack plane

Front 63

109 naval aircraft

what is f-14 tomcat ?

Back 63

-fighter
-primary msiision is air superiority, fleet air defence, and precision strike against ground target

Front 64

109 naval aircraft

what is an H-2 seasprite?

Back 64

-helicopter anti sub light

Front 65

109 naval aircraft

what is an H-3 sea king?

Back 65

- helicopter antisub
- replaced by sh-60f sea hawk helicopters
- -remaing sea kings have been configured for logistical support

Front 66

109 naval aircraft

what is H-46 sea knight?

Back 66

- helicopter combat support
-medium lift assault helicopter
-used to move cargo/troops (shipboard delivery of cargo and people)

Front 67

109 naval aircraft

what is H-53 sea stallion?

Back 67

-helicopter mine countermeasures
-medium lift helo designed to transport prersonel, supplies and equipment is support of amphib and shore ops.

Front 68

109 naval aircraft

what is SH-60B seahawk?

Back 68

- helicoptrer antisub light

Front 69

109 naval aircraft

what os SH-60f oceanhawk?

Back 69

-helicopter antisub light

Front 70

109 naval aircraft

what is HH-60H seahawk?

Back 70

- helicopter antisub light

Front 71

109 naval aircraft

what is an S-3 Viking?

Back 71

- carrier antisub warfare

Front 72

109 naval aircraft

what is TA-4 sky hawk?

Back 72

- training

Front 73

109 naval aircraft

what is a T-45 Goshawk?

Back 73

training

Front 74

109 naval aircraft

what is a UH-1N iriqouis?

Back 74

-helicopter combat support

Front 75

109 naval aircraft

what is T-34C Turbomentor?

Back 75

-training
- used to give flight traing to student pilots
-also usede for pilot proficiency tests

Front 76

109 naval aircraft

what is a T-44 pegasus?

Back 76

- training

Front 77

109 naval aircraft

what is F-5 tiger?

Back 77

-fighter

Front 78

109 naval aircraft

what os AH-1 Cobra?

Back 78

-helicopter combat support

Front 79

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AE?

Back 79

- AE = ammunition ship
- operate w/ replenishment groups to deliver ammo and missles to ships at sea

Front 80

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AO?

Back 80

- Oilers

Front 81

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AO?

Back 81

- AO = oiler
- carry fuel, jet fuel, and other petroleum protucts
- operate w/ replenishment ships

Front 82

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AOE?

Back 82

- AOE - ammunition support ships

Front 83

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the AOE ?

Back 83

- most powerful auxillarly ship in the navy.
- AOE ships carry missles, fule, ammunition and general cargo.

Front 84

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the CG?

Back 84

- CG= Guided missle cruiser
- provide protection agaianst surface and air attacks and gunfire support for land operations.

Front 85

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the CV/CVN?

Back 85

-CV/CVN? = carrier/nuclear powered carrier

-carriers are designed to carry, launch, retrieve and handle combat aircraft quickly and efficently.
- it can approach the enemy at high speed, launch planes, recover them, and retire before position is determined.

Front 86

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the DD/DDG?

Back 86

-DD/DDG = Destroyer/guided missle destroyer
-multipurpose ships used in any kind of naval operation
-fast ships with lots of weapons and little or no armor

Front 87

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the FFG?

Back 87

-FFG = guided missle frigates
- frigates are used for open ocean escort and patrol
-look like destroyers but slower w/ less weapons

Front 88

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LCC?

Back 88

- LCC = amphibious command ships
- provides command and control post and comm facility for various commanders and staff.
-also can serve as command ship for an ampibious task force.

Front 89

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LHA?

Back 89

-LHA - amphibious assault ship
- able to empark, deploy and land a marine battalion
- combine lpd, lka, lph, and lsd in a single ship

Front 90

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LHD?

Back 90

- LHD = amphibious warfare ship
- desinged as amphib assault ship but can convert to anti sub ship

Front 91

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LPD?

Back 91

- LPD = amphibious transport dock
- can tranport troops and equipment in same ship
- combines features of LSD and LPH

Front 92

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LPH?

Back 92

- LPH = amphibious assault ship
- transport, land 1800 troops and their equipment via transporrt helos w/ a beach assaultk

Front 93

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the LSD?

Back 93

- LSD = dock landing ship
- can transport and launch a variety of loaded amphibious craft and vehicles
- limited docking and repair to small ships and crafts, can refeul helos

Front 94

110 Aviation capable ships

what is mission of the MCS?

Back 94

-MCS = mine countermeasure ship
- only one the USS Inchon

Front 95

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an AD ?

Back 95

AD = destroyer tender

Front 96

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an AFS?

Back 96

AFS = combat stores ship

Front 97

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an ATF?

Back 97

ATF= fleet ocean tugs

Front 98

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an ARS?

Back 98

ARS= rescue and salvage ship

Front 99

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an ASR?

Back 99

ASR= submarine rescue ship

Front 100

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an AR?

Back 100

AR= repair ship

Front 101

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an AS ?

Back 101

AS= sub tender

Front 102

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an MCM ?

Back 102

MCM = mine countermeasure ship

Front 103

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an MHC ?

Back 103

MHC = coastal mine hunters

Front 104

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an PC ?

Back 104

PC = patrol craft

Front 105

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an SSBN ?

Back 105

SSBN = balistic missle submarine (nuke prupolsion)

Front 106

111 other ships and subs

what is mission of an SSN ?

Back 106

SSN = sub (nuke propolsion)

Front 107

112 CBR Fundamentals

explain Chemical warfare?

Back 107

- intentional use of lethal and nonlethal chemical agents to produce caualties;harrass, or temp incapacitate and demoralize personel.
- or contamine or destory areas or equipment

Front 108

112 CBR Fundamentals

explain biological warfare?

Back 108

intentional use of living organisms to disable/destroy people or their domestic animals or crops

Front 109

112 CBR Fundamentals

explain radiological warfare?

Back 109

-radiological warfare is the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce injury and death

Front 110

112 CBR Fundamentals

explain MCU-2/P protective mask ?

Back 110

the gas mask is most important piece of equipment against cbr agents.
-protects eyes, nose, throat, and lungs

Front 111

112 CBR Fundamentals

explain chemical protective overgarment?

Back 111

- treated w/ chemicals that neutralize blister agent vapors and sprays, but dont stop penetration by liquid agents.
-has pants, juper w/ hood, gloves, and foot coverings.

Front 112

112 CBR Fundamentals

explain wet-weather clothing?

Back 112

-worn over other types of clothes, protects clothes and skin from penetration by liquid agents and radioactive particles.
-includes parka, trousers, boots, and gloves

Front 113

112 CBR Fundamentals

explain Atropine/ 2pan chloride (oxime) autoinjector?

Back 113

- used for specific therapy for nerve agent casualties.

Front 114

112 CBR Fundamentals

explain IM-143 pocket dosimeter?

Back 114

-self reading pocket dosimeter is size of pen
-measures exposure to radiation over a period of time, not dose rates at any given time

Front 115

112 CBR Fundamentals

explain DT-60 personal dosimeter?

Back 115

-non self reading, high range casualty dosimeter, must be placed in a special rediac computer to determine total amt of gamma radiation.

Front 116

112 CBR Fundamentals

list 4 types of chemical casualty agents and their physical symptoms?

Back 116

1. chocking agent
2. nerve agent
3. blood agent
4. blister agent

Front 117

112 CBR Fundamentals

describe the nuclear explosion, high altitude air burst?

Back 117

-POINT OF DETONATION IS ABOVE 100,000 FT.
-causes widespread disturbances in ionosphere, which effects the propogation of radio waves and similar electromagnetic radiations of relatively long wavelengths (EMP)

Front 118

112 CBR Fundamentals

describe the nuclear explosion, air burst?

Back 118

- an airburst is one in which the fireball doesnt touch the earths surface
-all material within the fireball is vaporized.
- fallout from low altitude airburst presents a greater hazard because the heavy particles of debris picked up from the surface settle rapidlt and are highly radioactive.

Front 119

112 CBR Fundamentals

describe the nuclear explosion, surface burst?

Back 119

-PRODUCES WORST FALLOUT
- fireball touches ground
-vast amount surface material is vaporizzed or returned to earth as radioactive fallout

Front 120

112 CBR fundamentals

explain the nuclear explosion, shallow underwater burst?

Back 120

-fireball is formed but is small and usually not visible
-creates large bubble that when rises to surface expels gas, steam and debris with great force.
-creates high waves and shock waves

Front 121

112 CBR fundamentals

explain the nuclear explosion, deep underwater burst?

Back 121

- produce same effects as shallow burst but w/ more of the imapcts absorbed by the deep ocean currents.
-more contaminated water

Front 122

112 CBR fundamentals

describe the effect of nuclear explosion, BLAST ?

Back 122

- injuries by blast can be divided into primary injuries and secondary injuries
-primary injuries result from direct action of the air shock wave on body
-seconday injuries caused by, collapsing buildings and debris etc

Front 123

112 CBR fundamentals

describe the effect of nuclear explosion, flash burn/blindness?

Back 123

-burns caused by a nuclear explosion are primary and secondary
-primary burns are a direct result of thermal radiation from bomb.
- secondary burns are result of fires caused by explosion
-flahs burns will occour on a large scale as a result of an air or surface burst of a nuclear weapon.
-intense flash of light from bomb may cause temp flash blindness

Front 124

112 CBR fundamentals

describe the effect of nuclear explosion, radiation?

Back 124

- radiation hazards are alpha and beta particles, gamma and neutron radiation.

Front 125

112 CBR fundamentals

describe the effect of nuclear explosion, electromagnetic pulse (emp) ?

Back 125

produced by high altitude, air and surface bursts

Front 126

112 CBR fundamentals

explain the effect of nuclear explosion, electromagnetic pulse (EMP) ?

Back 126

-produced by high altitude air and surface bursts
-will burn out/make inactive electronic and electrical equipment
-will blow fuses and trip circuit breakers

Front 127

112 CBR fundamentals

explain the effect of nuclear explosion, blackout?

Back 127

- the loss of lights or electrical power failure during a nuclear attack

Front 128

112 CBR fundamentals

define/discuss mission oriented protective posture (MOPP)

Back 128

-defines the amount of protective CBR gear to wear or have readily available.

Front 129

112 CBR fundamentals

describe MOPP 1 ?

Back 129

- gas masks are issued to all hands and are kept at battle station.
-inventory of stowed chem/biological equipment

Front 130

112 CBR fundamentals

define MOPP 2?

Back 130

- gas masks carried by all personell
-per position decontamination supplies at decontamination station
-set condition ZEBRA

Front 131

112 CBR fundamentals

define MOPP 3?

Back 131

- new filters on gas masks
-don chemical protective overgarnemnt smock w/ hood down, trousers, and overboots.
- stow personal decontamination kit in the mask carrier
-stow chemical protective glovrs and med supplies in jumper pocket
- go to gen quarters
- set zebra
- fill canteens
- avtivate decontamination stations and contaminiation control station CCA for operability
-post detection and monitoring teams
-post and monitor detection equipment materials in accordance w/ cbr bill.

Front 132

112 CBR fundamentals

describe MOPP 4 ?

Back 132

- don gas masks and secure hood over head and arounnd mask.
-don gloves
- initiate continuous monitoring of detection equipment
-set condition circle william (secure air vents)
-activate CMWD (washdown sys)

Front 133

113 NATOPS
what does NATOPS stand for?

Back 133

naval air training and operating procedures standerdization

Front 134

113 NATOPS

what is purpose of NATOPS?

Back 134

-is a positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps. it is issued by CNO/
-NATOPS instructions prescribe general flight and operating instructions and procedures applicable to the operation of all planes and related activities

Front 135

113 NATOPS

explain general aircraft prestart precautions?

Back 135

a. before starting an engine, the wheels shall be chocked and the parking brake set
b. where applicable intake screens shall be installed on jet aircraft
c. prior to starting jet engines, intakes and surrounding ground/deck shall be inspected for fod.
d. when an engine is started by nonpilot personale for testing and warmup purposes in planes w/ parking brakes, the plane shall be tied down
e. whenever an engine is started people w/ fire equipment will be ready and waiting

Front 136

113 NATOPS

what is meaning of term, warning?

Back 136

- an operating procedure, practice, condition etc. that may result in injury or death if not carefully followed.

Front 137

113 NATOPS

what is meaning of term, caution?

Back 137

- an operating procedure, practice etc that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed

Front 138

113 NATOPS

what is meaning of term, note>

Back 138

an operating procedure, practice, or condition that must be emphasized

Front 139

113 NATOPS

what is meaning of term, note?

Back 139

an operating procedure, practice, or condition that must be emphasized

Front 140

113 NATOPS

what is meaning of term, shall?

Back 140

means a procedure thats mandatory

Front 141

113 NATOPS

what is meaning of term, should ?

Back 141

means a procedure that is recomended

Front 142

113 NATOPS

what is meaning of term, may?

Back 142

"may" and "need not" procedure is optional

Front 143

113 NATOPS

what is meaning of term, will?

Back 143

indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requiment for application of a procedure

Front 144

113 NATOPS

what is purpose of a NATOPS evaluation?

Back 144

intended to evaluate individual and unit compliancr by observing and grading adherence to natops procedure.

Front 145

101 a/c characteristand capabilities

1. What is wingspan of p-3?

Back 145

- 99’8”

Front 146

2. what is length of p-3 ?

Back 146

- 116’10”

Front 147

3. what is height to top of fin (antenna) ?

Back 147

- 34’3”

Front 148

4. top of fin(antenna) to lower skin?

Back 148

- 24’4”

Front 149

5. what are all weather capabilities of p-3?

Back 149

- ice control sys on plane enable plane to perform mission under almost any condition

Front 150

6. explain the aircrew job of mission commander ?

Back 150

- responsible for all phases of mission except the maintanance condition of plane which is out of his hands

Front 151

7. explain the aircrew job of PATROL PLANE COMMANDER (PPC) ?

Back 151

- when mission commander is not assigned his duties responsibilities go to pilot in command

Front 152

8. explain the aircrew job of PATROL PLANE PILOT (PPP) ?

Back 152

- assists PPC in preparing crew for flight and in ascertaining g readiness for plane flight and plane systems.
- Pilots plane when PPC is away from his station

Front 153

9. explain the aircrew job of PATROL PLANE COPILOT (PPCP) ?

Back 153

- acts as relief pilot for PPC or PPP during long flights

Front 154

10. explain the aircrew job of FLIGHT ENGINEER ?

Back 154

- directly responsible to pilot in command
- performs exterior and interior checks
- during flight the FE will continually monitor engine and system flight station and control indicators

Front 155

11. explain the aircrew job of SECOND FLIGHT ENGINEER?

Back 155

- acts as relief to FE during long flights

Front 156

12. explain the aircrew job of TACTICAL COORDINATOR? (TACCO)

Back 156

- employs appropriate tactics/procedures to most effectively carry out planes mission
- also acts as senior navigator and is responsible for safe/accurate navigation

Front 157

13. explain the aircrew job of Navigator/communication (NAV/COMM) officer?

Back 157

- maintains accurate record of present past position etc acts as navigator
- maintains record of flight

Front 158

14. explain the aircrew job of ACOOUSTIC OPERATOR ?

Back 158

- responsible for detection, classification, and report contact info

Front 159

15. explain the aircrew job of ELECTRONICS WARFARE OPERATOR?

Back 159

- uses radar, esm, mad/sad, irds, and iff systems and subsystems to detect and analyze targets

Front 160

16. explain the aircrew job of SAFETY OF FLIGHT RADAR OPERATOR (SOFRO) ?

Back 160

- provides weather, terrain, and plane avoidance using radar and IFF systems

Front 161

17. explain the aircrew job of ORDANCEMAN ?

Back 161

- obtains mission search and kill stores required by TACCO and ensures they are properly loaded , and does system checks

Front 162

18. explain the aircrew job of ORDANCE QUALIFIED CREWMEMBER?

Back 162

- ensures mission search and kill stores required by TACCO are properly loaded

Front 163

explain the aircrew job of ASSISATANT ORDANCE QUALIFIED CREWMEMBER?

Back 163

- assists primary ordnance qualified crew member

Front 164

19. explain the aircrew job of in flight technician (IFT) ?

Back 164

- does pre flight checks on data processing system and for in flight repair of all equipment

Front 165

20. explain the aircrew job of OBSERVER?

Back 165

- an in flight crewmember qualed to perform basic safety of flight duties

Front 166

21. explain the aircrew job of RADIO OPERATOR?

Back 166

- maintains HF communications as directed by mission commander
- will request position report 10 min prior to time report is due, authenticate messages etc

Front 167

22. what’s max number of ditching stations ?

Back 167

- 23, 21 usually, on Update III aircraft ditching stations 16 and 17have been deleted

Front 168

23. purpose of engine loiter operations?

Back 168

- to extend amt of time aircraft can stay on station

Front 169

24. what’s general arrangement of p-3 plane as stated in NATOPS flight manual?

Back 169

- fuselage is pressurized from forward bulkhead of flight station to aft bulkhead in the cabin
- entrance to cabin is by way of door in port side of fuselage
- flight station is entered from cabin
- a ladder which stows in cabin can be used by personnel loading and unloading at stations where ramps aren’t avail
- emergency exit hatches are located over each wing in sides of fuselage aft of pilot side windshield panel and in the top of the flight station
- head, galley etc are located aft

Front 170

25. what is history of VP-10?

Back 170

- originally a derivate of VS-15
- vp-10 traces back to July 1, 1930 with commissioning of Patrol Bombing Squadron 10s
- in 1935 vp10 estab a world record for non-stop formation transpacific flight
- 8 out of 12 were damaged or destroyed in pearl harbor attack
- on June 1942 squadron PBY-5A identified 4 islands which helped begin greatest victory in naval aviation history

- disestablished after war on Jan 25, 1946
- reestab in JAX in march 1951
- in feb 1952 vp-10 moved to Brunswick and stated using P2-V Neptune planes
- in 1965 p-3 were delivered

Front 171

1. define RADAR?

Back 171

- radio detection and ranging\g

Front 172

2. Define IFF?

Back 172

- identification friendly or foe

Front 173

3. define ADF?

Back 173

- Automatic direction finder

Front 174

4. define TACAN?

Back 174

Tactical Air Navigation

Front 175

5. Define IRDS?

Back 175

- infrared detector system

Front 176

6. define MAD?

Back 176

- magnetic anomaly detector

Front 177

7. define ESM?

Back 177

- electronic support measures

Front 178

8. define ISAR?

Back 178

- inverse synthetic aperture radar

Front 179

9. explain importance of aircraft static dissipation system?

Back 179

- used to ensure good operation of navigation and radio communications systems during bad conditions by limiting static buildup on plane by controlling interference generated by corona
- attached at numerous points of plane area wick or wire to provide high operations
- Resistance discharge path between plane and air

Front 180

10. what is purpose of p-3 electrical power supply system as stated in NATOPS?

Back 180

- provides necessary AC and DC power for plane

Front 181

11. what are 7 primary mission areas of marine patrol aircraft (MPA) ?

Back 181

1. ASU – anti surface warfare
2. ASW- ant sub warfare
3. C2W- command and control warfare
4. CCC- command, control and communications
5. INT- intelligence
6. MIW- mine warfare
7. MOB- mobility

Front 182

12. what are 6 secondary mission of MPA’s?

Back 182

1. AAW- anti air warfare
2. FSO- fleet support operation
3. LOG- logistics
4. NCO- non combat operation
5. STK- strike
6. MOS- missions of state

Front 183

13. what is purpose of instrument training?

Back 183

- provides proficiency training for pilot and NFO’s in radio communication and navigation procedures

Front 184

14. purpose of dedicated field work (DFW)?

Back 184

- pilots can enhance skills in all phases of flight as well as maintain minimum hours of flight time
- all pilots should;
a. complete one DFW per month w/ min of 6 landing
b. complete one night DFW per quarter with minimum of 6 landing
c. complete one instructor DFW per quarter which includes a 3 engine, 2 engine etc landing

Front 185

15. purpose of NATOPS instrument eval?

Back 185

- admin by pilots and NFO’s
- NFO take written but pilots take a written evaluation which evaluates their ability to fly an instrument approach and interpret/use flight pubs

Front 186

16. what is purpose of Airways training?

Back 186

- encompasses many types of flights such as logistics flights, airlifts, sleigh rides etc
- provides proficiency training in flights under IFR flight plans and conducted along ATC controlled flight routes

Front 187

17. what is purpose of CREW TRAINING FLIGHT?

Back 187

- ensures all aircrew have all appropriate quals and training

Front 188

18. purpose of NATOPS evaluation flight?

Back 188

- an evaluauation flight in which a NATOPS instructor evaluates knowledge/proficiency of a crewmember for a specific position in aircraft.

Front 189

19. explain MAGNETIC ANOMALY DETECTION COMPENSATION (MAD COMP) CHECK

Back 189

- MAD checks designed to provide in-flight checks to validate the repair of previous MAD discrepancies and to determine need for MAD compensation

Front 190

20. explain NATOPS flight condition 1?

Back 190

- (battle) all stations manner for low altitude anti sub warfare

Front 191

21. explain NATOPS flight condition 2?

Back 191

- (surveillance/high altitude ASW operation/transit) all stations manned for routine search, patrol, high altitude ASW

Front 192

22. explain NATOPS flight condition 3?

Back 192

- (operational check) all stations manned by primary operators. Perform ICS check, obtain equipment status. Make status report to taco who reports it to pilot

Front 193

23. explain NATOPS flight condition 4?

Back 193

- (aircraft inspection) crewmembers designated by pilot in command during crew briefing leaves ditching station and inspects following.

1. Doppler well, main load center, and hydraulic service center for loose equipment, leaks, smoke, fumes etc
2. visible external surfaces of aircraft
3. visually check the weapons in bomb bay for security

Front 194

24. explain NATOPS flight condition 5?

Back 194

takeoff/landing) – all crewmembers shall take assigned ditching stations

Front 195

1. what’s purpose of search stores?

Back 195

- used for searching for and localizing a submarine target
- they are transmitter/receiver dropped into water receive sounds from water and transmit to plane

Front 196

2. explain kill stores?

Back 196

- torpedoes, mines, bombs, rockets, and guided missiles

Front 197

3. what AGM?

Back 197

air launched, surface attack guided missile

Front 198

4. what’s ATM?

Back 198

- air launched, training guided missile

Front 199

5. what’s CATM?

Back 199

- captive air launched, training missile (harpoon, maverick and slam)

Front 200

6. what’s MK-20 ?

Back 200

- (rockeye) cluster bomb unit (cbu)

Front 201

7. what’s BDU-45?

Back 201

- simulates MK-82 depth bomb for training

Front 202

8. what’s MK 80 series?

Back 202

- low drag general purpose bombs, depth bombs with fusing differences (delayed/impact)

Front 203

9. what types of air/land mines does a p-3 use?

Back 203

- mk-55 bottom mine
- mk-60 anti sub mine
- mk-62, 63, 64 quick strike mines
- mk-25
- mk-36
- mk-65 quick strike mine

Front 204

10. what’s AGM-84 harpoon?

Back 204

- all weather anti ship attack weapon

Front 205

11. what’s AGM-65F MAVERICK?

Back 205

- a laser guided rocket propelled air to ground missile

Front 206

12. what’s AGM-84E slam?

Back 206

- a standoff land attack missile.

Front 207

13. what’re the 2 torpedoes on a p-3?

Back 207

- mk-46 and mk-50

Front 208

basic types of sonobouys?

Back 208

- special purpose- e.g. bathythermograph buoy which measures the ocean temp from surface to 1000 ft. , also an ambient noise buoy which measures ambient (background) noise
- passive- underwater microphones(hydrophones) which listens to sounds in water
- active- mini sonar which ping for subs and transmit info to plane.

Front 209

what is purpose of a mk-84 signal underwater sound (sus) device?

Back 209

-SUS devices are used to signal underwater targets during ASW exercises.

Front 210

what are 3 types of deployable countermeasures?

Back 210

1. chaff- creates radar decoys or confuses radar seekers
2. flares – decoys heat seeking missiles
3. electronic jamming – jams radar

Front 211

what’s a pyrotechnic device?

Back 211

- item that produce a right light for illumination or colored lights of smoke for signaling

Front 212

what are 2 types of marine location markers?

Back 212

1. mk-25
2. mk-58

Front 213

explain bomb rack ?

Back 213

- carry, arm and release stores such as bombs and torpedoes suspended internally or externally from pylons

Front 214

explain pylon ?

Back 214

- used to suspend launchers or bombs from aircraft wings, fuselage, or bomb bay

Front 215

explain LAU-117 missile launcher?

Back 215

- AGM-65 (maverick) rack 48 tubes

Front 216

explain sonobuoy launch tubes (PSLTs)?

Back 216

- used for loading and launching internal stores 3 tubes

Front 217

1. what is IDTC?

Back 217

- inter deployment training cycle
- submitted no later then 45 days after return from deployment

Front 218

2. explain OPERATIONAL READINESS EVALUATION (ORE)?

Back 218

- used to evaluate the capability of a squadron to perform ROC assigned operational missions as set forth in existing operational orders
- the ore provides a final measure and validation of effectiveness of the wing and squadrons long range training and demploymernt plan before squadrons deploy.

Front 219

3. explain TACTICAL PROFICENCY COURSE (TPC)?

Back 219

- goal of TPC is to enhance combat aircrew performance over broad spectrum of MPA mission areas, course emphasizes crew coordination, tactical awareness and in flight standardization

Front 220

4. explain Maintanance training improvement program (MTIP) ?

Back 220

- training through NAMTRA’s and FREST schools
- purpose is to recognize training deficiencies and focus trianing efforts for maintanance personnel.

Front 221

5. explain AW training improvement program (AWTIP) ?

Back 221

- designed to measure and monitor AW training program effectiveness and streamline overall effectiveness.

Front 222

6. explain AIRCREW COORDINATION TRAINING (ACT) ?

Back 222

- training that has 7 behavior skills

1. decision making
2. assertiveness
3. mission analysis
4. communication
5. leadership
6. adaptability/flexibility
7. situational awareness

Front 223

7. explain WEAPONS SYSTEMS TRAINER (WST)?

Back 223

- SIMULATED FLIGHT TACTICAL STUFF ASK FOR EXPLAIN

Front 224

8. what is CREWQUAL?

Back 224

- crewqual events are designed to demonstrate the ability of the critical crewmembers to coordinate their efforts in order to use p-3 as a weapon
- for a CREWQUAL TO BE AWARDED 2 conditions must be met
1. all p-3 training matrix required crewmember positions for a specific CREWQUAL event must be occupied in accordance w/ current crew list
2. individual on station effectiveness (OSE) grades must be at least 85% for all required crewmembers

Front 225

9. what is CREW CURRENCY?

Back 225

- LOSS OF CURENCY IN A PARTICULAR CREQUAL RESULTS in loss of associated p-3 training matrix readiness points occors when;
1. crewqual crew reaches the p-3 training matrix defined expiration date without requalification
2. more then 2 crewmembers as defined in p-3 training matrix who participated in appropriate crew position when crewqual was awarded have left crew in accordance with the current crew list

Front 226

10. explain SQUADRON PLANNING BOART FOR TRAINING (PBFT) ?

Back 226

- to coordinate planning among all departments

Front 227

11. what’s level of readiness, T-4?

Back 227

- not combat ready
- should not be sent on operational or independent fleet exercise detachments

Front 228

12. what’s level of readiness, T-3?

Back 228

- not combat ready
- shouldn’t be sent on operational detachment
- may be sent on independent fleet exercise detachments

Front 229

13. what’s level of readiness, T-2?

Back 229

- combat ready
- may be sent on prolonged independent operational or independent fleet exercise detachments
- may be tasked for special high priority assignments
- ready for deployment

Front 230

14. what’s level of readiness, T-1?

Back 230

- has achieved the highest degree of overall training and combat readiness in accordance with the required operational capability and projected operational environment (ROC/POE)

Front 231

1. what are corrosion prone areas of p-3 plane?

Back 231

- along seams of 7075-T6 aluminum alloy structures
- in box beam skin centroid areas and around cadmium plated steel fasteners
- surfaces of actuating mechanisms
- painted surfaces that are chipped or peeled
- skin seems etc etc

Front 232

2. explain AIRCRAFT AUTOMATIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM?

Back 232

- automatic flight control and stabilization systems ease the pilots workload and provide stability at all speeds. Allows computer control of plane

Front 233

3. what is p-3 engine?

Back 233

- four T56-A-14 turboprop engines power the p-3, each engine provides 4,600 shp for takeoff

Front 234

4. what’s purpose of the constant speed propeller?

Back 234

- 5 (maj mods) 4(blades) H(shank size, type material) 60(spline) 77(minor mods)
- designed top maintain a preselected rpm automatically
- keeps turboprop engine at 100%rpm

Front 235

5. explain p-3 fueling method?

Back 235

1. center-point pressure fueling
a. the normal fueling method
b. accepts 600 gallons of fuel per min from two simultaneous pump fuel trucks
c. or 300 gallon per minute by one truck
2. overwing gravity feed
a. the center section and fuselage tank do not incorporate a gravity filter well

Front 236

6. what kind of construction used by p-3 planes?

Back 236

- all metal
- wing is a box beam compromising 2 main spars with upper and lower surfaces of integrally stiffened skins
- ribs are provided at frequent intervals to stabilize the structure and maintain contour ,
- the fuselage is of semimoncoque construction consisting of skins, stringers, longerons, and bulkheads of frames

Front 237

7. explain p-3 landing gear?

Back 237

Fully retractable tricycle type gear consisting of two main gears and a nose gear

- each gear extends down and aft so that in event of a hydraulic failure, gravity, assisted by airflow loads and a bungee spring extends the gear

Front 238

1. explain purpose of aircft cabin pressurization and air conditioning?

Back 238

- air conditioning and pressurization sys provides crew environment control and electronic equipment cooling both in flight and on ground.
- Oxygen required above 10000 ft of altitude in an unpressurized cabin
- Crew can walk around at altitudes above 10000 ft because system keeps cabin pressurized to an equivalent of an altitude less then 10000 feet

Front 239

2. what aircraft oxygen systems?

Back 239

- oxygen system designed to supply an active flight crew of 3 members for 3.5 hrs at altitude of 25000 feet
- oxygen supplied via 3 high pressure bottles through 3 regulators one for each flight crewmember
- also 7 portable oxygen bottles are stowed at the tactical crew stations giving 22 minutes of oxygen in normal conditions or 5-10 min under exertion

Front 240

1. fuselage?

Back 240

a. forward section – includes the flight station
b. midbody section – the midsection of plane
c. aft fuselage section – includes tail cone

Front 241

2. wings?

Back 241

a. center section – integral part of fuselage, consist of a box-type beam which is an assembly of the front and rear spars, top and bottom skin panels, and ribs. After the structure assembly is completed the box beam is sealed to form an auxiliary fuel tank.
b. Left wing outer panel- outer wing consist of wing flaps, leading and trailing edges, wingtips, ailerons, and engine nacelled
c. Right wing outer panel – outer wing consists of wing flaps leading and trailing edges, wingtips, ailerons, and engine nacelles

Front 242

3. tail ?

Back 242

- horizontal stabilizers – provides stability of plane about lateral axis, this is longitudinal stability. Serves as base for which elevators are attached
- vertical stabilizers- maintains stability of plane about its vertical axis this is known as directional stability

Front 243

4. flight controls/surfaces?

Back 243

a. flaps – wing flaps are the high lift fowler type, uses a combo of aft movement to increase the wing area and a drooping/downward movement to change the airfoil section, powered by combined no 1 and no 2 hydraulic systems
b. ailerons – operated by a lateral (side-by side) movement of control stick or turning of wheel, are interconnected and work simultaneously but in opposite directions from one another. As one moves down to increase lift the other moves up to increase lift on its side. This opposing action allows more lift to be produced by the wing one the wing on one side then the other. This results in a controlled movement or roll because of unequal forces on wings
c. rudder – used to move the aircraft about the vertical axis, if pilot turns rudder to right the plane turns to right and vice versa, done by pushing right or left rudder pedal
d. elevators – rising the elevators causes plane to climb , and lowering it causes It to descend., done by a control stick

Front 244

5. landing gear

Back 244

a. strut – absorbs shock that would otherwise be sustained by the airframe , navy plans use the air-oil shock strut.
b. Brakes – engine propeller combo is usually effective in stopping plane and reduces the work brakes normally do. Four multiple disk brake assemblies one for each main gear wheel are mounted on the strut side of the main gear axle
c. Wheels – either aluminum or magnesium alloy, on navy planes the wheels are either divided or demountable flange, tires are 36 ply

Front 245

1. engine

Back 245

a. power section – consists of an axial flow compressor, a combustion chamber, a multistage turbine and an exhaust section.
b. Torque meter – electronically measures the torsional deflection (twist), recorded as horsepower
c. Reduction gear system- reduces engine rpm within range of efficient propeller rpm. Large reduction necessary cause gas turbine must operate at very high rpm to produce power efficiently

Front 246

2. propeller blades

Back 246

- four bladed Hamilton standard propeller provides an efficient and flexible means of converging engine shp to thrust, consists of;
a. rotating section- compromises blades, hub, spinner, and dome which houses the pitch changing mechanisms
b. nonrotating section – consists of an oil reservoir, pressure and scavenger pumps, the governor, and control mechanism

Front 247

2. propeller blades

Back 247

5(mod#) 4 (#blades) H(shank size/type) 60(spline size) 77(minor mod#)

Front 248

3. auxiliary power unit

Back 248

- makes plane a self sustaining aircraft, made up of a turbine compressor driving a generator that is identical to the engine driven generators.

Front 249

4. fuel cells

Back 249

- four integral wing tanks and an auxiliary tank carry fuel supply for the .
- engines.
- Tank 5 = auxiliary tank, consisting of a bladder type fuselage tank connected to an integral center section tank.

Front 250

5. vents

Back 250

- the tanks are vented by float type vent valves located one in each wing tank and one in each cell of tank no 5 that prevent over pressurization and overflow or siphoning during maneuvering.

Front 251

6. fuel boost pumps

Back 251

- each wing tank is equipped with a fuel boost pump consisting of a scavenge section and a boost section. The scavenge section routes fuel into a surge box while boost section pumps fuel from surge box to engine driven pump

Front 252

7. fuel transfer pumps

Back 252

- bladder cell is equipped with two transfer pump each transfer pump consists of scavenge section and boost section. Boost section pumps fuel from fuselage from fuselage cell to any or all wing tanks. The scavenge section pumps fuel to the fuselage cell from the bottom of the center section tank. A thermal switch disconnects a transfer pump whenever the case temp of the pump exceeds 400 degrees ferignheight

Front 253

8. explosion suppressant foam

Back 253

- aircraft incorporating AFC-517 have explosion suppressant foam installed in the four integral wing tanks. The fuel cell foam is a fully reticulated fire screen designed to prevent fuel tank explosions caused by tracers or high explosive incendiary rounds, thereby igniting oxygen rich fuel vapors. The foam adheres to fuel droplets in order to deep the fuel cell cavity too fuel rich to support combustion.

Front 254

9. control panels

Back 254

- the fueling control panel located between the pressure fuel adapters, is the control center for fueling and defueling. Also the panel enables the pressure fueling valves to be checked before fueling begins. Service lights on fueling control panel will illuminate whenever the fueling panel service door is opened. An inclinometer is mounted adjacent to the panel for attitude reference when using the hydrostatic fuel quantity gauge equipment.

Front 255

10. propulsion system, POWER SECTION

Back 255

- consists of a 14-stage, axial FLOW COMPRESSOR, SIX cylinderal combustion liners that comprise the combustion section, a 4 stage turbine section, an accessory drive unit, an oil sytem, and a fuel control unit.

Front 256

11. torque meter

Back 256

- the struts and the torque meter housing rigidly connect the reduction gear and the power unit. The torqumeter transmits torque from the power unit to the reduction gear assembly and provide an accurate means of measuring this torque. The torqumeter housing is also the primary support structure between the power unit and the reduction gearbox.

Front 257

12. reduction gear system

Back 257

- reduces the high rpm, low torque output of the power station to a low rpm high torque output to be utilized by the propeller shaft

Front 258

13. propeller

Back 258

- the purpose of the constant speed propeller is to maintain a pre selected rpm automatically

Front 259

14. fuel cells/tanks

Back 259

- four integral wing tanks and an auxiliary tank carry the fuel supply for the engines

Front 260

15. vents

Back 260

- the tanks are vented by a float type vent valves, located one in each wing tank and one in each cell of tank number 5, that prevent the overpressurization and overflow or siphoning during maneuvering

Front 261

16. pumps

Back 261

- each wing tank is equipped with a fuel boost pump consisting of a scavenge section and boost section, the scavenge section discharges into a surge box while the boost section pumps fuel from the surge box to the engine driven pump in addition they supply fuel flow for cross feeding, normal boost pump pressure is 15-30 psi

Front 262

17. control panel

Back 262

- the control center for fueling and defueling

Front 263

18. what is fuel capacity for p-3 ?

Back 263

- 9,200 gallons total

Front 264

19. how does ambient air temp influence the operation of the fuel system?

Back 264

- temp causes fuel weight to change with a constant quality, can make fuel heavier, the colder it is the heavier it is

Front 265

20. how does fuel sys interface with propulsion system?

Back 265

- each of the 4 wing tanks can supply fuel to its respective engine or fuel can be supplied from any tank to any engine through a cross feed system

Front 266

21. how does fuel system interface with hydraulic system?

Back 266

- the no2 and no3 fuel tanks provides a means of cooling from hydraulic pumps. Minimum of 1000 lbs of fuel required in each tank to provide adequate hydraulic cooling.

Front 267

22. safety precautions during fueling?

Back 267

- don’t use any equipment that gives off RF transmission during fueling cause it can ignite fuel
- allow at least 3 min following refuel to use dipstick, or else you could get a static discharge
- aircraft following fuel/defuel of plane with AFC 517 installed allow 15 min to dissipate electrostatic charges prior to using the dipstick or hydrostatic fuel gauge (dipstick cant be used in temp below –34)
- stop fueling if;
a. any wing tank or tank 5 is overfilled
b. wing tank fuel spills from a wingtip vent
c. loud/unusual noise is accompanied by wing vibration or aircraft decking vibration.
- ensure that fueling pressure doesn’t exceed 55 psi
- note dipstick wont read unless inboard tanks have at least 4225 lbs (650 gal) of fuel or more and outboard tank has at least 8775 lbs(1350 gal)

Front 268

1. purpose of INTERCOMMUNICATIONS SYSTM (ICS)?

Back 268

- provides communication functions for crewmembers
- has 12 headset one for each crew station
- allows pilot, taco, etc to talk to others on plane
- is a AN/AIC –22 ICS

Front 269

2. purpose of ultra high frequency (UHF)?

Back 269

- 2 identical ARC-143 UHF transceivers are on a p-3
- the UHF-1 is in flight station and ahs plain voice, cipher voice, and UHF-DF in conjunction w/ the ARA-50 amplifier and DF loop antenna
- the UHF-2 is mounted at NAV/COMM station and has plain voice, cipher voice, teletype, data link, sonobuoy command and IACS

Front 270

3. purpose of VERY HIGH FREQUENCY (VHF)?

Back 270

- p-3 has ARC-182 VHF/UHF radio sys installed incorporating AFC-485 to allow communication w/civilian and military agencies in VHF-AM band and UHF band, maritime units in high VHF-AM band, and tactical military units in low VHF-FM band.
- Located by copilot
- Only for plain voice

Front 271

4. purpose of high frequency (HF)?

Back 271

- 2 ARC-161 HF receiver/transmitters are on p-3
- mounted on NAV/COMM station
- both have plain voice, cipher voice, data link, and teletype

Front 272

5. explain Inertial NAVIGATION SYSTEM (INS)?

Back 272

- automatic aid to navigation that is idependent of outside references
- provides accurate velocity attitude, and heading to a digital processing unit

Front 273

6. explain tactical air navigation (TACAN) ?

Back 273

- primary navigation aid for carrier based planes
- has distance measuring equipment (DME)

Front 274

7. explain GLOBAL POSIITIONING SYSTM (GPS)?

Back 274

- the AN/ARN-15 is worldwide all weather positioning system which provides NAV/COMM with a fixed position that’s accurate to 5-8 meters
- also provides various navigation and tracking info

Front 275

8. explain ON-TOP POSIITION INDICATOR (OTPI) ?

Back 275

- enables OPTI receiver to provide bearings to a selected sonobuoy channel.

Front 276

9. explain TACTICAL COMPUTER?

Back 276

- is the CP-2044/ASQ-212 digital computer real time multipurpose

Front 277

10. explain ACCOUSTIC AUDIO SENSORS?

Back 277

- the ARR-72 sonobuoy receiver system consists of 31 fixed tuned receivers that receive RF inputs form two blade antennas.

Front 278

11. explain RADIO DETECTION AND RANGING (RADAR) ?

Back 278

- the APS-115 is a radio device used to detect objects at a much greater distance then is visually possible, ships storms planes etc

Front 279

12. explain IDENTIFICATION FRIENDLY OR FOE (IFF) ?

Back 279

- APX-76 is electronic system that allows a friendly craft to automatically identify itself

Front 280

13. explain MAGNETIC ANOMALY DETECTOR (MAD) ?

Back 280

- the ASQ-81 system utilizes the principle that a metallic sub disturbs the magnetic lines of force of the earth

Front 281

14. explain ELECTRONIC SUPPORT MEASURES (ESM) ?

Back 281

- ALR-66 gather Intel from the enemies electronic devices and also makes the devices ineffective
- Electronic countermeasures have two types of actions, active, and passive.

Front 282

15. explain INFARED DETECTION SYSTEM (IRDS) ?

Back 282

- AAS-36 converts infrared radiation emanating from a heat source and displays target images on a little TV display located at EW station

Front 283

16. explain INVERSE SYNTHETIC APERTURE RADAR (ISAR) ?

Back 283

- APS-137 radar is a processing system that generates true, recognizable, 2-D images of any ship target

Front 284

17. explain AVX-1 ELECTRO-OPTICAL SYSTEM (EOS) ?

Back 284

- ADANCED Electro-Optical (EO) imaging sys that provides high-res pictures and video.

Front 285

18. explain APG-66 RDAR?

Back 285

- airborne, multimode, digital, pulse Doppler sysytem designed to provide all weather detection of airborne and surface targets in low and high clutter environments

Front 286

19. explain AIRCRAFT BATTERY?

Back 286

- provides reserve electrical power for selected electrical systems

Front 287

20. explain MAIN ALTERNATING CURRENT?

Back 287

- p-3 utilizes ac as primary power source
- supplied by 4 interchangeable brush less generators supplying 120 volt three phase power at 400 Hz.

Front 288

21. explain TRANSFORMER RECTIFIER?

Back 288

- heart of DC power system
- transformer rectifiers 1 and 2 recieve AC power directly from main AC uses A and B, respectively they in turn rectify the AC to a 28 volt DC output for use at main DC bus. Transformer rectifier 3 receives its AC power input from the NEAC bus and routes its 28 VDC output to the MEDC bus

Front 289

22. explain SUPERVISORY PANEL

Back 289

- each generator has an associated supervisory panel located in main electrical load center each contains its respective GCR, ACR and voltage regulator. The panels provide over voltage, under voltage, off frequency, and feeder fault protection to their respective generators.

Front 290

23. explain MULTIPLE AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL BUS SYSTEM?

Back 290

- left and right main Acbuses provide power to nonessential equipment through the plane.
- The monitor ac bus currently has no load on it, when used it provides power to nonessential equipment only
- With both generators running ac essential buses 1 and 2 and the 115 volt ac instrument bus powers safety of flight equipment
- A step down transformer provides 26 Volt AC for instruments and navigation systems, the output of transformer also helps power safety of flight equipment

Front 291

24. explain STROBE LIGHTS?

Back 291

- 2 high intensity strobe lights are installed along the centerline of aft fuselage, top and bottom, to provide anticollsion warning to other plane

Front 292

26. explain WING TIP LIGHTS?

Back 292

- on tips of each wing, port is red, and starboard one is green. The diff colored wingtips are used for identifying the heading of approaching planes in flight

Front 293

27. explain TAIL LIGHTS

Back 293

- the tail position lights are located on the bottom of aft fuselage and the top forward section of mad boom.

Front 294

28. explain LANDING LIGHTS?

Back 294

- installed on trailing edge of port and starboard wings, between inboard and outboard nacelles.
- Used during takeoff, approach and landings

Front 295

29. explain TAXI LIGHTS?

Back 295

- installed on left and right of nose gear struts
- used during taxing

Front 296

1. explain BOMB BAY WEAPONS STATIONS?

Back 296

- p-3 consist of max of 8 stations for loading weapon (4 upper, and 4 lower
- the max amt of “Charlie” stations is 3

Front 297

2. explain WING WEAPONS SYSTEMS?

Back 297

a. pylons – used to suspend launchers or bombs from plane wings, fuselage or bomb bay
b. bomb rack (BRU-15) – plane bomb, torpedoes, mines etc are suspended internally or externally from pylons by bomb racks. Bomb racks, carry, arm, and release stores.

Front 298

3. explain SEARCH STORES DELIVERY SUBSYSTEMS?

Back 298

1. internal launch tubes – consist of 3 pressurized tubes for launching son buoys
2. external launch tubes – consist of 48 non pressurized tubes for launching sonbouys
3. free fall chute – single chute aft of the 3 PSLTs. A protective sleeve is required to be inserted into free fall chute prior to usage, this will illuminate damage to aft undersection of plane

4. explain COUNTERMEASURE EQUIPMENT?

- the AN/ALE-29 DISPENSER MODULE – aka CMDS or countermeasure dispensing system designed to provide protection for p-3 from missile attack
- can dispense up to 60 passive radar (chaff) cartridges, infrared decoy (flare) cartridges, or jamming cartridges, but cant yet dispense active jammers

Front 299

3. explain SEARCH STORES DELIVERY SUBSYSTEMS?

Back 299

1. internal launch tubes – consist of 3 pressurized tubes for launching son buoys
2. external launch tubes – consist of 48 non pressurized tubes for launching sonbouys
3. free fall chute – single chute aft of the 3 PSLTs. A protective sleeve is required to be inserted into free fall chute prior to usage, this will illuminate damage to aft undersection of plane

Front 300

4. explain COUNTERMEASURE EQUIPMENT?

Back 300

- the AN/ALE-29 DISPENSER MODULE – aka CMDS or countermeasure dispensing system designed to provide protection for p-3 from missile attack
- can dispense up to 60 passive radar (chaff) cartridges, infrared decoy (flare) cartridges, or jamming cartridges, but cant yet dispense active jammers

Front 301

5. what special precautions apply to bomb bay doors?

Back 301

- bomb bay switch shall be placed to match the door position before further action is taken, failure of switch to match door position could lead to door failure
- flight station personnel shall retain hands in view and bomb bay operator shall take no action while the outside observer is out of sight
- anytime the bb doors are open and hydraulic power is required an outside observer shall be posted to ensue door remains clear

Front 302

6. safety precautions of sonobuoy safety switch?

Back 302

- prior to walking under (load, unload inspection etc) external SLT’s ensure sono safety switch door is open, roller switch is fully extended, and SONO DISABLED light in cockpit is illuminated. If sono safety switch door is closed ensure an outside observer is posted to prevent personnel form entering sono launching area

Front 303

7. safety precautions for countermeasure dispenser?

Back 303

- safe the MCDS prior to securing power to the MWS to preclude a possible inadvertent command countermeasures signal from dispensing a countermeasure

Front 304

1. explain squadron mission statement?

Back 304

- home ported in Brunswick
- deploys throughout the Atlantic six months out of every 18 months
- primary mission is all weather antisub warfare (ASW) operation
- secondary mission is ASUW or anti surface ship warfare , recon ops, fleet support ops (FSO0 and search and rescue

Front 305

2. what is the ADMINISTRATIVE CHAIN OF COMMAND?

Back 305

1. commander in chief
2. sec of defense
3. sec of navy
4. CNO
5. command in chief, u.s. Atlantic fleet
6. command naval air force u.s. Atlantic fleet
7. commander patrol wings, u.s. Atlantic fleet
8. commander, patrol reconnaissance wing five
9. co of vp-10

Front 306

3. what is the OPERATIONAL CHAIN OF COMMAND?

Back 306

1. command in chief
2. sec of defense
3. joint chiefs of staff
4. commander in chief Atlantic
5. commander in chief, u.s. Atlantic fleet commander, second fleet
6. commander patrol wings, u.s. Atlantic fleet
7. commander of wing 5
8. co of vp-10

Front 307

4. define ASU?

Back 307

- anti surface warfare

Front 308

5. what’s role of a p-3 on ASU missions?

Back 308

- employ p-3 to effectively conduct OTH – targeting and a coordinated strike with dissimilar OTH strike platforms
- provides tactical data to SAC, CWC, and ASUWC

Front 309

what are the sensors employed by a p-3 on a ASU mission?

Back 309

1. radar
2. IFF
3. ESM
4. IRDS
5. SASP (ACCOUSTICS FOR BDA/TRACKING)
6. AVX
7. VISUAL

Front 310

8. what are weapons a p-3?

Back 310

1. harpoon
2. bombs
3. maverick

Front 311

9. what is ASW?

Back 311

- anti submarine warfare

Front 312

10. role of p-3 on ASW mission?

Back 312

- p-3 effectively conduct an all sensor search off area, to detect, localize, attack and attack a sub

Front 313

11. what are sensors of a p-3 on a ASW mission?

Back 313

- SASP (acoustics)
- ESM
- IRDS
- MAD
- IFF
- RADR

Front 314

12. weapons of a p-3 on ASW mission?

Back 314

- MK-46/MK-50 torpedoes

Front 315

13. what’s CCC?

Back 315

- Command, Control, And Communications

Front 316

14. what’s role of p-3 on a CCC mission?

Back 316

- employ p03 to search an area via EW sensors to find surface targets, and deter fire and tracking radars

Front 317

15. sensors a p-3 uses on a CCC mission?

Back 317

- RADAR
- ESM
- IFF
- IRDS

Front 318

16. what’s EW?

Back 318

- electronic warfare

Front 319

17. what’s role of p-3 on EW mission?

Back 319

- p-3 conduct passive/active detection of surface targets, airborne targets, and land targets. The collection, anazlyzation, and dissemination of electronic capabilities of each target is desired

Front 320

18. what sensors does a p-3 use on EW mission?

Back 320

a. RADAR
b. IFF
c. ESM
d. IRDS

Front 321

19. what’s role of p-3 on Intel mission?

Back 321

- employed to collect, analyze, and record, pertinent data for info About enemies

Front 322

20. p-3 sensors on an Intel mission?

Back 322

a. ELECTRO-OPTICS
b. RADAR
c. IFF
d. ESM
e. IRDS
f. SASP

Front 323

21. what’s MIW?

Back 323

- mine warfare

Front 324

22. what’s role of p-3 on MIW mission?

Back 324

- conduct aerial mine laying

Front 325

23. sensors on p-3 used for MIW missions?

Back 325

a. visual
b. radar

Front 326

24. discuss weapons on p-3 for a MIW mission?

Back 326

1. MK-62, 63, 64 (QUICKKILL)
2. MK-60 (CAPTOR)

Front 327

25. what’s MOB?

Back 327

mobility

Front 328

1. trim tabs?

Back 328

- small airfoils recessed in the trailing edge of a primary control surface.
- Purpose is to enable the pilot to neutralize any unbalanced condition that might exist during flight, without exerting any pressure on the control stick or rudder pedals.

Front 329

2. explain hydraulics, pumps?

Back 329

- 3 electrically driven variable displacement type hydraulic pumps.
- Each pump has max output of 8 gpm

Front 330

3. explain hydraulics, reservoirs?

Back 330

- 2 hydraulic sys have individual reservoirs
- no 1 has max of 5.6 gal w/ empty brake accumulator or 5 gal w/ fully charged accumulator
- no 2 is full as 1 gal

Front 331

4. explain hydraulics, booster assemblies?

Back 331

- designed so that pilot has normal feel of control forces when hydraulic pressure is avail to the booster cylinders
- w/o hydraulic pressure the controls can be moved but would be hard to move unless booster shift handles are pulled

Front 332

5. explain hydraulics, actuators?

Back 332

- a unit that transforms hydraulic fluid pressure into mechanical force, which performs work
- 2 types are actuating cylinders and hydraulic motors

Front 333

6. explain airframe component; forward radome?

Back 333

- conical shaped fiberglass structure weighing 15o lbs
- houses forward radar antenna, esm components, iff components, and 2 sensors for the missile warning system

Front 334

7. explain airframe component; aftradome?

Back 334

- fiberglass structure that houses aft radar antenna, the MAD equipment, and 2 sensors for missile warning system

Front 335

8. explain airframe component; Bombay ?

Back 335

- located under belly of plane aft of nose gear, function is to transport weapons and cargo

Front 336

9. explain cabin pressurization system; engine driven compressor (EDC)?

Back 336

- air cond and pressurization requires the 2 engine driven compressors mounted on engine no 2 and 3
- heated compressed air from EDC’s is ducted through 2 air cycle cooling units in nose wheel well and then into cabin

Front 337

10. explain cabin pressurization system; cabin exhaust fan?

Back 337

- air is drawn through the plane by the cabin exhaust fan

Front 338

11. explain cabin pressurization system; outflow valve?

Back 338

- the air drawn in is ducted overboard through the outflow valve

Front 339

12. explain air condition system, refrigeration turbine?

Back 339

- as cooled bleed air enters the compressor end of the refrigeration turbine its compressed to twice its inlet temp. it is cooled by rapid expansion

Front 340

13. explain air condition system, heat exchanger?

Back 340

- passing hot engine bleed air through the primary heat exchanger where ram air forced across the heat exchanger by planes forward motion, absorbs heat from the bleed air, reducing the air temp.

Front 341

14. explain HIGH RATE OF DISCHARGE (HRD) BOTTLES; ENGINE?

Back 341

- plane equipped w/ 2 independent electronically controlled high rate of discharge fire extinguishing systems, one for each side of plane,.
- When activated a fire extinguishing chemical is discharged simultaneously into all 3 zones of engine selected.
- Activated by pressing discharge button under the emergency shutdown handle.

Front 342

15. explain HIGH RATE OF DISCHARGE (HRD) BOTTLES; AUXILLARLY POWER UNIT?

Back 342

- the extinguishing agent is released from flight station by manual release switch located adjacent to APU fire detection indicator lights on right side of glare shield panel.
- At a temp of 400 F warning lights glow, flight station and cabin warning horns sounds, and apu shut down. When intake and exaust doors close the fire extinguishing agent discharges

Front 343

16. TYPE OF OXYGEN BOTTLE; WALKAROUND?

Back 343

- 7 bottles stored at crew stations except 9 and 10 (cause their bottles are at aft end of sonobouy storage bins) on a p-3 A or B 4 oxygen bottles are stored at the bulkhead forward of starboard forward observer, and 3 stored above aft radar rack
- have 22 min of air under good conditions or 5-10 for people who are breathing faster

Front 344

17. explain HIGH RATE OF DISCHARGE (HRD) BOTTLES; MAIN?

Back 344

- designed to keep 3 members of flight crew with are for 3.5 hrs at 25,000 ft

Front 345

18. explain purpose of plane foul weather systems elements are used to anti ice and deice propellers

Back 345

- on a p-3 they’re are ice control sys to allow plane to fly in all weather
- engine bleed air from 14th stage of compressor is used to deice wings and anitice the engine air scoop, compressor inlet etc

Front 346

19. describe foul weather system, ice detector?

Back 346

- probe mounted on lower starboard side of fuselage just aft of nose radome tells when ice is present
- also triggers a switch that melts ice and then light indicator goes off

Front 347

20. describe foul weather system, angle of attack (AOA) heat ?

Back 347

- a thermostat controlled probe heater prevents ice formation on the fuselage mounted AOA probe

Front 348

21. describe foul weather system, engine ice control ?

Back 348

- uses 14th stage bleed air to prevent ice forming on engine air scoop, torqumeter shroud, and compressor inlet assembly

Front 349

22. describe foul weather system, propeller ice control (prop deicer) ?

Back 349

- electric heat element are used to deice propellers
- continuous heat applied to front spinners of all 4 propellers
- propeller blade cuffs, aft spinner, and islands are cydrically heated one propeller at a time

Front 350

23. describe foul weather system, wing deice?

Back 350

- 14th stage engine bleed air is used to deice wings

Front 351

24. describe foul weather system, empennage ice control (emp deice)?

Back 351

- portions of horizontal and vertical stabilizer leading edges are electrically heated in a system that simultaneously anti-ices a series of parting strips while momentarily heating power is applied sequentially to deice 20 cycling strips

Front 352

25. describe foul weather system, windshield heating?

Back 352

- windshields are electronically heated to prevent icing
- consists of pilot and copilot system separately
- turned on when temp gets so low and off when it gets so high

Front 353

26. describe foul weather system, windshield wipers?

Back 353

- 2 speed selection, can be controlled by pilot or copilot

Front 354

27. describe foul weather system, pitot heat?

Back 354

- two pitot tubes are mounted symmetrically on either side of lower fuselage just aft of nose radome. Each pitot tube is anti iced by an integral heating element

Front 355

30. explain structures?

Back 355

- fuselage structure of plane is of a semimonoque construction consisting of sheet skin panels, bulkhead rings, and longitudinal stringers.
- Divided into 3 parts;
a. forward
b. center
c. aft

Front 356

31. explain flight controls/surfaces?

Back 356

- primary flight controls operated through flight station through conventional cable systems

Front 357

32. explain hydraulics?

Back 357

- hydraulically operated booster assemblies for all 3 primary control surfaces are utilized, and are operated from independent 3000 psi systems 1 and 2

Front 358

33. explain antiicing?

Back 358

- systems that prevents ice formation

Front 359

34. explain deicing?

Back 359

- refers to a system that removes ice buildup

Front 360

35. what are 3 methods that generate air conditioning?

Back 360

1. EDC’s
2. ambient air
3. air multiplier

Front 361

36. what type of aviators breathing oxygen is used on a p-3?

Back 361

- aviators breathing oxygen (MIL-0-2721OD) is supplied in two types, type 1 and type II
- type I = gaseous oxygen
- type II = liquid oxygen

Front 362

37. normal operating pressure of hydraulic system?

Back 362

3000 psi

Front 363

38. what safety precautions for opening forward and aft radomes?

Back 363

- cant open if wind is gusting or if wind exceeds 20 knots

Front 364

39. what effect does HRD extinguishing agent exposure have on people?

Back 364

- its colorless, tasteless, and odorless
- trifluorobromomethane is most common it is a fluorinated hydrocarbon
- nontoxic but you could suffocate cause it replaces oxygen when breathed.

Front 365

1. State the components of a basic hydraulic system?

Back 365

1. A reservoir to hold a supply of hydraulic fluid
2. A pump to provide a flow of fluid
3. Tubing to transmit the fluid
4. A selector valve to direct the flow of the fluid.
5. An actuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful work.

Front 366

2. Describe and explain the purpose of the main components of landing gear.

Back 366

1. Shock strut assembly –absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe.
2. Tires- allow aircraft to roll easily and provide traction during takeoff/landing
3. Wheel brake assembly- used to sloe and stop aircraft. Also used to prevent aircraft from rolling while parked.
4. Retracting and extending mechanism- all the necessary hardware to electrically or hydraulically exent/retract the landing gear.
5. Side struts/supports- provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear.

Front 367

3. State the safety precautions used when servicing aircraft TIRES on aircraft?

Back 367

-Always approach tires from fore and aft.
- When inflating stand off to side.
- Deflate when removing from their aircraft.

Front 368

4. State the 5 basic sections of a jet engine?

Back 368

1. The INTAKE –an opening in front of aircraft engine that allows outside or ambient air to enter engine.
2. COMPRESSOR- provides high pressure air to the combustion chamber/s
3. COMBUSTION CHAMBER- where fuel enters and combines with the compressed air.
4. TURBINE- drives the compressor and accessories by extracting some of the energy and pressure from the combustion gases.
5. EXAUST CONE- eliminates turbulence in the emerging jet thereby giving max velocity. M?

Front 369

5. Describe the TURBOJET engine system?

Back 369

-Turbojet projects a column of air to the rear at high velocity. Resulting effect is to propel aircraft in the opposite or forward direction.

Front 370

6. Describe the TURBOSHAFT engine system?

Back 370

Turbo shaft delivers power through a shaft to drive something other then a propeller.
- They have high power to weight ratio and are currently used in helos.

Front 371

7. Describe the TURBOPROP engine sys?

Back 371

Propulsion is accomplished by convert of the majority of gas-energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller. This is done by addition of more turbine stages. Only a small amt of jet thrust is obtained on a turboprop engine.

Front 372

8. Describe the TURBOFAN engine sys?

Back 372

- Same as turboprop except the propeller is replaced by a duct enclosed axial flow fan. Will produce 50% of engines total thrust.

Front 373

9. State the purpose of the afterburner?

Back 373

The afterburner is used during takeoff and combat maneuvering to boost the normal thrust raring of a gas turbine engine.

Front 374

10. Explain the fuel JP4/F40?

Back 374

-Has a flame spread rte of 700-800 feet per min and a low flashpoint of –10 feringheight or –23 Celsius.
-Never used on ships
-Use of jp4 will normally cause an engine to operate w/ lower exhaust gas temperature, slower acceleration, and lower engine rpm

Front 375

11. Explain the fuel JP5/F44?

Back 375

-Has flam spread rate of 100 ft per min and flashpoint of 140 ferinheight or 60 degrees Celsius?
- Is the only approved fuel aboard navy ships?
- Is navies primary jet fuel

Front 376

12. Explain the fuel JP8/F34?

Back 376

-Has a flame spread rate of 100 feet per min and flashpoint of 100F and 40C?

Front 377

13. What are the 3 hazards of jet fuel?

Back 377

-Eye
-Skin irritant
- Inhalation hazard

Front 378

14. What are symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation?

Back 378

-Nausea
-Dizziness
-Headaches
-May cause death

Front 379

15. What is purpose of auxiliary power unit (apu)?

Back 379

These power units furnish electrical power when engine driven generators aren’t operating or when external power isn’t available.
-Use a gas turbine to drive the generator, the gas turbine provides compressed air for air conditioning and pneumatic engine starting. Which makes aircraft independent of need for ground power.

Front 380

16. What are the reasons for and methods of non-destructive inspection (NDI)?

Back 380

-It is essential that defects are found and corrected before too late
-NDI can provide 100% sampling w/ no affect to the use of the part or sys being inspected
-Methods include, visual, optical, liquid penetrate, eddy current etc
-NDI is practice of evaluating a part or sample of material without messing it up.

Front 381

17. What is icing and what’s its effect on planes?

Back 381

-Ice on the plane decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and stalling speed

Front 382

18. What is the purpose of pilot static?

Back 382

- Pilot static sys in a plane includes some of the instruments that operate on the principal of the barometer, consists of a pilot static tube and 3 indicators, the three indicators are the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and rate of climb indicator. It is all calibrated so that different air pressures cause diff readings.

Front 383

19. What is purpose of an airspeed indicator?

Back 383

Displays speed of plane in relation to air in which it’s flying.

Front 384

20. What is purpose of altimeters?

Back 384

- Shows height of plane above sea level

Front 385

21. What is purpose of rat of climb indicator?

Back 385

-Shows rate at which plane is climbing or descending.

Front 386

22. What is purpose of an altitude indicator?

Back 386

At distances much greater then is visually possible.
- Used when pilot cannot determine altitude by horizon (at night, fog etc)
- Also called vertical gyro or vgi
- Shows pilot the relative position of plane compared to horizon

Front 387

23. What is purpose of turn and bank indicator?

Back 387

-Shows correct execution of a turn and bank
-Also shows lateral attitude of plane in a straight flight.

Front 388

24. What is purpose of navigation systems?

Back 388

- Direct, plot, and control course or position of plane
- may include radios, transmitters, tacan, loran, etc

Front 389

25. What is purpose of identification friend or foe (IFF)?

Back 389

- Is an electronic sys that allows a friendly craft to identify itself automatically before approaching near enough to threaten naval units?
- Signal is sent to plane responds in certain manner automatically letting them know they are friendly.

Front 390

26. What is purpose of radio detection and ranging (RADAR)?

Back 390

- A radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater then what’s visually possible. E.g. planes, ships, clouds, storms
- Works on echo principal
- -One radar range is 12.36 microseconds

Front 391

27. What is purpose of magnetic (standby) compass?

Back 391

- A direct reading magnetic compass is mounted on instrument panel

Front 392

28. What is purpose of communications sys?

Back 392

- Radio equipment is only practical means of communication on a plane.

Front 393

29. What’s purpose of bombs?

Back 393

- Any weapon other then a torpedo, rocket, missile, or mine dropped from a plane.
- They are free falling explosive weapons, may be unguided or guided (smart)

Front 394

30. What is purpose of rockets?

Back 394

-A weapon containing an explosive section and a propulsion section
-Cannot change direction once fired
-High accuracy since usually launched from close range

Front 395

31. What is purpose if missiles?

Back 395

- A vehicle containing a propulsion part, a guidance part, and an explosive part.
- Can change direction once fired.
- Classified according to range, speed, launch environment and vehicle type

Front 396

32. What is a mine?

Back 396

- An underwater explosive put into position by subs, ships, or plane
- Explodes when something comes into contact with it.

Front 397

33. What is a torpedo?

Back 397

- Self propelled underwater missile
- Designed to search, detect, and destroy subs and surface ships

Front 398

34. What is purpose of a circuit breaker?

Back 398

- A protective device that opens a circuit when current exceeds a predetermined value.

Front 399

35. What is purpose of a fuse?

Back 399

- Protective device inserted in-line with a circuit, contains a metal that will melt or break when current is increased beyond a set value.

Front 400

36. What is ohms law?

Back 400

- E=IR
E= voltage I= current R= resistance

Front 401

37. What is voltage?

Back 401

- Driving force behind current

Front 402

38. What is current?

Back 402

-Current is the flow of electrons, ohms law says current is directly proportional to the 3710.7 bbyapplied voltage and inversely proportional to circuit resistance.

Front 403

39. What is resistance?

Back 403

- The opposing force to the flow of electron

Front 404

40. what is purpose of natops evaluation?

Back 404

- natops eval is intended to evaluate individual and uinit acompliance by observing and grading adherence to natops procedures.

Front 405

41. what is purpose of naval flight records subsystem (NAVFLIRS)

Back 405

-aka the yellow sheet
- provides standardized don flight activity data collection system.
- NAVFLIRS is single source document for recording flight data and is applicable in specific areas to aircraft simulators

Front 406

42. what is purpose of master flight files

Back 406

- only official fliht record of naval aircraft and shall be maintained in accord with opnav 3710.7 by every reporting custodian of naval aircraft

Front 407

43. explain the aircraft visual identification sys for the following type commanders (TYCOMs)

Back 407

- visual ident sys for naval aircraftprovides for the assignment of aircraft markings and side numbers that identify aircraft of one unit from those of another unit using unit identifications assigned by cno.
- Sys provides rapid identification sys for navy and marine planes
- Planes use last 3 digits of BUNO of plane number as their side number or tail number.
- Side number and colors they are painted in are based on unit type e.g. vaq uses maroon.

Front 408

44. COMNAVAIRLANT first and second character on tail number will be what?

Back 408

- 1st shall be A through M
- 2nd shall be A through Z

Front 409

45. COMNAVAIRPAC first and second character of tail number shall be what?

Back 409

- 1st character shall be N through Z
- 2nd charcter shall be A throught Z

Front 410

46. CNATRA first and second character of tail number shall be what?

Back 410

- 1st character shall be A through G
- no second character

Front 411

47. what is a CO?

Back 411

- ultimately responsible for those under his or her command and their actions

Front 412

48. duties of XO ?

Back 412

- direct rep of CO
- responsible for the organization, performance of duty and good order and discipline of whole command.

Front 413

49. duties of CMC ?

Back 413

- enlisted advisior oto command, deals with morale, discipline, utilization and training of command.

Front 414

50. duties of department head?

Back 414

- rep of CO in matters pertaining to department

Front 415

51. Duties of Command managed equal opportunity officer (CMEO)/ equal opportunity program specialist (EOPS)?

Back 415

- provides equal training to command

Front 416

52. duties of division officer?

Back 416

- responsible under dept head for duties assigned to division

Front 417

53. LCPO/LPO

Back 417

- cpo and lpo designated by division officer
- senior cpo and senior lpo
- lcpo asits div officer
- lpo assists lcpo and div officer

Front 418

53. LCPO/LPO

Back 418

- cpo and lpo designated by division officer
- Senior cpo and senior lpo
- Lcpo assist div officer
- lpo assists lcpo and div officer

Front 419

54. work center supervisor

Back 419

- job is to respond to hour by hour work center functions

Front 420

55. command career counselor

Back 420

- runs ship or squadron career counseling program

Front 421

56. ombudsman

Back 421

- link b/w command and families of command personnel
- -co appoints ombudsman
- keeps co informed on family morale/problems etc.
- assist families who need service

Front 422

57. financial specialist

Back 422

- provide financial counseling

Front 423

58. drug and alcohol program advisor (dapa)

Back 423

59. - advises co/xo on drug and alcohol abuse in ship or squadron and approaches necessary to cope effectively with the problem

Front 424

60. security manager

Back 424

- keeps co/xo advised on all security matters
- works with squadron duty officers and duty sec

Front 425

61. career information program managment (cipm) program manager

Back 425

- provide career info to squadron act as divisional career counselor

Front 426

62. what is type of counseling, personnel

Back 426

- personal counseling e.g. Chaplin, legal, etc concerns personal matters

Front 427

what is type of counseling, performance?

Back 427

- counseling on a reg basis for personnel to let them know how they are doing

Front 428

64. effect on eval of , types of discharge?

Back 428

- the basis for determining the type of discharge received by member is called the type discharge. Honorable requires at least an average of 2.7 conduct =3.0 otherwise general discharges is warded.

Front 429

65. effect on eval of , advancement?

Back 429

- single most important factor in determine who will be selected for advancement eval marks are as follows
- 4.0 = early promote
- 3.8 = must promote
- 3.6= promotoable
- 3.4 = progressing
- 2.0 = significant problems

Front 430

66. good conduct awards

Back 430

-won’t be awarded to anyone with eval mark below 3.0 or prior njp or court martial conviction
-given every 3 years

Front 431

67. eligibility for reenlistment

Back 431

-a member with marks under 3.0 will not be able to reenlist
- decision and discretion of the co

Front 432

68. assignment

Back 432

-certain assignments require good evals eg. Rtc, ntc

Front 433

69. explain naval messages

Back 433

- principal means by which commanders communicate
- always transmitted electronically

Front 434

70. explain following message components, date time group

Back 434

-includes date and time expressed in GMT
-dtg expressed in 6 digits
-first 2 digits being day next 4 being time followed by zone suffix usually expressed in Zulu or Greenwich time. Last part is date and year.
-eg. Message sent 31 October 1998 at 0800 Zulu time has a dtg of 310800zoct98

Front 435

71. explain following message components, from line?

Back 435

- first line of the address component and contains the originator or drafters plain language address
- a message must have only one originator

Front 436

72. explain following message components, to line?

Back 436

-contains address of a person or command who the message is going to

Front 437

73. explain following message components, info line?

Back 437

-contains the addresses of those who you would like to look at or send a message for information purposes.

Front 438

74. explain following message components, classification/declassification line

Back 438

-the first line of text which must give the message’s classification. It is listed as top secret, secret, or confidential.

Front 439

75. explain following message components, standard subject identification code (ssic)?

Back 439

the 4 or 5 digit number that stands for the subject of a document. Ssic’s are required on all navy and marine corps messages. The use of ssic’s provides a tested method for filing correspondence documents consistently and retrieving them quickly. There are 14 ssic groups dealing with particular subjects. Such as the 1000 series deals with personnel matters.

Front 440

76. explain following message components, subject line?

Back 440

-the main topic of the message is listed here. These are always written in capital letters.

Front 441

77. explain following message components, passing instructions?

Back 441

navy automated message processing system relay for the most part on certain elements at the beginning of the text such as flag words, codeword, subject lines, and outgoing or incoming message references. These guides assist in the automatic internal routing of messages.

Front 442

78. explain following message components, reference line?

Back 442

- an alternative to repeating lengthy reference materials within the text of message e.g. as per reference (a) note: referencees are always lettered

Front 443

79. explain following message components, amplifying information line?

Back 443

- used to amplify or supplement the data text

Front 444

80. narrative information line?

Back 444

- used to provide amplifying info which pertains to the data text

Front 445

81. explain following message components, text?

Back 445

- that part of message known as body or part that contains the thought or idea the drafter wished to communicate, the reason for message.

Front 446

82. explain part of service record, page 2?

Back 446

- record of emergency contact data and for benifiary data

Front 447

83. explain part of service record, page 4?

Back 447

- enlisted qualification history, a chronological history of occupational and training related quals, awards and commendations

Front 448

84. explain part of service record, page 13?

Back 448

- administrative remarks list of significant and miscellaneous entries which aren’t provided for elsewhere where detailed info may be required to clarify entries elsewhere in serviced record

Front 449

85. explain the contents of enlisted destitution verification report (EDVR)?

Back 449

- monthly statement of an activities enlisted personnel.
- Lists all individuals assigned and a summary of present and future manning status
- Used by cmc and detailers
- Give name, rate, date assigned and nec’s etc

Front 450

86. explain use of a report and disposition of offence (navpers form 1626/7) ?

Back 450

- court memorandum, page 7 of enlisted service record
- used to record court martial and nonjuditial punishment which affect pay

Front 451

87. explain operational report (OPREP)?

Back 451

- used by any unit to provide the national command authorities (NCA) and appropriate naval commanders with immediate notification of any accidental or unauthorized incident involving a possible detonation of a nuclear weapon which could create the risk of nuclear war, message has highest precedence

Front 452

88. explain movement report (MOVEREP)?

Back 452

- source of location info for ships
- -task is to account for all ships and command movement

Front 453

89. explain logistics requirements (LOGREG)

Back 453

submitted by ship prior to entering a port to notify proper commands of its logistics requirements in that port

Front 454

90. explain status of equipment and training support (SORTS)?

Back 454

reports the ships status of conditions of readiness in all warfare areas in our ability to conduct operations

Front 455

92. explain situation report (sitrep)?

Back 455

- used by a co or other commander to provide higher authority with any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special incident reporting criteria e.g. robbery, abuse etc

Front 456

93. what does NAMP stand for?

Back 456

- Naval Aviation Maintance Program

Front 457

94. explain NAMP?

Back 457

- helps to standardize operations of any naval command
- CNO is in charge of NAMP
- Found in OPNAV 4790.2
- Deals with aviation maintance

Front 458

95. how many volumes are in NAMP?

Back 458

5

Front 459

96. explain NAMP vol 1?

Back 459

- concepts, policies, organization, maintance support procedures, and organizational and intermediate level maintance

Front 460

97. explain NAMP vol 2?

Back 460

- depot level maintance

Front 461

98. explain NAMP vol 3?

Back 461

- maintance data systems (MDS)

Front 462

99. explain NAMP vol 4?

Back 462

- aviation 3M data processing requirements

Front 463

1.explain NAMP VOL 5?

Back 463

- standard operating procedures

Front 464

2. how many levels of aviation maintance are there?

Back 464

- 3 organizational, intermediate, depot

Front 465

3. what is organizational level maintance?

Back 465

- maintance performed by operating unit on day by day basis, work that the squadron itself does for itself

Front 466

4. what is intermediate level maintance?

Back 466

- maintance which is responsibility of and performed by AIMD and other designated maintance commands/activates

Front 467

5. what is depot level maintanance?

Back 467

- maintance performed at naval aviation industrial establishments, do overhaul maintance.

Front 468

6. what is responsibility of maintance officer (MO)?

Back 468

- responsible for accomplishment of department mission
- overhaul person in charge of all maintance

Front 469

7. responsibility of aircraft maintance officer ?

Back 469

- assistant head of maintance department
- -assists MO

Front 470

8. responsibility of Maintance/Material control officer (MMCO) ?

Back 470

- - responsible for overall production and material support of the department.

Front 471

9. responsibility of Material control officer?

Back 471

- will be a supply corps officer
- responsible for tool control program
- in charge of BOSS III program (where navy cuts costs by improving reliability of in weapons or support sys)

Front 472

10. what is mission of maintance/production control?

Back 472

- strives to maintain full mission capable aircraft

Front 473

11. mission of maintance administration division?

Back 473

- provides all admin functions of maintance dept

Front 474

12. what is scheduled maintance?

Back 474

- periodic prescribed inspections/servicing of equipment done on hours, mileage etc basis.

Front 475

13. what is unscheduled maintance?

Back 475

- maintance on discrepancies and problems found during operations, e.g. troubleshooting, repair etc

Front 476

14. what is purpose of a DAILY inspection?

Back 476

- inspects for defects to a greater depth then turnaround/post flight inspections
- valid for 72 hrs (as long as it doesn’t fly and no maintance other then servicing is performed)
- planes can fly for 24 hrs without another daily

Front 477

15. what is purpose of a TURNAROUND inspection?

Back 477

- conducted b/w flights to ensure plane is okay b/w flights
- good for 24 hrs

Front 478

16. purpose of SPECIAL inspection?

Back 478

- inspection w/ a prescribed interval other then daily, calendar or phase, e.g. 14 day, 2000 landing etc
- intervals assigned in periodic maintance information card deck (PMIC)

Front 479

17. what is CONDITIONAL inspection?

Back 479

- when unscheduled conditions require an inspection e.g. fod damage, lighting strike, hit bird etc

Front 480

18. purpose of PHASE inspection?

Back 480

Divides total number of scheduled maintance requirements into smaller packages or phases of the same work content.

Front 481

what is ACCEPTANCE inspection?

Back 481

- performed when CO gets a new plane form any source and on return of plane from depot level maintace, includes inventory etc

Front 482

20. what is TRANSFER inventory?

Back 482

- performed at time the CO transfers a plane or SE equipment includes inventory, inspection etc.

Front 483

21. What is AIRCRAFT SERVICE PERIOD ADJUSTMENT (ASPA) INSPECTION?

Back 483

- depot level eval of planes general material condition
- performed by certified ASPA evaluators includes inspection and going over logs etc

Front 484

22. What’s purpose of Function Check Flight (FCF)?

Back 484

- used to determine if plane, engine, equipment etc. are working as they should, if its up to standards
- done at end of depot maintance, after acceptance, any time plane hasn’t flown for more then 30 day etc.

Front 485

23. what is purpose of weight and balance program ?

Back 485

- provides standard sys of field weight and balance control.
- Also gives max operating etc

Front 486

. State purpose of the aircraft logbook.

Back 486

contains history of the aircraft

Front 487

Who is authorized to sign aircraft logbook entries?

Back 487

anyone designated in writing by the commanding officer.
-following personnel are authorized to sign aircraft logbooks and records:
1. Commanding Officer
2. 2. O-level
3. 3. I-level
4. D-level Director of Operations
5. OMD Officer

Front 488

Who is authorized to release aircraft safe for flight?

Back 488

-Maintenance Officer, Maintenance Material Control Officer, or maintenance control officer.
-Other persons if designated in writing by CO

Front 489

a. Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRC) :

Back 489

-Provides instructions for scheduled maintenance tasks.
-contains tasks related to a particular system, subsystem, area, or component using logical sequence for accomplishment. Identifies recommended rating of person to perform maintenance, performance time, and work area or zone involved. Lists what support equipment is needed, consumables, replacement parts, and assistance requirements for task performance.

Front 490

Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (PIMC)

Back 490

identify scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals.
-contain component or assembly removal and replacement, airframe structural life limits, maintenance requirements system indexes such as MRCs, conditional inspections, phase change inplementation cards, etc.

Front 491

a. Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)

Back 491

-contains illustrations and part numbers for all parts of the aircraft or equipment on which it is issued. IPB contains information required for ordering parts, and identifying parts and arrangements of parts in assemblies.

Front 492

a. Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB)

Back 492

-contains illustrations and part numbers for all parts of the aircraft or equipment on which it is issued. IPB contains information required for ordering parts, and identifying parts and arrangements of parts in assemblies.

Front 493

b. Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIM)

Back 493

-contains instructions of "O" and "I" level maintenance and servicing of a specific model aircraft. Identifies each maintenance task to the responsible maintenance level.

Front 494

. Discuss Workcenter Supervisor's responsibilites.

Back 494

-Primary job of W/C supervisor is hour-by-hour maintenance situation.
-requires constant communication between work center and Maintenance Control.
-keep Maintenance Control constantly notified.

Front 495

Define concept of Quality Assurance (QA).

Back 495

concept of QA is of the prevention of the occurrence of defects.

Front 496

a. Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)

Back 496

-when performing inspections, are considered to be direct representative of the CO for ensureing safety of flight of item concerned.
-certify that the work involve has been personally inspected by them, it has been properly completed, and is in accordance with current instructions and directives.

Front 497

b. Collateral Duty QAR (CDQAR)

Back 497

-assigned on a temporary or permanent basis in accordance with OPNAV 4790.2 series
-Termorary CDQARs may be assigned when temporary severe shortages of skills will not support the assignment of a QAR in one of the billets or to relieve QARs during short periods of absence.
-Permanent CDQARs may be assigned for Aircrew Personal Protective or Survival Equipment billet, and Armament billet when the activity has a minimal ordnance delivery in the assigned mission, for Egress/Environmental Systems when the activity does not have ejection seats, to supplement multiple work shifts, and on certain detachments or activities with 4 or less planes.

Front 498

c. Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI)

Back 498

-assigned to production work centers to inspect all work and comply with the QA inspections .
-are monitored by QA and QA will establish minimum qualifications for personnel selected for CDI. They are given a written or oral exam.

Front 499

.Explain purpose of following QA audits.

Back 499

a. Special
-conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs. Maintained copies of audits are held for one year.
b. Quarterly/work center
-conducted quarterly to evaluate the overall performance of each work center.
-all areas of work center are evaluated including personnel, monitored and managed programs, logs and records, licenses, etc.

Front 500

Discuss the two functions of the Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL).

Back 500

QA manages the CTPL program.
-function includes the determination of technical manuals required to support the maintenance organization, receipt and distribution control of manuals, and for ensuring manuals are updated throughout the maintenance organization.
-Internal control and distribution of the NAMP is a responsibility of the CTPL.

Front 501

Discuss the elements of a successful Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Program.

Back 501

-FOD prevention program identifies, corrects, and eliminates causal factors whicha are a command responsibilty and must be a part of the maintenance program.
-QA monitors the FOD program.

Front 502

State the primary objective of the Tool Control Program.

Back 502

-provides a means to rapidly account for all tools after completing a maintenance task.

Front 503

. Explain the purpose of: Fuel Surveillance.

Back 503

Free water and foreign contaminants constitute a hazard.
-Fuel samples will be monitored and sampled.
-QA monitors.

Front 504

Explain the purpose of: Navy Oil Analysis.

Back 504

- - a diagnostic technique to monitor aeronautical equipment wihtout removal or extensive dissembly.
- - QA ensures samples are taken from engines and accessories at intervals established in appropriate MRCs and MIMs.

Front 505

c. Explain the purpose of Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO) Surveillance

Back 505

all persons in ABO program will be familiar with the characteristics of ABO, Liquid Oxygen (LOX), and gaseous hazards.
-The handling of LOX or gaseous oxygen will be preformed by 2 or more qualified persons.

Front 506

d. Explain the purpose of Hydraulic Contamination Control.

Back 506

-achieve and maintain a level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems.

Front 507

e. Explain the purpose of Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety.

Back 507

-persons handling tires and wheels will be properly trained and aware of safety hazards.

Front 508

State the purpose of the Maintenance Training Improvement Program (MTIP).

Back 508

-training management system which evaluates the technical knowledge levels of aviation technicians.

Front 509

Explain the purpose of the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP).

Back 509

-provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work.
-prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month.

Front 510

Discuss the importance of the Electro-Static Discharge (ESD) Program

Back 510

-ESD is the transfer of electrostatic charge between objects at different potentials caused by direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field.
-ESD program provides protected areas for material, equipment, and procedures required to control and minimize electrostatic discharges.
-protected areas are required when handling ESD parts, assemblies, and equipment outsied of their ESD protective covering or packaging.

Front 511

1. What requirements of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP) are satisfied by the organizational maintenance activity's NALCOMIS?

Back 511

-improve mission capability, improve aircraft maintenance and supply support.
-improve upline reporting to satisfy Department of Defense program requirements, and modernize magagement support.

Front 512

2. What requirements of the NAMP are satisfied by the intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS?

Back 512

-provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review, and report info required by the organization.a

Front 513

maintance nalcomis subsytem

Back 513

collects and processes maintenance related data and provides data to other subsystems on the data base.

Front 514

b. Flight nalcomis subsytem

Back 514

collects and processes flight related data.

Front 515

c. Logs/records nalcomis subsytem

Back 515

-Establishes and maintains configuration profiles for engines, aircraft, and any Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) records.

Front 516

personel nalcomis substem?

Back 516

-Reserved for future use. Can be used to monitor qualifications.

Front 517

assets nalcomis subsystem

Back 517

-processes inventory and inspection criteria for support equipment and Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS).

Front 518

data system nalcomis substem?

Back 518

approves or disapproves Maintenance Action Forms (MAF's), Naval Flight Records (NAVFLIRS), for upline submission.

Front 519

reports nalcomis subsystem?

Back 519

-Selects and produces various reports.

Front 520

h. Ad hoc query nalcomis subsytem?

Back 520

Creates user-specific needed or requested reports.

Front 521

Explain the purpose of a Maintenance Action Form (MAF) as applied to NALCOMIS documentation.

Back 521

-used to document maintenance actions to on-equipment maintenance actions.
-used to document maintenance as preventative maintenance, such as corrosion prevention and treatment.
-used to document the removal/installation, and processing of a repairable component or item to an Aviation Intermediate Maintenance Department (AIMD) or On Site Storeroom (OSS).

Front 522

5. 5. Explain the purpose of a Maintenance Action Form (MAF) as applied to NALCOMIS documentation.

Back 522

-used to document maintenance actions to on-equipment maintenance actions.
-used to document maintenance as preventative maintenance, such as corrosion prevention and treatment.
-used to document the removal/installation, and processing of a repairable component or item to an Aviation Intermediate Maintenance Department (AIMD) or On Site Storeroom (OSS).

Front 523

. Work Unit Code (WUC)on a MAF form

Back 523

-identifies the system or subsystem being worked upon.

Front 524

b. b. Job Control Number (JCN) on an MAF form?

Back 524

a 9, 10, or 11-character code. Serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reporting (MDR) and maintenance control procedures.

Front 525

Maintenance Action Form (MAF) Control Number (MCN) on MAF form?

Back 525

-a 7-character alpha/numeric code assigned by the system that serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reports and maintenance control procedures. Tracks MAF's through the maintenance process.

Front 526

Discrepancy block on a MAF form

Back 526

A narrative description of a reported discrepancy.

Front 527

Corrective action block on a MAF form

Back 527

-a narrative description of the corrective action taken on a discrepancy.

Front 528

When Discovered (W/D) code on a MAF form

Back 528

-a single alpha-character, indicating when the need for maintenance was discovered.

Front 529

Type Equipment (TYPE EQUIP) code

Back 529

-Identifies the type of equipment being worked on.

Front 530

. Type Maintenance (T/M) code on an MAF form

Back 530

a one character alpha or numeric code used to describe the type work being performed.

Front 531

What is a special Maintenance Qualification (SMQ)?

Back 531

-used to screen the levels of security.
-determines which screens or parts of the NALCOMIS an individual has access to.

Front 532

Discuss the security considerations that apply to an individual's NALCOMIS log in and password.

Back 532

a. a. Protect your password.
b. b. Do not share, loan, or write down your password.
c. c. Proctect passwords from unauthorized viewing.
d. d. Do not leave your terminal or computer while logged in; always log off when complete
e. e. Know who the security personnel are.

Front 533

1. 1. Define the term HM.

Back 533

-any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.

Front 534

. Define the term HW.

Back 534

Any discarded material (liquid, solid, or gas) which meets the definition of HM and/or is designated as a hazardous waste by the Environmental Protection Agency or a State authority.

Front 535

1. 1. Define the term HM.

Back 535

-any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.

Front 536

2. 2. Define the term HW.

Back 536

-Any discarded material (liquid, solid, or gas) which meets the definition of HM and/or is designated as a hazardous waste by the Environmental Protection Agency or a State authority.

Front 537

. Discuss HM storage and inspection requirements.

Back 537

-Storage locations will be inspected weekly and quarterly, inspect for tightness of closure, corrosion, leakage, aimporper or inadequate labeling, and expired shelf-life.

Front 538

4. 4. State the purpose and info contained on the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

Back 538

-MSDS are technical bulletins containing info about materials, such as composition, chemical, and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use.
-they are located with the HM/HW Coordinator at Medical, Supply Officer, Work Center, and the HM container.

Front 539

What are the 6 categories of HM?

Back 539

a. a. Flammable or combustible materials
b. b. Toxic materials
c. c. Corrosive materials (including acids and bases)
d. d. Oxidizing materials
e. e. Aerosol containers
f. f. Compressed gases

Front 540

6. 6. Explain the general procedures to be followed when a HM/HW spill is discovered.

Back 540

-Because of hazardous nature of materrials used aboard ships, only trained personnel respond to a hazardous material (HM) spill.
-Personnel will be trained by divison officers or supervisory personnel to clean up small spills of HM.
-Appropriate MSDS sheets will be used to conduct training.

Front 541

State the personal protection equipment required when handling HM/HW.

Back 541

Eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves.

Front 542

Explain the general procedures to be followed when a HM/HW spill is discovered.

Back 542

a. a. Discovery
b. b. Notification
c. c. Initiation of action.
d. d. Evaluation
e. e. Containment
f. f. Damage control
g. g. Dispersion of Gases/vapors
h. h. Cleanup and decontamination
i. i. Disposal
j. j. Certification for re-entry
k. k. Follow-up reports

Front 543

grease disposal?

Back 543

-Oily solid materials such as contaminated rags, absorbents, and oil filters can be thrown overboard beyond 50 nautical miles off shore,.
-If within 50 nautical miles containerize for shore disposal..
-Keep petroleum lubricants separate from synthetic lubricants.

Front 544

hydraulic fluid disposal?

Back 544

-Keep synthetic fluids from other types of fluids.

Front 545

fuel disposoal?

Back 545

Keep synthetic and petroleum lubricants separate.

Front 546

Hm/wm-Training will include

Back 546

a. a. Types of HM in their work area and aboard ship
b. b. What HMs are and how they are disposed of .
c. c. How to read and interpret hazard warning labels.
d. d. What an MSDS is, how to read it, and where a copy is available to review. General info on HM handling, stowage, use, and disposal.
e. e. Protective measures when handling HM.
f. f. Emergency procedures.

Front 547

Describe the purpose of secondary labeling of HM when removed from the original container.

Back 547

Use only approved containers, ensure that existing precautionary labeling is retained and that subsequent containers are marked with appropriate precautionary labeling.

Front 548

Discuss the purpose of the HM Authorized Use List (AUL).

Back 548

current inventory of HM, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HM used for local acquisition and use.

Front 549

State the function and responsibilities of material control.

Back 549

-to provide material support to their cognizant organizations and coordinate indirect material requirements to ensure the material ordered is the material required and delivered to the work centers.

Front 550

Material control shall:

Back 550

a. a. establish delivery/pickup points for material ordered.
b. b. Maintain liaison with the supporting ASD on maintenance material matters to ensure the material needs of the organization are satisfied.
c. c. Prepare documents for material required for operational support, for example, aviation fuel, lube oil, flight clothing, and material carried in service market outlets.
d. d. Furnish info to the Supply activity on the identity and quantity of material.
e. e. Establish procedures to ensure proper operation of tool rooms and the performance of tool inventories.
f. f. Ensure surveys are prepared in the event of loss, damage, or destruction of accountable material.
g. g. Perform memorandum OPTAR funding, accounting, charting, and budgeting of costs. A separate material control register is maintained for each OPTAR held.
h. h. Maintain adequate accountability of material and equipment on custody.
i. i. Maintain inventory control of authorized allowances of material listed in the IMRL and authorized allowance lists.
j. j. Validate NMCS/PMCS requisitions daily and maintain (by aircraft BUNO) current NMCS/PMCS status records.
k. k. Perform an inventory of aircraft, with technical assistance, upon receipt or transfer to ensure inventory log entries are made, and inventory shortage listings are prepared and forwarded to Maintenance Control for inclusion in the AIR.

Front 551

Define the acronym MILSTRIP and state its purpose.

Back 551

-Military Standart Requistioning and Issue Procedure - A uniform procedure established by DOD for its own use to govern requistion and issue of material within standard priorties.

Front 552

Define and explain: ICRL (Individual Component Repair List)

Back 552

- - A detailed statement of IMA's component repair capability that contains existing repair capability data on items previously processed by the IMA. It also identifies items that re capable of repair or for which future repair is not planned.

Front 553

Define and explain: CRIPL (Consolidated Remain-In-Place List)

Back 553

- - A listing of all authorized remain in place items which is published by NAVICP and approved by the TYCOMs and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM.

Front 554

Define and explain: NMCS (Not Mission Capable Supply)

Back 554

- - Material condition of and aircraft that is not capable of preforming any of its mission because maintenance required to correct the discrepancy cannot continue due to a supply shortage.

Front 555

Define and explain: PMCS (Partial Mission Capable Supply)

Back 555

- - Material condition of and aircraft that can perform at least one but not all of its mission because maintenance required to correct the discrepancy cannot continue due to a supply shortage.

Front 556

Define and explain: NSN (National Stock Number)

Back 556

A 13 digit stock number assigned by the Defense Logistics Services Center (DLSC) to identify an item of material in the supply distribution system. It consists of a four digit federal supply classification (FSC), and a nine digit national item identification number (NIIN).

Front 557

Define and explain: AVDLR (Aviation Depot Level Repair)

Back 557

- - AVDLRs are financed by the NWCF. Under this process, the end user finances the D-level repair and procurement of 7R COG repairables through the local replenishment of these repairables to replace BCMd, lost, or missing components. Although the squadron usually initiates repairable demands, the IMA has primary control over whether these transactions would result in an AVDLR NWCF charge. Thus, the IMA or station will retain control of the AVDLR replenishment OPTAR and corresponding accounting responsibilites.

Front 558

Define and explain: AWP (Awaiting Parts)

Back 558

nd explain: AWP (Awaiting Parts)
- - The condition that exists when materials required to complete a maintenance action are not abailable on station/ship. AWP is that time when no work can be performed on the item being repaired due to a lack of ordered parts. Parts are not considered to be ordered until the demand has been forwarded to the Supplu Response Section of the Supply Department. The time when QWP sccurred and the length of time it lasted is recored in the Maintenance/Supply Record Sectionl Items which cause AWP during on-equipment work are identified in the Removed/Old Item Section. Items which cause AWP during off-equipment work are identified in the (H-Z) Failed/Required Material Section.

Front 559

Define and explain: IMRL (Individual Material Readiness List)

Back 559

- - A consolidated list that shows items and quantities of certain SE required for material readiness of the aircraft ground activity to which the list applies.

Front 560

Define and explain: AIR (Aircraft Inventory Records)

Back 560

- - AIR is used to establish a formal, continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment and material installed on or designated for use on any aircraft of a specified T/M/S. An AIR is applicable to all aircraft of a specified T/M/S and lists selected material and equipment accountable by all Navy or Marine Corps organizations that are assigned or physicaly possess operational aircraft.

Front 561

Define and explain: EXREP (Expeditious Records)

Back 561

-The processing for repair of NIS or NC components (repairable or consumable) which must be in support of, related to, an NMCS or PMCS situation.

Front 562

6. 6. Explain the importance of the aeronautical allowance lists in relation to mission sustainability.

Back 562

Lists of equipment and material determined from known or estimated requirements as necessary to place and maintain aeronautical activities in a material readiness condition. In the case of aerological and photographic material, the requirement is extended to all applicable naval activities.

Front 563

. State the purpose of: Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form 200)

Back 563

- - A form used to document the report of survey and certify the survey process when government property is lost, damaged, or destroyed. This form is the official document to support establishment of debts, relief from accountability, and adjustment to accountable records for Supply System Stock and Property Book Material.

Front 564

State the purpose of: Missing/Lost/Stolen Report

Back 564

-Reports of missing, lost or stolen items are made by a completed copy of a Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form 200) or Report of Discrepancy (ROD) (SF Form 364).

Front 565

. What is a flight packet used for?

Back 565

- Supply officers or Material Control officers of aviation activities responsible for flight packets for issue to pilots making extended flight.
- - Flight packets contain instructions to assist pilots of aircraft involved in extended flights to obtain material or services which may be necessary for the continuation of a flight.