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CATEGORY
Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: American Red Cross
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Community Services
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Emergency Relief
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Army Programs: Army Quality of Life Program
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Army Programs: Army Quality of Life Program
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Army Programs: Army Quality of Life Program
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Army Programs: Army Quality of Life Program
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Army Programs: Army Quality of Life Program
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Army Programs: Army Quality of Life Program
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Army Programs: Army Quality of Life Program
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: ASAP
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Army Programs: DEERS
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Army Programs: DEERS
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Army Programs: DEERS
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Army Programs: DEERS
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Sponsorship
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Army Programs: Tricare
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Army Programs: Tricare
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Army Programs: Tricare
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Army Programs: Tricare
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Army Programs: Tricare
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Army Programs: Tricare
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Awards & Decorations
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Awards & Decorations
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Awards & Decorations
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CBRN (NBC)
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Chain of Command
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Chain of Command
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Chain of Command
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Chain of Command
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Chain of Command
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Chain of Command
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Code of Conduct
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Code of Conduct
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Code of Conduct
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Code of Conduct
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Code of Conduct
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Customs & Courtesies
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Customs & Courtesies
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Drill & Ceremony
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First Aid
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First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
First Aid
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Flags
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Geneva Conventions
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Guard Duty
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Land Navigation
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
Leadership & Counseling
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
NCOER
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
Physical Readiness
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
PMCS
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Promotions & Reductions
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Supply Economy
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Survival
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
Q.
Training Management & Battle Focus
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Training Management & Battle Focus
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QUESTION
ANSWER
How is the Red Cross most often utilized by Soldiers in the US Army?
In the event that a family member dies or becomes deathly ill, the Red Cross (if notified) will verify the situation and contact the Soldier's chain of command so that the Company Commander can arrange emergency leave.
How is the Red Cross primarily staffed?
By volunteers
In a time of emergency, why does the American Red Cross - and not the Army - provide communication between the Soldiers and their families?
Due to a Congressional mandate, it is legally recognized that emergency communication between Soldiers and their families is an American Red Cross function.
Name some services that the American Red Cross offers.
"1) Blood Drives
8) Youth Services"
What American is credited with founding the American Red Cross?
Clara Barton
What AR covers the Red Cross?
AR 930-5
What does "ICRC" stand for?
International Committee for the Red Cross.
What interest rate is attached to Red Cross loans?
None. The loans are interest-free.
What is the Red Cross symbol also known as?
The Geneva Cross
What services are provided by the American Red Cross in regard to Prisoners of War?
"The American Red Cross:
3) Handles inquiries regarding POW welfare"
When did the American Red Cross come into existence?
1881
When did the American Red Cross become a charter organization in the U.S.?
1905
Why do the Red Cross and Army Emergency Relief work so closely together?
This ensures that the Soldier receives all eligible aid and that no efforts are actually duplicated.
Describe the ACS program policy.
It is a community-oriented, social service program.
How is ACS primarily staffed?
Through volunteers.
How often does ACS (in coordination with ACAP) conduct Job Fairs?
Twice a year (at a minimum).
In regard to Operation R.E.A.D.Y. (of the Deployment/Mobilization and SSO Readiness area), what does the acronym "R.E.A.D.Y" stand for?
"Resources for Education About Deployment and You"
In regard to the Deployment/Mobilization and SSO Readiness Area, what does the "NEO" in NEO Support stand for and what is it?
NEO stands for "Noncombatant Evacuation Operation." NEO Support is an ACS service in which ACS provides assistance in processing families for evacuation from hazardous areas.
In regard to the Deployment/Mobilization and SSO Readiness Area, what is the purpose of "Operation R.E.A.D.Y.?"
Operation R.E.A.D.Y. provides materials that are used to help unit commanders in preparing their unit personnel and family members for military operations and deployments.
Name some of the ACS Services that fall under the "Deployment/Mobilization and SSO Readiness" Area.
"1) Family Assistance Plan (Family Care Plan)
3) NEO Support"
Name some of the ACS Services that fall under the "Employment Readiness" Area.
"1) Job Bank
4) Career Counseling"
Name some of the ACS Services that fall under the "Financial Readiness" Area.
"1) Financial Counseling
3) Debt Liquidation Assistance"
Name some of the ACS Services that fall under the "Relocation Readiness" Area.
"1) Relocation Assistance and Counseling
4) Newcomer Orientations"
Name some of the ACS Services that fall under the "Soldier and Family Readiness" Area.
"1) Family Advocacy Program
5) Outreach Services"
Name the four primary objectives of the Family Advocacy Program.
"1) Prevention spouse and child abuse
4) Prevention of emotional maltreatment"
Through what program does ACS assist Soldiers with handicapped dependents and how does it work?
ACS utilizes the Exceptional Family Member Program or EFMP. Through EFMP, ACS is able to assist the assignments authorities in assigning Soldiers to installations and areas that can meet the special needs of their disabled dependents.
What are some of the services that ACS provides?
"1) Army Family Advocacy Program (AFAP)
10) Family Relocation Assistance"
What are the five "Key Readiness Areas" that ACS has organized its subprograms into?
"1) Financial Readiness
5) Deployment/Mobilization and SSO Readiness"
What are the four essential services of financial planning assistance?
"1) Financial Planning Education
4) Debt Liquidation"
What are the two primary concerns of ACAP?
"1) Employment Assistance
2) Transition Assistance"
What Army Regulation covers ACS?
AR 608-1
What can Soldiers do to assist ACS?
Soldiers can donate staple foodstuff to the ACS food lockers, useable household items, and their time.
What does "ACS" stand for?
Army Community Services
What does "SITES" stand for?
"Standard Installation Topic Exchange Service"
What does the acronym "ACAP" stand for?
"Army Career and Alumni Program"
What does the ACS symbol/logo represent?
"The Heart = Giving
The Gyroscope = Equilibrium and Stability"
What is the "outreach" mode of service delivery?
This is where the provider seeks out those who need its services, rather than waiting for the client to find them.
What is the purpose of ACAP?
To provide transition/employment service and information. A common way of doing this is through Job Fairs.
What is the purpose of ACS Relocation Services?
It provides information, guidance and assistance to Service Members and their families who are planning a move from one military community to another.
What is the purpose of ACS?
To support the morale and wellbeing of the members of the Army Community.
What is the purpose of the ACS Loan Closet?
The Loan Closet allows Service Members, who are new to the Installation, an opportunity to borrow necessary household items until they are able to receive their own household goods.
What is the theme or motto of ACS?
"Self-help, Service and Stability"
What purpose does the financial planning and assistance services serve?
"1) To assist Soldiers in improving their credit, financial reliability and reputation
4) To enhance local community relations"
What year was ACS established?
1965
Who may utilize the services that ACS provides?
Military Personnel and their dependents. (ACS is usually utilized by the new Soldiers arriving on Post).
Are contributions to AER tax deductible?
Yes
How are AER programs funded?
"AER is funded through:
3) Through income from investments"
How can donations be made to AER?
"Those wishing to donate may do so by:
3) Check"
If a Soldier receives an AER Loan, what interest rate can he or she expect to pay?
There is no interest on an AER Loan.
Is a Soldier required to contribute to AER in order to receive assistance?
No
Name some circumstances that AER will not give a loan.
"When the money is needed to pay for:
7) Luxury and Convenience Items"
Under what circumstances is AER likely to give financial assistance to a Soldier?
"1) Loss of Funds
9) Cost of the effects of a Disaster (fire, tornado, etc)"
What are the three types of financial assistance that AER provides?
"1) Interest Free Loans
3) A Combination of Loans and Grants"
What Army Regulation covers AER?
AR 930-4
What does AER stand for?
"Army Emergency Relief"
What does AEREAP do?
AEREAP provides education money to unmarried dependents of active duty, retired or deceased Army personnel who are attending college.
What does the acronym "AEREAP" stand for?
"Army Emergency Relief Educational Assistance Program."
What does the acronym "PLUS" stand for?
"Parent Loans for Undergraduate Students"
What form should be used to apply for an AER Loan?
DA Form 1103
What is the AER Motto?
"Helping the Army Take Care of its Own."
What is the maximum dollar amount that a Soldier may receive on an AER Loan?
There is no maximum.
What is the minimum contribution that a Soldier can make to AER by Allotment?
$1.00 a month for 3 months.
What is the PLUS program and what does it do?
PLUS (Parent Loans for Undergraduate Students) is an AER program that makes it possible for parents in the Army to borrow money to pay for their dependent's undergraduate college expenses.
What is the purpose of AER?
AER's sole purpose is to help Army Personnel and their families.
What is the time line for repayment of an AER loan?
AER loan repayments start the 1st day of the second month that follows the initiation of the loan. Most loans do not exceed 12 months and repayment is made through allotment by active duty personnel.
What other organization does AER coordinate with in order to avoid the duplication of aid efforts?
The American Red Cross
What purpose does the AER Annual Fund Campaign serve?
"1) To raise funds to help cover the financial assistance program
4) To help the Army take care of it's own"
What year was the AER first chartered?
1942
When does the AER Annual Fund Campaign take place?
From 1 March to 1 July.
When is an AER loan considered to be delinquent?
When repayment by the borrower has not been received one month after the due date.
When is an AER loan considered to be uncollectible?
"1) When the delinquent loan balance is less than $5.00
6) When repayment will cause undue hardship"
Who does the Educational Assistance Program apply to?
The unmarried, dependent children of Army Personnel.
Who is eligible to receive AER aid?
"1) Active Duty Army and Family Members
4) Retirees"
Who is eligible to receive PLUS loans?
"1) Active Army Personnel
3) Sponsors of deceased Army Personnel dependents who are US citizens or permanent US residents"
Who should initiate the paperwork for an AER Loan?
The Command/Unit Financial Advisor.
Describe the Army Quality of Life Program.
The Army Quality of Life Program is a group of policies and programs that are designed to ultimately increase combat readiness, by developing military group cohesiveness and commitment.
Give some examples of the services and activities of the Army Quality of Life Program that Soldiers may utilize.
"1) MWR
10) Other Army Programs such as AER, ACS, ARC and EO"
Name the six subsystems of the Army Quality of Life Program.
"1) Army Community Service (ACS)
6) Morale and Support Activities"
The Army Quality of Life Program is dedicated to caring for the Army's top operational resource. What is this resource?
The Soldier
What does the acronym "QOLP" stand for?
Quality of Life Program
What is the primary goal of the Army's Quality of Life Program?
To promote the development of military group commitment and cohesiveness.
What two general headings are the Quality of Life assistance and programs categorized under?
"1) Living Conditions
2) Duty Environment"
Can a Soldier be promoted while enrolled in an Alcohol or Drug Abuse Rehabilitation Program?
Not while on the Active Phase of Rehabilitation.
Can a Soldier enrolled in ASAP re-enlist?
No, but they can extend their current enlistment long enough to finish the ASAP program and then re-enlist.
How long do each of the two phases in the rehabilitation program last?
"1) The Active Phase lasts up to 60 days
2) The Follow-Up Phase lasts up to 300 days"
If a commander refers a Soldier to ASAP is the Soldier obligated to participate?
Yes, it is a direct order
If a Soldier is charged with a DUI or DWI, what mandatory actions must be taken?
"1) A Letter of reprimand, signed by a General Officer, is placed in the Soldier's file
3) The Soldier's on-post driving privileges are suspended for a period of six months"
Is a Soldier flagged when they are referred to ASAP?
Yes
Is it authorized to reveal a Soldier's involvement in ASAP without the Soldier's permission?
No
Name the 3 main categories of drugs
"1) Hallucinogens
3) Stimulants"
Name the ASAP rehabilitation objectives.
"1) To return Soldiers to full duty status as quickly as possible
2) Identify those individuals who cannot be rehabilitated"
Name the drug that is most abused in the Armed Forces.
Alcohol
Name the objectives of Biochemical or Urinalysis Testing.
"1) Deterrence
6) The identification of Abusers"
State the mission of ASAP.
Readiness Enhancement and increased combat effectiveness through substance abuse education and rehabilitation.
The Army policy is to "Deglamorize" Alcohol -- what does this mean?
The Army will not promote any function that glamorizes the use of alcohol through drinking games or the award of alcohol as prizes.
Under what conditions may a Commander direct drug testing?
"1) Voluntarily
5) Rehabilitation"
Under what conditions may the Commander and ASAP Counselor consider rehabilitation a success?
"1) The Soldier must perform effectively on full duty status at the end of 60 days.
3) The Soldier has received the maximum benefit from the rehabilitation program and can move into the follow-up phase."
Upon arriving at a new duty station, the Soldier should be educated on ASAP within what time frame?
60 days
What are some indications that a Soldier may have a drug or alcohol problem?
"1) Hangovers
5) Intoxication at off duty functions"
What are the 2 phases of the rehabilitative program?
"1) Active
2) Follow-Up"
What are the 3 groups Soldiers who abuse drugs are classified into?
"1) Experimenter
3) Drug Dependent"
What are the five ways that a Soldier may be referred to ASAP?
"1) Command Referral
5) Self Referral (Voluntary)"
What are the objectives of ASAP?
"1) To improve unit readiness
7) Prevention and deterrence of substance abuse"
What classifies a Soldier as a rehab failure?
When after short-term rehab efforts the Soldier is unable or unwilling to return to effective duty
What does "ADAPCP" stand for?
Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Program
What does "ASAP" stand for?
Army Substance Abuse Program
What form is used by the Commander to refer a Soldier to ASAP?
DA 8003
What happens if a Soldier refuses to participate in Urinalysis testing?
Failure to participate in Urinalysis may be grounds for disciplinary action -- as Urinalysis testing is generally considered a lawful order.
What happens to a Soldier who refuses to participate in rehabilitation, or fails to respond successfully to the rehabilitation program?
They will be separated from the Army.
What is the Army's policy on alcohol?
To have an alcohol-free workplace
What is the emphasis of ASAP?
"1) Readiness
2) Personal Responsibility"
What is your responsibility if you have knowledge of drug use in your unit?
Report all drug use to the chain of command
What items should you include when counseling a Soldier on ASAP?
"1) Types of Treatment Available
5) Punishment under UCMJ"
When is an alcoholic considered cured?
Never. An alcoholic can only be classified as "recovering"
When is rehabilitation considered a failure?
"1) The service member clearly indicates that they are unable or unwilling to return to Active Duty.
3) The commander in conjunction with the ADAPCP Counselor determines that further efforts are futile."
Which Army Regulation covers ASAP?
AR 600-85
Who decides when a Soldier's rehabilitation is considered a success or a failure?
The Unit Commander and the ASAP Counselor.
Who is authorized to use ASAP?
"1) Active Duty Soldiers and their Family Members
4) DOD Civilians and their Family Members"
Who is to be tested by Urinalysis?
Anybody the commander chooses
Why is the Army so concerned about drug and alcohol abuse?
Substance abuse is detrimental to combat readiness.
Will enrolling in ASAP help a Soldier avoid pending disciplinary actions?
No
How can a Soldier enroll an eligible dependent in DEERS?
Soldiers may do so when applying for their dependent's ID Cards at the PAC.
What does the acronym "DEERS" stand for?
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System
What does the acronym "PAC" stand for?
Personnel Administration Center
What is the purpose of DEERS?
DEERS issues Identification Cards for eligible military dependents.
Describe the "Sponsorship Pool."
The Sponsorship Pool is a group of Soldiers that are designated by the Commander and trained to respond to programmed and unprogrammed arrivals.
Explain the In-Sponsorship Program.
Assistance, information and activities provided to Soldiers and the Families of Soldiers who are new to a unit.
Explain the Out-Sponsorship Program.
Assistance, information, and activities provided to Soldiers and the Families of Soldiers who are departing a unit.
How many welcome letters should a newly arriving Soldier receive as part of the Sponsorship Program?
"Two:
**If the Sponsorship is declined, then the Battalion Command should still send a letter."
How much time should a Commander give to new Soldiers for inprocessing?
Commanders are directed to provide the new Soldier with adequate time to inprocess. Family separation time should be minimal when settling in at the new duty and assignments such as TDY and Field Duties should be avoided.
How soon after a Gaining Commander receives a request for Sponsorship, should the Welcome Packet be sent to a new Soldier?
Within 10 calendar days
How soon should a Sponsor be appointed after the Battalion receives the DA Form 5434?
Within 10 calendar days
Should a unit arrange a Sponsor for a Soldier that is departing the unit?
Yes
What are some things that a sponsor should do prior to the arrival of a new Soldier?
"1) Send a welcome letter
4) Provide information about the surrounding area"
What are the five types of Sponsorship Programs?
"1) In-Sponsorship
5) New Manning-Systems Unit Sponsorship"
What are the general requirements when appointing a sponsor?
"The Sponsor should be:
5) Not be the person who is being replaced by the incoming Soldier"
What are the Six Elements of the Sponsorship Program?
"1) The DA Form 5434
6) Inprocessing"
What are the two degrees of Sponsorship?
"1) Full
2) Limited"
What grade must a Sponsor be?
A grade equal to, or higher than, the grade of the individual he or she is sponsoring.
What is the purpose of a "Rear Detachment" Sponsor?
Rear Detachment Sponsors provide support to the family members of Soldiers whose unit is deployed.
What is the purpose of a Reactionary Sponsor?
If a new Soldier declines Sponsorship, a Reactionary Sponsor is assigned to answer questions and assist the new Soldier just in case they find themselves in need of assistance.
What is the purpose of the DA Form 5434?
To transmit Sponsorship requirements to the gaining command.
Which Army Regulation covers Sponsorship?
AR 600-8-8
Why is it important to have a well-managed sponsorship program?
"1) To create a positive first impression for new Soldiers
2) To decrease distractions that may impact Mission Accomplishment"
Can a Soldier's parents or in-laws be enrolled in TRICARE?
No. Only active duty and military retirees may be TRICARE members.
What are the three TRICARE options?
"1) TRICARE Prime
3) TRICARE Standard"
What health care program did TRICARE replace?
CHAMPUS (Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services)
What is required for active duty members to receive TRICARE?
Active duty members must simply complete the enrollment form.
What is TRICARE?
TRICARE is the Department of Defense health care system.
When enrolling in TRICARE, do active duty Soldiers have to pay a fee?
No. There is no fee for active duty members and their families.
Approximately how many African-Americans served in the Civil War?
Approximately 200,000
Are active units, who fought for the Confederacy during the Civil War, permitted to fly their Civil War campaign streamers?
Yes
Before the US Army began to award the Medal of Honor, what award served as its equivalent?
The Purple Heart
Can Enlisted Soldiers be awarded the Legion of Merit?
Yes
Can Soldiers recommend themselves for awards?
No
Do Medal of Honor recipients receive any extra pay?
Yes. The Department of Veteran Affairs pays a special pension.
Explain the difference between a decoration and an award.
Decorations are given only to individuals, whereas, awards can be given to either a unit or an individual.
How is it signified that a Soldier has served two overseas tours?
By attaching the Roman Numeral "2" appurtenance to the Overseas Service Ribbon.
How many "V" Devices are authorized for wear on a single ribbon?
One
How many African-Americans served in WWII?
Over one million
How many African-Americans, who served in WWII, were awarded the Medal of Honor?
Seven
How many different weapons have component bars?
Nineteen
How often do you receive a Good Conduct Medal?
Every 3 years
Is a Soldier entitled to the Good Conduct Medal?
No, they must earn it.
Name some appurtenances.
"1) Oak Leaf Cluster
5) Clasps"
Name some medals not awarded to General Officers.
"1) Army Commendation Medal
3) Army Achievement Medal "
Name some US Awards that may be presented to Army Units.
"1) Presidential Unit Citation
4) Meritorious Unit Citation"
To whom is the Purple Heart given?
Any military or civilian personnel wounded or killed in action against an armed enemy.
What AR covers Awards and Decorations?
AR 600-8-22
What are the four categories of badges worn on the Army Uniform?
"1) Marksmanship
4) Foreign "
What are the Oak Leaf Clusters, V-Devices and Roman Numerals collectively called?
Appurtenances
What are the three highest awards?
"1) Medal of Honor
3) Defense Distinguished Service Medal"
What are the two categories of decorations?
Heroism and Achievement
What Award is given for Exemplary Behavior, Efficiency and Fidelity?
The Good Conduct Medal
What award is the second highest for valor?
The Distinguished Service Cross
What decorations can the "V" Device be worn on?
"1) Distinguished Flying Cross
5) Joint Service Commendation Medal"
What does it mean when there is a star above the Combat Infantryman's Badge (CIB)?
Two awards of the CIB.
What form is used to recommend a Soldier for an award?
DA Form 638
What is a "Fourragere?"
A rope-like device worn to signify the award of certain foreign awards.
What is a DA Form 2442?
Certificate of Achievement
What is a DA Form 4950?
The Good Conduct Medal Certificate
What is a DA Form 638?
Award Recommendation Sheet
What is a DA Form 7013?
Certificate of Appreciation
What is a decoration?
Awards bestowed upon Soldiers for acts of gallantry or service.
What is DA Form 87?
Certificate of Training
What is engraved on the back of the Medal of Honor?
The Grade, Name and Unit of the Person receiving the award.
What is inscribed on the back of the ARCOM?
"For Military Merit"
What is inscribed on the back of the Army Achievement Medal (AAM)?
"For Military Achievement"
What is inscribed on the back of the Good Conduct Medal?
"Honor, Efficiency and Fidelity"
What is meant by the phrase "above and beyond the call of duty"?
The acceptance of danger or extraordinary circumstances, with praiseworthy fortitude and courage beyond that which is expected.
What is on the Front of the Medal of Honor?
The profile of the Roman Goddess "Minerva" (the Goddess of Wisdom and Righteous War).
What is required before a Soldier is authorized to wear the NCO Professional Development Ribbon?
Completion of the Warrior Leader Course (formally called Primary Leadership Development Course or PLDC).
What is required before a Soldier may wear the Army Service Ribbon?
Successful completion of an MOS producing course, such as Advanced Individual Training (AIT).
What is the ARCOM awarded for?
For acts of heroism or service that do not warrant the award of either the Soldiers Medal or the Bronze Star.
What is the definition of a "Key Individual," according to AR 672-5-1?
Any person who occupies a position that is indispensable to the organization, activity, or project.
What is the definition of an Award?
Any decoration, medal, badge, ribbon or appurtenance presented to a Soldier or Unit.
What is the definition of heroism?
Exemplary courage that is demonstrated in attaining a noble end.
What is the definition of valor?
Heroism in combat.
What is the Good Conduct Medal awarded for?
Exemplary behavior, Efficiency, and Fidelity.
What is the highest award for valor in peacetime?
The Soldiers Medal
What is the highest peacetime award?
The Distinguished Service Medal
What is the highest wartime Award?
The Medal of Honor
What is the maximum number of foreign badges a Soldier may wear on the uniform at any one time?
One
What is the maximum number of marksmanship badges that a Soldier may wear on the uniform at one time?
Three
What is the set time limit for the recommendation of the Purple Heart?
According to AR 600-8-22, there is no time limit for the recommendation of the Purple Heart. An individual will receive it if the specific criteria for award are met and able to be proven.
What is the Soldiers Medal awarded for?
Heroism, not involving combat, but with a voluntary risk of one's life to save another.
What is the time limit for recommending an award?
2 years
What is worn to denote the award of more than one Good Conduct Medal?
The Good Conduct Medal Clasp
What makes the Purple Heart different than all other decorations?
Soldiers are not recommended for the Purple Heart, there is specific criteria to receive it.
What medal was the first medal awarded by the US Army for Valor?
The Purple Heart
What Soldier, who later became a movie star, was the most highly decorated Soldier in World War II?
Audie Murphy
What war was Dr. Mary Walker involved in?
The Civil War
When did African-Americans receive the Medal of Honor in recognition of heroism in WWII?
1 January 1997
When is a Soldier allowed to wear a Unit Award?
"1) Temporarily, while serving with units that have received the award, OR
2) Permanently, if the Soldier was actually assigned or attached to the unit when it received the award"
Where and by whom is the Medal of Honor presented?
It is presented at the White House by the President of the U.S. or a personal representative.
Which Army Regulation sets forth the policies and procedures for Army Awards?
AR 672-5-1
Which medal has George Washington's picture on it?
The Purple Heart
Who awards the Medal of Honor?
The President
Who can approve the award of an Army Achievement Medal?
An O-5 or higher, but usually the Battalion Commander.
Who can recommend someone for an award?
Anyone having knowledge of an outstanding act of achievement or heroism.
Who is the approving authority for a Good Conduct Medal?
The Company Commander
Who is the approving authority for the ARCOM?
An O-6 or higher.
Who is the approving authority for the Medal of Honor?
Congress
Who is the approving authority of the Soldier's Medal in peacetime?
HQDA
Who is the only female to ever receive the Medal of Honor and when was it?
Dr. Mary Walker in 1865 (Civil War)
An NBC-1 Report receives what type of communications precedence?
Initially it receives a FLASH precedence. All follow-ups however, receive an IMMEDIATE precedence.
Are we able to immediately detect a biological attack?
No
Cite some of the basic principles of decontamination.
"1) Decon as soon as possible
4) Decon by priority"
Define "Biological Warfare."
The use of germs or toxins to cause death and sickness.
Define Pathogen.
Microorganisms that can cause disease in plants, animals and humans.
During peacetime, how often should the protective mask be inspected?
Masks should be inspected at least monthly. They should also be inspected before, during and after training sessions.
Explain the difference between "dose rate" and "total dose rate."
"Dose rate" is exposure to radiation per hour, while "total dose rate" is the overall accumulation.
Explain what a "vector" is.
Any insect that can be used to spread biological agents.
Give a brief description of what a Soldier should be wearing in each level of MOPP.
"MOPP 0 = Mask is carried, everything else is accessible
MOPP 4 = CPOGs, boots, mask and gloves"
Give a description of the Biological Contamination Marker.
A blue triangular sign with the word "BIO" written in red.
Give a description of the Chemical Contamination Marker.
A yellow triangular sign with the word "GAS" written in red.
Give a description of the Radiological Contamination Marker.
A white triangular sign with the word "ATOM" written in black.
How and when should Amyl Nitrate be used?
It should be used when exposed to blood gas. The ampoule should be crushed and placed in the protective mask so the fumes can be inhaled.
How are chemical agents classified by the United States?
"Into Three Categories:
3) Dusty"
How is the protective mask "cleared?"
By placing the hand over the outlet and exhaling.
How long should a Soldier wait to give himself the second and third Mark One kits, if still experiencing symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent?
10 to 15 minutes for the second kit and 10 to 15 minutes for the third kit.
How long should firm pressure be applied when using an auto-injector?
At least ten seconds
How many levels of MOPP exist?
Five
How many Mark One kits does a Soldier receive?
Three
How much time is allotted to don the M40 protective mask?
Nine Seconds
How much time is allotted to mask with the M17A1 protective mask?
15 seconds with a hood and 9 seconds without a hood.
How much water may a Soldier lose, due to perspiration, while in MOPP 4?
At least one quart per hour.
How quickly should a Soldier administer the second Mark One during buddy aid, if the Soldier is still displaying signs of exposure to a nerve agent?
The second and third kits should be given immediately.
How quickly should a Soldier decontaminate his skin after initial contamination?
Within 60 seconds
If a Soldier begins to experience an unexplained runny nose, tightness in the chest, shortness of breath and dim vision, what type of agent has he or she encountered?
Nerve Gas
In what order should the straps on the protective mask be tightened?
"1) Forehead straps
3) Temple straps"
Is Tear or CS gas considered a toxic agent?
No
Name a peculiar side effect of being exposed to a Blood Agent/Gas.
Pink Skin
Name some gasses that M17 and M17A1 protective masks do not protect the Soldier against.
Natural and Industrial Gasses such as ammonia and carbon monoxide.
Name some methods that may be used to deliver biological and chemical agents.
"1) Low explosive Artillery or Mortars
3) Mist sprayed from an aircraft"
Name some types of biological microorganisms.
"1) Bacteria
4) Rickettsiae"
Name the forms that NBC contaminants can come in.
"1) Liquid
3) Gas"
Name the four basic uses for smoke in a tactical environment.
"1) Marking
4) Screening"
Name the four categories of nuclear effects.
"1) Blast
4) Thermal"
Name the four most common types of chemical agents.
"1) Nerve
4) Blood"
Name the three effects of a nuclear explosion.
"1) Heat
3) Radiation"
Name the three fundamentals of NBC Defense.
"1) Avoid Contamination
3) Decontamination"
Name the three levels of decontamination.
"1) Thorough
3) Operational"
Name the three types of Nuclear Burst.
"1) Air
3) Subsurface "
Name the three ways or types of procedures to exchange MOPP gear.
"1) Individual
3) Triple Buddy Team"
Name the two types of nerve agents.
G and V
Name three types of NBC warnings.
"1) Verbal
3) Hand and Arm Signals"
Of the three effects of a nuclear explosion, which one causes the most damage and why?
The initial blast due to the extreme heat and flying objects caused by high winds.
Out of Blister, Blood, and Nerve Agents, which one causes the most casualties?
Nerve
Should you use a poncho as a protective cover when under a chemical or biological attack from the air?
Yes
Under what circumstances should a Soldier mask without being told?
"1) Smoke from an unknown source is present
4) The position is actually hit by a NBC attack "
What agents are detected by M8 paper?
"1) G and V Nerve Agents
2) Blister Agents"
What are "Flash Burns?"
Burns received as a direct result of the initial flash and thermal radiation from a nuclear explosion.
What are some indications that a biological attack may have occurred?
"1) Mist or fog sprayed from an aircraft
6) Bombs that ""pop"" instead of exploding"
What are some methods that may be used to deploy chemical agents?
"1) Artillery and Mortars
4) Individuals"
What are some places that can be used as expedient cover in the event of a nuclear strike?
"1) Under tracked vehicles
5) Basements"
What are the standard decontaminants used by the US Army?
"1) Decontaminating Solution #2 or ""DS2""
2) Super Tropical Bleach or ""STB"""
What are the three methods of decontamination?
"1) Removing
3) Destroying"
What are the three types of Immediate Decontamination?
"1) Skin Decontamination
3) Operator Spray Down "
What are the two broad categories of biological agents?
"1) Toxins
2) Pathogens"
What are the two classifications of NBC hazards?
"1) Immediate Hazards
2) Residual Hazards"
What Biological Agent Detection system or device does the US Army have?
The Biological Integrated Detection System (BIDS)
What deficiencies would cause individual protective equipment to be unserviceable?
"1) Rips, cracks and tears
4) If exposed to petroleum products"
What difficulties and problems might a Soldier experience when in full MOPP gear?
"1) Hunger
5) Heat Stress"
What does "CARC" stand for?
Chemical Agent Resistant Coating
What does "CPOG" stand for?
Chemical Protective Outer Garment
What does "JLIST" stand for?
Joint Service Lightweight Suit Technology
What does "NBC" stand for?
Nuclear, Biological, Chemical
What does "SDK" stand for?
Skin Decontamination Kit
What does an M22 ACADA alarm warn you of?
Chemical Attack
What does C.B.R.N. stand for?
Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear
What does the acronym "MOPP" stand for?
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
What factors affect how effectively biological agents are employed?
"1) Light
3) Temperature"
What information is contained in an NBC-1 Report for a chemical or biological attack?
"1) Date, Time and Location of Attack
4) Type of Agent (if known)"
What information is contained in an NBC-1 Report for a nuclear attack?
"1) Date, Time and Location of Attack
4) Approximate Nuclear Cloud Measurements"
What is a "zoonose?"
A disease that can be naturally transmitted from animals to humans.
What is a Toxin?
The byproducts of pathogens, plants and animals.
What is an "IM 93/UD" and how is it used?
It is a personnel radioactivity dosimeter that measures total gamma radiation. It is used by pointing the instrument at the sun (or bright light) and looking through the lens.
What is an "Incapacitating Agent?"
An agent that is designed to cause temporary physical or mental effects that prevent personnel from performing their duties.
What is an AN VDR-2 used for?
To detect radiation
What is an NBC-1 Report and what is it used to determine?
It is the initial observers report of the use of NBC weapons. It determines where, when, what type and how an NBC attack occurred.
What is M8 and M9 paper designed to do?
Detect the presence of chemicals.
What is responsible for the majority of casualties in a nuclear attack?
The initial blast and heat from explosion.
What is the AN URR-13 used for?
It is used to measure total dosage of radiation received.
What is the best possible protection against biological hazards and agents?
Personal Hygiene and Immunizations
What is the best way to cross an area that is suspected of contamination?
Very quickly, while avoiding depressions, vegetation and kicking up dust.
What is the best way to decontaminate when exposed to a biological agent?
By washing with warm soapy water
What is the counter agent for G&V agents or nerve gas called?
Atropine
What is the M295 IEDK?
"Individual Equipment Decontamination Kit." It's the decontamination kit used for personal equipment
What is the maximum number of MK1, nerve agent kits, that may be given to a Soldier?
Three
What is the official nomenclature for the Skin Decontamination Kit or "SDK?"
M291
What is the primary difference between the M17 and M17A1 protective masks?
The M17A1 has a tube inside the mask that allows the Soldier to drink and give artificial respiration while fully masked.
What is the time standard to don the entire MOPP suit, from MOPP 0 to MOPP 4?
Eight minutes (buddy assisted)
What is the US policy in regard to the use of Biological and Nuclear Weapons?
The US will not use Biological Warfare under any circumstances, but reserves the right to use Nuclear Weapons if the President deems their use to be necessary.
What might cause the M9 paper to give a false positive reading?
Surfaces that are hot, dirty, oily or greasy.
What occurs if STB (Super Tropical Bleach) and DS2 (Decontamination Solution #2) are mixed?
Spontaneous Combustion
What shape and size are all contamination markers?
Triangular; eleven and a half inches (on the top) by eight inches by eight inches.
What should a Soldier do if he is in the open when a nuclear explosion occurs?
"1) Move to cover quickly (if expedient)
5) Stay in position until the initial wave passes and debris is no longer falling"
What should a Soldier do upon hearing the alarm for an NBC attack?
"1) Stop Breathing and Close Eyes
5) Continue the mission "
What should be avoided when using decontamination wipes and powders?
Wiping the eyes, mouth or open wounds.
What should be done with the autoinjector after use?
It should be pinned on the left flap of the jacket of the Soldier who received the injection.
What two things should be avoided when crossing a contaminated area?
"1) Touching anything
2) Stirring up dust"
What types of vectors may be used to disseminate biological agents?
"1) Fleas
4) Mosquitoes"
When an atomic explosion occurs, what types of rays are emitted?
"1) Alpha
3) Gamma"
When is it vital to change the filters in the protective mask?
When the filter gets wet or is exposed to a blood agent.
When is MOPP 1 used?
When it is possible that a chemical or biological attack may occur.
When is MOPP 2 used?
When it is likely that a chemical or biological attack may occur.
When is MOPP 3 used?
When protection against chemical or biological vapors is necessary.
When is MOPP 4 used?
When chemical or biological agents are present and a high degree of protection is necessary.
When M8 paper detects a liquid chemical agent, what signature colors does it give?
Red, Yellow or Green
When should a Soldier give warning of a NBC attack; before or after masking?
After
Where would M9 paper be attached to the MOPP gear?
If the Soldier is right handed the paper should be attached to the upper right arm, left wrist and right ankle. It should be the opposite for left-handed personnel.
Which agent causes the M8 alarm to react?
Chemical
Which agent smells like newly mown hay?
Choking
Which decon agent does the M11 portable decontamination device utilize?
DS2 (Decontaminating Solution #2)
Which direction should the face of the protective mask point when packed in the carrying case?
Outward
Which FM covers "Chemical and Biological Contamination Avoidance?"
FM 3-3
Which FM covers "NBC Decontamination?"
FM 3-5
Which FM covers "NBC Operations?"
FM 3-11
Which FM covers "NBC Protection?"
FM 3-11.4
Which FM covers "Nuclear Contamination Avoidance?"
FM 3-3-1
Which FM is the NBC Handbook?"
FM 3-7
Which is more deadly, a nerve agent or a toxin?
A toxin
Which nuclear burst is used if the maximum radiation effect is desired?
The air burst
Which places are effective targets for a biological attack?
"1) Cities
4) Flocks of animals"
Which report is the most widely used NBC report?
The NBC 1 Report
Who is the only person authorized to order the use of nuclear weapons?
The US President
Who should make the decision to unmask after an NBC attack?
The person in command
Whose autoinjector should be used when giving buddy aid?
The person's receiving the aid.
Why is the evening and early morning considered to be the most effective time to utilize chemical agents?
The lack of wind and sunlight make it possible for chemical agents to persist.
Are Chaplains authorized to take command if no other Officers are present?
No. But they are authorized to act as a supervisor.
Define the term "Command."
The legal authority, by virtue of rank or assignment, to exercise control over subordinates.
Describe the NCO Support Channel.
The NCO channel of communications that runs parallel to, and reinforces the Chain of Command.
Explain the concept of "Military Rank."
Position or status held by individuals in the military.
Explain the difference between grade and rank.
"Rank = is a Title
Grade = an Administrative Classification"
Explain the difference between Management and Leadership.
"Leadership = Directly influences subordinates
Management = Indirectly influences subordinates"
How is command exercised?
Through subordinate commanders and leaders
How is precedence or seniority of rank determined among Soldiers of equal rank?
"1) Date of Rank
3) Date of Birth"
How is the NCO Support Channel structured?
The NCO Support Channel begins with the CSM and ends with the Section, Squad or Team Leader.
How is the NCO Support Channel supported by the Chain of Command?
The Chain of Command punishes those who challenge the authority given to NCOs.
If a Sergeant is to accomplish his business, what is it necessary for him or her to have?
The skills, ability and leadership to effectively train and lead Soldiers in combat.
In the US Army, "Rank" is usually held by virtue of what?
Grade or Assignment
Is the CSM considered part of the Chain of Command?
No. The CSM is the NCO Support Channel Supervisor.
It is customary to address all military personnel by their rank, with the exception of who?
Chaplains
Name the key elements of command.
Authority and Responsibility
On what date was the NCO Support Channel formally recognized?
20 December 1976
On what date was the position of Sergeant Major of the Army established?
4 July 1966
There are three formal channels of communication in the US Army, what are they?
"1) Chain of Command
3) Staff and Technical Channels"
What amount of authority is allotted to each echelon or level in the Chain of Command?
As much authority as is necessary to complete the mission.
What channel of communication reinforces and runs parallel to the Chain of Command?
The NCO Support Channel
What classes and grades are ranks in the US Army broken into?
"1) General Officers
9) Privates"
What is "Duty?"
The legal and moral obligation to do what needs to be done, without being told to do so.
What is "Responsibility?"
An accountability for your actions.
What is a Command Sergeant Major and what is his or her role?
The CSM acts as the Senior Enlisted Advisor to Commanders at the Battalion level and higher. The CSM also supervises the NCO Support Channel for the unit.
What is a Sergeant?
A Leader
What is the business of Sergeants?
The leadership and training of Soldiers.
What is the Chain of Command?
The hierarchal system of control through which command is exercised.
What is the precedence of rank between members in the Army and other services?
Members of other services, that have grade of rank equivalent to the Army's, have equal status with those Soldiers in the Army.
What rank provides the US Army it's basic strength?
The Private
What role does the Sergeant Major of the Army serve?
The SMA is the Senior Sergeant Major of the Army. The SMA serves as the Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Army Chief of Staff.
Where does the Chain of Command begin and end?
It begins with the Private at the bottom and ends with the President of the United States at the top.
Which AR covers the Chain of Command, Equal Opportunity Program and Military Discipline?
AR 600-20
Who is both a member of the Chain of Command and the NCO Support Channel?
The Squad Leader
Who is the liaison between the Chain of Command and the NCO Support Channel?
The Senior NCO of the unit
Who is the only civilian authorized to take command in the military?
The President of the US
Can you accept special favors or gifts from the enemy as a POW?
No