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182 Cards in this Set

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Lamellar bodies of type ___ pneumocytes contain ______.
Lamellar bodies of type II pneumocytes contain:
phospholipids--major component of surfactant!
Trypsinogen:
Released from
Activated by
Cause of deficiency
Signs of deficiency
Released from pancreas
Activated by enterokinase/peptidase

Cause of def: low enterokinase/peptidase

Signs of deficiency:
Diarrhea
Growth retardation
Hypoproteinemia
HBsAg:
What does it mean?
When does it appear?
Appears before onset of syx, when patient is most ill, and then becomes undetectable in 3-6 months, unless dz progresses to chronic phase
Lipase:
Released from
Cause of deficiency
Signs of deficiency
Released from pancreas (digests TGs)

Chronic pancreatitis causes low lipase

Leads to steatorrhea (foul smelling bulky stools containing undigested fat)
HBeAg:
What does it mean?
When does it appear?
Appears after HBsAg first appears; means active viral replication
Lactase:
Produced by
Signs of deficiency
Lactase produced by intestinal brush border (converts lactose to glucose and galactose)

Lactose intolerance
HBV DNA:
What does it mean?
When does it appear?
Appears after HBsAg first appears; means active viral replication
Secretin:
Released by
Effects
Released by S cells of duodenum in response to low pH

Stimulates bicarb release from pancreas, gall bladder
Reduces acid secretion in stomach by inhibiting gastrin production
Anti-HBcAg IgM:
When does it appear?
Appears shortly before symptom onset
Huntington Disease:
Presentation
Age of Onset
Movement disorder (chorea)
Aggressiveness, apathy, depression
Anemia

Onset in 40s-50s

100% penetrance
Anti-HBcAg IgG:
When does it appear?
Months after symptom onset
Define genetic anticipation.
Tendency for clinical symptoms to worsen and/or occur earlier in subsequent generations.
What determines whether HBV has high or low infectivity in a patient?

What about high or low replication?
High infectivity if high HBeAg
Same goes for replication
Define pleiotropy.
One gene mutation leads to multiple phenotypic abnlts

Ex: Huntington's leads to chorea, bhvrl abnlts, anemia (multiple phenotypes)
Anti-HBsAg IgG:
When does it appear?
Arises once acute disease resolves and is not detectable until week or months after HBsAg has disappeared.

May persist indefinitely, conferring lifelong immunity.
CAG repeats
Huntington's

Increased number w/spermatogenesis (pts who receive abnl gene from dads develop dz earlier in life)
What is heteroplasmy?
Random distribution of normal and mutated mitochondria between daughter cells leads to some cells having healthy mitochondria while other cells have mutated mitochondria.

Related to mitochondrial disease.
Define genetic mosaicism.
Two populations of cells w/different genotypes; ex: Turner's can exist as 46XX or 45X0

or Klinefelter's as 46XY, 47XXY
What disease is exclusively inherited from mothers?
Mitochondrial disease
Define genetic imprinting.
Selective inactivation of genes of either maternal or paternal origin. Ex: Prader-Willi and Angelman; both involve deletion of same gene on same chromosome, but if deletion comes from father-->Prader-Willi Syndrome (insatiable hunger, thirst, emotional lability)

Deletions from mom-->Angelman syndrome (happy puppet syndrome-->jerky movements and happy disposition)
Leber hereditary optic neuropathy:
Disease type
Presentation
Mitochondrial disease (From mom)
B/L vision loss
Describe stages of menstrual cycle:
Label phases and days
Hormones released, effects
Histologic changes
Proliferative (Follicular) Phase - Days 1-14:
Estrogen-->proliferation of striatum functionale; nonbranching, nonbudding uniform glands; glands are tubular, narrow, pseudostratified, elongated

Secretory (Luteal) Phase - Days 15-28:
PG-->secretory endothelium
Glands enlarge, coil, acquire cytoplasmic vacules
Glycogen-rich mucus released into glandular lumen
Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged-reg fibers:
Disease Type
Presentation
Mitochondrial dz (from mom)

Myoclonic seizures and myopathy assocd w/exercise
Skeletal muscle bx shows irregularly shaped muscle fibers (ragged red fibers)
Klinefelter's:
Presentation
Karyotype
Lab findings
Klinefelter's: 47XXY
Male hypogonadism
Small atrophic testes, small penis
No secondary male chars (no deep voice, no bear, no male pattern pubic hair)

Lab findings:
Inc'd FSH, Inc'd E2, Dec'd Test
Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes:
Disease Type
Presentation
Mitochondrial disease (from mom)

Seizures
Stroke-like episodes with neurologic deficit
Elevated lactate levels post-exercise and at rest
This determines the extent of feminization in Klinefelter's.
E:T ratio
What antibodies prevent reinfection with influenza?
Anti-hemagglutinin IgG Abs in circulaiton

Mucosal Anti-hemagglutinin IgA Abs in nasopharynx

This goes for influenza type A, B, and C.
These arteries arise from the root of the aorta.

What are their subdivisions?
What regions of the heart do they supply?
R and L main coronary arteries

L Main coronary--> LAD and Circumflex (anterior/lateral heart)

R Main coronary--> posterior descending artery (90% of patients)--inferior wall of LV (diaphragmatic surface)
DNA methyltransferase:
Role
Effect
Transfers methyl group donors (such as S-adenosyl-methionine) to cytosine residues in DNA molecule

DNA methylation can silence gene expression without affecting genetic sequence (thus altering phenotype)
This artery supplies to SA and AV nodal arteries.
Right coronary a
What is genetic imprinting?
Offspring's genes expressed in parent-specific manner. Produced by DNA methylation.
E. coli:
Gram -/+
Aerobic/Anaerobic
Shape
Gram negative rod (bacillus)
Anaerobe
Family history suspicious of asthma (triad).
Asthma
Allergic rhinitis
Atopic dermatitis
Virulence factor:
E coli causing neonatal meningitis
K-1 antigen
Methacholine:
Drug class
Use
Muscarinic agonist-->bronchoconstriciton, inc'd airway secretions

Use to provoke asthma attack
Virulence factor:
Enterotoxigenic E coli
Heat labile enterotoxins (increases intracellular cAMP just like cholera)

Labile like the air--inc'd adenylate cyclase activity-->secretory diarrhea

(stable like the ground--inc'd guanylate cyclase activity)
Asthma:
PFT values
Dec'd FEV1
Dec'd peak expiratory flow rate
Typically reversible w/bronchodilator (albuterol)
Virulence factor:
E coli causing UTI
Fimbriae--allows for bacterial adhesion of uroepithelial cells
Scopolamine:
Drug Class
Use
Muscarinic antagonist
For motion sickness
Nucleus ceruleus:
NT
Function
NE
Fight or flight response to physical and emotional stress
Phenoxybenzamine:
Drug Class
Use
Non-selective alpha-adrenergic antagonist

Pheochromocytoma
Nucleus Basalis of Meynert:
NT
Disease Association
ACh

Depleted in AD
Ipratropium bromide:
Drug Class
Use
Muscarinic antagonist

Asthma
Red Nucleus:
Role
Motor coordination of upper extremities
Which enzymes require lipoic acid to function?
Result if lack of lipoic acid?
PDH: deficiency-->lactic acidosis

alpha-ketoglutarate DH & branched-chain ketoacid DH: deficiency-->maple syrup urine disease
Caudate Nucleus:
NT
Disease Association
GABA, ACh

Along with putamen, form striatum

Affected in HD
Which benzodiazepenes have the shortest half-life?
Alprazolam = SHORTEST half-life (less than 12 hours)

Lorazepam: 10-15 hours
Chediak-Higashi Syndrome:
Presentation
Pathophys
Albinism
Nystagmus
Recurrent staph and strep infections

Abnl nphil phagosome lysosomefusion-->neuro abnlts
Acute, painless monocular vision loss
Central retinal artery occlusion; often permanent
DiGeorge Syndrome:
Presentation
Pathophys
Thymic and parathryoid hypoplasia
Abnl facies
Cardiac defects
Recurrent viral, fungal, protozoal infections

Due to Chrom 22 deletion-->maldevelopment of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches
Retinal artery occlusion:
Risk factors
Atrial fibrillaiton
Carotid artery stenosis
Lanhans Cell:
Formed by
Associated disease
Langhans giant cells seen in caseating granulomas of M. tuberculosis infection

Macs that form activated by CD4+ TH1 lymphocytes
Cotton wool exudates
Diabetic retinopathy
Where (anatomically) do the majority of gastric ulcers occur?

Arteries involved?
Great majority occur at lesser curvature, at border b/t acid-secreting and gastrin-secreting mucosa

Left and Right gastric aa run along lesser curvature and are likely to be damaged
Injury to medial epicondyle of humerus:
Affected nerve
Ulnar ("funny bone")
These arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach.
Left (proximal) and right (distal) gastroepiploic aa

Note: Short gastric aa also supply prxoimal greater curvature above splenic a
Injury to supracondylar humerus:
Affected nerve
Median
Why is HCV genetically unstable?
Lacks proofreading 3'-->5' exonuclease activity

Thus makes many errors during replication and can readily mutate
Injury to hook of hamate:
Affected nerve
Ulnar
Concern when initiating ACE inhibitors.
First dose hypotension (usually mild but can be dangerous)

Must check if pt is taking thiazide or loop diuretics bc pts may be hypovolemia/hyponatremic.
Sensation to posterior arm and forearm:
Nerve
Radial
Patient presents with xanthoma.
Father died at 35 of MI.
Mother suffers from RA.

Concern?
Hyperlipidemia
Sensation to lateral forearm:
Nerve
Musculocutaneous
COPD:
Cause
Symptoms
Pathophys
Lung volume findings
Cause: heavy smoking

Pathophys: chronic bronchitis and emphysema

Lung vol:
Dec'd FEV1/FVC due to expiratory airflow obstruction

Dec'd FVC

Inc'd TLC

Inc'd RV due to destruction of intralveolar walls, dec'd lung elastic recoil, distal airspace enlargement
Flexion of forearm:
Nerve
Musculocutaneous
Patient with 30 pack-year smoking history presents with progressive exertional dyspnea:

Pathophys
Centriacinar emphysema due to oxidative injury of respiratory bronchioles and activation of resident macs

Nphils recreuited to airspace and release elastase, proteinase, etc (macs do this too)
Extension of forearm:
Nerve
Radial
Type I vs Type II Pneumocytes:
Abundance
Role
Type I: constitute over 95% of alveolar lining (target of destruction in emphysema)

Type II: Source of surfactant and responsible for repair of epithelium after destruction of type I cells
E. coli colonies grown on lactose-containing medium up-regulated production of two different enzymes.

Why?
Bacterial mRNA can be polycistronic, meaning, one mRNA codes for several proteins.

Transcription of these proteins is regulated by single promoter, operator, and regulatory elements.
t(14;18):
Effects
Causes overexpression of BCL2-->follicular lymphoma
Myastenia gravis:
Presentation
Pathophys
Tx
Waxing, waning progressive weakness of voluntary muscles (ocular, masticatory, facial, deglutitional, lingual movement)

Weakening during continued activity

Rapid restoratino of strength of affected mm w/rest

Due to auto-ab's x postsynaptic nicotinic ACh receptors-->REDUCED END-PLATE POTENTIAL

Tx: Pyridostigmine--cholinesterase inhibitor
C-MYC gene:
Associated disease
Histologic appearance
Burkitt's lymphoma
Starry sky
Scopolamine:
MOA
Muscarinic antagonist--inhibits effects of ACh agonist at gut and NOT skeletal muscle (skel muscle uses nicotinic receptors)
BCL2:
Associated Disease
Follicular Lymphoma
Pilocarpine:
MOA
Nonselective muscarinic agonist
BCR-ABL:
Associated Disease
CML

Note: BCR-ABL directs synthesis of protein tyrosine kinase that participates in signal transduction regulating cell growth
Edwards Syndrome:
Chromosomal abnormality
Presentation
Trisomy 18, 47XX

Microcephaly
Small jaws
Small eyes (microophtlamia)
Low-set ears
Rocker-bottom feet
Clenched hands, overlapping fingers****
Fever
Smoker
Diarrhea
Confusion
Legionella pneumophila (community acquires pneumonia)
Patau Syndrome:
Chromosomal abnormality
Presentation
Trisomy 13

Cleft lip, palate
Polydactyly
Omphalocele (intestines protrude from navel)
Legionella:
Gram -/+
Presentation
Treatment
Gram -
Fever, diarrhea, HA, confusion in smokers

Tx w/erythromycin
Patient in tractor accident with severe pain in leg. Leg swells rapidly and radiograph reveals gas in tissues.

Pathophys?
Gas gangrene due to Clostridium perfringens.
Draw and label jugular venous pressure chart.
a = right atrial contraction
c = bulging of tricuspid valve into right atrium (early systole)
x = right atrial relaxation
v = passive increase in pressure and volume
y = tricupid valve opens and right atrium passively empties (RV passively fills)
Clostridium perfringens:
Gram -/+
Aerobic/anaerobic
Shape
Effects
Gram +
Anaerobe
Rod (bacillus)

Causes gas gangrene, late-onset food poisoning characterized by watery diarrhea (when clostridial spores ingested)
Constrictive pericarditis:
CT scan findings
JV pressure findings
Causes
CT: Thickening and calcification of pericardium
JV Pressure: rapid and steep y descent

Causes: XRT to chest, cardiac surgery, Tb (especially in pt immigrating from endemic region!!)
How does glucose cause insulin release from pancreatic beta cells?
Glucose enters cell via GLUT-2
Undergoes oxidation-->ATP

ATP binds KATP channel (K+)-->channel closes, causes depol-->Ca2+ channel depol-->Insulin release
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
JV pressure findings
Prominent a wave
Sulfonylureas:
MOA
Example
Bind regulatory subunits of KATP channels and cause them to close

Note: Defect in KATP channel (K+ channel) in beta cells-->never closes, no insulin release

Ex: glimepiride
Eczema
Recurrent infections
Thrombocytopenia
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
This hormone stimulates release of pancreatic bicarb.

Origin of hormone?
Secretin; released by duodenal S cells in response to low pH
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome:
Presentation
Pathophys
Triad: eczema, thrombocytopenia, recurrent infections; onset ealry in life (within first year--after 6 month period of maternal colustrum IgA/mucosal IgG protection wears off)

Pathophys: B and T cell deficiency-->inability to mount humoral immune response against encapsulated organisms (Neisseria meningititids, H. influenzae, Strep pneumo)

Note: WAITER mnemonic--immunodeficiency, thrombocytopenia (purpura), eczema, recurrent pyogenic infections
Hemoglobin subunits during development.
Embryonic (yolk sac): 2 zeta, 2 epsilon chains
Fetal (most of gestation to first few months of life): 2 alpha, 2 gamma
Adult (last month of gestation through life): 2 alpha, 2 beta
T-tubules:
Role
Invaginations of sarcolemma that transmit depolarization signals to sarcoplasmic reticulum-->trigger release of calcium

Required for coordinated contraction of myofibrils
When does a beta-thalassemia present?
In infancy (around 6 months), bc baby still has gamma subunits in Hgb
What are ryanodine receptors?
Calcium release channels opened under influence of activated dihydropyridine receptors on T-tubules
Draw and label sarcomere
Note: Z to Z = 1 sarcomere

Z = thin, actin; anchor
I = unbound actin

M = thick, myosin; anchor
H = unbound myosin
A = overlapping actin and myosin
Acute onset dyspnea
Calf swelling
Prolonged immobility
Pulmonary embolism
What is non-coding RNA?
Examples?
RNA molecules that carry out functions without first being translated into proteins

Ex: snRNA, rRNA, tRNA
Pulmonary embolism:
Arterial blood gas values (provide normal values as a reference)
PE-->hypoxemia-->Acute respiratory alkalosis

Thus:
-Inc'd pH (nL7.35-7.45)
-Reduced PaO2 (nL 80-95)
-Reduced PaCO2 (35-45)

Alkalosis because the initial increase in CO2 (post-PE) results in an increased minute ventilation (hyperventilation)-->blow off too much CO2!
Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs):
Function
Important component of spliceosome--removes introns from pre-mRNA within nucleus
What is negative predictive value?

How does it differ from sensitivity?
Probability of being disease free if test result is negative

NPV varies with pretest probability of dz, for ex: pt with high probability of having disease will have a low NPV with a negative test, whereas pt with low probability of having dz will have high NPV with negative test

Note: prevalence of dz directly related to pre-test probability

Sensitivity (and specificity) are fixed values!
Amiodarone:
AEs
Precautions
AEs:
Thyroid dysfn
Corneal micro-deposits
Blue-gray skin discoloration
Hepatitis (drug-related)
Pulmonary fibrosis

Amiodarone is 40% iodine by weight and can result in thyroid dysfunction (can be treated w/levothyroxine while continuing amiodarone)

MUST test patients for TSH levels
G-protein/adenylate cyclase second messenger system:
Which hormones employ this?
What occurs after a hormone binds?
Glucagon, TSH, PTH

Bind receptor-->GDP swapped for GTP

Alpha-subunit (Gs) activates adenylate cyclase-->cAMP

cAMP-->activates Protein Kinase A-->physiologic effects

Protein Kinase A is essential for this second messenger system!
Sensitivity vs Specificity
Sensitivity: True Pos/Number of subjects w/dz

Specificity: True Neg/Number of subjects without dz
African-American
Bilateral hilar adenopathy
Fever, weight loss
Cough
Sarcoidosis

Would expect to see non-caseating granulomas
Sensitivity of test is 70%
Specificity of test is 90%

100 patients truly have disease
200 patients truly do not

How many false positives in study?
Make a table:
Horizontal :+UTI, -UTI, Totals
Vertical: Test positive, Test negative

Values:
70, 20, 90
30, 180, 210
Totals: 100, 200, 300

False positives = 20
Biopsy for TB shows ______.
CASEATING granuloma with acid fast bacilli
Prinzmetal's Angina:
Presentation
Diagnostics
Episodic, transient attacks of coronary vasospasm
Occurs at rest and during nighttime hours (early morning too)

Produce temporary transmural MI with ST-segment elevation

Dx w/ergonovine (provokes this vasospasm); tx w/nitrates, CCBs
Hemoglobin electrophoresis results for:
Normal Hgb
HgbC
HgbS
Normal Hgb will migrate most towards anode (+)

HgbC will migrate LEAST towards anode (+) bc has lysine (positively charged) where it should have glutamate

HgbS will be in between bc valine (neutral) replaces glutamate
Healthy patient inoculated with clostridium difficile does not develop signs of infection.

Why?
Intestinal biomass prevents overgrowth of c diff.

Note; gastric acidity dos not destroy c. diff spores
Hgb C:
Type of mutation
What exactly happens?
Missense mutation that substitutes glutamate with lysine resulting in (+) charge
cAMP levels:
Effect on heart activity
Which receptor increases cAMP at the heart?
Vascular effect of cAMP
Beta-agonists-->inc'd cAMP-->inc'd conductance of calcium channels-->inc'd contractility

Inc'd cAMP in vasc SM-->vasodilation
Non-histamine effects of diphenhydramine.

What other drug exhibits these effects?
Diphenhydramine and chlorpheniramine are first-generation antihistamines.

Have following effects:
Antimuscarinic (blurry vision secondary to pupillary dilation/failure of accommodation; dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation)

Anti-alpha adrenergic (NE): hypotn, postural dizziness

Anti-serotonergic: appetite stimulation, weight gain
How does nitroglycerin relieve angina pectoris?
Venodilation-->retention of blood in venous system

-->Dec'd cardiac preload/work/myocardial oxygen demand and thus, dec in LV volume
Changes in viral host range (organisms it can infect) is likely due to _______.
Mutations in surface glycoproteins (mediates virion attachment to target host cell plasmalemma receptors)
Preload =
LV fill volume
Methylmalonic acidemia:
Pathophys (include carboxylation)
Catabolism of isoleucine, valine, odd-chain Fas, cholesterol (etc.)-->propionic acid-->methylmalonic acid via biotin-dependent carboxylation

Isomerization of methylmalonyl Coa-->Succinyl CoA-->TCA cycle

If have defect in isomerization-->methylmalonic acidemia
Which drugs are P450 inducers?
Barbiturates
Phenytoin
Rifampin
Carbamazepine
Griseofulvin
Chronic EtOH

Barb takes Phen-Phen and Rifuses to take GRISy CARBs and Alcohol.
Beta-hemolytic gram-positive cocci in chains
Bacitracin resistant
Streptococcus (staph forms clusters)

Bacitracin resistant excludes S pyogenes (GAS) and indicates S agalactiae (GBS)
B
Which drugs are P450 inhibitors?
PICK EGS
Protease Inhibitors!!!
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole (other azoles)
Erythromycin (other macrolides)
Grapefruit Juice
Sulfonamides
How would you prevent fetal infection with vaginal GBS during childbirth?
Intrapartum ampicillin
Which drug classes are shown to slow progression of diabetic nephropathy?

Class suffixes?
ACE inhibitors (pril)--Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (sartan)
Prophylaxis for definitive exposure to N. meningitidis.
Rifampin. Note: this is a monotherapy!
Microalbuminuria vs Macroalbuminuria:
Cutoffs
Which can dipstick identify?
Microalbuminuria: 30-300mg albumin/day

Macroalbuminuria: 300+mg albumin/day

Dip stick can only ID macroalbuminuria
Diuretic of choice for someone with HTN/CHF and osteoporosis.

Why?
HCTZ

HCTZ is not only a diuretic, but also increases absorption of calcium from DCTs.

Applies to all thiazides!

Note: HCTZ also induces hypocalciuria (since Ca2+ is absorbed) which mhelps prevent renal stones in some pts.
MAO Inhibitors:
Indication
ATYPICAL depression

Not a first-line tx for depression
Describe and identify murmur.
Decrescendo Diastolic

Aortic Regurgitation
Phenelzine:
Drug Class
MAO-I
Describe and identify murmur.
Crescendo/Decrescendo Systolic Murmur

Aortic Stenosis
Tranylcypromine:
Drug Class
MAO-I
Describe and identify murmur.
Holosytolic Murmur

Mitral Regurgitation
Atypical Depression:
Presentation
Mood reactivity
Leaden Fatigue (arms and legs feel heavy)
Inc'd sleep and appetite
Rejection sensitivity (overly sensitive to slight criticism)
Describe and identify murmur.
Decrescendo Diastolic with Opening Snap

Mitral Stenosis
Recurrent pulmonary infections
Exocrine gland fibrotic atrophy
Cystic Fibrosis
Describe and identify murmur.
S3 Ventricular Gallop (protodiastolic)
Vitamin deficiencies seen in cystic fibrosis?

Why?
CF-->pancreatic insufficiency (inspissated mucus)-->fat malabsorption

Deficiency of Vits A, D, E, K
Describe and identify murmur.
S4 Atrial Gallop (Presystolic)
Lack of vitamin A results in ______.
Vitamin A maintains dx/dy of specialized epithelia (columnar epithelia of ocular conjunctiva, respiratory and urinary tracts, panreatic and other exocrine ducts)

Lack of vitamin A-->squamous metaplasia of such epithelia-->keratinizing epithelium
Holosystolic, blowing murmur
Mitral regurgitation
Lack of vitamin E results in ______.
Infertility
23-year old immigrant from developing nation
Mitral regurgitation
Dyspnea on exertion
Rheumatic heart dz
Mesolimbic-Mesocortical System:
NT Released
Function
Disease Association
DA released

Regulates behavior

Assocd w/Schizophrenia
Systolic ejection murmur
Atrial septal defect
Nigrostriatal System:
NT Released
Function
Disease Association
DA release

Coordination of voluntary movements

Assocd w/PD
Mid-systolic ejection murmur over right second intercostal space, radiation to neck
Bicuspid aortic valve
Tuberoinfundibular System:
NT Released
Function
Disease Association
DA

Controls PL secretion

Assocd w/hyperprolactinemia
Opening snap murmur
Mitral stenosis
Male pattern baldness:
Describe pattern
Treatment
Hair loss from anterior scalp and vertex

Possible to treat with finasteride--5-alpha reductase inhibitors to inhibit production of DHT
Interrupted migration of neural crest cells to intestine:
Associated disease
Region affected
NCC's form submucosal (Meissner) and myenteric (Auerbach_ plexi

This is Hirschprung's Dz; affects rectum because NCCs migrate caudally!
Paramesonephric ducts become _______.
uterine tubes
uterus
cervix
superior 1/3 of vagina
Thiazolidinediones:
MOA
AEs
Activate PPAR-gamma (peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma), which alters transcription of genes responsible for glucose and lipid metabolism.

Overall effect: inc'd insulin sensitivity.

Does not cause hypoglycemia!

AEs: fluid retention, weight gain, precipitation of CHF from fluid retention
Failure of paramesonephric ducts to fuse results in ______.
uterus didelphys--two separate vaginas, cercies, uterine horns
G6PD Deficiency Anemia:
Hallmark sign
Causes
Bite cells, Heinz bodies

Causes:
Oxidative stress from:
-Infection
-Drugs: DAPSONE, antimalarials, TMP-SMX
-DKA
-Favism (FRESH FAVA BEANS)
Mesonephric ducts become ______.
Males: epidydmis, ductus deferens, SVs, Ejaculatory Ducts

Females: Gartner's ducts
Bite cells, Heinz bodies-->G6PD deficiency
Mesonephric tubules become ______.
Males: efferent ductules (carries sperm from testis to epididymis)
Respiratory Syncytial Virus:
Effects
Presentation
Treatment
Viral bronchiolitis in children (usually self-limiting though)

Presents as wheezing, rales, prolonged expiration

If severe and no comorbidities: warmed humidified oxygen and IV fluids

If severe RSV in child w/immunodeficiency, prematurity, or cardiopulmonary dz-->RIBAVIRIN
Involution of the _________ only occurs in males.
Paramesonephric ducts
Ganciclovir:
Use
Herpes
Incomplete fusion of the urethral folds results in _______.
Hypospadias--uretrha opens at ventral surface of penis rather than distal end of glans
Acute obstruction of small airways in infant
RSV
____ positivity in breast cancer indicates sensitivity to tamoxifen treatment.
Estrogen Receptor (ER)
Progesterone Receptor (PR)
What is a latent period (epidemiology)?
Time elapsed from initial exposure (treatment) to clinically apparent disease
____ positivity in breast cancer indicates an aggressive tumor that should respond to _________.
ERB-B2 (HER2/NEU) positivity = aggressive tumor-->treat with MAB trastuzumab
When does selection bias occur?
Inappropriate (non-random) selection methods or through selective attrition of study participants
Positive VDRL
Pleocytosis
Neurosyphilis

VDRL = venereal disease research laboratory
When does lead time baias occurs?
Note: Lead time = time between initial detection of dz and specific outcome or measured endpoint

Lead time bias can occur when comparing 2 different tests for same dz when one of tests can accurately detect dz at earlier stage. May erroneously conclude that earlier-detection test prolongs survival, when increased survival time is due solely to earlier detection of disease.
4 stages of syphilis and findings of each
Primary: painless ulceration with raised borders = CHANCRE

Secondary syphilis: bacteremia; diffuse macular rash of palms, soles; CONDYLOMA LATA (wart-like growths on genital/perineum)

Latent Syphilis: asyx

Tertiary: many years after infection in untx'd individuals; neurosyphilis (positive VDRL and pleocytosis); GUMMAS--benign, painless, indurated granulomatous lzns
Short upper and lower extremities compared to axial skeleton
Achondroplastic dwarfiwm
What are keloids?
Keloids result from excessive collagen formation during tissue repair

Present as soft or firm nodules that grow beyond borders of wounds
Achondroplasia:
Most common defect
Pathophys
Mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 at epiphyseal growth plate-->inhibits growth and results in short, thick long bones; but normal axial skeleton
3 phases of wound healing and time (days) after infection.
Inflammatory phase: nphils--first 24 hours; macs (2-3 days)

Proliferative phase: 3-5 days--fibroblasts, endothelial vascular cells proliferate

Maturation: fibrosis (scar formation); by 6-8 week initial scar is complete
Short stature
Axial and appendicular skeleton are proportionate
GH/IGF-1 deficiency
These organisms form spores and are resistant to high temperatures, desiccation, and chemical agents.
Bacillus and Clostridium

Both found in soil
Deficiency of what vitamin in premature neonate can be life threatening in first week of life?

Why?
Vitamin K deficiency.

Infants have immature liver, sterile GI tract, and breast milk has little vitamin K.

Vitamin K deficiency puts infant at risk of hemorrhagic disease of newborn (leads to intracranial bleeding!)
Brain section with extensive atherosclerosis in vascular beds reveals ischemic lesion.

Describe healing process.
Ischemia-->Neurons die
Macs phagocytize neuronal fragments and debris, stay for a few months.

Astrocytes enlarge and proliferate (gliosis) to form a wall around cystic cavity.
Cancer stage vs grade (general)
Stage = how much tumor spreads to adjacent tissues/distant organs

Grade = degree of tumor differentiation; well-diff = low grade (likely benign)

Large number of cells in S phase-->high grade tumor; poor prognosis
Definitive diagnosis of acute calculous cholecystitis.
Radionuclide biliary scan (HIDA) failing to show gallbladder is definitive dx

Nonobstructing biliary stones seen on u/s are suggestive but not diagnostic.
Nitroprusside:
MOA
Use
AE
Mixed arterial and venous vasodilation

Use in hypertensive emergency

AE:
Nitroprusside initially metabolized to cyanide
Can result in cyanide toxicity
Cyanide toxicity:
Cause
Treatment
Cyanide (duh)
Nitroprusside (initially metabolized to cyanide)

Treat with sodium thiosulfate (SULFUR); enables liver's ability to convert cyanide to thiocyanate
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome:
Cause
Presentation
Haloperidol = most common cause

Due to anti-DA activity of antipsychotics (esp of D2 receptor)

Presentation:
Hyperthermia
Generalized rigidity
Autonomic instability
Altered mental status
Agitation
Serotonin Syndrome:
Cause
Presentation
Combined use of SSRIs and MAOIs associated with serotonin syndrome (increases serotoninergic tone)

Presents with myoclonus (muscle twitching)
Overactive reflexes
Hyperthermia
Agitation
Label GU structures