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200 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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which of the following is the science of body function?
a. biochemistry b. histology c. physiology d. anatomy |
c. physiology
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what is the major constituent of the human body?
a. carbon b. water c. muscle d. bone |
b. water
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what is the fuctional unit of the body?
a. organs b. tissues c. action potentials d. cells |
d. cells
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what is the major extracellular ion?
a. sodium b. chloride c. potassium d. oxygen |
a. sodium
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What is the major intracellular ion?
a. Sodium b. Magnesium c. Potassium d. Protein |
c. Potassium
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Where is the majority of the water found in the body?
A Blood B Intracellular fluid C Extracellular fluid D Interstitial fluid |
B Intracellular fluid
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What type of feedback leads to an event and then reduces in strength?
a Positive b Negative c Neutral d Endocrine only |
a Positive
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What type of feedback is primarily used in homeostasis?
a Positive b Negative c Neutral d Neural only |
b Negative
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What is the primary regulator of the autonomic nervous system
a Visceral reflexes b Sympathetic nervous system c Parasympathetic nervous system d Hypothalamus |
d Hypothalamus
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What is the primary function of the autonomic nervous system
a Blood pressure regulation b Regulation of homeostasis c Production of hormones d Production of action potentials |
b Regulation of homeostasis
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The celiac ganglion is a major collateral ganglia of which nervous system?
a Sympathetic b Parasympathetic c Peripheral d Central |
a Sympathetic
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Which of the following is a major part of the sympathetic nervous system?
a Adrenal cortex b Sacral spinal nerves c Adrenal medullae d Vagus nerve |
c Adrenal medullae
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Which of the following has a similar origin as norepinephrine?
a Epinephrine b Acetylcholine c Choline d acetate |
a Epinephrine
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Who described the fight or flight response?
a Banting and Best b A. Guyton c Hans Selye d John Hall |
c Hans Selye
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Which of the following best describes the fight or flight response?
a Feeling of sadness b Feeling scared c Mass sympathetic discharge d Increased parasympathetic firing |
c Mass sympathetic discharge
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Which of the following is associated with the fight or flight response?
a Decreased blood pressure b Decreased cellular metabolism c Increased muscle strength d Decreased mental activity |
c Increased muscle strength
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Which of the following is not associated with the endocrine system?
a Glands b Ducts c Hormones d Receptors |
b Ducts
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Which of the following is the primary regulator of the endocrine system?
a Pituitary b Thyroid c Hypothalamus d Pineal |
c Hypothalamus
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Which of the following can lead to “down-regulation” of hormone receptors?
a Too many receptors b Too few receptors c Too much hormone d Too little hormone |
c Too much hormone
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What is the response of the receptors to a hormone deficiency?
a Down regulation b Up regulation c Decrease the number of receptors d Decrease the size of receptors |
b Up regulation
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Which type of hormone acts on neighboring cells?
a Paracrines b Autocrines c Endocrines d Exocrines |
a Paracrines
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What class of hormones is produced from cholesterol?
a Steroids b Biogenic amines c Peptides d Proteins |
a Steroids
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What class of hormones is produced from amino acids?
a Steroids b Biogenic amines c Eicosanoids d Proteins |
d Proteins
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Which of the following is derived from arachidonic acid?
a Steroids b Biogenic amines c Eicosanoids d Proteins |
c Eicosanoids
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• Which of the following has the largest diameter
a Platelet b Red blood cell c White blood cell d Megakaryocyte |
d Megakaryocyte
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• Which of the following can affect the concentration of red blood cells?
a Humidity b Temperature c Altitude d Barometric pressure |
c Altitude
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• Where do red blood cells originate?
a Speen b Liver c Lymph nodes d Yolk sac |
d Yolk sac
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• Which stage of RBC development immediately precedes the mature RBC?
a Proerythroblast b Erythroblast c Reticulocyte d Erythrocyte |
c Reticulocyte
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• Which of the following is directly stimulated by decreased tissue oxygenation?
a Erythropoietin b Iron absorption c Red cell breakdown by the spleen d Bilirubin formation |
a Erythropoietin
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• A lack of which of the following substances will lead to macrocytic cells?
a Iron b Protein c B12 d B6 |
c B12
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• Which of the following can lead to pernicious anemia?
a Lack of dietary B12 b Lack of intrinsic factor c Lack of folate d Lack of iron |
b Lack of intrinsic factor
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What is the end product of red cell degradation?
a Bilirubin b Urobilinogen c Stercobilinogen d Hemosiderin |
a Bilirubin
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Which of the following can lead to factor deficiency anemia?
a Internal hemorrhage b Renal disease c Aplastic bone marrow d Lack of iron |
d Lack of iron
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• Which of the following can lead to a production-defect anemia?
a Internal hemorrhage b Lack of folic acid c Aplastic bone marrow d Chronic blood loss |
c Aplastic bone marrow
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• Which of the following can lead to a depletion anemia?
a Internal hemorrhage b Renal disease c Aplastic bone marrow d Lack of B12 |
a Internal hemorrhage
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• What is the most common cause of microcytic hypochromic anemia?
a Lack of iron b Lack of B12 c Lack of folate d Renal disease |
a Lack of iron
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• A lack of which of the following can lead to a megaloblastic anemia?
a Iron b B12 c Oxygen d ferritin |
b B12
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• What is the diagnosis for a patient with 8% peripheral blastic leucocytes from the bone marrow?
a CML b ANLL c ALL d CLL |
a CML
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• What is the diagnosis for a patient with 40% peripheral blastic leucocytes originating from the lymphatic tissue?
a CNLL b ANLL c ALL d CLL |
c ALL
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• Which of the following is associated with leukemia?
a Increased protein stores b Metabolic starvation c Increased bone strength d Increased muscle mass |
b Metabolic starvation
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• Which of the following has the largest percent increase during bacterial infection?
a Basophil b Eosinophil c Neutrophil d Monocyte e Lymphocyte |
c Neutrophil
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• Which of the following will be elevated during parasitic infections and allergic responses?
a Basophil b Eosinophil c Neutrophil d Monocyte e Lymphocyte |
b Eosinophil
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• Which of the following will be elevated during allergic reactions and acts like a mast cell?
a Basophil b Eosinophil c Neutrophil d Monocyte e Lymphocyte |
a Basophil
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• Which of the following is normally found in the highest concentration in the plasma?
a Basophil b Eosinophil c Neutrophil d Monocyte e Lymphocyte |
c Neutrophil
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• Which of the following is normally found in the lowest concentration in the plasma?
a Basophil b Eosinophil c Neutrophil d Monocyte e Lymphocyte |
a Basophil
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• Which of the following migrates to tissue to become tissue macrophages?
a Basophil b Eosinophil c Neutrophil d Monocyte e Lymphocyte |
d Monocyte
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• Which of the following undergo maturation in the lymphogenous tissue?
a Basophil b Eosinophil c Neutrophil d Monocyte e Lymphocyte |
e Lymphocyte
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• Which of the following plays a role in degredation of hemoglobin?
a Basophil b Eosinophil c Neutrophil d Monocyte e Lymphocyte |
d Monocyte
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• Which of the following is the term for the ameboid motion by neutrophils moving out of a capillary in the interstitium?
a Margination b Diapedesis c Chemotaxis d Edema |
b Diapedesis
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• Which of the following secrete interleukin 1?
a Activated macrophage b Eosinophils c Basophils d T-helper cells |
a Activated macrophage
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• Which of the following may be associated with erythroblastosis fetalis?
a Maternal IgG b Elevated fetal hemoglobin c Kernicterus d A & C e All of the above |
d A & C
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• Which of the following is a graft in which the donor and recipient are the same person
a Autograft b Isograft c Allograft d Xenograft e autograph |
a Autograft
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• Which of the following is associated with O+ blood type?
a H antigen b A antibody c B antigen d A & B e All of the above |
d A & B
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• Which blood type is considered the universal donor?
a A b B c O d AB e Bombay |
c O
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• What is the genotype of an Rh- person?
a D b D c Dd d DD e dd |
e dd
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• Which of the following is associated with hemolytic disease of a newborn?
a IgG antibodies b Rh negative mother c Hemolysis of red blood cells d Rh positive child e All of the above |
e All of the above
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• Which of the following plays a role in blood coagulation and lysis of a blood clot?
a Prostacyclin b Plasmin c Fibrin d Thrombin e Protein C |
d Thrombin
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• Which of the following can lead to excessive bleeding?
a Excessive vitamin K b Hemophilia c Thrombocytopenia d B & C e All of the above |
d B & C
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• Which of the following is an anticoagulant produced by the body?
a Coumarin b Warfarin c Coumadin d Heparin e Prothrombin |
d Heparin
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• Where are blood coagulation factors found?
a In platelets b In plasma c In tissue d In the endothelium of vessel walls e All of the above |
e All of the above
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• Which of the following occurs first in the formation of a platelet plug?
a Adherence b Aggregation c Secretion d Clot retraction e Fibrin formation |
a Adherence
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• Where is the majority of the clotting factors formed?
a Spleen b Liver c Blood d Bone marrow e heart |
b Liver
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• Which of the following ions/minerals is a coagulation factor?
a Sodium b Potassium c Chloride d Calcium e Phosphate |
d Calcium
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• What vitamin is required for the activation of some coagulation factors?
a A b B12 c C d K e E |
d K
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• Which of the following is the formation of an abnormal clot within a blood vessel
a Emboli b Thrombus c Hemophilia d Thrombocyte e Hematoma |
b Thrombus
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• Which of the following initiates the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
a Factor I b Factor II c Factor VIII d Tissue Factor e Calcium |
d Tissue Factor
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• Who along with Dishman created a model in 1982 to describe the subluxation complex?
a Lantz b Herfert c Korr d Sharpless e Konno |
a Lantz
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• What did Lantz describe as a common component among all models of subluxation?
a Myopathology b Anatomical deformations c Histopathology d Neurologic dysfunction e Pain |
d Neurologic dysfunction
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• Which model describes the subluxation complex as a progressive process associated with abnormal spinal mechanics?
a Vertebral subluxation complex b Subluxation degeneration c Nerve root compression d Dysafferentation e Neurodystrophic |
b Subluxation degeneration
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• Which model describes the cause of disease as a variation in nerve tension?
a Vertebral subluxation complex b Subluxation degeneration c Nerve root compression d Tonal approach e Neurodystrophic |
d Tonal approach
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• Which of the following remains almost exactly constant?
a BMR b Core temperature c Skin temperature d Blood pressure e Heart rate |
b Core temperature
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• Where is the primary control center for body temperature regulation?
a Anterior pituitary b Posterior pituitary c Hypothalamus d Pineal gland e Thyroid gland |
c Hypothalamus
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• Which of the following could be used to increase body temperature?
a Vasodilation to the skin b Sweating c Decrease BMR d Piloerection e Inhibition of shivering |
d Piloerection
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• Which type of heat loss works by direct contact?
a Radiation b Conduction c Convection d Evaporation e Irradiation |
b Conduction
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• Which type of heat loss is predominate method for heat removal from the body?
a Radiation b Conduction c Convection d Evaporation e Irradiation |
d Evaporation
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• Which of the following hormones is the primary regulator of metabolism?
a Growth hormone b Thyroid hormone c Testosterone d Estrogen e Insulin |
b Thyroid hormone
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• Which of the following is part of the innate immunity?
a Antibodies b NK cells c Plasma cells d A & C e All of the above |
b NK cells
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• Which of the following is part of the humoral immunity?
a B cells b T cells c Antibodies d A & C e All of the above |
d A & C
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• Which of the following is not secreted by T-cells?
a Interleukin – 1 b Interleukin – 2 c Interleukin – 3 d Interleukin – 4 e Interleukin – 5 |
a Interleukin – 1
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• Which of the following is the primary responder to an initial antigen challenge?
a IgA b IgD c IgE d IgG e IgM |
e IgM
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• Which of the following can cross the placenta?
a IgA b IgD c IgE d IgG e IgM |
d IgG
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• Which is the most abundant immunoglobin?
a IgA b IgD c IgE d IgG e IgM |
d IgG
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• Which of the immunoglobins has the largest structure?
a IgA b IgD c IgE d IgG e IgM |
e IgM
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• Which of the following help to stimulate the T-helper cells?
a T Suppressor cells b T Helper cells c Interleukin – 1 d B & C e All of the above |
d B & C
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• Which of the following function to counteract autoimmune antibodies?
a Helper T-cells b Cytotoxic T-cells c Suppressor T-cells d Plasma cells e Macrophages |
c Suppressor T-cells
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• Which of the following is true for active immunity?
a Formed in response to invasion of the body by a foreign antigen b Obtained by infusion of antibodies c Temporary immunity d Activated T cells received from an animal e Activated T cells received from another person |
a Formed in response to invasion of the body by a foreign antigen
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• Which of the following is an autoimmune disease caused by the exposure to streptococcal toxin with an epitope similar to the body’s own self-antigen?
a Lupus erythematosus b Myasthenia gravis c Rheumatic fever d Rheumatoid arthritis e Scarlet fever |
c Rheumatic fever
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• Which of the following facilitates ingestion by phagocytosis?
a Precipitation b Agglutination c Opsonization d Lysis e Neutralization |
c Opsonization
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• Where does the classical pathway of complement begin?
a C1 b C2 c C3 d C5 e C7 |
a C1
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• Which of the following is involved in the T-cell mediated delayed-hypersensitivity reaction?
a Mast cells b IgE c Allergens d A & C e All of the above |
d A & C
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• Which of the following is destroyed by the complement system?
a antigen-antibody complexes b Microorganizms c Mast cells d A & B e All of the above |
d A & B
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• Which of the following are involved in a secondary response to an antigen?
a IgG b Basophils c Memory cells d A & C e All of the above |
d A & C
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• Which of the following are too small to elicit an immune response but can combine with larger antigenic substances?
a Antibodies b Epitopes c Haptens d Plasma cells e Antibodies |
c Haptens
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• Which of the following is the correct order of events?
a Lymphocyte ->antibody->plasma cell->memory cell b Antibody->plasma cell->lymphocyte->B cells c Memory cell->lymphocyte->plasma cell->Bcells d Lymphocyte->B cells->plasma cell->antibodies e Macrophage->antibodies->B cells->plasma cell |
d Lymphocyte->B cells->plasma cell->antibodies
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• Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
a Vaccination b Antibodies produced following an exposure c An injection of human gamma globulin d A & B e All of the above |
c An injection of human gamma globulin
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• What type of immunity is produced by an external source?
a Active b Acquired c Innate d Passive e B & D |
d Passive
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• Which of the following products could be transfused to a patient with O+ blood type without concern for a reaction?
a A+ red blood cells b B- red blood cells c AB plasma d O- plasma e AB+ cells |
c AB plasma
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• Which of the following antigens is associated with Bombay + (positive) blood?
a A b B c C d D e None of the above |
d D
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• Which of the following antibodies are seen in the plasma of a person with A+ blood?
a A b B c O d H e D |
b B
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• Which of the following can be involved with erythroblastosis fetalis?
a O+ (positive) mom b A- (negative) dad c Rh- (negative) baby d O- (negative) dad e Rh- (negative) mom |
e Rh- (negative) mom
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• In a neuron, the resting membrane potential (Vm) is closest to?
A. ECa2+ B. EK+ C. EMg2+ D. ENa+ |
B. EK+
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Water will always flow from an area of?
A. high water potential to low water potential B. high osmotic potential to low osmotic potential C. low solute concentration to high solute concentration D. all of the above |
A. high water potential to low water potential
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Which of the following types of diffusion exhibits non-saturation kinetics?
A. simple diffusion across the cell membrane B. diffusion through protein channels C. carrier mediated facilitated diffusion D. all of the above |
A. simple diffusion across the cell membrane
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Which of the following permeability ratios is correct for neuronal cell membrane in humans?
A. Pk+: Pcl- : Pna+ = 1:2:100 B. Pk+: Pcl- : Pna+ = 1:100:2 C. Pk+: Pcl- : Pna+ = 2:1:100 D. Pk+: Pcl- : Pna+ = 100:2:1 |
D. Pk+: Pcl- : Pna+ = 100:2:1
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If Vm is changed from -80mV (resting membrane potential) to -90mV, the membrane is said to have been?
A. depolarized B. repolarized C. hyperpolarized D. ultrapolarized |
C. hyperpolarized
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All of the following are examples of graded electrical potentials except?
A. end plate potential B. osmotic potential C. postsynaptic membrane potential D. receptor potential |
B. osmotic potential
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As axonal diameter decreases:
A. Ra increases B. lambda decreases C. CV decreases D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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An increase in postsyaptic excitability after repeated presynaptic firing is called?
A. acommodation B. presynaptic inhibition C. potentiation D. synaptic fatigue |
C. potentiation
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Which step occurs first during neurotransmission at a chemical synapse?
A. an ESP or IPSP is generated B. depolarization of the presynaptic terminal results in opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels C. neurotransmitters bind receptors on the post synaptic membrane D. vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane |
B. depolarization of the presynaptic terminal results in opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels
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Drugs that artificially activate specific postsynaptic receptors are called?
A. agonists B. antagonists C. reuptake inhibitors D. xenobiotics |
A. agonists
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Fast propagation of action potentials occurs in myelinated fibers via intermittent regeneration at nodes. This type of impulse conduction is referred to as?
A. anterograde conduction B. continuous conduction C. electrotonic conduction D. saltatory conduction |
D. saltatory conduction
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Which of the following substances can diffuse directly across the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane?
A. O2 B. H20 C. steroids D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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In order to calculate the resting membrane potential of a cell, it is best to use?
A. the Goldman equation B. the Nernst equation C. the quadratic equation D. V=IR |
A. the Goldman equation
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Action potentials can be generated in?
A. neurons B. muscle C. both D. neither |
C. both
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Which of the following events occurs last during generation of an action potential?
A. depolarization B. Na+ channel activation C. overshoot D. repolarization |
D. repolarization
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The time taken for a cell to reach 63% of the total charge in membrane potential after a current pulse is administered is referred to as?
A. conduction velocity B. refractory period C. space constant D. time constant |
D. time constant
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Which of the following choices best describes signal transduction at chemical synapses?
A. chemical ---> electrical---> chemical B. electrical---> chemical---> electrical C. chemical---> chemical D. electrical---> electrical |
B. electrical---> chemical---> electrical
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A neuronal network in which multiple neurons input onto a signal to a single neuron is called?
A. convergence B. divergence C. evergence D. none of the above |
A. convergence
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An electrophysiologist simulates a neuron and records an action potential at a distant site along the axon. Assuming the distance between the stimulating electrode and recording electrode is 90mm, and the AP was measured 6 msec after onset of the stimulus, the conduction velocity (CV) of the neuronal AP would be?
A. 0.067 m/s B. 15 m/s C. 84 m/s D. 540 m/s |
B. 15 m/s
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Which of the following statements about graded potentials is false:
A. the magnitude of the potential change is proportional to the magnitude of the stimulus B. depolarization of the potential change is inversely proportional to the distance from the site of stimulation C. multiple graded potentials may not summate D. graded potentials can spread bidirectionally |
C. multiple graded potentials may not summate
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The minimum level of depolarization required to generate an action potential in excitable regions of the cell membrane is called?
A. command potential B. threshold potential C. refractory period D. overshoot |
B. threshold potential
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Which step occurs last during neurotransmission at a chemical synapse?
A. an EPSP or IPSP is generated B. depolarization of the presynaptic terminal results in opening of a voltage gated Ca2+ channels C. neurotransmitters bind receptors on the postsynaptic membrane D. vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane |
A. an EPSP or IPSP is generated
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When modeling excitable cell membranes as electrical circuits, conductors are represented by?
A. ion channels B. the lipid bilayer C. membrane potential D. metabotropic receptors |
A. ion channels
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Electrical resistance is measured in units of?
A. volts B. amps C. ohms D. farads |
C. ohms
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Using the following values, calculate Ek+ for a human at normal body temperature (310K).
[K+]i = 190 mmol/L [K+]o = 8 mmol/L A. +61mV B. +84mV C. -84mV D. -94mV |
C. -84mV
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Which of the following statements about Ca2+ antiporters is true?
A. inward transport of Ca2+ is coupled with outward transport of Na+ B. outward transport of Ca2+ is coupled with inward transport of Na+ C. Ca2+ and Na+ are simultaneously pumped out of the cell D. equivalent ratios of Ca2+ and Na+ ions are exchanged across the cell membrane |
B. outward transport of Ca2+ is coupled with inward transport of Na+
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4 mol Mg2+ = how many equivalents (Eq) of Mg2+?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
D. 8
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Which of the following statements about Na+ channel inactivation is true?
A. it is responsible for the relative refractory period of the AP B. it is responsible for the undershoot of the AP C. it is triggered at threshold and occurs during the peak of the AP D. It is triggered at the peak of the AP and occurs during the peak of the AP |
C. it is triggered at threshold and occurs during the peak of the AP
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Electrical synapse occur between?
A. cardiac muscle cells B. smooth muscle cells C. both D. neither |
C. both
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Under resting conditions, [K+]:
A. is greater in the ECF than in the ICF B. is greater in the ICF than in the ECF C. is the same in the ECF and ICF D. none of the above |
B. is greater in the ICF than in the ECF
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The term " command potential" is associated with which of the following recording configurations?
A. current clamp B. patch clamp C. voltage clamp D. force clamp |
C. voltage clamp
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The protein channels responsible for coupling cells at electrical synapses are called?
A. aquaporins B. desmosomes C. gap junctions D. ionotropic receptors |
C. gap junctions
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Which of the following statements about diffusion is false?
A. it is a passive process B. it increases the entropy within the system C. it requires a net input of energy D. none of the above |
C. it requires a net input of energy
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Brownian motion can be best described as?
A. oscillations of molecular conformation in response to chemical, electrical, or photic stimuli B. random movements of particles through a medium as a result of their kinetic energy C. net diffusion of particles across a semipermeable membrane D. translocation of biomolecules across the nuclear envelope |
B. random movements of particles through a medium as a result of their kinetic energy
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According to Fick's law, Diffusion across a membrane is proportional to?
A. surface area of the membrane B. membrane permeability C. magnitude of the chemical gradient D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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The rising phase of an AP is sustained by a positive feedback cycle known as the?
A. Cori cycle B. Hodgkin cycle C. limit cycle D. TCA cycle |
B. Hodgkin cycle
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Which of the following ionic currents commonly generates an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)?
A. Efflux of Ca2+ B. Efflux of K+ C. Influx of Na+ D. Influx of Cl- |
C. Influx of Na+
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Postsynaptic receptors coupled to 2nd messenger systems are also referred to as?
A. ionophoric receptors B. ionotropic receptors C. metabotropic receptors D. muscarinic receptors |
C. metabotropic receptors
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Guillan-Barre' syndrome results from loss of?
A. axon myelination B. peripheral nervous system function C. Schwann cell membranes D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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The neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) is?
A. always excitatory B. always inhibitory C. neither excitatory or inhibitory, depending on the receptor type D. none of the above |
C. neither excitatory or inhibitory, depending on the receptor type
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Cell membrane potential is usually measured in units of?
A. megaohms (M ) B. millivolts (mV) C. microfarads ( F) D. nanoamps (nA) |
B. millivolts (mV)
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One mechanism responsible for the relative refractory perod is?
A. accomodation B. leaky K+ current C. Na+ channel inactivation D. overshoot |
B. leaky K+ current
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Storage of charge across a cell membrane is referred to as?
A. axial resistance (Ra) B. membrane resistance (Rm) C. membrane capacitance (Cm) D. membrane conductance |
C. membrane capacitance (Cm)
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Which of the following factors is not likely to affect net diffusion of a non-polar amino acid?
A. chemical gradient B. electrical gradient C. pressure gradient D. all three types of gradients can affect net diffusion of a non-polar amino acid |
B. electrical gradient
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An example of secondary active transport is?
A. glucose symport B. H+ pump in parietal cells of the stomach C. Na+/K+ pump D. transport of Ca2+ across SR membrane |
A. glucose symport
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Experiments were conducted by Hodgkin and Katz in which the electrical excitability of squid giant axons were measured in response to diminished concentrations of extracellular Na+. These experiments led to the hypothesis that?
A. AP generation is due to Na+ influx across a transiently permeable membrane B. delayed inactivation of voltage gated Na+ channels triggered at threshold C. resting Vm is largely due to high permeability of Na+ at rest D. voltage gated Na+ channels posses an extracellular activation gate |
A. AP generation is due to Na+ influx across a transiently permeable membrane
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Axodendritic synapses are a type of?
A. intermuscular synapse B. internuncial synapse C. neuroglandular synapse D. neuromuscular synapse |
B. internuncial synapse
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Bidirectional electrical synapses are called?
A. biaxial synapses B. birefringent synapses C. non-rectifying synapses D. rectifying synapses |
C. non-rectifying synapses
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T or F. Na+ channels permit passage of Na+ ions along with any hydrating H2O molecules?
A. True B. False |
B. False
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T or F. Action potentials may not summate.
A. true B.false |
A. true
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Muscle hypertrophy normally results from?
A. increased number of myofibers B. increased number of myofilaments/myofibrils C. increased vascularization D. all of the above |
B. increased number of myofilaments/myofibrils
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The Primary mechanism of treppe?
A. desynchronization of muscle action potentials B. exhaustion of vesicular ACh stores C. gradual increase in stimulation intensity D. residual Ca2+ in the cytosol of muscle cells |
D. residual Ca2+ in the cytosol of muscle cells
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A toxic metabolic product of anaerobic glycolysis in muscle cells is?
A. creatin kinase B. creatine phosphate C. lactic acid D. pyruvate |
C. lactic acid
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Under resting conditions, the myosin binding sites on actin filaments are blocked by?
A. dystrophin B. nebulin C. titin D. tropomyosin |
D. tropomyosin
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Which of the following events occurs first during neuromuscular transmission?
A. acetylchline diffuses across synaptic cleft B. presynaptic terminal is depolarized C. vesicles conataining ACh fuse with the presynaptic membrane D. voltage gated Ca2+ channels open |
B. presynaptic terminal is depolarized
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Which of the following events occurs last during neuromuscular transmission?
A. acetylchline diffuses across synaptic cleft B. presynaptic terminal is depolarized C. vesicles conataining ACh fuse with the presynaptic membrane D. voltage gated Ca2+ channels open |
A. acetylchline diffuses across synaptic cleft
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Which of the following is not and energy source stored in muscle cells?
A. ATP B. creatine phosphate C. glucose D. glycogen |
C. glucose
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Which pathway provides the highest rate of ATP production in muscle cells?
A. aerobic metabolism B. anaerobic metabolism C. creatine phosphate dephosphorylation D. fatty acid catabolism |
C. creatine phosphate dephosphorylation
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The normal order of recruitment of muscle fibers is described by?
A. Boyle's law B. Bell's theorem C. Henneman's size principle d. Muller's ratchet |
C. Henneman's size principle
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Mechanisms of increasing force of muscle contraction include all of the following except?
A. increase in firing rate of motor neurons B. increase in the velocity of muscle contraction C. recruitment of larger muscle fibers D. recruitment of more muscle fibers |
B. increase in the velocity of muscle contraction
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Increase in muscle size is mostly due to?
A. atrophy of muscle fibers B. hypertrophy of muscle fibers C. hyperplasia of muscle fibers D. none of the above |
B. hypertrophy of muscle fibers
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Which of the following statements is false?
A. all skeletal neuromuscular junctions are excitatory B. all skeletal motor neurons release ACh as neurotransmitter C. a single end plate potential (EPP) is usually sufficient to generate a muscel action potential D. none of the above |
D. none of the above
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Which event during excitation contraction coupling occurs first?
A. DHP receptors unplug "foot proteins" B. efflux of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum occurs C. myosin heads bind actin filaments D. t-tubule depolarization occurs |
D. t-tubule depolarization occurs
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Which structure is the smallest?
A. F-actin B. fasicle C. myofibril D. sarcomere |
A. F-actin
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Which of the following is not an advantage of anaerobic metabolism?
A. it does not require a constant O2 supply B. it provides a greater yield of ATP than aerobic metabolism C. it is faster than aerobic metabolism D. all three examples are advantages of anaerobic metabolism |
B. it provides a greater yield of ATP than aerobic metabolism
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Small folded regions of membrane in the synaptic trough that contain high densities of ACh
receptors are called? A. convoluted tubules B. subneural clefts C. synaptic clefts D. terminal cisternae |
B. subneural clefts
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Regulation of contraction intensity by changing action potential firing rate is called?
A. frequency modulation B. the Cori cycle C. the power stroke D. treppe |
A. frequency modulation
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Continuous, low intensity muscle contraction that is necessary to maintain muscular health is?
A. asynchronous contraction B. muscle tone C. isotonic contraction D. eccentric contraction |
B. muscle tone
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The A bands of sarcomere contain which of the following?
A. actin B. myosin C. myomesin D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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As muscle fibers shorten beyond their optimal operating length, ability to generate tension
decreases dramatically. This is because? A. insufficient tension is transferred to the external load B. reduced overlap of actin and myosin filaments prevents cross-bridge attachement C. short muscle fibers fatigue at a faster rate D. thick filaments of sarcomeres are pushed against the Z discs and have no more room to shorten |
D. thick filaments of sarcomeres are pushed against the Z discs and have no more room to shorten
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The normal sequence of motor unit recruitment is a direct result of?
A. degree of muscle fatigue B. levels of cytosolic Ca2+ C. motor neuron threshold D. muscle refactory period |
C. motor neuron threshold
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An advantage of asynchronous muscle activation is?
A. it enhance muscle power B. it increases muscular dexterity C. it provides burst of increased contraction speed D. it reduces muscle fatigue |
D. it reduces muscle fatigue
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Which of the following is not a specialization associated with skeletal muscle cells?
A. glycosomes B. intercalated discs C. myoglobin D. triads |
B. intercalated discs
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Fasicles are bundles of muscle fibers surrounded by?
A. endomysium B. epimysium C. perimysium D. all of the above |
C. perimysium
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Oxygen debt is partially be attributed to?
A. aerobic respiration B. the Bainbridge response C. the Cori cycle D. the Krebs cycle |
C. the Cori cycle
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When a sarcomere is shortened to its minimum length, which of te following is not true?
A. The A band shortens B. the H zone disappears C. the I band shortens D. titin is compressed and shortens |
A. The A band shortens
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After troponin complex binds Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, it undergoes
a conformational change, resulting in? A. displacement of tropomyosin to the groove of the F-actin helix B. dissociation of the trimeric troponin complex from F-actin C. dissociation if F-actin into G-actin monomers D. recruitment of calmodulin to the myosin ATPase |
A. displacement of tropomyosin to the groove of the F-actin helix
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Which of the following events results in "cocking" of the myosin head, leading to its high-energy
conformation? A. ATP hydrolysis via the myosin ATPase B. binding ATP to the myosin head C. dissociation of ADP from the myosin head D. dissociation of inorganic phosphate (Pi) from the myosin head |
A. ATP hydrolysis via the myosin ATPase
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The currently accepted molecular model for muscle contraction, which describes the mechanism
of sarcomere shortening, is called? A. the Pukinjie shift model B. the Red Queen hypothesis C. the sliding filament model D. the Frank_Starling mechanism |
C. the sliding filament model
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Which of the following events would arise as a result of maximal frequency of muscle action
potentials? A. multiple discrete muscle twitches B. Tetanus C. unfused tetanus D. all of the above |
B. Tetanus
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Which of the following statements about nicotinic ACh receptors is false?
A. it is activated when bound by 2 ACh ligands B. it is permeable to NA+, K+, and Ca2+ C. it is a type of metabotropic receptor D. it is comprised of the following five subunits: 2 alpha, 1 beta, 1 delta, 1 gamma |
C. it is a type of metabotropic receptor
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Which structure is largest?
A. F-actin B. fasicle C. myofibril D. sarcomere |
B. fasicle
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Which of the following statements about fast glycolytic (type II b) muscle fibers is false?
A. they are larger in diameter than type I fibers B. they are slower to fatigue than type I fibers C. they contain less myoglobin than type IIa fibers D. they exhibit faster myosin ATPase activity than type I fibers |
B. they are slower to fatigue than type I fibers
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Muscle remodeling is influenced by?
A. horomones B. muscle tone C. training D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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A marathon runner is most likely to rely on?
A. anaerobic glycogen metabolism B. creatine phosphate reserves C. fast glycolytic muscles D. oxidative muscles |
D. oxidative muscles
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A motor unit is defined as?
A. one or more motor neurons innervting a single muscle B. a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates C. all the muscle fibers within a single muscle group D. all the mucle fibers of a similar size within a muscle |
B. a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
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Electron dense structures associated with vesicles in the synaptic terminal of a motor neuron are called?
A. dense bars B. macula densa C. Nissl bodies D. none of the above |
A. dense bars
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Muscle contraction will cease after muscles stop firing action potentials because?
A. ACh is quickly degraded in the synaptic cleft B. cytosolic Ca2+ is quickly pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum C. intracellulaar Ca2+ quickly leaks into the ECF D. intra cellular reserves of ATP are quickly exhausted |
B. cytosolic Ca2+ is quickly pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
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High demand for ATP in muscle cells is due to ?
A. myosin ATPase activity B. activity of calcium pumps in SR membrane C. Na+/K+ pump activity to maintain ion gradients D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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Synapses between motor neurons and skeletal muscle fibers are called?
A. motor end plates B. myoneural junctions C. neuromuscular junctions D. all of the above |
D. all of the above
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Which of the following proteins is not found in the I band of a sarcomere?
A. actin B. alpha actinin C. myosin D. titin |
C. myosin
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Which of the following is an example of an eccentric contraction?
A. performing a bicelp curl (flexion of arm against a load) B. slowly lowering a weight after performing a curl(extenstion of arm against load) C. standing on your tiptoes in a fixed position D. all of the above |
B. slowly lowering a weight after performing a curl(extenstion of arm against load)
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The point at which muscle tissue switches from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism is called?
A. aerobic edurance B. anaerobic threshold C. Chandrasekhar limit D. refactory period |
B. anaerobic threshold
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As the duration of internally generated muscle tension increases during the beginning of contraction, the level of external tension?
A. increases toward its maximum level B. decrease toward its minimum level C. does not change D. all of the above |
A. increases toward its maximum level
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Which structure is the largest?
A. myofiber B. myofibril C. myofilament D. they are all the same size |
A. myofiber
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Which of the following statements about large motor units is false?
A. they always consist of more muscle fibers than small motor units. B. they often consist of larger muscle fibers thank small motor units. C. they are normally recruited before small motor units. D. none of the above |
C. they are normally recruited before small motor units.
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T or F. Action potentials propagate bidirectionally along the sarcolemma of muscle cells?
A. True B. False |
A. True
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T or F. The presynaptic terminal of a motor neuron does not physically touch the sarcolemma at a neromuscular junction?
A. True B. False |
A. True
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T or F. Muscle twitches are always longer in duration than muscle action potential?
A. True B. False |
A. True
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T or F. Arms have more motor units than legs.
A. True B. False |
A. True
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