Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
23 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Compare the clinical findings of platelet disorders to those of coagulation factor defects.
|
Platelet disorders: increased bleeding time, decreased platelet count, microhemorrhage, epistaxis, petechiae, purpura
Coagulation factor defects: PT or PTT tests may increase |
|
|
What long-term complication is associated with having to receive multiple blood transfusions?
|
Secondary hemochromatosis
|
|
|
Which skin cancer is associated with arsenic exposure?
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
Very common Also associated with excess sun exposure Locally invasive but rarely metastasize Ulcerative red lesion Histo: keratin "pearls" |
|
|
What are the steps in the conversion of vitamin D to its active form in the body?
|
D3 absorbed in skin from sun. D2 ingested from plants. Both converted top 25-D-OH in liver and to 1,25-D-(OH)2 in kidney which is the active form
|
|
|
How does flutamide differ from finasteride in relation to mechanism of action and clinical use?
|
Flutamide: nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor
Used in prostate cancer Finasteride: 5 alpha reductase inhibitor which decreases the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone Used in BPH, male pattern baldness |
|
|
What is the most common breast tumor in women under 25?
|
Fibroadenoma
Small mobile, firm mass with sharp edges that increases in size and tenderness with estrogen |
|
|
What is the most common breast mass in premenopausal women?
|
Fibrocystic disease
Presents with premenstrual breast pain and multiple lesions, often bilateral. Fluctuation in size of mass Does not indicated increased risk of carcinoma |
|
|
What is the most common form of breast cancer?
|
Invasive ductal carcinoma
Most common and worst prognosis Firm fibrous, "rock hard" mass with sharp margins and small glandular duct-like cells |
|
|
What risk factors are associated with cholesterol gallstones? What risk factors are associated with pigment gallstones?
|
Cholesterol gallstones: obesity, crohn's disease, cystic fibrosis, advanced age, clofibrate, estrogens, multiparity, rapid weight loss, Native American origin
Pigment gallstones: chronic hemolysis, alcoholic cirrhosis, adbanced age, biliary infection |
|
|
What are Brunner’s glands? What are Peyer’s patches? How can these structures help you identify the location from which a histological specimen was taken?
|
Brunner's glands: located in the duodenal submucosa and secrete alkaline mucus to neutralize acid contents entering the duodenum from the stomach
Hypertrophy of Brunner's glands seen in peptic ulcer disease Peyer's patches: unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in lamina propria and submucosa of small intesting that contain M cells which take up antigen |
|
|
Which part of the cochlea is sensitive to high-frequency sound?
|
The narrow base
|
|
|
What is the mechanism if action of the drug Disulfiram? Why would this drug make you feel so terrible when taken with alcohol? What other drugs have a disulfiram-like reaction?
|
Disulfuram acts to inhibit acetaldehyde dehydrogenase leading to a buildup of acetaldehyde which makes you nauseas.
Metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, procarbazine and 1st generation sulfonylurease have a similar effect. |
|
|
What primary hormone is increased or decreased in the following diseases?
Cushing’s syndrome Conn’s syndrome Addison’s disease Graves’ disease |
Cushings: increased cortisol
Conn's: increased aldosterone Addison's: decreased cortisol and aldosterone Grave's: TSH decreased but overall thyroid increased |
|
|
Which GLUT receptors would you expect to find on muscle and fat?
|
GLUT 4
GLUT 2: islet cells, liver, kidney GLUT 1: RBC, brain |
|
|
What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis? What class of drugs inhibits this enzyme?
|
HMG-CoA reductase which converts HMG-CoA to mevalonate
2/3 of plasma cholesterol is esterified by lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) Statins inhibit this enzyme |
|
|
What is the most common primary malignant bone tumor?
|
Multiple myeloma
|
|
|
What primary bone tumor has an 11;22 translocation?
|
Ewing's sarcoma
Anaplastic small blue cell malignant tumor that is most common in boys <15 yo. Aggressive with early mets but responsive to chemo. Characteristic onion-skin appearance in bone Commonly appears in diaphysis of long bones, pelvis, scapula and ribs |
|
|
What primary bone tumor has a soap-bubble appearance on x-ray?
|
Giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma)
Occurs at epiphyseal end of long bones Peak incidence: 20-40 Locally aggressive benign tumor around the distal femur at knee Spindle shaped cells with multinucleated giant cells |
|
|
What primary bone tumor has an onion skin appearance of bone with layer of new bone in periosteum?
|
Ewing's sarcoma
|
|
|
What primary bone tumor has Codman's triangle (periosteal elevation) on x-ray?
|
Osteosarcoma (osteogenic sarcoma)
Second most common primary malignant bone tumor Peak incidence: M 10-20 Found in metaphysis around knee Poor prognosis |
|
|
What primary bone tumor may arise from osteochondroma or appear as a primary tumor?
|
Chondrosarcoma
Malignant cartilagenous tumor Peak incidence: men 30-60 Located in pelvis, spine, scapula, humerus, tibia, femur Expansile glistening mass within medullary cavity |
|
|
What primary bone tumor has small blue cells, is aggressive, but responds to chemo?
|
Ewing's sarcoma
|
|
|
What primary bone tumor is the most common malignant bone tumor in children?
|
Ewing's sarcoma
|
