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125 Cards in this Set

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7.2 A couple comes to therapy complaining that their conversations always end up as argumts. In talking w/ the couple, you realize that a common pattern is for 1 partner to make an offensive comment to the other and for the other partner to respond w/ an even more offensive remark. This pattern of communication is referred to as:
a. symmetrical
b. complementary
c. mystification
d. pseudohostility
7.2 In this sitn, the husband and wife are mirroring each other's beh in what is s-times referred to as a "one-upsmanship" game.
a. CORRECT - Symmetrical commun. is characterized by equality b/w the ptners. It can lead to conflict and competition (symmetrical escalation) when each ptner tries to "one-up" the other.
b. Incorrect - Complemtary interactions are based on inequality w/ one ptner assuming a dominant role and the other a subordinate position
c. Incorrect - Mystification refers to masking what is really going on through denial in order to maintain status quo.
d. Psudohostility occurs when real conflicts are denied and obscured by superficial bickering.
7.5 Which of the following is true about the sleep of older adults?
a. Older adults have less REM sleep but more Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep.
b. Older ppl have a dec'd need for sleep.
c. Older ppl often exhibit an advanced sleep phase.
d. Older ppl often exhibit a delayed sleep phase.
7.5 Inc'ing age is assoced w/ a no. of sleep changes and probs.
a. Incorrect - Inc'ing age is assoced w/ decs in REM, Stage 3, and Stage 4 sleep.
b. Incorrect - This is not true as evidenced by the fact that a lack of sleep at night is accompanied by inc'd sleepiness during the day.
c. CORRECT - As we age, our circadian clock advances, causing "advanced sleep phase syndrome," which means that we get sleepier earlier in the evening and wake up earlier in the morning regardless of when we actually went to sleep.
7.6 According to Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963), career dvpt involves 2 phases - anticipation and preoccupation - that each consist of several stages. Moreover, during these stages, the individual:
a. attempts to achieve a balance b/w integration and diff'ation
b. compares his/her own abilities and perf. to an external std to help decide future goals.
c. makes choices that are based primarily on his/her level of self-awareness
d. makes choices based on his/her needs, which are deted primarily by family and other environmtal factors
7.6 According to Tiedeman and O'Hara, career dvpt involves bldg a vocational identity that combines a career w/ one's individuality.
a. CORRECT - These investigators propose that achieving a balanced vocational identity involves both becoming part of a career field (integration) and retaining one's uniqueness (diff'ation).
b. Incorrect - This sounds more like the cognitive-behavioral theory of Krumholtz.
c. Incorrect - This sounds more like the theory of E. Ginzberg
d. Incorrect - The role of needs in vocational dvpt is emphasized by A. Roe.
7.10 When wking as a student intern, a psyc. must:
a. obt a waiver of confidentiality from the client prior to discussing the case with his/her supervisor
b. let the client know that he/she is a student intern and that a supervisor will be reviewing the case
c. let the client know that he/she is a student intern and prov. the client w/ the supervisor's name
d. let the client know that he/she is a student intern and introduce the client to the supervisor
7.10 This is covered in Std 4.01 of the Ethics Code.
c. CORRECT - Std 4.01 reqs that clients be informed whenever a therapist's wk will be supervised and, moreover, that the client be given the supervisor's name when "the supervisor has legal responsibility for the case."
7.18 A msg is likely to be most persuasive when:
a. the listener is in a bad mood and the msg is in the listener's latitude of noncommitmt
b. the listener is in a neutral mood and the msg is in the listener's latitude of noncommitmt
c. the listener is in a gd mood and the msg is in the listener's latitude of acceptance
d. the listener is in a neutral mood and the msg is in the listener's latitude of acceptance
7.18 Asking about 2 sep. areas of research in the field of attitude change, i.e., mood and the listener's initial position.
c. CORRECT - Research has found that ppl are more likely to change their initial position when they listen to a persuasive msg while in a gd (vs. neutral or bad) mood. In addn, they are most likely to be persuaded when the msg targets their latitude of acceptance (i.e., the msg reps an opinion that a listener finds tolerable and wd be willing to consider).
7.32 Which of the following is least likely to be caused by damage to the temporal lobe:
a. disturbances in language comprehension
b. deficits in long-term memory
c. changes in sexual behavior
d. deficits in response inhibition
7.32 The temporal lobe has been linked w/ a no. of fns incl. auditory sensation and perception, long-term storage of sensory input, and adding affective tone to sensory info.
a. Incorrect - Damage to Wernicke's area (which is located in the temporal lobe) results in receptive aphasia.
b. Temporal lobe damage can cause severe anterograde amnesia (i.e., the inability to transfer info into LTM).
c. Incorrect - Temporal lobe damage and malfn (e.g., as in temporal lobe epilepsy) has been linked w/ changes in sexuality.
d. CORRECT - Probs w/ response inhibition are more likely to be due to damage to the frontal lobe.
7.37 For Minuchin, scapegoating and overprotection of a child by the child's mother and father are both forms of:
a. triangulation
b. detouring
c. a stable coalition
d. marital skew
7.37 Minuchin describes 3 types of "rigid triangles" that all involve boundary disturbances.
a. Incorrect - Minuchin uses the term triangulation to refer to the sitn in which the child's loyalty to one parent means rejection of the other parent.
b. CORRECT - As defined by Minuchin, detouring occurs when the tension b/w husband and wife is reduced through the attn they pay to the child. This attn can involve either blaming the child for the family's probs (scapegoating) or overprotection of the child who is identified by them as ill or weak.
c. Incorrect - A stable coalition occurs when the child and a parent consis. "gang up" against the other parent.
d. Incorrect - Marital skew is a term used by Lidz to describe sitns in which a dom. partner has serious pathology, while the other partner is dependent and provs support.
7.44 During a therapy session, Dad, who is normally soft-spoken and mild-mannered, becomes very agitated and starts yelling. The oldest daughter becomes upset and says, "Please stop, you're scaring Johnny" (the 6-year old son). Dad stops yelling and becomes calm again. This is an example of:
a. positive feedback
b. scapegoating
c. family homeostasis
d. the double-bind
7.44 In this sitn, the daughter's reaction to her father's uncharacteristic beh serves to return the sitn to its usual state.
a. Incorrect - Positive feedback serves to change or disrupt the family's status quo.
b. Incorrect - A scapegoat is the family member who is blamed for the family's probs.
c. CORRECT - Homeostasis refers to the tendency of systems (incl. family systems) to maintain the status quo. In this sitn, the daughter's reaction is acting as negative feedback, which causes the father to act more characteristically.
d. Incorrect - Double-bind communication involves a mixed (contradictory) message and has been implicated in the dvpt of pathology
7.45 For a therapist relying on Beck's cognitive approach to treat a client suffering from an Anxiety Disorder, the initial cognitive restructuring will most likely focus on:
a. reattribution
b. cognitive rehearsal
c. thought stopping
d. decatastrophizing
7.45 Cognitive therapists use a variety of cognitive strategies, and many of the strategies are the same regardless of the client's DO. However, some techniques are better suited to certain DOs, esp. as initial interventions.
a. Incorrect - Reattribution involves attributing responsibility to approp. parties and is most useful when the client is depressed or guilt-ridden.
b. Incorrect - Cognitive rehearsal reqs the client to imagine each step involved in an activity or task.
c. Incorrect - Thought stopping may be useful but it is usu. classified as a behal (not cogn. restructuring) technique and wd probably not be an initial intervention in txing a client w/ an Anxiety DO.
d. CORRECT - Decatastrophizing is partic. useful for ppl w/ an Anxiety DO since they tend to overestimate the risk and conseqs of perceived danger.
7.46 A no. of studies have been conducted to det the stability of the "Big Five" persy traits during adulthd. Overall, the best conclusion that can be drawn from these studies is that:
a. neuroticism declines while extroversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness inc w/ incing age
b. neuroticism remains about the same while extroversion, conscientiousness, openness to experience, and agreeableness decline w/ incing age
c. agreeableness and neuroticism inc, while extroversion, openness to experience, and conscientiousness dec w/ incing age
d. neuroticism, extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience do not change substantially w/ incing age.
7.46 It is diffic. to draw conclusions about the stability of persy over the lifespan due to the inconsis. results that the studies have produced. However, McCrae and Costa - the primary researchers in this area - conclude that, in terms of the Big Five, persy is fairly stable, esp. after age 30.
d. CORRECT - The stability of the five basic persy traits varies s-what depending on the research methodology used (e.g., cross-sectional vs. longitudinal), but the experts seem to agree that, overall, all 5 traits are rel. stable.
7.55 Research on the compressed (4-day) work week suggests that it results in:
a. incs in job satisfn but decs in job productivity
b. incs in job satisfn and mixed results in terms of absenteeism
c. improvemts in employee-supervisor relns and orgal commitmt
d. decs in job productivity and incs in absenteeism
7.55 B - Correct - Studies on the compressed workweek may have some benefits from productivity in the short-run but, in the long-run, seems to have neither positive nor negative effects. Its strongest impact is on satisfaction (wkers tend to like it), but its effects on absenteeism depend on which study you read.
7.56 A former client leaves a voicemail msg requesting that you forward a copy of her clin. records to her new therapist. She leaves the new therapist's address and ph no. YOu shd:
a. forward the records to the therapist as requested by the client
b. contact the client and confirm her request before forwarding the records
c. contact the client and explain that you will need a signed release before forwarding the records
d. forward the records to the client rather than to the therapist
7.56 Surprisingly, the Ethics Code does not address the importance of obting a waiver of confid. in writing. However, this issue has been addressed in the lit. by a no. of experts.
c. CORRECT - Clearly, you wd not wt to prov. another professional w/ confid. client info unless you had discussed this w/ the client and obted a signed written release. Remember, in terms of legal considerations, "it didn't happen unless it's in writing."
7.58 For members of minority groups, long-term exposure to racial oppression is most likely to result in:
a. downplaying the importance of ethnicity and adopting a "culture-free" identity
b. focusing on satisfying physiol. needs and acq'ing basic survival skills
c. attempting to earn acceptance by acq'ing material gds and other signs of status
d. becoming socially withdrawn and isolated
7.58 The impact of long-term racial oppression has been discussed by Landrum and Batts.
a. Incorrect - According to Landrum and Batts, it is more likely that an individ. who has been oppressed will identify w/ the dominant culture, or , alternatively, reject the dominant culture and dvpt a sep. ethnic identity.
b. Incorrect - This is not one of the outcomes identified by them.
c. CORRECT - One response to racism is internalized oppression, which can be manifested in several ways including denying the impact of race and racism and attempting to earn acceptance of the dominant group through material possessions and educal or occupational status.
d. Incorrect - This has not been identified as a common response to oppression.
7.60 A researcher designs a study to test Vygotsky's theory of cognitive dvpt. Assuming that Vygotsky is right, the researcher will find that cognitive dvpt is most affected by:
a. heredity
b. culture
c. external reinforcemt
d. intrinsic motivation
7.60 REcall that Vygotsky proposes that cog dvpt is facilitated by social interns that occur w/in the child's zone of proximal dvpt.
b. CORRECT - Vygotsky believed that cognitive dvpt is fostered by interpersonal interactions and, as a conseq, is affected by culture and other social factors.
7.63 A client reveals to you that he and a friend robbed a convenience store six mths ago. He says he knows that what he did was wrong and will never do it again. He also says that he notices that you "make notes" while he is talking, and he asks that you not keep any written record of the robbery. You shd:
a. agree to exclude info about the robbery from his file
b. det. whether the robbery is clin. relev. before deciding whether or not to incl. info about it in his file
c. inform the client that you are legally req'd to report the matter to the authorities before you actually do so
d. reassure the client that anything he tells you is confidential and will not be revealed w/out his consent.
7.63 Psycs are generally not req'd to report criminal conduct unless it is conduct explicitly addressed by the law (e.g., child abuse, danger to others).
a. Incorrect - Omitting client info from the record at the client's request is not necessarily in the best ints of the client or the therapist.
b. CORRECT - This is best response. A similar sitn is discussed by Woody, who notest that client records are for the benefit of both the client and the therapist and that, if the client "communicates info that is relev. to the services provided, it shd be entered into the record"
d. Incorrect - It is imposs. to guarantee that any client info will never be revealed under any circs.
7.64 Which of the following best describes the memory impairmt assoced w/ Alzheimer's Dementia:
a. episodic, semantic, and procedural memory are affected to about the same degree
b. procedural memory is affected more than episodic and semantic memory
c. episodic and semantic memory are affected more than procedural memory
d. episodic and procedural memory are affected more than semantic memory
7.64 The anterograde amnesia that characterizes AD affects both semantic and episodic memory (which are the 2 aspects of declarative memory).
c. CORRECT - Procedural memory is left fairly intact by AD, while deficits in declarative memory become incingly worse as the dz progresses.
7.73 A baby is least likely to exhibit stranger anxiety when:
a. the stranger approaches slowly
b. the stranger is quiet
c. the stranger picks up the baby
d. the child is securely attached to his/her mother
7.73 Stranger anxiety is considered a normal part of dvpt and is no longer viewed as a sign of secure of insecure attachmt.
a. CORRECT - A child shows less stranger anxiety when the stranger approaches slowly, talks quietly, is playful, and doesn't attempt to pick the child up. However, if the stranger is either very quiet or very loud or approaches quickly, the child is much more likely to show signs of distress.
7.75 The police arrive at your office w/ an arrest warrant for one of your clients. They tell you that they need the client's most recent address and telephone no. You shd:
a. prov. them w/ the info they request
b. make a copy of the warrant for your files before providing them w/ the info they request
c. tell them you will have to get a signed waiver from the client before you can release the info
d. not give them any info about the client
7.75 An arrest warrant does not constitute an exception to the therapist-client privilege.
d. CORRECT - In order to prov. any info about the client (incl. the fact that he/she is a client) wd req either a signed release from the client or a court-order.
7.78 For the tx of migraine headaches:
a. autogenic training is more effective than thermal biofeedback
b. thermal biofeedback is more effective than autogenic training
c. thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is more effective than either tx alone
d. thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is no more effective than either tx alone
7.78 The research on the effects of biofeedback and relaxation for migraine and other probs is far from consis. However, at least one large-scale study (which is freqly cited in the literature) found the combined tx for migraine to be most effective.
c. CORRECT - This is the result reported by Sargent et al.
7.92 Which of the following best characterizes the nature of the criticism that boys and girls tend to rec. from their teachers in elementary school:
a. girls rec. criticism directed at their beh, whereas boys rec. criticism directed at their ability
b. boys rec. criticism directed at their beh, whereas girls rec. criticism directed at their ability
c. girls rec. more criticism than boys in all respects
d. there is no diff. in the nature of the criticism that boys and girls rec.
7.92 Research has shown that boys receive more criticism, whereas girls rec. more praise during their elemtary schl yrs.
b. CORRECT - Furthermore, the nature of the criticism varies: boys are more often criticized for incorrect beh and girls are more often criticized for a lack of ability.
7.102 Which of the following is characteristic of Piaget's concrete operational stage:
a. the dvpt of a "reflective self"
b. the ability to "reason about reasoning"
c. the construction of unit concepts
d. the emergence of representation
7.102 The concrete operational stage is characteristic of children aged 6 through 12.
a. CORRECT - As a result of the dvpt of perspective-taking and a decline in egocentrism, the child is better able to consider the conseqs of his/her actions and how others will respond to those actions.
b. Incorrect - This is characteristic of the formal operations stage.
c. Incorrect - This is characteristic of the formal operations stage.
d. Incorrect - Representation is an achievemt of the sensorimotor stage.
7.104 In a study on group d-making, it is found that the average group response is much more extreme, but in the same direction, as the average response given by group members before participating in the group. This phenomenon is referred to as:
a. the free-rider effect
b. groupthink
c. group polarization
d. risky shift
7.104 This qn is asking about the phenomenon in which group decisions tend to be more extreme (either riskier or more conservative) than decisions made by individuals.
a. Incorrect - The free-rider effect suggests that ppl reduce their effort on a group task when they observe that their contribns to a group are dispensable and that the group will succeed w/out them.
b. Incorrect - Groupthink refers to a suspension of critical and objective thinking that can occur under certain circs in grp d-making. Although grpthink can result in more extreme decisions, this isn't necessarily so.
c. CORRECT - Group (response) polarization occurs when a person makes a more extreme decision in a group than he/she wd have made alone.
d. Incorrect - The risky shift is like group polarization but only includes the "risky" end of the decision continuum.
7.110 After 2 weeks on clomipramine, a pt w/ OCD has shown no change in his obsessive sxs. Most likely this is because:
a. the wrong antidepressant was Rxed
b. a higher dose of the drug is req'd
c. clomipramine is useful for compulsions only
d. the drug's effects usu. don't occur until later
7.110 While the benefits of clomipramine are neither immed. nor complete, the drug does appear to have positive effects for most OCD pts.
a. Incorrect - Of the antidepressants, clomipramine is usu. the most effectie for this DO.
b. Incorrect - This may or may not be the case. 2 weeks, it's too soon to tell.
c. Incorrect - Most of the lit. reports that clomipramine is useful for alleviating obsessions and compulsions.
d. CORRECT - The positive effects of clomipramine usu. don't emerge until the 5th week.
7.116 The most prominent risk factor for drug abuse in adolescence is:
a. parent and family member drug use
b. of drugs
c. prior use of gateway drugs
d. depression
7.116 Not surprisingly, past beh is the best predr of future beh.
a. Incorrect - Although drug use by parents or other family members is a gd predr of adolescent drug abuse, it's not as accur. as prior drug use.
b. Incorrect - This is also not as strong of a predr as prior drug use.
c. CORRECT - Use of tobacco, alcohol, and/or marijuana (which are referred to as "gateway" drugs in the lit.) is the single-best predr of illicit drug use and drug abuse by adolescents.
d. Incorrect - This is not as predictive as previous drug use.
7.125 Although the nature-nurture controversy has not been resolved, many theorists now view dvpt as involving both factors. More specifically, theorists who take a middle ground w/ regard to this issue:
a. view some traits as being due primarily to nature and others as being dur primarily to nurture
b. believe that genetic potals (nature) cannot be realized unless the approp. environmtal experiences (nurture) occur
c. believe that most traits reflect about equal contributions of nature and nurture
d. view indiv. diffs as due to genetic factors (nature) and group diffs as due to environmtal factors (nurture)
7.125 Recent theories of dvpt typically view nature and nurture as contingent factors; i.e., dvpt cannot occur w/out the ongoing contributions of each factor.
a. Incorrect - Although this is true, this answer is not the best one since it does not address the contingent relnship b/w nature and nurture.
b. CORRECT - This is the only response that suggests a contingent relnship b/w the factors.
c. Incorrect - Not a gd description of current thinking about the nature-nurture controversy.
d. Incorrect - This is not accurate.
7.130 "Criterion contamination" occurs when a rater's knowledge of predr scores affects how he/she assigns criterion scores. Criterion contamination can be eliminated by ensuring that the indiv. who assigns criterion scores is ignorant of the predr scores. The resulting elimination of criterion contamination wd most likely have what effect on the validity coeff:
a. inc its magnitude
b. dec its magnitude
c. either inc or dec its magnitude
d. neither inc nor dec its magnitude
7.130 When a rater's knowledge of the ratees' predcr scores affects his/her ratings of the ratees on the criterion measure (i.e., when the rater rates a ratee high on the criterion because the ratee has scored high on the predr and vice-versa), an artificially strong relnship is created b/w the predr and criterion.
b. CORRECT - Criterion contamination artificially inflates the correl. coeff. Therefore, the elimination of criterion contamination wd lower the coeff.
7.133 Which of the following terms is used to describe speech that is indirect and often delayed due to the inclusion of unnecessary details and parenthetical remarks:
a. confabulation
b. circumstantiality
c. loosening of assocns
d. tangentiality
7.133 DSM-IV distings b/w a no. of speech and thought disturbances. The speech disturbance described in this qn is "circuitous," which shd help you pick the rt answer.
a. Incorrect - Confabulation refers to the fabrication of events or facts to compensate for memory impairmt. It is assoced w/ Amnestic DO.
b. CORRECT - This term is used in DSM-IV to describe this type of speech. It is common in OCD and is also assoced w/ Sz.
c. Incorrect - Circumstantiality differs from a loosening of assocns in that the latter involves a loss of the orig. pt of the speech. In circumstantiality, the speaker is always aware of the orig. pt or goal of what he/she is talking about.
d. Incorrect - Tangential thinking involves digressions to irrelev. topics; in its extreme form, it is manifested as loosening of assocns.
7.134 Bandura's social learning theory predicts that:
a. cognitive events act as intervening variables in the acquisition of a new behavior
b. social approval is a powerful and primary reinforcemt
c. reinforcemt has a greater impact on learning than on perf.
c. the acquisition of new behs is the result of internalized S-R connections
7.134 According to social learning theory, an indiv. can simply observe another person (a model) perform a beh and, w/our reinforcemt, subsequently display that behavior.
a. CORRECT - Bandura concluded that observational learning involves 4 processes:
attention, retention, reprodn, and motivation. The first 2 of these, attn (attending to and accurately perceiving the beh), and retention (symbolic processing of the modeled beh) are cog processes.
b. Incorrect - This is not an assumption of Bandura's theory.
c. Incorrect - Oppos. of what is true. Bandura has proposed that reinforcemt is more imp. for perf. than learning.
d. Incorrect - This is not an assumption of Bandura's theory.
7.135 Which of the following progs best exemplifies a primary prevention program:
a. use of persy tests as screening devices to identify high-risk indivs
b. use of public educ. progs to inform the public about the negative effects of alcohol abuse
c. training of primary school teachers to recog. early signs of beh DOS
d. use of educal progs to improve community attitudes toward former mental pts
7.135 There are 3 types of prevention progs. Primary prevention progs are designed to prevent a mental DO from occurring at all; secondary prevention rogs are designed to detect DOs early so that appropr. txs can be applied; and tertiary prevention progs are aimed at preventing the recurrence or worsening of existing DOs.
a. Incorrect - If a prog. involves identifying high-risk indivs, it is classified as a secondary prevention program.
b. CORRECT - An educal prog. designed to prevent alcohol abuse before it occurs wd be considered a primary prevention program.
c. Incorrect - Prevention progs that involve the early identification of DOs are classified as secondary prevention progs.
d. Incorrect - A program designed to improve community attitudes toward former mental pts (presumably to ensure that the pts remain in the community) is an e.g. of a tertiary prevention prog.
7.143 A psyc. in private practice who has been sued once in the past by a client for malpractice and who fears being sued again decides to lt his practice to clients whose probs are not highly assoced w/ higher rates of malpractice claims. This is:
a. unethical if he is competent to treat these clients
b. ethical as long as he makes his policy clear at the outset of tx
c. ethical as long as he makes approp. referrals
d. ethical because this issue is not addressed by the Ethics Code
7.143 Although you may feel the therapist's decision is "not quite right," therapists are not req'd to see pts they do not wt to see.
c. CORRECT - This issue is addressed by Simon. Although Simon is discussing the obligations of psychiatrists, the same principles apply to psycs: SElf-employed mental health professionals do not have a legal or ethical duty to enter into professional relnships. While the psyc's decision may seem unfair, he is free to serve the clients he chooses. He shd, however, make approp. referrals. Note that the Ethics Code does req psycs not to discrim. on the basis of race, gender, or any other basis proscribed by law. Litigious clients do not fall into this category.)
7.156 A researcher wts to compare the effects of 4 diff. prevention progs on willingness to use safe-sex practices for sexually-active male and female adolescents. Ss will be randomly assigned to one of the 4 programs and 6 mths later will be asked to indicate if they engaged in safe sex all of the time, some of the time, or never. The approp. statistical test for analyzing the obted data is:
a. one-way ANOVA
b. two-way ANOVA
c. multiple-sample chi-square
d. chi-square for goodness-of-fit
7.156 This study has 2 IVs (prevention program and gender) and one DV (safe-sex practices). While the DV is actually measured on an ordinal scale, no ordinal tests are listed in the responses. It is always poss. to treat an ordinal variable as a nominal one but it is not acceptable to treat it as an interval or ratio variable.
a. Incorrect - The one-way ANOVA is used with one IV and one DV that is measured on an interval or ratio scale.
b. Incorrect - The two-way ANOVA is used with two IVs and one DV that is measured on an interval or ratio scale.
d. Incorrect - The chi-square goodness-of-fit test (aka single sample chi-square test) is used when a study includes only one nominal variable.
7.159 Regression analysis is used to:
a. predict the mean value of a DV on the basis of a known value on an IV
b. predict the true value of a DV on the basis of a known value on an IV
c. estimate the true value of a variable on the basis of an obted value on that variable
d. estimate the true value of a variable on the basis of a linear combination of 2 or more variables.
7.159 Regression analysis is used to predict Y from a known X.
a. CORRECT - the regression line is essentially a "running mean": It predicts the mean Y (DV) score obted by indivs in the validation or tryout sample for each value of X (IV).
7.167 In terms of interpersonal relnships, a person w/ Schizotypal PD is most likely:
a. to seem indifferent to opportunities to dvp close relnships and to not derive pleasure from personal contacts
b. to be preoccupied w/ doubts about the loyalty and trustworthiness of friends
c. to desire close personal relnships but to avoid them because of fears related to criticism and rejection
d. to express unhappiness about a lack of relnships but to act in ways that suggest a lack of interest in intimate contacts
7.167 Schizotypal PD is characterized by social and interpersonal deficits and cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities.
a. Incorrect - Schizoid PD
b. Incorrect - Paranoid PD
c. Incorrect - Avoidant PD
d. CORRECT - Indivs w/ Schizotypal PD usu. have few friends and are uncomfortable around most ppl. They may say they wt closer relnships but generally prefer to stay alone.
7.172 The NIMH tx of depn collaborative research prog compared CBT, IPT, imipramine, and a pill placebo. The results of the study suggest that, overall:
a. CBT is superior to IPT and imipramine
b. CBT is more effective w/ severe depns
c. IPT plus imipramine is more effective w/ severe depns
d. the placebo group did as well as CBT, IPT, or imipramine across all levels of depn
7.172 Elkin et al.'s collaborative study focused on diff. types of tx for depn: CBT, IPT, imipramine, and a placebo. It makes sense that more severe forms of depn might req a combined tx.
c. CORRECT - this is a finding of the research.
7.179 A client confides to her psyc that she was once a prostitute. The psyc is offended by this type of beh, feels incapable of dealing w/ the client objectively, and terminates therapy immediately. His action is:
a. unethical because it reps abandonmt of the client
b. ethical because he cd not deal with the client objectively
c. unethical because a therapist shd not allow personal opinions to interfere w/ professional activities
d. ethical although not the best way to handle this type of sitn
7.179 During the course of therapy, a therapist may occasionally feel incapable of providing a client w/ the services the client needs. When such sitns arise, the therapist shd handle them in an approp, professional manner. If the therapist feels that he/she must terminate therapy, he/she shd do so w/ extreme care. The therapist shd be careful not to "blame" the client, and an approp referral shd be made.
a. CORRECT - This sitn clearly reps abandonmt of the client. Although a therapist might feel it necessary to terminate therapy due to personal beliefs, termination must be handled in a professional, sensitive manner. A therapist must evaluate his/her feelings carefully, and arrange for a referral if necessary. Abrupt termination is not appropriate.
b. Incorrect - Although termination might have been approp. in this sitn, the therapist did not handle the termination properly.
c. Incorrect - Although it is important that therapists remain objective, a therapist cannot always prevent his/her personal feelings from affecting therapy. When these feelings interfere w/ the quality of the therapy, the therapist needs to take action necessary to protect the interests of the client.
d. Incorrect - The sitn described was not handled appropriately and clearly constitutes an ethical violation.
8.5 Self-in-reln therapy is approach to:
a. family therapy that emphasizes the multiple transferences that affect current relnships among family members
b. grp therapy that focuses on interpers interpns and misinterpns that affect indiv fning
c. feminist therapy that emphasizes the role of the mother-son vs. mother-daughter relnship in creating gender diffs in beh
d. biopsychosocial thearpy that recogs the interacting impact of biol. and sociocultural factors on male and female dvpt
8.5 Self-in-reln therapy was dvped at the Stone Ctr for Dvptal Services and Studies at Wellesley College.
c. CORRECT - Obj relns theory was an important influence on self-in-reln theory. However, self-in-reln theory extends the objects relns approach by considering the impact of same vs. oppos. gender in caregiver-infant relnships on dvpt, esp. on dvpt of the relnal self.
8.6 Alcohol consumption by a pregnant woman is likely to have the most adverse effects on her baby's prenatal dvpt when the woman drinks during:
a. the 1st trimester
b. the 2nd trimester
c. the 3rd trimester
d. the 1st or the 3rd trimester
8.6 Alcohol consumption by a woman during pregnancy can have detrimtal effects on the dvping fetus, w/ the severity and extent of the effects deping on the amt of alcohol consumed and the time during which it is consumed.
a. CORRECT - There does not appear to be any safe time for alcohol consumption during pregnancy. However, the worst effects overall (i.e., for many diff aspects of dvpt) are assoced w/ drinking during the 1st trimester.
8.8 Piaget's concrete opal stage of dvpt is characteristic of children aged:
a. 2 to 7 yrs
b. 5 to 8 yrs
c. 7 to 11 yrs
d. 10 to 15 yrs
8.8 Piaget distings b/w 4 stages of cogn. dvpt - sensorimotor, preopal, concrete opal, and formal opns.
a. Incorrect - Children aged 2 to 7 are in preopal stage.
d. Incorrect - Formal opal stage usu. begins in adol.
8.9 Following a stroke, a 71 yr old woman exhibits homonymous hemianopsia involving loss of vision in her rt visual field. Most likely, this impairmt is the result of damage to the:
a. visual cortex in her left hemisphere
b. visual cortex in her right hemisphere
c. left posterior temporal lobe
d. right posterior temporal lobe
8.9 Not surprisingly, vision is mediated by the visual cortex.
a. CORRECT - Most of the body's fns - incl. vision - are mediated by the oppos. side of the brain. Therefore, loss of vision in the rt visual field wd be caused by damage in the left hemisphere.
8.10 Our peripheral vision is mediated by the:
a. anterior occipital lobe
b. posterior occipital lobe
c. anterior temporal lobe
d. posterior temporal lobe
8.10 Knowing that vision is mediated by the occipital lobe wd have helped you narrow the choices down to a and b.
a. CORRECT - Peripheral vision is mediated by the anterior occipital lobe, while central vision is mediated by the posterior occipital lobe.
8.16 When interping an examinee's responses to the Rorschach test, form quality is used to assess:
a. coping resources
b. interpersonal style
c. cognitive style
d. reality testing
8.16 Form quality is one of several factors considered when scoring the Rorschach.
a. Incorrect - Coping resources are indiced by responses reled to human and animal movemt.
b. Incorrect - Interpersonal style is assessed by lking at the ppn of human vs. animal responses.
c. Incorrect - Cognitive style is evaled by considering under- vs. overincorporation.
d. CORRECT - Gd form quality is indicative of gd reality testing.
8.17 According to Sherif's social judgmt theory, a person's "latitude of acceptance" is greatest when:
a. the person has high ego-involvemt w/ the target issue
b. the person has low ego-involvemt w/ the target issue
c. the person has high enjoymt of critical thking
d. the person has low enjoymt of critical thking
8.17 Sherif's social judgmt theory predicts that a person's susceptibility to persuasion can be described in terms of 3 "zones" - latitude of acceptance, latitude of non-commitmt, and latitude of rejection.
b. CORRECT - The likelihd that a person will be persuaded by an argumt that is the oppos. of his/her pos. is maximized when the pos. advocated by the argumt is w/in the person's latitude of acceptance. The size of the latitude of acceptance is affected by several factors incl. the person's ego-involvemt w/ the issue addressed by the argumt - low ego-involvemt is assoced w/ a larger latitude of acceptance.
8.19 To assess the effectiveness of diff'al reinforcemt for alleviating a child's bad habits (i.e., nail biting, thumb-sucking, hair-pulling, and pencil-chewing), the best research design wd be which of the following:
a. time-series
b. Solomon four-grp
c. multiple baseline
d. reversal
8.19 In this sitn, you wt to test the effectiveness of an intervention for 4 diff behs, and your study will incl. only 1 subject.
a. Incorrect - A time series design is a grp design that involves measuring the dependent variable multiple times before and after the intervention is applied.
b. Incorrect - The Solomon 4-group design is used to evl. the effects of pretesting on the DV.
c. CORRECT - Multiple baseline design is a single subject design that can be used to assess a tx for diff. behs, settings, or Ss.
d. Incorrect - The reversal design is also a single-subject design but is not as useful as the multiple baseline design for assessing the effectiveness of a tx for diff behs.
8.32 A person w/ Seasonal Affective DO (SAD) is most likely to exhibit which of the following sxs:
a. overeating and weight gain
b. loss of appetite w/out weight loss
c. hyposomnia
d. a craving for salty foods
8.32 Common sxs of SAD are listed in DSM-IV-TR.
a. CORRECT - The DSM lists overeating and weight gain as common sxs of this DO.
b. Incorrect - This is not characteristic of SAD.
c. Incorrect - Hypersomnia is characteristic of SAD.
d. Incorrect - People w/ SAD often experience a craving for carbohydrates.
8.38 Neo-Piagetian theories of cogn. dvpt differ from Piaget's theory in terms of their:
a. emphasis on info processing
b. emphasis on the role of social influences
c. rejection of a stage model of dvpt
d. rejection of Piaget's notion of domain specificity
8.38 The neo-Piagetian theories incl. the theories of Kurt Fischer and Robbie Case.
a. CORRECT - The neo-Piagetian theories use info processing concepts to explain proposed shortcomings of Piagetian theory.
b. Incorrect - An emphasis on social influences is not a factor that distings Piagetian and neo-Piagetian theories.
c. The neo-Piagetians view cogn. dvpt as involving stages.
d. Incorrect - This is the oppos. of what is true. Neo-Piagetians are inted in cognitive dvpt w/in specific domains.
8.39 Vygotsky's approach to cognitive dvpt has had the greatest influence on which of the following:
a. the reciprocal teaching method
b. the teaching for understding method
c. the use of computer-adaptive instruction for children w/ learning disabilities
d. genetic explanations for cognitive dvpt
8.39 Vygotsky's theory of cog dvpt has had the greatest impact on educal theories and strategies.
a. CORRECT - Brown and Palinscar's (1989) reciprocal teaching method emphasizes the child's ability to learn from others and was strongly influenced by Vygotsky's approach to cog dvpt.
8.43 Precocious puberty, or the dvpt of 2ndary sex chracteristics prior to age 8 in girls and 8.5 in boys, has been linked to premature awakening of the:
a. hypothalamic-pituitary axis
b. hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis
c. hippocampal-anterior thalamic axis
d. mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic axis
8.43 Hypothalamus is involved in release of sex hormones and adrenal glands are assoced w/ stress (but not sex) hormones.
a. CORRECT - The hypothalamic-pituitary axis is also known as the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis and is involved in sexual maturation.
b. Incorrect - The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis is involved in stress and anxiety.
c. Incorrect - The hippocampal-anterior thalamic axis is involved in memory (esp. episodic memory)>
d. Incorrect - The mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic sys is the brain's "reward pathway" and mediates the reinforcing effects of drugs.
8.47 A new job selection test w/ a validity coefficient of .30 will most likely improve d-making accuracy when:
a. the job applicant pool is v. large
b. the job applicant pool is v. small
c. the no. of successful employees hired w/out the new test is v. large
d. the no. of successful employees hired w/out the new test is v. small
8.47 Predr's incremtal validity is affected by the selection ratio and the base rate.
a. CORRECT - A predr is most likely to inc d-making accuracy when the selection ratio is large (i.e., when there are many applicants for each job).
c. Incorrect - A measure is most likely to have incremtal validity when the base rate is moderate (vs. low or high).
8.48 When applying Bandura's social learning theory to training in the wkplace, you wd use which of the following techniques:
a. vestibule training
b. job rotation
c. behal modeling
d. miniature job training
8.48 Knowing that Bandura's research linked learning to observation wd have enabled you to select the correct answer to this qn.
a. Incorrect - Vestibule training involves the use of a simulation of the actual wk environmt.
b. Incorrect - Job rotation involves "rotating" through several diff jobs.
c. CORRECT - Bandura's social learning theory suggests that behal modeling wd be an effective job training technique.
d. Incorrect - Miniature job training involves providing a job applicant w/ some training to det if he/she will benefit from it.
8.57 Obting research Ss for a study on the sexual practices of single young adults from computer dating services, "singles' clubs," and activities for singles sponsored by a variety of orgs wd help inc:
a. statistical power
b. statistical significance
c. internal validity
d. external validity
8.57 In this sitn, the researcher is obting Ss from "natural" settings.
d. CORRECT - External validity refers to the generalizability of research results. When Ss are selected from natural settings (i.e., from settings where singles are likely to go to meet other singles), this will inc the generalizability of the results.
8.61 A memory in sensory memory:
a. has been convereted to an iconic form
b. has been convereted to an echoic form
c. is in the form of the original stimulus
d. is in the form of a "memory trace"
8.61 Sensory memory perfs initial encoding of incoming signals and stores sensory info for a v. brief period.
a. Incorrect - Iconic refers to visual. Only visual sensory memories are in iconic form.
b. Incorrect - Echoic refers to auditory. Only auditory sensory memories are in echoic form.
c. CORRECT - It is currently believed that memories in sensory memory retain or represent the orig. form of the sensation.
8.64 When requested to act as a fact witness in a court trial involving a former therapy client, a psychologist:
a. is not re'd to obt a waiver of confidentiality from the client
b. is req'd to obt a waiver only if the request comes from the court rather than from the client's attorney
c. may or may not be req'd to obt a waiver of confidentiality from the client
d. shd prov. info about the client only w/ a court order
8.64 Although fact witnesses prov. only ltd info about a client, ethical guidelines and legal req'mts regarding confidentiality and privilege still apply.
c. CORRECT - A psyc shd not prov. info about a client in the context of a legal proceeding w/out the client's waiver or a court order.
8.66 Hypomania is assoced w/ alterations in fning that often incl:
a. a marked increase in both efficiency and creativity
b. a marked decrease in both efficiency and creativity
c. a marked inc in efficiency but a marked dec in creativity
d. a marked inc in creativity but a marked dec in efficiency
8.66 Hypomania refers to "an abnormally and persis. elevated, expansive, or irritable mood."
a. CORRECT - DSM-IV-TR notes that a Hypomanic Episode is not severe enough to cause marked impairmt in fning and, in some indivs, is accompanied by changes in fning that involves "a marked inc in efficiency, accomplishmts, or creativity."
8.67 According to DSM-IV-TR, freq sxs of Undiff'ated Somatoform DO incl:
a. chronic fatigue, loss of appetite, and urinary complaints
b. sexual indifference, avolition, and double vision
c. forgetfulness, seizures, and paralysis or muscle weakness
d. headaches, joint pain, and pain during intercourse
8.67 Undiff'ated Somatoform DO is the approp. dx when an indiv has one or more phys. sxs that cannot be explained by an actual phys. illness or another mental DO and the sxs are not voluntarily produced.
a. CORRECT - DSM-IV-TR lists these as common sxs of this DO.
8.73 As described by Piaget, a child in the autonomous stage of moral dvpt believes that:
a. rule violations will be punished
b. rules can be changed by consensus
c. rules can be changed by authorities only
d. rules are made to be broken
8.73 Piaget distinged b/w 2 stages of moral dvpt - heteronomous and autonomous.
a. Incorrect - This belief is more characteristic of the heteronomous stage.
b. CORRECT - Children in the autonomous stage believe that rules can be changed by consensus.
c. Incorrect - This is more characteristic of the heteronomous stage.
d. Incorrect - This doesn't describe the autonomous stage as accurately as response b.
8.74 Eric Erikson proposed that an adol. who doesn't successfully resolve the p-social conflict of identity vs. identity confusion due to uncerty about his/her sexual identity is likely to exhibit which of the following maladaptive responses:
a. compulsion
b. inertia
c. disdain
d. repudiation
8.74 Erikson described the outcomes of each stage of p-social dvpt in terms of basic strengths (virtues) and maladaptive responses (danger).
a. Incorrect - Compulsion is the maladaptive outcome of inadeq. resolution of the autonomy vs. shame/doubt conflict.
b. Incorrect - This is the maladaptive outcome for the industry vs. inferiority conflict.
c. Incorrect - Disdain is the result of inadeq. resolution of the integrity vs. despair conflict.
d. CORRECT - Repudiation is the maladaptive outcome for inadeq. resolution of the identity vs. identity confusion conflict.
8.78 Recent research on visualimagery has linked it to which of the following structures of the brain:
a. putamen
b. hippocampus
c. reticular formation
d. basal ganglia
8.78 Research by Kreiman, Koch, and Fried has linked visual imager to medial temporal lobe structures.
b. CORRECT - The medial temporal lobe incls the hippocampus, amygdala, entorhinal cortex, and the parahippocampal gyrus.
8.84 A client who terminated therapy w/ Dr. Demit several mths ago calls to request an appt because he has become v. depressed and is feeling suicidal. In the past few mths, Dr. Demit has been reducing her practice because she is getting ready to retire. The best course of action in this sitn is for Dr. Demit to:
a. see the man until the crisis has passed and then prov. him w/ approp referrals
b. explain to the man that she is about to retire and refer him to a colleague
c. prov. the man w/ several referrals and ask him to let her know if none of them wks out
d. prov. the man w/ several referrals and tell him she is willing to consult w/ the new therapist
8.84 Although this issue is not explicitly covered by the Ethics Code, Std 1.14 states that psycs "avoid and minimize harm."
a. CORRECT - The best way to protext this client from harm wd be to see him until the crisis has passed. After that, it wd be acceptable to prov. him w/ referrals.
8.89 PKU (phenylketonuria) is an inherited DO that can cause MR:
a. only in indivs who are homozygous for the condition
b. only in indivs who are heterozygous for the condition
c. in indivs who are either homozygous or heterozygous for the condition
d. only in indivs whose parents are both homozygous for the condition
8.89 PKU is an autosomal recessive condition, which means that an indiv must have 2 recessive genes (i.e., be homozygous) to have the DO.
a. CORRECT - PKU is carried on a recessive gene and, conseqly, to have the DO, an indiv must have inherited one recessive gene from each parent. Note that the person w/ the DO can have parents who are either homozygous or heterozygous - a homozygous parent will also have the DO, while a heterozygous parent will be a carrier of the DO.
8.95 Hippocampus is to explicit memory as ________ is to implicit memory:
a. septum
b. thalamus
c. medulla
d. cerebellum
8.95 Implicit memory refers to memory that is accessed w/out conscious effort or awareness. Skill (procedural) memory is one type of implicit memory.
d. CORRECT - Implicit memory is mediated by several structures. However, of those listed, only the cerebellum has been linked to implicit memory.
8.97 A new selection test is apparently having an adverse impact on females. To det if the adverse impact is being caused by "unfairness," you wd check:
a. the predr scores obted by males and females
b. the slopes of the regression lines for males and females
c. to see if the language used in the test is biased
d. to see if the measure of job perf. is biased
8.97 Adverse impact can be the result of several factors incl. diff'al validity and unfairness.
a. CORRECT - As defined by the EEOC, unfairness occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion perf. for 2 grps are similar but members of the grps perform diffly on the predr.
b. Incorrect - The slopes of the regn lines wd be useful for deting if adverse impact is due to diff'al validity.
8.99 "Anxiety sensitivity" consists of 3 factors - phys. concerns, psychological concerns, and social concerns. Research cfing males and females on these factors has found that:
a. males score higher than females on all 3 factors
b. females score higher than males on all 3 factors
c. males score higher on phys. concerns, while females score higher on psychological and social concerns.
d. females score higher on phys. concerns, while males score higher on psychological and social concerns.
8.99 Anxiety sensitivity has been IDed as a high risk factor for Panic DO and other Anxiety DOs.
d. CORRECT - This is finding reported by Stewart. Overall, levels of anxiety sensitivity are similar for males and females, but the pattern of sensitivity as measured by Anxiety Sensitivity Index is gender-related. (Also, there is stronger evidence for a genetic component for females).
8.101 An elderly man has a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery. His sxs will most likely incl:
a. memory impairmt and cortical blindness w/ denial of the disability
b. contralateral weakness and sensory loss in the leg, amnesia, and persy change
c. contralateral weakness and sensory loss in the arm and face, expressive aphasia, and visual disturbances
d. visual agnosia and alexia w/out aphasia
8.101 Strokes cause focal brain damage that reflects the arterial territory (or territories) involved. Most strokes occur in the region of the middle cerebral artery, which supplies blood to a no. of areas of the brain incl. the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes.
a. Incorrect - These are sxs of posterior cerebral artery infarct.
b. Incorrect - These sxs are assoced w/ anterior cerebral artery infarct.
c. CORRECT - A stroke occurring in the middle cerebral artery is assoced w/ these sxs. Expressive aphasia results when the dominant (left) hemisphere is involved; when the nondominant (right) hemisphere is affected, denial of defects and left-sided neglect are common.
d. Incorrect - These sxs are not characteristic of a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery.
8.114 A practitioner of nonsexist therapy:
a. interprets a client's beh in terms of social, political, and cultural forces
b. stresses the egalitarian nature of the therapeutic relnship
c. views gender as a key determinant of beh
d. uses non-biased techniques designed to promote personal growth
8.114 Nonsexist therapy and feminist therapy share several characteristics. For the exam, you wt to be familiar w/ their major similarities and diffs.
a. Incorrect - This is characteristic of feminist therapy but not nonsexist therapy.
b. Incorrect - A nonsexist therapist may or may not emphasize an egalitarian relnship deping on his/her theoretical orientation
c. Incorrect - For nonsexist therapists, gender is only one of many personal characteristics that affect beh and are relev to counseling
d. CORRECT - Nonsexist therapy involves using nonsexist (unbiased) techniques. In addn, its focus is on personal growth.
8.120 Rapid w/drawal from Inderal, a non-selective beta-blockers is:
a. an acceptable, and s-times preferable, method of w/drawal
b. not recommended because it can produce severe bradycardia and hypotension
c. not recommended because it can cause palpitations, headache, and tremulousness
d. not recommended because it can cause restlessness, irritability, and mania
8.120 Knowing that beta-blockers are used to treat anxiety wd have helped you answer this qn.
a. Incorrect - Rapid w/drawal from any drug is usually not a gd course of action.
b. Incorrect - The primary side effect of Inderal is bradycardia.
c. CORRECT - Rapid w/drawal can produce these side effects and can exacerbate pre-existing conditions (e.g., it can cause myocardial infarction in ppl w/ cardiac dz.)
d. Incorrect - These sxs are not assoced w/ rapid w/drawal from Inderal.
8.123 The majority of adol suicide victims suffer from some form of p-pathology, esp. an Affective DO. The risk for suicide incs when an Affective DO:
a. is accompanied by ADHD, Conduct DO, or Substance Abuse
b. is accompanied by ADHD, an Anxiety DO, or an Eating DO
c. is accompanied by Substance Dependence or an Impulse Control DO
d. involves "double depression"
8.123 The research on this issue was summarized by Garland and Zigler.
a. CORRECT - Garland and Zigler note that only a small minority of adol. suicides are free from psychiatric illness, w/ the most prevalent DOs being the Affective DOs, Conduct DO, Antisocial PD, and Substance Abuse. In addn, the risk for suicide is inc'd w/ comorbidity.
8.124 Probably the best way to reduce aggression in children is to:
a. have them engage in strenuous phys. activity
b. build empathy toward potal victims
c. teach alternative, nonaggressive responses
d. model prosocial behs
8.124 A no. of techniques have been found useful for alleviating aggression temporarily (e.g., catharsis, phys. exercise), but few methods seem to have gd long-term effects.
a. Incorrect - This may wk in the short-run but does not have a long-term impact on aggressiveness.
b. Incorrect - Building empathy only wks when the potal victim has not first angered or provoked the aggressor.
c. CORRECT - Not surprisingly, social skills training (which incorporates a variety of techniques) has been found to be most effective for reducing aggressive behavior. A key component of social skills training is teaching alternative ways for responding to anger-arousing sitns.
d. Incorrect - Teaching prosocial behs may be part of social skills training, but this is not the best response because it is less effective than teaching more adaptive ways to respond to sitns that wd normally elicit aggression.
8.145 To eliminate the least qualified job applicants early in the selection process, which of the following wd be most helpful:
a. profile matching
b. multiple cutoff
c. critical incident technique
d. multiple hurdle
a. Incorrect - Profile matching involves admining several selection measures and cfing the applicant's score profile to that of the typical successful employee.
b. Incorrect - The multiple cutoff technique entails admining all selection measures to an applicant and considering the applicant only if he/she scores above a predefined minimum score on each measure.
c. Incorrect - The critical incident technique is used in perf. appraisals to det. how well an employee is doing and to prov. the employee w/ feedback about his/her perf.
d. CORRECT - As its name implies, the multiple hurdle technique involves admining selection measures one at a time, w/ each successive measure (hurdle) being admined only when the applicant has been successful on the previous one. The first hurdle is designed to eliminate the least qualified applicants.
8.150 For a client or former client to successfully bring a charge of malpractice against a psyc, he/she must show that:
a. the psyc practiced in a way that cd have led or did lead to harm
b. the psyc knowingly or deliberately acted in a way that led to harm
c. the psyc's actions were the cause of a demonstrable injury
d. the psyc did not adeqly warn the client of the poss. negative conseqs of the tx
8.150 Some experts describe malpractice in terms of four basic elemts: The psyc must owe a duty of care to the plaintiff; there must have been a breach of that duty; the breach must have led to demonstrable injury; and the psyc's acts must have been the cause of that injury.
a. Incorrect - The psyc's behs must have actually led to harm.
b. Incorrect - A psyc doesn't have to knowingly or deliberately cause harm in order to be found guilty of malpractice
c. CORRECT - This response addresses the 3rd of 4th elemts of a malpractice claim.
d. Incorrect - This is not a req'mt for a claim of malpractice.
8.152 According to Piaget, the key feature of the ______ stage is the dvpt of the "semiotic fn":
a. concrete opal
b. preopal
c. sensorimotor
d. formal opal
8.152 The semiotic fn refers to the ability to use a symbol, object, or a word to stand for something.
b. CORRECT - The preopal stage extends from ages 2 to 7. During this stage, thought becomes symbolic in form.
8.159 APA's Ethics Code reqs that informed consents in research be:
a. in writing
b. in writing whenever the subject is not a minor
c. documented
d. signed by the subject or his/her legal guardian
8.159 Although written, signed consents are advisable in both therapy and research, they are not req'd by the Code.
c. CORRECT - Para 6.11(a) of the Code states that informed consents must be "appropriately documented."
8.165 You have been seeing a couple in therapy for 6 mths. The wife calls you and says she wts to start seeing you for indiv sessions also. You shd:
a. bring up this possibility in the next couples session
b. tell her you cannot see her individually until couples therapy is over
c. refer her to another therapist for indiv therapy
d. make an appt w/ her to det if her prob warrants indiv therapy
8.165 Ethical Std 4.03 makes it clear that in couples therapy, psycs must avoid potally conflicting roles. One way to ensure that conflicts do not occur is to clarify one's policies and responsibilities.
It may or may not be the psychologist's policy to prov. indiv therapy while also providing conjoint therapy, and this shd have been clarified at the onset of therapy. Also, a referral may be approp, but the issue shd first be discussed in conjoint therapy.
a. CORRECT - Conseqly, this response is the best one of those given because you will be able to discuss this in the next conjoing session.
8.166 The belief that distorted schema dvpt early in life and leave the indiv susceptible to depn or other DOs when faced w/ stress is most consis. w/ the views of:
a. Lewinsohn
b. Beck
c. Seligman
d. Rehm
8.166 The term "schema" shd have been the clue to the correct response to this qn.
a. Incorrect - Lewinsohn proposed that depn is reled to a lack of contingent reinforcemt.
b. CORRECT - This is a gd summary of Beck's view
c. Incorrect - Seligman is assoced w/ the notion of learned helplessness.
d. Incorrect - Rehm is assoced w/ the self-control model of depn, which focuses on the processes of self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcemt.
8.171 You eval. the effects of a training prog and the satisfaction of trainees in order to det what changes in the prog are needed to achieve maximum effectiveness. This is an e.g. of:
a. needs assessmt
b. fnal analysis
c. summative evaln
d. formative evaln
8.171 Purpose of the eval is to make changes in the training program.
a. Incorrect - A needs assessmt is conducted to det training needs.
b. Incorrect - A fnal analysis is used by behal psycs to obt info about a target beh.
c. A summative eval is conducted to det the outcomes of a program and is less geared toward guiding future changes than a formative eval.
d. CORRECT - Although the qn isn't entirely clear, the eval sounds more like a formative one because its restuls will be used to make necessary changes in the program.
8.181 According to the Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, when the linguistic skills of a psychologist do not match the client's language, the psyc:
a. must make a referral
b. may ask the client to bring an interpretor
c. shd retain the services of a translator who has the approp. cultural/linguistic knowledge and professional training
d. shd make a referral or, if not feasible, shd retain an approp translator
8.181 Paragraph 6 of the Guidelines addresses this sitn.
a. Incorrect - This isn't a completely accurate description of the req'mts of the Guidelines.
b. Incorrect - This is not recommended in the Guidelines
c. Incorrect - This is partially correct.
d. CORRECT - When language is a problem, a referral is the best course of action. When this is not feasible (there is no one to refer the client to), a psyc can retain the services of an approp. translator.
8.185 A schl psyc is contacted by the father of one of the schl's students. He informs the psyc that the family is moving to another state and requests that she prov. him w/ a copy of his child's records. The psyc shd:
a. prov. a copy of the records to the father as requested because he has a legal rt to them
b. prov. a copy of the records to the father in a sealed envelope that is marked "confidential" and instruct him to give it to the schl psyc at the new schl
c. request the name and address of the new schl and forward the records to the schl psyc once the family has moved.
d. refuse to release a copy of the records because they are the property of the schl
8.185 Although parents do have a legal rt to examine schl records, this does not mean they shd be given a copy of the records.
c. CORRECT - This is most consis. w/ the provisions of the General Guidelines.
8.193 A pt exhibits emotional blunting, social w/drawal, eccentric beh, and mild loosening of assocns. Of the types of Sz, these sxs are most suggestive of which of the following:
a. Catatonic type
b. Undiff'ated Type
c. Disorged Type
d. Residual Type
a. Incorrect - Catatonic Type is characterized by abnormal motor activity
b. Incorrect - Undiff'ated Type is dxed when the indiv's sxs do not meet the criteria for one of the other types.
c. Incorrect - Disorged Type is characterized by primitive, disinhibited behs and often incls inapprop emotional responses.
d. CORRECT - The Residual Type is marked by an absence of active-phase sxs at the present time.
8.196 It has been suggested that women stay w/ abusive partners because they fear the conseqs of leaving. Based on your knowledge of the research in this area, you can conclude that:
a. this fear has been supported by the finding that incidents of abuse inc following separation
b. this fear has been refuted by the finding that incidents of abuse dec substantially following separation
c. this suggestion has been refuted by the finding that women are most likely to say they stay in an abusive relnship because they believe the abusive partner will change.
d. this suggestion has been refuted by the finding that women are most likely to say they stay in an abusive relnship because they feel they "deserve the abuse"
8.196 The research is not entirely consis on this topic, but some studies have found that women are most likely to say they stay in an abusive relnship because they're afraid that leaving will put them or their children at greater risk.
a. CORRECT - The data confirms that the risk for abuse does inc following separation.
8.197 An insurance company is conducting a peer review and requests that you prov. it w/ info about a current client whose fee is being paid by the company. In this sitn, you are best advised to:
a. prov. the company w/ the requested info only if the client is willing for you to do so
b. prov. the company w/ only that info you believe to be pertinent to the review
c. prov. the company w/ relev. info after ensuring that it is aware of the need to maintain confidentiality
d. prov. the company w/ the requested info because the client waived confidentiality when he/she signed the insurance form.
8.197 Although this issue is not explicitly addressed in the Ethics Code, the "spirit" of the Code dictates that confidential info be txed w/ care.
c. CORRECT - When a client's therapy fee has been paid by an insurance company, it is likely that the client has already signed a waiver on his/her insurance form. In addn, therapists are expected to cooperate w/ peer reviews. Therefore, this is best response. A therapist wd be req'd to prov. info to the insur. company as requested, but the therapist shd release only relev. info and shd take steps to ensure tha confidentiality will be safeguarded.
7.11 Dr. Xavier is v. anxious about a job interview he has in the morning and decides to have 2 glasses of wine to help him relax. After drinking the wine, he helps his daughter w/ her homewk. Steele and Josephs' (1990) research on the effects of alcohol on anxiety suggests that, in this sitn, Dr. Xavier's level of anxiety will
a. dec.
b. inc.
c. inc, then dec.
d. remain the same.
7.11 A - Steele and Josephs attempted to det why alcohol decs anxiety in some sitn but incs it in other sitns. Their research found that alcohol reduces anxiety when a person engages in a distracting activity but incs anxiety when he/she "does nothing." Based on their findings, they dvpted that "attn-allocation model."
7.18 An intervention targeting Bronfenbrenner's microsystem will focus on:
a. family members.
b. family members and/or classmates.
c. school and church.
d. parents' work and friends.
7.18 B - Bronfenbrenner's ecological model distings b/w 4 interacting environmtal levels that range from the most proximal to the most global. The microsystem is the indiv's immed. environmt and incls parents, siblings, caregivers, classmates, and teachers.
7.24 According to Horn and Cattell (1966)
a. crystallized and fluid intelligence become more integed in later adulthood.
b. crystallized and fluid intelligence are uncorreled.
c. crystallized intelligence dvpts through the use of fluid intelligence.
d. fluid (but not crystallized) intelligence depends on exposure to partic. cultural and educational experiences.
7.24 C - Cattell and Horn distinguish b/w fluid and crystallized intelligence. The former is indep of specific instruction and is rel. culture free, while the latter depends on exposure to education and is affected by cultural experiences. Cattell and Horn believed that these 2 aspects of intelligence are highly correlated and that crystallized intelligence dvps through the use of fluid intelligence.
7.25 A Perf IQ score that is 15 pts higher than the Verbal IQ score on the WAIS-III is suggestive of all of the following except
a. learning disabilities
b. low SES
c. depn.
d. antisocial beh.
7.25 C - A Verbal-Perf IQ discrepancy on the Wechsler test is considered signif when it is 12 pts or more. There are a no. of reasons why the Perf IQ may be higher than the Verbal IQ. The factors listed in answers A, B, and D may a/c for a higher Perf IQ, while depn (answer C) is a possibility when the Verbal IQ is higher.
7.26 A pt w/ AD wd be likely to obt the lowest scores on which of the following factor indexes on the WAIS-III?
a. perceptual organization and processing speed
b. wking memory and perceptual organization
c. wking memory and processing speed
d. verbal comprehension and processing speed
7.26 A - Pts w/ AD do more poorly than "normals" on the WAIS-III, and they tend to obt higher scores on the Verbal subtests than on the Perf subtests. The Verbal Comprehension and Wking Memory factor indexes consist of verbal subtests only, while the Perceptual Org and Processing Speed factor indexes are comprised of perf subtests, which explains why their perf is likely to be poorer on the latter 2 indexes.
7.31 According to Fiedler's contingency model, a task-oriented leader is most effective when
a. the task is v. structure or very unstructured.
b. the task is mod structured.
c. the employees are either v. high or v. low in ability.
d. the employees are mod in terms of ability level.
7.31 A - To answer this qn, you need to know that Fiedler referred to task-oriented leaders as "low-LPC" leaders and that he proposed that low-LPC leaders are most effective in very favorable and very unfavorable sitns. The favorability of the sitn is deted by several factors, incl. the structure of the task (but not the ability of the employees).
7.46 A psyc wking in the prison sys is asked to eval a prisoner and make a recommendation about his eligibility for parole. The psyc shd:
a. refuse to do so since this is o'side the scope of a psyc's wk.
b. do the eval and report its results but refuse to make a specific recommendation.
c. make a recommendation as long as it is based on the results of valid stdized tests.
d. make a recommendation but pt out any poss. ltations of the data on which it is based.
7.46 D - This answer is most consis w/ the reqmts of the Ethics Code and the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psycs. e.g., Std 2.05 of the Code reqs that psycs "indic any signif reservations they have about the accuracy or ltations of their interpns." Although recommendations shd be based on valid assessmt techniques, those techniques do not have to be stdized tests (C).
7.51 A child w/ hearing loss due to chronic otitis media wd have the most difficy w/ which of the following WISC-III subtests?
a. Dig Span
b. Vocab
c. Coding
d. Pic Completion
7.51 A - Children w/ a hearing loss are more likely to have difficy w/ the verbal subtests of the WISC than w/ its perf subtests. And, of the verbal subtests, they are most likely to have probs w/ the Dig Span subtest, which is a measure of auditory memory.
7.56 Soon after dealing successfully w/ a stressful event, a person is faced w/ a 2nd stressor. Which of the following is the likely outcome in this sitn?
a. the person will experience greater stress due to a weakening of his defenses
b. the person will cope effectively w/ the 2nd stressor due to inoculation
c. the person will not be affected by the 2nd stressor due to habituation
d. the effect of the 2nd stressor will not be affected by the person's exposure to the previous stressor
7.56 B - This qn is ambiguous but only one response makes sense in light of the info given. There's no reason to thk the person's defenses will be weakened (A), that habituation will have dvped (C), or that the person's experience w/ the first stressor won't affect his reaction to the 2nd one (D). However, there is an intervention known as stress inoculation, which is blt on the premise that successful coping w/ a stressor in the present will improve one's ability to cope w/ future sources of stress.
7.64 For a dx of Tourette's DO, a client must have
a. multiple vocal tics and at least one motor tic.
b. multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic.
c. multiple motor and/or vocal tics.
d. multiple motor and vocal tics.
7.64 B - DSM reqs the presence of multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics for at least 1 year.
7.67 Minuchin, the founder of structural family therapy, defines "traingulation" as occurring when
a. the child and one parent "gang up" on the other parent.
b. the parents either consisly attack or protect the child.
c. each parent demands that the child side w/ him/her.
d. two members of the family consisly challenge the therapist's authority.
7.67 C - Minuchin defines 3 types of "rigid traingles" that involve chronic boundary disturbances - triangulation (C); detouring (B); and a stable coalition (A).
7.68 A member of which of the following grps is most likely to be admitted to an inpt mental health facility?
a. never married men
b. divorced/separated men
c. married men
d. never married women
7.68 A - Of the grps listed, never married men have the highest rates of admission to inpt mental health facilities regardless of the type of facility (state/county vs. private). The other grps listed have similar rates; but, if you have to choose the grp w/ the lowest rate, the best answer is never married women (D).
7.71 Patterson's research on delinquency has shown that the parents of antisocial adolescents are most often
a. hostile and rejecting.
b. overindulgent.
c. lax and uninvolved.
d. overcontrolling.
7.71 C - Delinquency has been linked to a no. of parental characteristics, esp. lax supervision, nonenforcemt of rules, and noninvolvemt in the child's life.
7.76 Which of the following is likely to be most effective for alleviating chronic pain?
a. biofeedback
b. hypnotherapy
c. relaxation and coping skills training
d. autogenic training and contingency mgmt
7.76 C - Most experts advocate a comprehensive tx approach for chronic pain. Their recommended txs involve teaching the pt a no. of coping skills designed to alleviate pain and improve the pt's feelings of control.
7.77 A predr w/ a criterion-reled validity coeff of .40 will be most useful when there is a
a. high selection ratio and mod base rate.
b. high selection ratio and low base rate.
c. low selection ratio and mod base rate.
d. low selection ratio and low base rate.
7.77 C - A low selection ratio means that there's lots of applicants to choose from (which is preferable to only a few to choose from). A mod base rate is pref to a high or low base rate because this means that there's rm for improvemt in the selection process. When the base rate is high, the company is already doing a gd job and doesn't need a new predr; when the base rate is low, this usu means that s-th other than selection is the prob (e.g., the company's perf stds are too high or there just aren't enough gd applicants to choose from).
7.78 In the selection of employees, using an integrity test in addn to a measure of general cog ability is likely to
a. have no effect on the accuracy of selection decisions.
b. inc the accuracy of selection decisions for blue-collar wkers only.
c. inc the no. of minority applicants that are hired.
d. inc the likelihd of adverse impact.
7.78 C - Integrity tests have been found to be gd predrs of job perf and to inc predictive accuracy when they are used in conjunction w/ a general cog ability test. In addn, using these 2 techniques seems to reduce adverse impact by incing the no. of minority applicants who are hired.
7.82 An adv of clozapine (Clozaril) over conventional antipsychotic drugs is that it is
a. signifly more effective for the negative sxs of Sz.
b. less likely to produce anticholinergic effects.
c. less likely to cause agranulocytosis.
d. often effective for those who don't respond to conventional drugs.
7.82 D - The atypical antipsychotic clozapine affects diff NTs than conventional antipsychotics and, to some deg, has diff side effects. For example, altho it doesn't produce tardive dyskinesia, it does cause agranulocytosis, a potally fatal blood dz. An imp adv of clozapine is that it's often effective when conventional antipsychotic drugs aren't.
7.85 A 50 yr old has memory loss as the result of her LT heavy alcohol consumption. Most likely, she has trouble
a. getting dressed.
b. remembering s-one she met a week ago.
c. recalling her first date.
d. repeating 5 digits forward and backward.
7.85 B - Ppl w/ Korsakoff's Syndrome (amnesia due to heavy, LT alcohol consumption) have sev anterograde amnesia along w/ retrograde amnesia for events that occurred in the rel recent past. Procedural memory is undisturbed (A); remote memories are usu intact (C); and STM is unaffected (D).
7.86 Research by Sue and his colleagues (1991) suggests that which of the following clients is most likely to return for a 2nd session of p-therapy?
a. an Af-Am client
b. a Latino-Am client
c. an Anglo-Am client
d. an Asian-Am client
7.86 D - Studies on therapy dropout rates have produced inconsis results. This qn is asking about a partic study, however (Sue et al., 1991), which found that Af-Ams have the highest dropout rates, while Asian-Ams have the lowest dropout rates.
7.87 In consultee-centered case consultation, the consultant's role is most similar to which of the following?
a. collaborator
b. coach
c. confidante
d. supervisor
7.87 D - In his discussion of consultee-centered case consultation, Kaplan notes that, esp. when the target of the consultation is the consultee's lack of skill, this form of consultation most resembles "technical supervision."
7.90 Studies investigating the social cogn correlates of aggression in children suggest that the cog biases of these children tend to create a
a. self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
b. contrast effect.
c. personal fable.
d. rebound effect.
7.90 A - Research by Crick and Dodge, for example, found that aggressive children often misinterpret the ambiguous or prosocial behs of peers as hostile in intent and respond in aggressive ways. The peers then respond negatively, thereby, creating a self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
7.93 A 14 yr old is brought to therapy after he is caught stealing from a local store. His parents say they have been having trouble w/ their son for the past 2 mths - they are constantly fighting, and he is irritable and sullen most of the time, occasionally has outbursts of anger, spends most of his time in his rm playing w/ video games, has been caught smoking, and doesn't seem to sleep as much as he shd. These sxs are most suggestive of
a. ADHD.
b. Conduct DO.
c. Dysthymic DO.
d. MDD.
7.93 D - The key to recoging the correct answer to this qn is knowing that, in children and adols, Maj Depn often involves an irritable (rather than depressed) mood as well as acting out behs.
7.94 The research has shown that, in the tx of nicotine dependence, adding a behal intervention to nicotine replacemt therapy
a. has little or no effect in terms of either short- or long-term abstinence.
b. has little effect in terms of ST abstinence but does improve LT abstinence.
c. has some addnal effect in terms of ST abstinence but doesn't improve LT abstinence.
d. has a substantial effect on both ST and LT abstinence.
7.94 B - This qn is diffic since the research on this issue isn't consis. However, there is some evid that a combined tx (behal intervention plus nicotine replacemt therapy) is best, esp in terms of LT abstinence (abstinence for 6 mths or more).
7.95 As defined in DSM-IV, there are 4 sitns in which an NOS dx may be approp. These sitns incl all of the following except
a. the client's sxs do not meet the criteria for a specific DO in a partic. class.
b. the sxs meet the criteria for a dx included in "Criteria Sets and Axes for Further Study."
c. there is suffic info for a "wking dx" but the clinician wts to indic his/her uncertainty.
d. there is uncerty about the etiology of the DO (i.e., whether it is primary, due to a med. condition, or substance induced).
7.95 C - A "provisional" specifier wd be added to the dx rather than using the NOS category.
7.98 There is some evidence that children of divorced parents have more academic probs than children from intact families and that
a. girls of divorced families exhibit poorer academic perf than boys of divorced families.
b. boys of divorced families exhibit poorer academic perf than girls of divorced families.
c. the negative effects of divorce on academic perf are not moderated by gender.
d. the negative effects of divorce on academic perf are observed in younger (but not older) children.
7.98 B - The studies have consisly shown that children of divorce do more poorly in school than children of intact families. In addn, these negative effects tend to be more pronounced for boys than for girls and for children who are older at the time of the divorce.
7.102 Cluster sampling involves
a. randomly selecting indiv Ss from a larger target population.
b. randomly selecting a naturally-occurring grp of Ss from a larger target popoulation.
c. randomly selecting several naturally occurring grps from a larger population, and then randomly selecting indivs from each grp.
d. randomly selecting indivs from a larger target population and dividing Ss into grps on the basis of their status on a demographic variable.
7.102 B - In cluster sampling, naturally occurring grps of Ss, rather than indiv Ss, are randomly selected for participation in research. For instance, if a researcher wts to use elemtary schl students in an educational study, h/she cd randomly choose a schl from the schls in his state, and use all of the students in that schl as participants in the study. That's cluster sampling. A variation of cluster sampling, known as multistage cluster sampling, involves selecting a large cluster (grp) and then selecting selectively smaller clusters. e.g., the researcher studying elemtary schl students cd randomly select a schl district, then randomly select a schl from the chosen schl district, and then randomly select a classrm from the chosen schl. In this case, both forms of cluster sampling wd be more practical than the alternative of simple random sampling. That wd involve randomly selecting indiv elemtary schl students from across the state.
7.109 Although conclusions will vary across diff studies, which of the following stmts is most supported by the overall body of research on therapy outcome for Af-Am and Caucasian pts?
a. There is no signif diff in outcome b/w Af-Am and Caucasian pts.
b. Af-Am pts have better outcomes overall than Caucasian pts.
c. Caucasian pts have better outcomes overall than Caucasian pts.
d. Tx outcomes for Af-Am pts are better but only when the therapist is also Af-Am
7.109 A - Research has clearly identified a no. of variables that potally interact w/ race in influencing therapy outcome. For instance, Af-Am pts tend to have poorer outcomes when wking w/ therapists who are insensitive to or unknowledgeable about racial or cultural issues. There are also studies that show that Af-Ams are more likely to terminate therapy prematurely than Caucasian, and even a few studies which show they are likely to have poorer outcomes. However, the bulk of the literature and thinking on this issue supports the notion that race, in and of itself, is not a gd predr of therapy outcome.
7.112 All of the following stms regarding item response theory are true, except
a. it cannot be applied in the attempt to dvp culture-fair tests.
b. it's a useful theory in the dvpt of computer progs designed to create tests tailored to the indiv's level of ability.
c. one of its assumptions is that test items measure a "latent trait."
d. it usu has little practical significance unless one is wking w/ very large samples.
7.112 A - Item response theory is a highly technical math approach to item analysis. Use of item analysis is based on a no. of complex math assumptions. One is invariance of item parameters, hlds that the characteristics of items shd be the same for all theoretically equiv grps of Ss chosen from same population. Thus, any culture-free test shd demonstrate invariance; i.e., a set of items shdn't have diff set of characteristics for diff subgrps. So, item response theory has been applied to dvpt of culture-free tests. Choice A not true.
Other choices all true. B - item response theory is theoretical basis of computer adaptive assessmt, in which tests tailored to examinee's ability level are computer generated.
C - An assumption of item response theory is that items measure a latent trait, such as intelligence or general ability. And, research supports notion that the assumptions of item response theory only hold true for v. large samples (D).
7.114 When acting as a divorce mediator, you shd
a. explain to both spouses your opinion on the issues in qn.
b. attempt to get both divorcing spouses to be more flexible about their goals.
c. attempt to get the parties to be ambiguous about their goals in the early stages of mediation.
d. help the spouses understd and wk through their relnship difficys in order to improve their relnship w/ each other.
7.114 B - Mediation is method of conflict resolution in which compromise b/w opposing parties is sought. Goal of mediator is to get 2 parties to agree on resolution of conflict; thus, he wd certly encourage parties to be more flexible about their goals. Rather than encouraging them to be ambig (C), mediator wd wt to clarify goals of parties in order to understd the nature of the conflict. Contrary to A, mediator shd remain neutral. And D sounds more like goal of family therapist.
7.120 Wolfgang Kohler, a founder of the gestalt schl of learning and thought, is known for applying gestalt learning principles to the dvpt of
a. unfinished business
b. insight.
c. integration of all parts of the psyche.
d. awareness of psychological boundaries.
7.120 B - Kohler, founder of gestalt schl of psyc, studied insight learning. In one of his expts, a chimp had to get food placed o'side his cage. He had 2 sticks but they were too short to reach the food. As he was sitting w/ the 2 sticks in his hand, the chimp had what Kohler called an "a-ha experience": He quickly fit the sticks together and was able to get the food. This a-ha experience - a sudden, novel solution to the prob - is basis of insight learning. According to Kohler, insight learning cannot be explained by traditional behal theories of learning, which are based on reinforcemt and assocns b/w stimuli.
7.123 The head of a psyc clinic hires a consultant to help therapists deal w/ some partic diffic cases at the agency. This is an example of:
a. consultee-centered admin consultation.
b. client-centered admin consultation.
c. consultee-centered case consultation.
d. client-centered case consultation.
7.123 D - Client-centered case consultation involves wking w/ consultee to dvpt plan to wk more effectively w/ a partic client or clients.
7.125 A principal components analysis is conducted on a set of variables, and a rotation is performed. Following the rotation, which of the following will be true in all cases?
a. All the principal components will a/c for an equal ppn of variability in the variables.
b. The first principle component will a/c for more variability in the variables than all the other principle components combined.
c. The principle components will be uncorreled.
d. The principle components will be correled.
7.125 C - Principal components analysis is complex stats procedure that is similar in purpose to factor analysis. Both proceds are designed to det the deg to which variability in many variables (e.g., tests) can be a/ced for by fewer underlying traits or factors. In principal components analysis, these traits or factors are referred to as principal components, factors, or eigenvectors.
One diff b/w princ components analysis and factor analysis is that, in the latter, the researcher has the choice of choosing an orthogonal or oblique rotation following the analysis. If he/she chooses an oblique rotation, the derived factors are correled. In princ components analysis, by contrast, the factos are always uncorreled.
Neither A nor B is correct. In princ components analysis, the first principal component always a/cs for more variability than the others. But, doesn't mean it will a/c for more than the others combined.
7.133 An AIDS prevention prog aimed primarily at indivs who are mostly at low-risk for the dz shd focus on
a. incing knowledge about safe sexual practices.
b. changing perceived peer norms.
c. scaring indivs by educating them about the serious medical conseqs of the DO.
d. encouraging abstinence.
7.133 B - Studies have found that perceived peer norms are better predr of AIDs risk behs than other variables, incl knowledge about AIDS. This is esp true in low-risk grps, such as heterosexual HS and college students. These results suggest that education progs shd target peer norms. Specific methods proposed include peer-based AIDS education, encounters w/ peers who have AIDS, and peer-moderated discussion grps.
7.134 The best systematic method for tracking the progression of AD is
a. daily observation of changes in the pt's mood and beh.
b. reports form signif others and family members.
c. obtin self-reports from the pt.
d. admining assessmts of cog fning on a regular basis.
7.134 D - Most direct way to assess AD on ongoing basis is to reg administer cog assessmts.
7.153 Time-out is based on
a. removal of positive reinforcers
b. diff'al reinforcemt of desired behs.
c. removal of negative reinforcers.
d. punishmt.
7.153 A - Although time-out can be thought of as punishmt, the technique is intended and usu conceptualized as a form of extinction, whereby the opportunity for positive reinforcemt is taken away. When the child is removed from an environmt such as the classrm, the potal for reinforcemt of his/her behs (e.g., attn from the other children) is removed as well. In addn, the time-out environmt is ideally devoid of poss. reinforcemt value.
7.154 The best e.g. of a 2ndary prevention program is
a. a rehab program.
b. crisis intervention.
c. a community education program.
d. Head Start.
7.154 B - 2ndary prevention involves early detection and intervention for a prob in order to reduce its duration and keep it from getting worse. Crisis intervention, suciide hotlines, and screening tests are all examples of 2ndary prevention.
7.157 From a family systems perspective, all of the following stms are true, except
a. change in any one part of the family is assoced w/ change in all other parts.
b. the sys is composed of interreled parts.
c. there is a consis dynamic toward chaos which is checked through family rituals and beliefs.
d. the sys maintains a balance of periods of change and periods of stability.
7.157 C - A basic tenet of systems theory is that a sys seeks homeostasis, or balance and stability. Conseqly, the alternative describing a sys as always tending toward chaos is actually oppos to what is the case. All the other alternatives are more or less true of the systems approach.
7.160 You are hired as a consultant by a large corporation. You eval the company and come up w/ a list of interventions that you believe wd inc the company's profitability. To encourage employees to accept these changes, you assemble them in a large meeting hall and give a speech explaining how your proposed changes will benefit the company and, by extension, the employees. Which of the following strategies for incing acceptance to change are you using?
a. normative-reeducative.
b. empirical-rational.
c. power-coercive.
d. advocacy consultation.
7.160 B - This qn refers to a framewk that identifies 3 general strats to bring about change in an org: empirical-rational, power-coercive and normative-reeducative. Empirical-rational strats are based on the assumption that ppl are basically rational and, if they have all relev info about a sitn, will act in accord w/ their self-int. Thus, a proposed change will be adopted if the proposer can rationally justify the change and show that it will benefit the members of the org. The consultant in this qn is explaining how the proposed changes will advance the self-int of the employees; thus, he is adopting an empirical-rational approach.
7.163 A person w/ high self-esteem is likely to make what type of attribns for his/her achievemts/
a. internal and specific
b. internal and global
c. external and specific
d. external and global
7.163 A - This qn is reled to Weiner's attributional theory of motivation and emotion. Attributions are our causal explanations for events and the beh of ourselves and others. According to Weiner, attributions can be due to factors that are either internal or external, stable or unstable, controllable or uncontrollable, intentional or unintentional, and global or specific. S-one w/ high self-esteem wd take credit for his/her achievemts and be proud of them. Thus, he/she wd likely attribute them to internal, stable, controllable, intentional, and specific causes.
7.165 The sense which has teh most direct connection to cortical processing is
a. touch
b. vision
c. olfaction
d. proprioception
7.165 C - The sense of smell (olfaction) has the most direct connection to the cortical processing nuclei. Unlike other sensory info, smell is not relayed through the thalamus on its way to the cortex.
7.169 You are a psyc in private practice and, due to a heavy case load, you decide to wk w/ another psyc. The 2nd psyc will see many of the clients and share office space w/ you. You agree to give this psyc 50% of all fees received. This arrangemt is:
a. unethical, because the ethical stds prohibit fees for referrals.
b. unethical, because it threatens the best ints of the clients.
c. unethical, because the clients will be misled about their fees.
d. ethical.
7.169 D - There is nothing inherently wrong about this arrangemt, and it is not barred by APA's ethical stds. The stds do prohibit paymt for referrals that are based on the referral itself and not based on services rendered. However, both psycs in this case will apparently be rendering services, so the arrangemt appears acceptable.
7.173 Herman Ebbinghaus studied memory processes using which of the following as Ss?
a. himself
b. his children
c. exptal animals
d. his grad students
7.173 A - Ebbinghaus used himself as a subject.
7.184 Which of the following stmts regarding the relnship b/w anxiety and achievemt on academic tasks is true?
a. The higher the anxiety, the better the perf.
b. The optimal level of anxiety is lower than it wd be for simpler tasks.
c. The optimal level of anxiety is higher than it wd be for simpler tasks.
d. There are no avail findings indicing which level of anxiety is optimal.
7.184 B - There is a curvilinear relnship b/w anxiety and perf. This means that neither too little nor too much anxiety is optimal - a mod. amt is best. However, the optimal amt of anxiety also deps on the complexity of the task. For complex tasks, the optimal anxiety level is lower than it is for simple tasks.
7.189 For the WISC-III, which of the following wd have the lowest reliability?
a. Verbal IQ score.
b. Perf IQ score.
c. subtest scores.
d. Verbal-Perf diff score.
7.189 D - If you take a diff b/w 2 scores, you are, obviously, using 2 measures. Since each is less than 100% reliable, you are going to compound the total error variance (i.e., the total unreliability). The error contained in both tests wd exist in the diff score. thus, using 2 measures which are less than perfectly reliable you will end up with a score which is less reliable than either of the 2 you started with.
7.190 The relnship b/w age and accident rates across most wk settings is that
a. there is no direct relnship b/w age and accidents.
b. they are dirly related.
c. they are inversely related.
d. there is a U-shaped relnship.
7.190 C - Accidents are inversely reled to age: Younger ppl tend to have more accidents than older ppl, even after the effects of experience are ruled out. In other words, as age incs, accidents dec. This describes an inverse relnship.
7.197 A no. of bks in the popular press have been written regarding the relnship b/w psycal factors and cancer. Which of the following stms best reflects the outcome of scientific studies of this issue?
a. Psycal factors are reled both to the onset of cancer and the success of recovery from it.
b. Psycal factors are reled to the onset of cancer but not to the success of recovery from it.
c. Psycal factors are not reled to the onset of cancer but are reled to the success of recovery from it.
d. Psycal factors are reled to neither the onset of cancer nor the success of recovery from it.
7.197 C - A no. of theories regarding the relnship b/w psycal factors and the onset of cancer have been proposed. For instance, some authors have proposed that the "Type C" persy, typically described as a cooperative, unassertive pt who suppresses anger and complies w/ external authorities, is at a higher risk for cancer. However, most research shows that psycal factors and stressful events have a small or no effect on cancer incidence. By contrast, psycal factors do appear to be reled to recovery from cancer. For instance, psycal txs combining support and training in self-hypnosis are assoced w/ higher survival rates and improved quality of life in cancer pts.