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155 Cards in this Set

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4.3 When an intervention involves changing oppressive sociocultural conditions in order to alleviate the cause of a person's distress, this intervention is:
a. emic
b. etic
c. alloplastic
d. autoplastic
4.3 A no. of terms are used in multicult. counseling lit. to describe diff. aspects of this approach.
a. Incorrect - Emic refers to culture-specific approach that recognizes differences b/w aspects of this approach
b. Incorrect - Etic refers to a universalistic approach that applies universal principles to all cultures.
c. CORRECT - An alloplastic intervention alters environmtal conditions that contrib. to or cause personal distress.
d. Incorrect - Autoplastic intervention attempts to change the indiv. to adapt to environmtal conditions.
4.4 According to DSM-IV-TR, reports of the lifetime prevalence of Bipolar I DO range from:
a. .4 to 1.6%
b. 1.9 to 2.7%
c. 4.6 to 5.8%
d. 8.1 to 10.3%
4.4
a. CORRECT - this is range reported in DSM-IV-TR.
4.5 Bartlett Barmicide says he cont'd having hallucinations ("flashbacks") several mths after he stopped using a drug. He also states that he realizes that this is probably due to the drug. Bartlett most likely used which of the following:
a. PCP
b. methamphetamine
c. cocaine
d. mescaline
4.5 No. of drugs can cause Substance-Induced Psychotic DO, characterized by prominent hallucinations and delusions. However, as defined in DSM, the onset of sxs for this DO is w/in 1 mth after drug use and indiv. does not recognize that the sxs are substance-induced.
d. - CORRECT - DSM-IV-TR includes Hallucinogen Persisting Perception DO (Flashbacks). This DO involves re-experiencing perceptual disturbances reminiscent of those experienced during an earlier Hallucinogen Intoxication. Mescaline is a type of hallucinogen.
4.8 Erik Erikson coined the term:
a. adolescent storm and stress
b. adolescent identity crisis
c. midlife crisis
d. sandwich generation
4.8 Erik Erikson is best known for p-social theory of dvpt. One of the stages is "identity vs. identity confusion," which is characteristic of adolescents.
a. Incorrect - Stanley Hall discussed Storm and stress of adolescence.
b. CORRECT - Erikson was 1st major theorist to elucidate notion of adol. identity crisis and is credited w/ coining the term.
c. Incorrect - "Midlife crisis" was coined by p-analyst Elliott Jacques in 1967
d. Incorrect - Not coined by Erikson
4.9 Children are most likely to be resilient (i.e., to "bounce back" from high-risk or traumatic events) when their parents are:
a. high in warmth, structure, and expectations
b. high in warmth and structure but low in expectations
c. moderate in warmth, structure, and expectations
d. moderate in warmth but low in structure and expectations
4.9 Authoritative parenting has been linked to greater resilience.
a. CORRECT - Authoritative parenting is characterized by high deg of warmth, structure, and expectations.
4.10 Opioid peptides that block the release of substance P and thereby reduce pain are referred to as:
a. hypnotics
b. endorphins
c. pheromones
d. catecholamines
4.10 Opiate receptors and substance P receptors are concentrated in the same areas of the brain. Opiate receptors play an imp. role in inhibiting the pain-producing effects of substance P.
b. CORRECT - Opioid peptides (which bind to opiate receptor sites) are also known as endorphins (endogeneous morphines). The endorphins produce analgesia, most likely by blocking the release of substance P.
4.13 A first-grade student freqly misbehaves in class. Whenever he does so, his teacher has him stand in the corner for 10 mins. During that time, he often turns around and makes faces at his classmates, and they respond by laughing and talking to him. The boy's misbehavior is being maintained by:
a. habituation
b. satiation
c. positive reinforcement
d. negative reinforcement
4.13 In this sitn, the boy's misbehavior is continuing because of the attn he recs from his classmates when he misbehaves.
a. Incorrect - Habituation occurs when a punishmt loses its effectiveness
b. Incorrect - Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its effectiveness
c. CORRECT - Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior incs because of a stimulus that is applied following the behavior. In this sitn, the boy's misbehavior in class and in the corner is being maintained by the attn of his peers.
d. Incorrect - Negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior incs because of a stimulus that is removed following the behavior.
4.19 In the dvpt of a job perf. measure, the "ultimate" criterion is:
a. a criterion measure that has a perfect (or near perfect) correln w/ the predr
b. a criterion measure that is unaffected by measuremt error
c. a construct that cannot actually be measured
d. the actual measure of the empirically-identified conceptual criterion
4.19
c. CORRECT - An ultimate (conceptual) criterion is a construct that cannot be measured directly but, instead, is measured indirectly (e.g., "effective employee" wd be the ultimate criterion, while "dollar amt of sales during a 3-mth period" wd be the actual criterion).
4.23 Hostile masculinity and promiscuous-impersonal sex are central concepts in:
a. Malamuth's confluence theory
b. Dollard's frustration-aggression hypothesis
c. Plutchik and Kellerman's circumplex model
d. Walker's "cycle of violence"
4.23 These 2 concepts have been linked by Malamuth to sexual aggression.
a. CORRECT - According to Malamuth's confluence model (formerly the interaction model), sexual aggression is result of convergence of 2 major constellations or paths - the hostile masculinity path and the promiscuous-impersonal sex path.
4.31 Penny Pallid is an Anglo-Am teacher and Cameron Chroma, her student, is Af-Am. According to Helms' interaction model, Ms. Pallid will be LEAST effective in teaching Cameron if she is in the _________ state of racial identity dvpt and Cameron is in the __________ stage.
a. reintegration; pre-encounter
b. pseudo-independent; pre-encounter
c. reintegration; immersion
d. pseudo-independent; encounter
4.31 This qn is asking about Helms' proposal that outcomes in clin. and other relnships are affected by the stage of racial identity dvpt of each participant.
a. Incorrect - As defined by Helms, this is e.g. of parallel relnship and likely to result in stable, harmonious interaction.
b. Incorrect - This is e.g. of progressive relnship. Provides greatest opport. for growth for the student.
c. CORRECT - This is an example of a crossed relnship. It is most conflicted type and characterized by disharmony, fear, and "warfare." Least likely to promote student's growth.
d. Incorrect - Another e.g. of progressive relnship.
4.33 Although stuttering in children is often difficult to treat, there is some evidence that _________ is the most effective approach.
a. stress inoculation
b. covert sensitization
c. regulated breathing
d. dialectical behavior therapy
4.33 Several studies have found regulated breathing to be effective for ppl who stutter.
c. CORRECT - regulated breathing involves instructing the person to stop speaking when a stuttering episode occurs and to take a deep breath before continuing. It is often combined w/ awareness training and social support and, in this format, referred to as "habit reversal."
4.35 On a measure that assesses the "Big Five" personality factors, a high score on neuroticism, a low score on agreeableness, and a low score on conscientiousness are most likely to be obtained by a person with ____________ PD.
a. Obsessive-Compulsive
b. Narcissistic
c. Schizoid
d. Antisocial
4.35 Match between Big Five persy traits and DSM's persy DOs.
a. Incorrect - OC PD likely to obt high scroe on some aspects of neuroticism, low score on some aspects of agreeableness, and high score on conscientiousness
b. Incorrect - Narcissistic PD - high score on some aspects of neuroticism, low score on agreeableness, and high score on some aspects of conscientiousness
c. Incorrect - Schizoid PD - obt low score on some aspects of neuroticism, high score on 1 aspect of agreeableness (compliance), and low score on 1 aspect of conscientiousness (Ach striving)
d. CORRECT - Antisocial PD pattern
4.37 Which of the following represents a phoneme:
a. "c"
b. "ing"
c. "mama"
d. "mom"
4.37 Phoneme is smallest unit of language.
a. CORRECT - English has 26 letters but 44 phonemes since same letter alone or combined with others can represent more than one sound.
b. Incorrect - Morpheme (smallest unit of sound that conveys meaning).
4.38 Harvey's (1999) re-analysis of the 1994 National Longitudinal Survey of Youth (NLSY) data found that, in terms of future effects, maternal employment during the first 3 years of a child's life is most likely to have:
a. a significant and LT negative impact on the child's emotional, cognitive, and behal fning.
b. a small negative impact on the child's cognitive fning but no consis. impact on emotional or behal dvpt.
c. a small negative impact on the child's emotional and behal fning but no consis. impact on cognitive dvpt.
d. a significant negative impact on the child's behal fning but no consis. impact on cognitive and emotional dvpt.
4.38 Referring to Elizabeth Harvey's re-analysis of the NLSY data, which involved remedying some of the methodological probs of prevly-published study.
b. CORRECT - Harvey concludes that the data reveal no consis. effects on compliance or self-esteem but small, usu. ST effects on measures of acad. achievement.
4.45 Zajonc's confluence model predicts that children's intellectual growth can be either enhanced or hindered by their immed. family circumstances. Specifically, Zajonc considers __________ to be a critical factor in intellectual dvpt.
a. birth order
b. parental marital status
c. parenting style
d. culture
4.45 Zajonc argues that intellectual dvpt is influenced by the intellectual environmt of the home, esp. as it relates to family configuration.
a. CORRECT - Zajonc's confluence theory predicts that children born earlier (e.g., firstborns), tend to do slightly better on academic tests than their younger siblings.
4.48 Which of the following indivs has proposed that orgal culture acts, at least in part, as a defense mechanism that helps orgal members avoid uncertainty and anxiety:
a. Herbert Simon
b. Edgar Schein
c. Leon Festinger
d. Geert Hofstede
4.48 Knowing that Edgar Schein has written extensively on orgal culture wd have helped you choose answer.
b. CORREDCT - In his book Organizational Culture and Leadership (1992), Schein describes the basic assumptions that underlie an org's culture as cognitive defense mechanisms.
4.50 In addn to identifying "bounded rationality" as an impedimt to rational d-making, Herbert Simon is known for his wk on:
a. artificial intelligence
b. job burnout
c. groupthink
d. orgal culture
4.50 Although Herbert Simon is probably best known for his wk on indiv d-making, he was also a pioneer in the field of Artificial Intelligence.
a. CORRECT - Simon believed there are 2 main goals in using and studying computers: 1) to augmt human intelligence and 2) to help understd how humans think.
4.56 In terms of item response theory, the slope (steepness) of the item response curve indicates the item's:
a. difficulty
b. discriminability
c. reliability
d. validity
4.56 The item response curve provides 3 pieces of info about an item - i.e., its difficulty, ability to discriminate b/w those who are high and low on the characteristic being measured, and the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing.
a. Incorrect - the position of the curve indicates its difficulty level
b. CORRECT - steeper the slope of item response curve, better its ability to discriminate b/w examinees who are high and low on the characteristic being measured.
4.59 Motivational interviewing combines the transtheoretical model of change with:
a. p-analytic concepts
b. reality therapy
c. a behal approach
d. a client-centered approach
4.59 As its name implies, motivational interviewing focuses on a client's motivation to change.
d. CORRECT - Motivational interviewing is esp. useful for indivs in the precontemplation and contemplation stages (the first 2 stages proposed by the transtheoretical model of change). It adopts a client-centered approach (e.g., emphasizes the importance of empathy).
4.60 The 1st use of meta-analysis in the area of psychology is attribed to:
a. Flynn
b. Eysenck
c. Smith and Glass
d. Horn and Cattell
4.60 Meta-analysis was orig. used by Karl Pearson in 1904 to eval. the extent to which smallpox inoculation inc'd survival rates. At that time, the technique was not known as "meta-analysis."
c. CORRECT - It was not until the 1970s that the term "meta-analysis" was introduced by Smith and Glass who also refined the technique and were the first to apply it to psycal research.
4.64 According to Piaget, which of the following is a necessary prerequisite for the dvpt of reversibility:
a. self-awareness
b. meta-cognition
c. symbolism
d. hypothetico-deductive reasoning
4.64 Piaget argued that symbolism - an in partic. language - is critical for reversibility and conservation.
c. CORRECT - In Logical Operations and Social Life, Piaget states "complete reversibility presupposes symbolism".
4.65 Research investigating the impact of parenting style on the academic achievemt of children and adolescents suggests that the effects are:
a. modified by the offspring's temperament
b. modified by the family's ethnicity/culture
c. modified by the level of parental education
d. not affected by temperament, ethnicity/culture, or parental education
4.65 A no. of studies have linked authoritative parenting w/ the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents.
b. CORRECT - some evidence that benefits of authoritative parenting are modified by family ethnicity or culture. For example, L. Sternberg et al. report that the authoritative style is beneficial for the school success of white and Hispanic students but that, for Asian- and African-Americans, this style does not predict school achievement.
4.71 According to M. Seligman, when a person with an optimistic attribn style does poorly on an exam in a class he ordinarily does well in, that person will most likely say:
a. I didn't study hard enough
b. I was unlucky
c. The teacher gave a very hard test this time
d. The teacher always grades on a curve
4.71 According to Seligman's theory of learned optimism, the attribns of optimistic ppl are just oppos. of those made by deped and pessimistic ppl.
a. Incorrect - this is internal attribn and is not consis. w/ Seligman's theory
b. Incorrect - not as good as c
c. CORRECT - Best fits Seligman's theory which proposes that optimistic ppl tend to make external, specific, and temporary attribns for negative events.
d. Incorrect - This is global (rather than specific) attribn.
4.78 An orgal psyc. conducts a(n) ________ to det the rel. worth of a job cfed to other jobs.
a. utility analysis
b. needs assessmt
c. perf. appraisal
d. job evaln.
4.78 For the exam, you wt to be familiar w/ several "vocab words" that describe important activities in orgal settings.
a. Incorrect - Utility refers to feasibility of a measure, often in terms of its costs.
b. Incorrect - Needs assessmt (analysis) is conducted to ID training needs
c. Incorrect - Perf. appraisal is assessmt of employee's job perf.
d. CORRECT - Job evals are conducted for purpose of esting worth of job so that approp. wage can be defined for that job.
4.80 In their study of outpt mental health services in LA County, Sue et al. (1991) found that, while clients from all group showed improvemt at the end of therapy, __________ had the best outcomes.
a. Af-Ams
b. Anglo-Ams
c. Asian-Ams
d. Hispanic-Ams
4.80 Sue et al. and others have found a few consis. diffs in outcomes for members of diff ethnic/cultural groups.
d. CORRECT - Sue et al. (1991) found that Hispanic-Americans had best outcomes, followed by Anglos, Asian-Americans and Af-Ams.
4.81 A 9-year-old with Panic DO:
a. has been misdxed because PD does not occur in preadolescent children
b. is most likely to manifest his DO as crying, freezing, and clinging to his parents
c. is most likely to manifest his DO as shortness of breath, chest pain, and heart palpitations and saying that he "feels like he's going crazy"
d. is most likely to manifest his DO as shortness of breath, chest pain, tachycardia, and school refusal
4.81 Some controversy re ability of children to experience cogn. sxs of panic; however, cases of DO in children are described in lit.
b. Incorrect - these sxs are characteristic for children aged 3 through 5
c. Incorrect - these sxs are characteristic for adolescents.
d. CORRECT - these are sxs listed for children aged 6 through 12 in Wolraich.
4.85 A survey conducted by Buhrmester and Furman (1990) of 3rd, 6th, 9th, and 12th graders found that, as children move toward the end of middle childhood, relnships b/w siblings become more:
a. distant
b. egalitarian
c. conflictual
d. complementary
4.85 Burhmester and Furman found combo of closeness and conflict among siblings in middle childhood w/ trend toward less conflict and greater egalitarianism w/ incing age.
b. CORRECT - study cited found that by end of middle childhood, sibling relnships had become much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict.
4.89 Survey feedback is a method of orgal dvpt that is based on the premise that:
a. ppl are not usually open and honest w/ each other
b. wk groups are the basic foundation of an orgn
c. orgal output is a fn of both production and ppl
d. employees need to understand an org's strengths and weaknesses
4.89 Orgal dvpt encompasses a variety of techniques.
d. CORRECT - survey feedback technique involves collecting data about strengths and weakness of org from employees at all levels; providing employees w/ the results of the survey; and helping employees use the data to identify ways to overcome current probs.
4.90 In the 1950s, researchers at Ohio State University dvped an influential theory of leadership that focused on a leader's:
a. persy traits
b. behaviors
c. attitudes toward subordinates
d. power
4.90 Results of Ohio State leadership studies indiced that leaders can be described in terms of 2 behal dims - consideration and initiating structure.
b. CORRECT - Ohio State group focused on behs exhibited by supervisors and other orgal leaders.
4.91 For pts with AD, deficits in semantic memory:
a. are apparent prior to deficits in episodic memory
b. are not apparent until the final stages of the DO
c. are apparent in the early stages of the DO but may be more subtle than deficits in episodic memory
d. are initially indistinguishable from deficits assoced w/ normal age-related cogn. decline.
4.91 Although early stages of AD are most assoced w/ imps in episodic memory, recent research confirmed subtle but signif. deficits in semantic memory as well.
c. CORRECT - early sx of AD is difficys in verbal production, which are believed to be due to impaired semantic memory.
d. Incorrect - Certain memory sxs (e.g., probs in verbal prodc w/out deficits in verbal comprehension) due to impaired semantic memory are now considered one of the "hallmarks" of AD and help disting. it from other forms of dementia and age-reled cogn. decline.
4.92 Diabetes mellius has been IDed as a risk factor for Vascular Dementia. With regard to AD, diabetes:
a. is not assoced w/ an inc'd risk
b. is assoced w/ an inc'd risk only for those who do not receive insulin tx.
c. is assoced w/ an inc'd risk even among those who did receive insulin tx.
d. is assoced w/ an inc'd risk only for the early onset type of AD.
4.92 Diabetes has been recoged as a high risk factor for Vascular Dementia for some time, but has also been recently linked to AD.
c. CORRECT - risk for AD doubled for those with diabetes and 4 times greater for those w/ diabetes who receive insulin tx.
d. Incorrect - In Ott et al.'s study, 14% of pts w/ diabetes eventually dvped Vascular Dementia, while 70% dvped AD.
4.93 When using the Adult Attachment Interview, a mother will be classifed as ___________ if she describes her parents in positive terms (e.g., "Dad was a very loving person") but either reports negative interactions w/ her parents or says she can't remember any early interactions w/ them.
a. dismissing
b. preoccupied
c. unresolved/disorganized
d. resistant
4.93 The Adult Attachment Interview categorizes respondents in terms of 3 main categories - autonomous, dismissing, and preoccupied.
a. CORRECT - Dismissing indivs describe their parents in positive terms that are not substantiated by descriptions of actual interactions
b. Incorrect - Preoccupied indivs are confused, angry, or passively preoccupied w/ attachment figures
c. Incorrect - Adult Attachment Inventory incls 4th category (Unresolved/disorganized) that is assigned to respondents who have an unresolved experience reled to loss or abuse. It is assigned in conjunction w/ one of the 3 categories listed above.
d. Incorrect - This is not one of the categories.
4.101 A family therapist whose approach incorporates social learning theory is likely to combine behal techniques w/ which of the following:
a. insight-oriented exercises
b. modification of the fam's environmt
c. cognitive-restructuring exercises
d. enhancing prob-solving and communication skills
4.101 Social learning theory emphasizes impact of reciprocal interactions on beh. Communication reps an important form of interaction b/w family members; and altering communication patterns and the ways that family members resolve probs is considered a critical part of therapy.
d. CORRECT - Stuart (1969) and Liberman, et al. (1980) are 2 family therapists who incorp. social learning principles into their approach. Both emphasize behal techniques (e.g., contingency contracting) and prob-solving and commun. skills.
4.102 From the perspective of Beck's cogn. therapy, the info processing of suicidal indivs is characterized by a high deg of hopelessness and:
a. equivocation
b. dichotomous thinking
c. personalization
d. automatic thinking
4.102 Only one is considerd key feature of thinking of suicidal indivs.
b. CORRECT - According to Beck, hopelessness and rigid, black-and-white thinking are the essential cogn. characteristics of suicidal indivs. Tx, therefore, targets the indiv's sense of hopelessness and dichotomous thinking.
4.103 Children at risk for antisocial beh are most likely to have +ve outcomes when:
a. they have higher IQs
b. they are phys. attractive
c. they have a special talent
d. they have higher self-esteem
4.103 All of the factors listed can act as protective mechanisms for children at high risk. This qn is asking about partic. kind of risk (risk for antisocial beh), and that other factors that might be the most important ones for other sitns are not given as responses (e.g., good relnship w/ a caretaker, social responsivity).
a. CORRECT - a no. of studies report that higher IQ is assoced w/ better outcome for children at high risk for antisocial beh.
4.109 Research investigating the effects of incing age on metamemory suggests that:
a. metamemory skills continue to improve throughout the lifespan
b. older adults are more likely than younger adults to underestimate the difficy of a memory task
c. older adults are as proficient as younger adults at estimating their ability to recall info they have just studied
d. all aspects of metamemory begin to decline in the 4th or 5th decade of life
4.109 Although some aspects of metamemory decline with incing age, other aspects seem to be unaffected.
a. Incorrect - Some aspects of metamemory do show declines w/ incing age
b. Incorrect - This is actually the oppos. of what is true (and what you might have expected): Older ppl tend to overestimate the diffy of memory tasks.
c. CORRECT - Older people seem to be just as accurate at estimating their ability to recall newly-acquired info as younger ppl.
4.112 The authors of DSM-IV attempted to overcome the difficulties assoced w/ a categorical diagnostic classification system by:
a. using a dimensional system
b. using a combined dimensional-categorical system
c. including polythetic criteria sets for some disorders
d. including nomothetic criteria sets for some disorders
4.112 DSM-IV, like its predecessors, is a categorical classification system that divides the mental disorders into distinct categories.
c. CORRECT - In recogn of the heterogeneity of ppl w/ the same DO, the authors of DSM include polythetic criteria sets for many of the DOs. In other words, for these DOs, the "indiv need only present w/ a subset of items from a longer list"
4.119 For Miller and Dollard, the approach-approach conflict:
a. is a dilemma because as soon as the indiv approaches one positive goal, the pull of the other positive goal incs in strength
b. is a dilemma that is often resolved by "leaving the field" and choosing a 3rd goal
c. is not really a dilemma since, once the indiv begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decs
d. is an unpredictable dilemma because it is imposs. to ever know if the approp. goal has been selected.
4.119 Miller and Dollard disting. b/w 3 conflicts: approach-avoidance, avoidance-avoidance, and approach-approach.
a. Incorrect - This is not a prediction made by Miller and Dollard but does sound somewhat like what Lewin concluded about this type of dilemma.
b. Incorrect - This sounds more like what Lewin concluded about avoidance-avoidance
c. CORRECT - According to Miller and Dollard, the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma. When it does arouse conflict, it is because there are hidden or latent avoidance conditions operating.
4.124 Damage to the cerebellum is assoced w/ all of the following except:
a. apraxia
b. ataxia
c. dysarthria
d. nystagmus
4.124 The cerebellum is resp. for the maintenance of posture and balance and the coordination of movement.
a. CORRECT - Apraxia is an inability to carry out purposeful movements despite normal muscle coordination and power. It is assoced mostly w/ damage to the parietal lobe.
b. Incorrect - Ataxia (jerky, staggering gait and other uncoordinated movements) is caused by damage to the cerebellum.
c. Incorrect - Damage to the cerebellum is one of the causes of dysarthria (slurred speech).
d. Incorrect - Nystagmus involves jerky eye movements and an inability to fix the gaze in one direction. It can be produced by damage to the cerebellum.
4.131 You are wking as a consultant at a factory and your job incls interviewing execs and assembly-line wkers about the changes they wd like to see in their jobs in order to make them more meaningful. Which of the following describes the most likely results of your interviews:
a. both execs and assembly-line wkers will say they wd like more status in their jobs
b. execs will say they wt more status in their jobs, while assembly line wkers will say they want higher pay
c. execs will say they wt higher pay, while assembly line wkers will say they want more status
d. both execs and assembly-line wkers will say they wt higher pay
4.131 The answer to this qn is provided by research investigating Maslow's need hierarchy theory. Maslow viewed motivation as the result of five basic needs: physiol, safety, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization. According to Maslow, these needs are arranged in hierarchy so that each need acts as a motivator only when the previous need had been satisfied and that once a need has been satisfied, it no longer acts as a motivator.
b. CORRECT - Research on need-hierarchy theory has revealed that the importance of needs is reled to job level. Mgers tend to rate higher level needs as more important, while non-mgers rate lower level needs as more important. Thus, execs are more likely to rate status (esteem) as more important and assembly line wkers are more likely to rate pay (physiol. and safety needs) as more important.
4.133 Which of the following DOs is known to be caused by brain lesions:
a. myasthenia gravis
b. cerebral palsy
c. cystic fibrosis
d. PD
4.133 Although all of the DOs listed are attributable to nervous system dysfunction, only one is known to be assoced w/ brain lesions.
a. Incorrect - Myasthenia Gravis is a DO of neuromuscular transmission. Altho its underlying cause is unknown, it apparently involves inhibition of nerve action potals as the result of a presynaptic abnormality or postsynaptic insensitivity.
b. CORRECT - The term "cerebral palsy" is used to describe a no. of motor DOs resulting from brain lesions that cause persis., nonprogressive motor dysfunction. The causes of cerebral palsy may be prenatal (e.g., heredity, anoxia, or metabolic disturbance), natal (e.g., anoxia or trauma), or postnatal (e.g., trauma, infection, toxic poisoning).
c. Incorrect - Cystic fibrosis is a genetically-transmitted DO that affects exocrine gland functioning
d. Incorrect - PD, an extrapyramidal dz affects control of voluntary movements, is believed to be due to a lack of DA in the BG.
4.139 Of the following, which is most true about adols who have a hx of repeated suicide attempts:
a. the failure of their attempts is usu. due to a lack of access to lethal means
b. their cont'd threats to commit suicide are of minimal concern because very few adol. repeat attempters actually complete suicide
c. the real purpose of their suicide attempts is often to exert power in sitns in which they feel powerless
d. their suicide attempts are often a self-imposed extension of the phys. abuse they have experienced since early childhood
4.139 The lgest inc in the rates of suicide and suicide attempts in recent yrs is among adolescents.
a. Incorrect - Lack of access to lethal means has not been IDed as an explanation for repeated attempts among adolescents. In fact, one pattern that has been IDed is a trend toward incing lethality w/ each attempt.
b. Incorrect - Suicide attempts shd always be taken seriously regardless of the person's past hx. Many ppl w/ a hx of attempts do ultimately kill themselves.
c. CORRECT - Amont adol. repeat attempters, the purpose of the attempts is often interpersonal (conflicts w/ fam members) and/or instrumtal (an attempt to obt attn). Thus, the attempts can be viewed as a desire to claim power in sitns in which the adol. feels powerless.
d. Incorrect - Altho childhd abuse is certainly linked w/ a no. of probs (incl. depn and suicide), this partic. dynamic (the attempt reflecting an extension of abuse) has not been IDed as a causal agent in repeated suicide attempts among adolescents.
4.156 The Strong Interest Inventory would probably be LEAST useful:
a. as a job selection test
b. as a guide for choosing college major
c. for making career decisions
d. for predicting turnover
4.156 Longit. studies on the orig. version of the Strong Interest Inventory of the SVIB have consisly shown that interests are not gd predrs of academic or occupational success.
a. CORRECT - Research has found interest tests to be good predrs of acad. and job choice and job persistence and satisfaction, which are listed as the other alts. Job selection tests usu. (altho not necessarily) are used to predict job success and, therefore, this is the best response of those given since interest test scores are not gd predrs of job success.
4.159 Research on sex diffs in leadership style suggests that actual diffs b/w male and female leaders are far less than what might be expected. The research has also shown that:
a. males and females are evaled similarly by group members regardless of their perceived leadership style
b. males are evaluated more favorably than females by group members regardless of their perceived leadership style
c. although males and females are evaled similarly by group members when they are perceived to have an autocratic leadership style, males are evaled more favorably than females when they are perceived to have a participative leadership style
d. although males and females are evaled similarly by group members when they are perceived to have a participate leadership style, males are evaled more favorably than females when they are perceived to have an autocratic leadership style.
4.159 Altho research suggests that males and females do not differ signifly in leadership beh, some studies indic. that males have greater latitude when it comes to the eval of their leadership ability.
d. CORRECT - This was the finding of research by Vago and Vroom. Males and females were evaled about the same when they were perceived has having a participative leadership style, but males were evaled more favorably than females when they were perceived to have an autocratic leadership style.
4.163 Af-Am adolescents who exhibit a "blended bicultural" behal pattern:
a. are situated midway b/w ethnic and American culture and are part of neither
b. acknowledge their American heritage but are more strongly influenced by their ethnic background
c. do not disting. b/w ethnic and American cultures but have characteristics of both
d. view themselves as equally American and ethnic or as more American
4.163 Biculturalism among Af-Am and Mex-Am adols was recently examined by Phinney and Devich-Navarro. They found that the adols in their sample exhibited one of 3 patterns: blended biculturalism, alternating biculturalism, or separated.
a. Incorrect - This describes marginalization. None of the adols in their study fitted this pattern.
b. Incorrect - This is alternating biculturalism
c. Incorrect - This is referred to as fused identity. They found no evid. of this pattern in their sample.
d. CORRECT - this is blended biculturalism
4.167 When evaling a tx for children suffering from serious behal DOs, to overcome the ethical probs assoced w/ the use of a wait-list control group, the best research design wd be which of the following:
a. single-subject
b. cross-sectional
c. placebo control
d. clinical trials
4.167 The ethical prob referred to in this qn is the withhlding of tx to control group subjects for the duration of the research study.
a. CORRECT - in single-subject designs, subjects act as their own controls. An ideal single-subject design in this sitn wd be the AB or the multiple-baseline design. These designs do not req removal of a tx during the course of the study.
b. Incorrect - Cross-sectional designs are used to assess the effects of an IV across diff age groups.
c. A placebo control group reqs that some Ss rec. no tx (the placebo) during the course of the study and wd not overcome the ethical prob assoced w/ a wait-list control group.
d. Incorrect - "Clinical trials" refers to research conducted in clinical settings and may involve a wait-list or placebo control group.
4.168 The best conclusion that can be drawn about the effects of examiner race on the cogn. test perf. of Af-Am and other minority-group children is that:
a. White examiners have signif. adverse effects on the test perf. of Af-Am and other minority-group children
b. White examiners often have positive effects on the test perf. of Af-Am and other minority-group children
c. White examiners may have negative effects on the test perf. of Af-Am and other minority-group children in some sitns
d. the race of the examiner has no effect on the test perf. of Af-Am and other minority-group children
4.168 This is a controversial topic in the literature. The results of the research have not been consis. and the whole issue of cog. testing and cultural bias has yet to be resolved.
c. CORRECT - this is probably the best conclusion that can be drawn on the basis of the research results. While the majority of studies have found no clear relnshipb/w examiner race and the test perf. of minority children, some studies have found a substantial effect, with Black and other minority children perfing better w/ a same-race examiner.
d. Incorrect - Altho some researchers have drawn this conclusion, the research results have not been entirely consis.
4.173 When wking w/ a Black fam, a non-Black therapist shd keep in mind that:
a. Black families are typically matriarchal
b. Black husbands are usu. less tolerant of the career efforts of their wives than White husbands
c. Black males and females do not hold as rigidly to sexual stereotypes as White males and females
d. Black wives are more willing than White wives to let their husbands make domestic decisions
4.173 Research on the Black family has generally found that Black men and women are less concerned about sex-role stereotypes than White men and women. However, the power structure of the Black family is not substantially diff from that found in many White families.
a. Incorrect - A no. of investigators have pted out that Black and White husbands exercise the same deg of fam d-making power and that the matriarchal Black fam is, in fact, a myth.
b. Incorrect - If anything, the oppos. is true because of their de-emphasis on sex-role stereotypes and social conditions that have made it easier for Black women to succeed educationally and economically than Black men.
c. CORRECT - According to Billingsley, an important aspect of the cultural heritage of Black fams is a de-emphasis on rigid sex-linked stereotypes.
d. Incorrect - In terms of d-making, there does not seem to be much difference b/w Black and White families.
4.175 Overtraining is most assoced w/:
a. peak perf.
b. enhanced transfer of learning
c. a drug-like "high"
d. dec'd motivation and performance
4.175 This is asking about overtraining (not overlearning). Term overtraining appears in sports psyc. literature; overlearning is used in the learning and training literature.
a. Incorrect - This wd be best answer if qn were asking about overlearning.
b. Incorrect - This also better fits overlearning.
c. Incorrect - This is not assoced w/ overtraining or overlearning
d. CORRECT - In sports psyc. lit, overtraining (staleness) refers to excessive training and resulting phys. and psyc. sxs. The undesirable effects of overtraining incl. premature fatigue during exercise, reduced perf, emotional instability, dec'd motivation, and inc'd susceptibility to infection.
4.179 You hear a rumor that one of your co-workers has a habit of sexually-harassing the younger female employees. You start paying closer attn to his beh and discover that the rumors are not unfounded. Your best course of action in this sitn wd be to:
a. maintain a record of your observations and present them to the company's Director
b. approach the young women who have been harassed and suggest they file a complaint w/ the Ethics Committee
c. discuss your observations and the rumors you have heard w/ the co-wker
d. do nothing since your co-wker's behs are basically harmless
4.179 Sexual harassmt is explicitly prohibited by the Ethics Code. In addn, Std 1.14 reqs that psycs attempt to minimize harm against indivs w/ whom psyc. work.
a. Incorrect - Maintaining a record of your observations is not necessarily s-th you wd need to do. Also, making a report to the Director of the org wd, in most cases, not be the best initial course of action.
b. Incorrect - This might be acceptable. A prob, though, is there is nothing in the qn that says your co-worker is a psyc or other professional.
c. CORRECT - This is always a best first course of action if you feel comfortable in confronting the indiv who has allegedly acted unethically.
d. Incorrect - As a psyc, you have a responsibility to take action when you see a colleague sexually harassing co-wkers and others.
4.188 Decentralization is preferable to centralization when an orgn:
a. is oping in a highly competitive and constantly changing environmt
b. is oping in a predictable market and methods of prodn are rel. stable
c. is experiencing a slow rate of growth and has a strong-willed leader
d. has little competition
4.188 As its name implies, in a decentralized org, power is delegated throughout the org. In contrast, in centralized orgs, power is primarily in the hands of one person or a few ppl.
a. CORRECT - because decentralized orgs are more flexible, they are more effective than centralized orgs for adapting to change and meeting the need to make frequent and quick decisions.
b. Incorrect - Centralized orgs tend to be better in this sitn.
c. Incorrect - The "strong-willed leader" shd have helped you eliminate this as a poss. correct answer.
d. Incorrect - When the market and the org are rel. stable, there is a tendency for an org to become more centralized.
4.189 During the 3rd therapy session, a client reveals to you that he has been seeing another psyc. for the past 6 mths. The client claims that this therapist doesn't seem to be "doing any good," and that he feels you'll be better able to help him. As an ethical psyc., you shd:
a. call the psyc. and inform her of the sitn but only w/ the client's consent
b. tell the client you will continue therapy w/ him but discuss the implications of the sitn
c. tell the client you cannot continue therapy w/ him unless he terminates therapy w/ the other psyc
d. continue seeing the client but suggest that it wd be best if he terminates therapy w/ the other psyc.
4.189 Std 4.04 of Ethics Code states that, "In deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already rec'ing mental health services elsewhere, psycs carefully consider tx issues and the potal Pt's or client's welfare."
a. Incorrect - You need not contact the other psyc, irrespective of the client's consent, unless you have reason to suspect that she has acted unethically (which is not suggested in this qn).
b. CORRECT - This is most consis. w/ the req'mts of the Ethics Code. The best thing to do in this sitn wd be to discuss the implications of continuing therapy w/ the client while he is seeing another therapist. In addn, you shd encourage the client to discuss this matter w/ the other therapist.
c. Incorrect - It may become necessary to do this if, after a period of time, the client is continuing to see you and the other therapist and you are both providing him with essentially the same services, but it is probably not the best first course of action.
d. Incorrect - Telling the client that it wd be best for him to stop therapy w/ the other therapist is not req'd by the Ethics Code. It does not take the best ints of the client (or other therapist) into consideration.
4.192 The owner of a company has decided that, to det how well employees are perfing, employees will be watched while perfing their jobs for a predeted period of time. Based on the relev. research, you predict that the employees' perf. during the period of observation will:
a. be inhibited if the task is easy
b. be inhibited if the task is complex
c. be enhanced whether the task is easy or complex
d. be inhibited whether the task is easy or complex
4.192 It has been found that, in cert. circs, the presence of others inhibits task perf (social inhibition), while in other circs, the presence of others facilitates task perf (social facilitation).
a. Incorrect - When the task is simple or well-learned, the presence of others tends to enhance task perf.
b. CORRECT - the presence of others tends to inhibit perf. when the task is complex or unfamiliar.
4.194 One area of interest to industrial psycs is the effects of rest breaks on productivity. For example, Bhatia and Murrell (1969) evaled daily output figures after the intro of rest breaks that reduced the total wk time from 8 to 7 hours per day. Generally speaking, studies like the one conducted by Bhatia and Murrell have indicted that the intro of rest breaks results in:
a. a rise in daily output despite the fact that employees actually spend less time on the job
b. a dec in daily output due to reduced time on the job
c. no signif. change in productivity rates
d. a dec in productivity but an inc in job satisfaction.
4.194 Even if you are unfamiliar w/ the research in this are, it makes sense that the less the fatigue, the greater the productivity.
a. CORRECT - Studies on the effects of rest breaks have indicated that such breaks actually inc productivity despite reduced time on the job, presumably due to dec'd fatigue.
b. Incorrect - There is no evid that rest breaks cause a dec in output.
c. Incorrect - Rest breaks do appear to cause an inc in productivity.
d. Incorrect - Rest breaks do not dec productivity.
4.197 At ______ mths of age, infants begin to search for a hidden object but reach for the object in the last place they found it even when they have seen the object moved to another location:
a. 4 to 8
b. 8 to 12
c. 12 to 18
d. 18 to 24
4.197 Beh described is "A-not-B error."
a. Incorrect - During this stage, infants reach for a partially hidden object but stop if the object disappears from view.
b. CORRECT - At about 8 mths of age, children first provide evidence that they know that objects exist when they are out of view. However, they commit the A-not-B error, which continues to about 12 mths of age.
4.200 You rec. a subpoena from the court requesting that you supply it w/ copies of your records on a former client. Apparently, the client has been chged w/ a crime and he is using "insanity" as his defense. You shd:
a. refuse to turn over the records to the court because to do so wd be a breach of the client's confidentiality
b. turn over the records only if you believe they will help the client's case
c. turn over the records to the court unless the client changes his plea
d. turn over the records to the court regardless of the client's plea
4.200 When pleading not guilty by reason of insanity, a person relinquishes his/her legal privilege.
c. CORRECT - as noted above, insanity defense revokes the indiv's privilege. Therefore, the psyc shd produce the records requested by the court.
d. Incorrect - Except when privilege has been waived by a client (e.g., when he/she is invoking the insanity defense), a psyc shd first assert the privilege when a client's records are subpoenaed by the court.
A 50-year old man with a frontal lobe tumor has discrepant motor and verbal behavior, occasional episodes of aggression, and probs in initiating behal activities. Other sxs likely to be exhibited by this man incl:
a. impulsivity and inapprop euphoria
b. impaired sustained attn and motor perseveration
c. sparse verbal output and lower extremity weakness
d. occasional hallucinations and a "dazed" feeling
The sxs caused by a tumor in the frontal lobe depends on its location. The sxs given in the qn are characteristic of fronal convexity syndrome, which is characterized by apathy.
a. Incorrect - These sxs are consis w/ orbitofrontal syndrome, which is marked by disinhibited behavior.
b. CORRECT - these sxs are consis w/ frontal convexity syndrome.
c. Incorrect - These sxs suggest medial frontal (akinetic) syndrome.
d. Incorrect - These sxs are suggestive of a temporal lobe tumor.
5.1 Dr. Caplan is involved as a consultant in a theme-interference-reduction type of consultee-centered case consultation. The approach that Dr. Caplan will adopt is most similar to which of the following?
a. Freudian psychoanalysis
b. Perls' Gestalt therapy
c. Stampfl's implosive therapy
d. Beck's cognitive therapy
5.1 Gerald Caplan distings b/w 4 types of mental health consultation: client-centered case consultation, consultee-centered case consultation, program-centered administrative consultation, and consultee-centered administrative consultation.
d. CORRECT - Although Caplan does not liken this type of consultation to Beck's cognitive therapy, they are similar in several ways. e.g., like Beck, Caplan stresses the importance of a collaborative relnship b/w the consultant and consultee, the importance of reality testing (i.e., helping the consultee recognize that "reality does not confirm his fantasies of doom"), and focusing on the here-and-now.
5.6 As defined by Bandura, self-efficacy beliefs have four sources. These are:
a. past accomplishments, observations of others, verbal persuasion, and logical verification
b. external reinforcement, internal (self) reinforcement, vicarious reinforcement, and logical verification
c. observation of others, imitation of others, reinforcement by others, and self-reinforcement
d. observation, cognitive remediation, rehearsal, and successful performance
5.6 Bandura's theory of self-efficacy proposes that ppl undertake activities they believe they are capable of performing.
a. CORRECT - these are the 4 sources of self-efficacy that Bandura has identified.
5.11 You are starting a new prog for children of recently divorced parents. You tell the editor of the local newspaper (who has just divorced her husband) that her two children can attend the program for free if she puts an article about the program in the paper. According to the Ethics Code, this is:
a. unethical because it constitutes a multiple relnship, which is prohibited by the Code
b. unethical because the Code prohibits psychologists from compensating a newspaper employee for publicity in a news item
c. unethical only if you influence the content of the article
d. ethical as long as the arrangement doesn't compromise your objectivity when working w/ the editor's children
5.11 This is addressed in Std 3.02(a) of the Ethics Code.
b. CORRECT - Code prohibits psys from compensating employees of the press for providing publicity about the psyc or his/her wk in a news item.
5.19 A psyc who has already agreed to testify on behalf of the defendant in a criminal case is asked to be a fact witness for the prosection. The psyc shd:
a. refuse to act as a fact witness
b. get permission from the defendant before acting as a fact witness
c. agree to serve as a fact witness only if he believes it is in the best int of the defendant
d. act as a fact witness after clarifying his responsibilities to all parties to avoid any misunderstandings related to his dual roles
5.19 This is in Std 7.03 of Ethics Code.
d. CORRECT - Although the code notes that, in most sitns, psys avoid multiple relnships in forensic settings, there are exceptions, esp. when one of the roles is a fact witness. However, the Code also reqs that, before getting involved in multiple roles, psycs "clarify role expectations...in order to avoid compromising their professional judgment and objectivity and in order to avoid misleading others."
5.20 A 13-yr old is having trouble doing his h/w. He doesn't understand some of the material he is supposed to study and is unable to recall things he has already reviewed. Most likely, the boy's probs are due to:
a. the boy's lack of metacognitive skills
b. the boy's inconsis use of elaboration and other encoding strategies
c. the boy's inadequate learning strategies
d. the boy's difficy in focusing his attn
5.20
a. Incorrect - Metacognitive skills begin to dvp at about age 7, so this shd's be a prob in this sitn.
b. Incorrect - It may be that the boy is having trouble getting info into LTM. However, he may have other probs as well, so this isn't best.
c. CORRECT - the term "learning strategy" is very broad and encompasses a variety of techniques that inc attn and understding and ensure that info is transferred from STM to LTM. Given the ltd info provided in the qn, this is the best response since it covers a wide range of poss. probs.
d. Incorrect - This may also be true, but probs w/ attn are included in "inadequate learning strats."
5.25 In orgs, the best predr of "contextual performance" is:
a. a persy measure
b. a cognitive ability test
c. a BIB
d. a work sample
5.25 In the recent lit on selection techniques, a distinction is often made b/w task performance and contextual perf. The latter refers to extratask behaviors that have benefits for the organization (e.g., citizenship, prosocial activities).
a. CORRECT - Personality (esp. dependability) seems to be the best predr of contextual perf.
b. Incorrect - Although cognitive ability is the best overall predr of task perf, persy is a better predr of contextual perf.
5.27 Among Af-Ams, high-context communication is manifested in:
a. the use of many words to communicate a message that wd require only a few words for a Euro-American
b. the use of a few words to communicate a message that wd req many words for a Euro-American
c. the use of indirect gaze when listening and speaking
d. the avoidance of eye contact when listening and speaking
5.27 As defined by Sue and sue, high-context communication relies to a greater extent than low-context communication on nonverbal cues.
b. CORRECT - While Euro-Americans rely on verbal messages (low-context communication), Af-Ams and a no. of other minorities make greater use of nonverbal cues. Af-Ams, for example, tend to rely more on body language than Euro-Ams.
d. Incorrect - Af-Ams tend to make direct eye contact when speaking but less eye contact when listening.
5.35 To construct the 68% confidence interval for an examinee's obted test score, you wd need the examinee's score and:
a. the test's mean
b. the std dev
c. the std error of measurement
d. the std error of estimate
5.35 To construct a C.I. around an obted test score, you need the std error of measurement (which is calculated from the test's std dev and reliability coefficient).
a. Incorrect - The mean is not needed to construct a C.I.
b. Incorrect - The std dev is one of the elemts needed to calculate the std error of measuremt but, by itself, cannot be used to construct a C.I.
c. CORRECT - to construct a 68% C.I., you add and subtract 1 std error of measurement to and from the examinee's obted test score.
d. Incorrect - The std error of estimate is used to construct a C.I. around a predicted criterion score.
5.37 Bandura's social learning theory implies that, in orgal settings, a training prog will be most effective when:
a. it includes freq rewards for reaching goals
b. it targets the cognitive processes underlying successful task perf
c. trainees possess prerequisite skills before training begins
d. models are clearly reinforced for successful perf
5.37 Bandura has provided guidelines for applying social learning theory to the wkplace.
c. CORRECT - Bandura stresses the importance of (1) self-efficacy beliefs; (2) intrinsic motivation; (3) focusing on overt activities and behaviors; and (4) ensuring that ppl have prerequisite skills.
d. Incorrect - Note that Bandura's wk on aggn indicated that it is not always necess. for the model to be rewarded in order for an observer to imitate the beh.
5.39 David Perry and his colleagues (1986) have looked at the cognitive mediators of aggression in children and have found that, in comparison to their nonaggressive peers, highly aggressive children:
a. have higher levels of self-efficacy w/ regard to both antisocial and prosocial behs
b. are likely to be less aware of the physical and emotional effects of their aggression on others
c. are more likely to predict they will receive peer approval for acting aggressively
d. are more likely to believe that aggression will reduce aversive tx by others
5.39 Perry and his colleagues investigated the cognitive mediators of aggression by cfing the beliefs of highly aggressive and nonaggressive children.
a. Incorrect - These investigators found that aggressive and nonaggressive children do not differ in terms of self-efficacy beliefs related to prosocial behs.
b. Incorrect - The 2 groups of children in the Perry et al. study did not differ in any consis. way w/ regard to beliefs about the phys. and emotional conseqs of their aggression for victims.
c. Incorrect - The 2 groups were very similar in terms of expectations about peer approval for acting aggressively.
d. CORRECT - Perry et al. found that the most consis. diffs b/w aggressive and nonaggressive children were that the former were more likely to express confidence in their ability to act aggressively and to say that aggression wd produce +ve conseqs, esp. in terms of reducing the aversive behs of the targets of their aggression.
5.40 From the perspective of obj relns theory, the critical issue underlying borderling persy characteristics in children and adolescents is:
a. identity diffusion
b. narcissism
c. abandonment
d. impulsivity
5.40 Object relns theory views Borderline PD as resulting from disturbances in separation-individuation, which cause a continuing conflict b/w fear of abandonmt and fear of domination.
c. CORRECT - According to OR theory, children and adols w/ borderling sxs are fixated in the separation-individuation phase of dvpt. They have a need for sepn along w/ an overwhelming fear of abandonmt, which is manifested as "abandonmt depn" (feelings of rage, helplessness, and emptiness).
5.42 In conflict resolution, the primary role of a mediator is to:
a. derive a workable soln to the prob that will be acceptable to all disputants
b. have disputants offer solns and then choose the best one him/herself
c. help disputants consider alt. solns to the prog
d. act as a "go-between" by wking w/ each disputant individually
5.42 Mediators facilitate the conflict resolution process. While they may offer suggestions, they do not det the soln to a prob.
c. CORRECT - disputants are often inflexible w/ regard to their own idea of the best soln to a prob, and an imp. task for a mediator is to inc disputants' flexibility re alts. One way to achive this goal is to suggest alts.
d. Incorrect - A mediator may do this initially when conflict and hostility are high, but it's only a temp. role and not a primary one.
5.50 On the verbal subtests of the WISC, a child with impaired hearing wd most likely obt the lowest score on the Digit Span subtest. On the perf. subtests, the child's lowest score wd most likely be on the:
a. Object Assembly subtest
b. Block Design subtest
c. Picture Arrangement subtest
d. Arithmetic subtest
5.50 Overall, hearing impaired children perform comparably to non-impaired children on the WISC perf subtests. However, they get lower scores on the verbal subtests.
a. Incorrect - Hearing impaired children tend to get the highest scores on the Obj Assembly and Block Des subtests.
c. CORRECT - Of the perf. subtests, hearing impaired children tend to have the most difficy w/ the Pic Arrangemt subtest.
d. Incorrect - Arithmetic is a verbal subtest.
5.53 Your ability to clearly remember where you were and what you were doing when you first heard about the Oklahoma City bombing is attributable to the phenomenon known as "flashbulb memory." In turn, flashbulb memory is attributable to the activities of the:
a. RAS
b. prefrontal cortex
c. limbic system
d. occipital lobe
5.53 Flashbulb memory refers to a vivid recollection of an emotionally-charged event.
c. CORRECT - the amygdala, which is part of the limbic sys., is believed to add the emotional component to our memories and, therefore, to be active in the formation of flashbulb memories.
5.56 The tricyclic drugs block the effects of:
a. GABA in the sympathetic nervous system
b. GABA in the parasympathetic nervous system
c. ACh in the sympathetic nervous system
d. ACh in the parasympathetic nervous system
5.56 Knowing that the tricyclics cause anticholinergic effects and that ACh is a cholinergic NT wd have helped you pick the rt answer to this qn.
d. CORRECT - ACh is released from nerve endings in the parasympathetic nervous system. The anticholinergic effects of the tricyclic drugs (dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision) are due to blocking of the effects of ACh.
5.57 Amato and Keith's (1991) meta-analysis of the divorce outcome literature found that divorce has the strongest negative impact on children's:
a. academic achievemt
b. conduct
c. social adjmt
d. self-concept
5.57 Amato and Keith's (1991) meta-analysis of the lit. found that while children of divorced parents score lower than children from intact families on a no. of measures, the magnitude of the diffs b/w the 2 groups is rel. small.
b. CORRECT - the lgest effect size reported by Amato and Keith was for the father-child relnship (-.26). The next lgest (-.23) was for conduct probs (misbehavior, aggression, delinquency).
5.71 Adequate "floor" is esp. imp. when a test will be used to:
a. det if trainees have mastered basic skills
b. confirm a dx of MR
c. assign students to advanced placemt classes
d. distin. b/w successful and unsuccessful employees
5.71 In test construction, "floor" refers to the test's ability to discriminate among examinees at the low end of the score range.
b. CORRECT - to make a dx of MR and distinguish b/w diff levels of retardation, you have to be able to discrim. among indivs w/ low intelligence. This reqs adeq. "floor" - i.e., the test has to have enough easy items to disting. b/w ppl w/ diff levels of low intelligence.
5.83 A person w/ associative visual agnosia:
a. can name a familiar object she sees but does not know how to use it
b. cannot name a familiar object she sees but can name it when it is placed in her hand
c. cannot name a familiar object because she doesn't recognize it
d. recognizes a familiar object but is unable to name it
5.83 The term visual agnosia is generally used to describe the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight.
a. Incorrect - this is not characteristic of visual agnosia
b. Incorrect - This describes the condition known as aperceptive visual agnosia
c. This doesn't describe associative visual agnosia
d. CORRECT - Aperceptive visual agnosia and associative visual agnosia are the 2 most common types of visual agnosia. This response describes associative visual agnosia, which occurs when visual and language areas become disconnected.
5.86 Damage to the dorsolateral area of the prefrontal cortex is likely to have the least impact on perf on:
a. stdized intelligence tests
b. measures of exec fns
c. recall memory tasks
d. measures of creativity
5.86 The prefrontal cortex is involved in exec fng (e.g., planning, orgn, sequencing) and persy. The results of damage to this area depend on its exact location.
a. CORRECT - in general, perf on stdized IQ tests is less affected than perf. on specific aspects of exec fng and memory.
b. Incorrect - Damage to the dorsolateral area of the prefrontal cortex does cause impaired exec fng.
c. Incorrect - Damage to this area also disrupts perf on recall tasks.
d. Incorrect - Creativity is also adversely affected by damage to this area of the brain.
5.89 One prediction of goal-setting theory is that diffic. goals result in greater productivity than easy or ambiguous goals. W/ regard to task difficy, the studies have shown that:
a. the more complex the task, the stronger the link b/w goal difficy and productivity
b. the less complex the task, the stronger the link b/w goal difficy and productivity
c. the relnship b/w task complexity and productivity is curvilinear w/ the strongest link being b/w mod. goal complexity and productivity
d. the relnship b/w task complexity and productivity is curvilinear w/ the strongest links being b/w low and high goal complexity and productivity
5.89 It makes sense that goal-setting theory wd apply better to simple tasks than diffic. tasks, since perf. on the latter wd also depend on other factors in addition to the acceptance of diffic. goals.
a. Incorrect - This is oppos. of what is true.
b. CORRECT - this is conclusion reached by the developers of goal-setting theory.
5.90 According to Helms, the ability of whites to dvp a healthy racial identity is most closely reled to:
a. identification w/ a partic. culture (e.g., Irish, Swedish, French)
b. ego-identity dvpt
c. social identification
d. the extent of racism in society
5.90 Each of the stages of white racial identity dvpt described by Helms reflects a diff. pos. w/ regard to acceptance or rejection of racism.
d. CORRECT - Helms' model reflects her belief that "the dvpt of white identity in the US is closely intertwined w/ the dvpt and progress of racism in this country".
5.92 Approx. _____ of women experience mod. to sev. postpartum depn that persists for weeks:
a. 2 to 5%
b. 10 to 15%
c. 20 to 30%
d. 40 to 45%
5.92 Many women experience some deg of depn following the birth of their child. However, for most, the sxs are mild and transitory.
b. CORRECT - the estimates vary from expert to expert, but, in general, most report that 10 to 15 or 20 percent of women experience persis. mod. to sev. Major Depn.
5.94 A school dvps an intervention that involves having fifth graders who excel in math assist third and fourth graders who are having probs in math. The older students will model approp. arithmetic prob solving and prov. the younger students w/ cues and support. This is e.g. of:
a. mentoring
b. coaching
c. shaping
d. scaffolding
5.94 In this sitn, a more experienced child is helping another child acq new skills.
d. CORRECT - Scaffolding was orig. described by Vygotsky. It occurs when an adult or more experienced child provs instruction in the child's "zone of proximal dvpt."
5.102 In Ridley's (1984) explanation of the distrust that often exists b/w Af-Am clients and their therapists, the therapist's ethnicity is the most important factor fo:
a. a confluent paranoic
b. a cultural paranoic
c. a non-paranoic
d. someone who is experiencing dissonance
5.102 Af-Am clients who experience paranoia because of their past experiences w/ racism can be defined according to their status on the dims of cultural and fnal paranoia. When a client demonstrates high levels of both cultural and functional paranoia, the characteristics of a therapist are an important factor.
a. CORRECT - A confluent paranoic exhibits high cultural and functional paranoia, and his or her nondisclosure in therapy is due to a combo of pathology and the effects of racism. According to Ridley, these clients do better w/ a therapist of the same racial/ethnic group.
b. Incorrect - A cultural paranoiac does not possess views as extreme as a confluent paranoiac.
5.103 The antipsychotic drugs are believed to exert their beneficial effects by blocking partic. DA receptors (i.e., D2 receptors). An exception is:
a. haloperidol
b. flupentixol
c. perphenazine
d. clozapine
5.103 Of the antipsychotic drugs listed in the responses, only one is considered to be atypical because of its effects on the nervous system.
d. CORRECT - Clozapine seems to have ltd effects on D2 receptors and, instead, affects serotonin receptors and, to some degree, D4 receptors.
5.107 The effectiveness of clomipramine in alleviating sxs of OCD and trichotillomania suggests that these DOs are due to:
a. oversensitivity to GABA
b. an imbalance b/w acetylcholine and dopamine
c. oversensitivity to serotonin or dopamine
d. a shortage of serotonin
5.107 Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that has been found to be an effective tx for OCS.
d. CORRECT - Clomipramine is believed to exert its effects by blocking the reuptake of serotonin from synaptic clefts.
5.110 During adolescence, peer pressure:
a. has the most influence w/ regard to antisocial behaviors
b. has the most influence w/ regard to behaviors that do not have clear stds
c. dets beh and attitudes more than parental influence
d. dets beh and attitudes more than the influence of the same-sex parent
5.110 Contrary to what is commonly believed, peer pressure is not all-powerful during the adol. years.
a. Incorrect - The research has confirmed that junior high and high school students are usu. able to resist the pressure of their peers to act antisocially.
b. CORRECT - peers seem to have the greatest influence over behs that are subjective (e.g., choice of dress and music). (They also have a great deal of influence when it comes to smoking, drinking, and drug use.)
c. Incorrect - Peers influence cert. types of beh, while parents have a greater influence over other types (e.g., attitudes reled to college and career, politics, and other important issues).
d. Incorrect - This is only true w/ regard to some behs and attitudes. When it comes to clothes and music, for instance, peers have greater influence than either parent.
5.112 The inability to repeat what one has just heard w/out loss of comprehension is characteristic of:
a. Broca's aphasia
b. Wernicke's aphasia
c. conduction aphasia
d. anomic aphasia
5.112 The aphasias all involve a disruption in language.
a. Incorrect - Broca's aphasia involves diffy in producing speech.
b. Incorrect - Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by impairment in comprehension w/ little impact on the production of speech.
c. CORRECT - Conduction aphasia is narrower in sxs than Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia. It is the result of damage to the arcuate fasciculus which connects Broca's and Wernicke's area.
d. Incorrect - Anomic aphasia is characterized by impairments in the ability to retrieve and label semantic concepts.
5.113 Several approaches are commonly used as the basis for the dvpt of interest tests. The Strong and Kuder tests both represent which approach:
a. trait
b. factor
c. clinical
d. actuarial
5.113 One of 2 approaches is usu used in the dvpt of interest tests: (1) actuarial or (2) trait and factor
d. CORRECT - The actuarial approach involves looking for consistencies in interest data w/out necessarily attempting to explain them. This approach underlies the dvpt of the Strong and Kuder tests. (The trait and factor approach underlies Holland's six occupational themes).
5.116 The ____ scale of the MMPI-2 consists of 64 items that were answered in the deviant (scored) direction by less than 10% of the stdization sample. A high score on this scale suggests carelessness in responding, malingering, or an attempt to look bad:
a. L
b. F
c. K
d. D
5.116 The MMPI-2 includes 7 validity scales, which measure an examinee's response sets and test-taking attitudes.
a. Incorrect - The lie (L) scale contains items that most ppl wd agree with. A high score indics a desire to present oneself in a favorable light.
b. CORRECT - this is an accur. description of the F (freqy) scale.
c. Incorrect - A high K scale indicates defensiveness.
d. Incorrect - D is the depression scale of the MMPI-2
5.134 A recent shift in both psychiatry and clin. psyc. reflects an inc'd acceptance of a ____________ explanation of emotional disturbance:
a. systems
b. psychosocial
c. medical
d. functional
5.134 This wd be hard to answer if the qn was asking only about clin. psyc; however, it is referring to both clin. psyc. and psychiatry.
c. CORRECT - In recent yrs, psychiatry has become "remedicalized" and there is a similar trned in psyc. (at least in certain aspects of it). Wyatt and Livson, e.g., argue that APA's support for psycs to gain Rx rights is a manifestation of this trend.
5.135 A feeling of numbness or tingling in one's arms and legs is most assoced w/:
a. Caffeine intoxication
b. Panic DO
c. Factitious DO
d. Hypothyroidism
5.135 Numbness in the extremities is assoced w/ hyperventilation, a prominent sx of PD.
a. Incorrect - Although some sxs of Caffeine Intoxication are also sxs of PD, numbing and tingling in the extremities is not listed in DSM-IV as a characteristic sx of the former DO.
b. CORRECT - as noted above, PD often involves hyperventilation, which causes paresthesia (numbing, tingling, or other unusual skin sensations) in the extremities.
c. Incorrect - Although Factitious DO cd incl these sxs, they are not dxic criteria for this DO.
d. Incorrect - Hypothyroidism is characterized by lethargy, depn, irritability, and intolerance of cold temps.
5.147 The procedure known as stress inoculation involves 3 basic phases. The final phase can be described as being most similar to which of the following:
a. implosive therapy
b. systematic desensitization
c. overcorrection
d. operant extinction
5.147 The 3 phases of stress inoculation are (1) education, (2) rehearsal/skills training, and (3) application training.
a. Incorrect - Implosive therapy inovlves having indivs repeatedly imagine an anxiety-arousing sitn and to experience anxiety as intensely as poss. in order to extinguish the anxiety response.
b. CORRECT - the final stage of stress inoculation involves having the client practice his/her newly-acq'd coping skills to imagined or in vivo stress-arousing sitns that are presented in hierarchical order from least to most stress-arousing. This procedure most resembles systematic desensitization.
c. Incorrect - Overcorrection is used to dec undesirable behs by having the indiv correct the negative conseqs of the beh and practice more approp behs.
d. Incorrect - Operant extinction occurs when prevly reinforced behs are no longer reinforced.
5.156 In txing an 8-year old child who doesn't like going to bed at night because he's afraid of the dark, which of the following interventions wd probably be most successful:
a. participant modeling
b. cognitive self-control
c. flooding
d. systematic desensitization
5.156 In general, behal and cog-behal techniques have been found most effective for alleviating phobias in both children and adults. Unfortunately, knowing this doesn't helpw/ this qn since all of the techniques listed fall into this category. Considering the boy's age may have helped you eliminate at least 2 of the answers (c and d).
a. Incorrect - Participant modeling has been found to be more useful for childhood phobias involving animals and dental and med. procedures.
b. CORRECT - this technique has been described by Graziano and Mooney, who found it to be an effective tx for children who fear the dark. Cognitive self-control involves several steps: At bedtime, the child first relaxes, then visuals a pleasant scene, and then makes self-stmts such as "I am brave. I can take care of myself in the dark." This technique is considered a self-control technique since it is admined by the child him/herself (altho the parents are also involved in reminding the child to use the technique and in monitoring the child's progress).
c. Incorrect - The use of flooding w/ children is controversial and is not considered a tx-of-choice by most authorities.
d. Incorrect - Systematic desensitization hsa generally not been found to be partic. effective w/ children.
5.159 A colleague tells you that, during a fam therapy session, it became evident that the father had sexually abused his 14-year old daughter in the past. The colleague has decided not to make a report, however, because she is afraid that doing so will create a family crisis. You shd:
a. do nothing since the incident does not involve your clients
b. discuss the matter with the collague and pt out the repercussions of not making a report
c. file a report w/ the approp authorities yourself
d. contact the girl's mother to confirm that abuse has occurred
5.159 If this actually happens to you, your best course of action wd probably be to seek consultation, but that's not one of the responses to the qn.
b. CORRECT - this is often the best 1st course of action. Your subseq action will depend on the laws in your state. Many states req psycs to make a report only when they are providing services to the child or the abuser.
5.160 A 15-year old client who you have been seeing for several mths says he's been thinking about killing himself. In response to your concern, he says he's "just kidding" and asks that you not tell his parents. Your best course of action wd be to:
a. tell the boy that you need to contact his parents and then do so
b. tell the boy that you won't tell his parents as long as he signs a "no suicide" contract
c. continue to discuss the matter to det if the boy is, in fact, at risk for suicide
d. do nothing since he was "just kidding" but ask him about the issue during the next session
5.160 The boy's welfare is your 1st concern, and you'd wt to make sure that he is not at risk for suicide.
c. CORRECT - suicide threats and ideation shd always be taken seriously. Before notifying his parents, however, you'd wt to det how serious his thoughts about suicide are.
5.162 A behaviorist might argue that the use of spanking as a behal mgmt technique is not effective because:
a. it leads to child abuse
b. it teaches children to be aggressive
c. changes in beh won't last over time
d. changes in beh won't occur at all
5.162 From a behal perspective, punishmts such as spanking are problematic in that they suppress but do not eliminate beh.
a. Incorrect - Though this certainly may be true, it has nothing to do w/ the effectiveness of spanking as a behal mgmt technique (i.e., its effectiveness in reducing a partic. beh).
b. Incorrect - This again has little, if anything, to do w/ the effectiveness of spanking as a behal mgmt technique.
c. CORRECT - over time, punishmt alone is not likely to be effective, since it only results in a temp. suppression of beh. In fact, as soon as the punishmt is not present, the beh is likely to inc.
d. Incorrect - Punishmt usu. does result in a dec in the targeted beh, though, as already noted, this inc is likely to be temp.
5.164 The nature of the relnship b/w a measure's reliability coefficient and its correln w/ another measure (e.g., its validity coeff.) suggests that all of the following are poss. except:
a. a measure w/ a low reliability coeff. can correl. more highly w/ another measure than it does w/ itself if the other measure has a high reliability coeff.
b. a measure w/ a reliability coeff. of 1.0 can have a zero correln w/ another measure even if the other measure has a high reliability coeff.
c. a measure w/ a near-zero reliability coeff. will have a low correln w/ another measure regardless of the size of the other measure's reliability coeff.
d. the reliability coeff. of either measure can be no less than the sq root of the correln b/w the 2 measures
5.164 Need to be familiar w/ the relnship b/w a measure's validity coeff. and its reliability coeff: The validity coeff. cannot exceed the sq root of the reliability coeff.
a. Incorrect - This is true. It is poss., at least theoretically, for a measure to correlate more highly w/ a 2nd measure than it does w/ itself when the 2nd measure has a higher reliability coeff. than the 1st measure. e.g., if a measure has a test-retest reliability coeff of .64, its correln w/ a 2nd measure cd be as high as .80 if the 2nd measure has a reliability coeff. of 1.0.
b. Incorrect - This is also true. Even when a measure has very high reliability, it might not correl. w/ another measure, regardless of the reliability coeff. of the other measure.
c. Incorrect - This is a given. If a measure has a ero or near-zero reliability coeff, its correln w/ another measure will necessarily be low because of the ceiling that reliability places on a measure's correln w/ another measure.
d. CORRECT - this is a misstmt of the relnship b/w reliability and validity. The reliability of a measure can be no less than the square (not sq root) of the validity (correln) coeff.
5.169 When preping an ad for her services, a clin. psyc. shd keep in mind that, w/ regard to appeals to fear:
a. they are prohibited by the Ethics Code
b. they are prohibited by the Ethics Code only if they "arouse excessive fear or anxiety"
c. they are prohibited by the Ethics Code only if they incl false, deceptive, or misleading info
d. they are no longer prohibited by the Ethics Code
5.169 Although the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) req'mts have severely restricted prohibitions against certain kinds of advertising, it is still unethical to make false, deceptive, misleading, or fraudulent statements (Std 3.03).
c. CORRECT - While appeals to fear are no longer prohibited, they wd be unethical if they are misleading or deceptive.
5.170 Item response theory is considered a useful technique for constructing all of the following types of tests except:
a. criterion-keyed tests
b. tailored (computerized) tests
c. diagnostic or employment screening tests
d. teacher-made (classroom) achievement tests
5.170 Item response theory is theoretically and mathematically very complex, which limits its usage.
d. CORRECT - Use of item response theory for test construction reqs constructing an "item response curve" for each item. To do so, a large sample of examinees is needed, which wd probably not be avail. for classroom tests. The other types of tests listed have been identified as good candidates for item response theory.
5.174 Tulving has divided memory into 3 types: procedural, episodic, and semantic. According to Tulving, semantic memory:
a. consists of internal repns of stimulus-response connections
b. is more affected by amnesia than procedural memory and episodic memory
c. incls rules for manipulating words and symbols
d. is coded temporally
5.174 Tulving (1972, 1985) and others disting. b/w 3 types of LTM: semantic, episodic, and procedural. Semantic memory holds all the info we need to use language, including words and the symbols for them; their meanings; their referents (what they represent); and the rules for manipulating words and symbols such as the rules for English grammar, the rules for adding and multiplying, and chemical formulas. Episodic memory holds info about how things appeared and when they occurred, such as "I broke my arm in the summer of 1977." And procedural memory contains learned skills (procedures) and modifiable cognitive operations.
a. Incorrect - This describes procedural memory
b. Incorrect - Of the 3 types of memory, episodic memory is usu. most affected by amnesia.
c. CORRECT - As noted above, this describes semantic memory.
d. Incorrect - This describes episodic memory
5.176 Studies investigating the job attitudes of young wkers suggest that, for these indivs, which of the following is becoming incingly more important for job satisfn:
a. security
b. pay
c. challenge
d. recogn
5.176 Studies conducted in the past 2 decades have generally found that younger wkers tend to be less satisfied w/ their jobs than older wkers and that their dissatisfaction is often attributable to the interest of young wkers in self-actualization.
c. CORRECT - According to Kahn (1972), for example, the importance of money and security have been largely overshadowed as important factors in job choice and satisfaction by "having a challenging job."
5.187 The research has shown that the majority of women who are phys. abused by their husbands are abused more than once. Of the following, which is most reled to the woman's decision to stay or leave an abusive relnship:
a. the woman believes her husband will fulfill his promise to change
b. the woman feels economically dependent on her husband
c. the woman believes she has nowhere else to go
d. the woman believes her husband really loves her
5.187 This is a diffic. qn, because the best answer is "it depends on which research study you're talking about."
b. CORRECT - This is another area of research that is far from consistent, and most of what is commonly believed has not yet been substantiated by empirical research. There is some evidence, however, for the notion that women stay in abusive relnships most often for 2 reasons: because they feel unable to support themselves (economic hardship) and/or because they are committed to the relnship ("because of love"). (Note that this finding is not entirely supportive of Walker's cycle of violence model, which proposes that women stay in abusive relnships because of the "honeymoon" period that follows an incident of abuse.)
5.189 A student obts a percentile rank of 84 on the verbal subtest of the McCarthy Scales of Children's Abilities. If the student's score had been 1 SD higher, her %ile rank wd have been approx.:
a. 90.0
b. 95.0
c. 98.0
d. 99.0
5.189 To answer this qn, you must know that, in a normal distribn, a %ile rank of 84 is equal to a raw score that is 1 SD from the mean.
c. CORRECT - a %ile rank of 84 is equiv. to the score that is 1 SD above the mean (50% of scores fall below the mean and 34 % b/w the mean and the score that is 1 SD above the mean); a %ile rank of 97.5 is equiv. to the score that is 2.0 SDs above the mean (50% fall below the mean and 47.5 b/w the mean and the score that is 2 SDs above the mean). Therefore, even tho the qn does not state what shape distribn is, this is best).
5.190 An undergrad student is asked by a prof. to assist in a new research project. The student will help w/ the lit. review and data analysis. According to the Ethics Code, when the research is published, the student shd, at a minimum:
a. be listed as a co-author
b. be mentioned in an intro stmt or a footnote
c. be mentioned in the abstract
d. rec. a letter of recommendation from the prof.
5.190 The Ethics Code mandates that contributors to research be given approp. credit.
a. Incorrect - The researcher has the option to list the student as a co-author but this is not req'd.
b. CORRECT - At a minimum, the student shd be acknowledged for his/her assistance in a footnote or intro stmt.
c. Incorrect - The abstract is not an approp section to recognize research assts. An abstract provs the reader w/ a brief summary of the research and results.
d. Incorrect - Altho it is poss. that the student may request a letter of recommendation, the teachers is not ethically bound to comply w/ the student's wishes because of his/her assistance in the project.
5.195 According to the APA's General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services, the term "psychological services" applies to all of the following except:
a. admin and scoring of psychological tests
b. teaching psyc at a uni
c. supervising delivery of psyc services
d. conducting p-therapy in private practice
5.195 Teaching psychology at a uni is not listed as a psyc. service in the General Guidelines for Providers of Psyc. Services.
b. CORRECT - as noted, this activity is not a psyc. service in the Stds for Providers.
5.197 Dr. Bernard is designing a longitud. study on drug use in high schools. Since the study is longitudinal, it will be necessary to maintain records containing the Ss' identities. A colleague of Dr. Bernard's reminds him of a similar sitn in which the investigator was subpoenaed to appear in court to testify against a research subject who had been involved in illegal activities. The investigator refused to testify in order to maintain the S's confidentiality and was imprisoned. What shd Dr. Bernard do in order to avoid a similar dilemma:
a. if subpoenaed by the court, testify, since legal req'mts override ethical considerations
b. if subpoenaed by the court, testify only after obting consent of the subject
c. warn Ss prior to their participation in the study about the possibility of a breach of confidentiality and obt informed consents
d. design the study so that the names of Ss are maintained in a sep. file by a 3rd party.
5.197 Std 6.11(b) of APA's Ethics Code states that psycs "inform (research) participants of signif. factors that may be expected to influence their willingness to participate (such as ....ltations on confidentiality)."
a. Incorrect - To some deg, this answer correctly describes a psyc's legal obligations in this sitn. After being subpoenaed by the court, a psyc. usu. asserts privilege. If privilege is not recoged, the psyc. usu. must testify in oder to avoid being held in contempt of court. However, this is not the best answer in that it does not deal w/ how the psyc. can "avoid this dilemma." If the psyc testifies, he has fulfilled his legal obligation w/out having dealt w/ his ethical obligation regarding confidentiality.
b. Incorrect - Legally, a psyc who has been subpoenaed by the court must testify (if the court does not recognize privilege) whether or not he has the consent of his client. Thus, this course of action wd not resolve the dilemma b/w the psyc's legal and ethical obligations.
c. CORRECT - this is most in accord w/ the above-cited Standard, and it reps a balance b/w the psyc's legal and ethical obligations. If he informs his Ss of the lts of confidentiality, they will give their consent to partic. w/ full awareness of the possibility that the psyc. or his files might be subpoenaed.
d. Incorrect - This course of action does not reduce the possibility that either the records or the psyc. will be subpoenaed.
6.4 To test the spatial perception of a 2-mth old infant, a researcher compares the infant's heart rate as he is being lowered over the shallow and deep sides of the visual cliff. Most likely, this researcher will find that:
a. the infant is not able to distinguish b/w the deep and shallow sides
b. the infant exhibits greater fear (a faster heart rate) when over the deep side
c. the infant exhibits greater interest (a slower heart rate) when over the deep side
d. heart rate is not a useful measure of spatial perception in infants.
6.4 Researchers use a variety of methods to study visual perceptio in infants including length of gaze, scanning pattern, head turning, reaching, and heart rate. The study described in the question was conducted by Campos and colleagues.
c. CORRECT - These investigators found a difference in heart rate for the shallow and deep ends but not in the direction expected. Rather than showing greater fear over the deepn end (as indicated by a faster HR), 2-mth old infants experienced a slowing in HR, which the authors interpret as inc'd interest in the deep end. They conclude that, at this age, infants perceive depth but do not yet have fear of heights.
6.9 An examinee obtains a T-score of 60 on a test that has a raw score of 45 and a standard deviation of 5. The raw score distribution is normally-shaped. The examinee's percentile rank is:
a. 50
b. 84
c. 95
d. 99
6.9 T-score distribution.
b. CORRECT - A T-score of 60 is 1 std dev above the mean. When the distribution is normally-shaped, 84% of examinees have scores lower than the score that is one std deviation above the mean.
6.12 When using Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's (1993) racial/cultural identity development model, a person's stage of identity development is determined by:
a. identifying his/her degree of acceptance of the minority and majority cultures
b. assessing the amount of contact he/she normally has with members of the minority and majority cultures
c. assessing his/her attitudes toward the minority and majority cultures
d. evaluating his/her reaction to racial oppression
6.12 Atkinson et al.'s identity dvpt model distinguishes b/w 5 stages - conformity, dissonance, resistance/immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness.
c. CORRECT - Each stage in this model is characterized by a different combination of attitudes toward one's own minority group, other minority groups, and the majority (dominant) group.
6.13 A transformational leader defines a goal to employees in a way that imbues the goal with meaning and purpose. This is referred to as:
a. priming
b. escalating commitment
c. framing
d. positioning
6.13 Transformational leaders differ from transactional leaders in several ways. One way is that they motivate employees by giving goals added meaning by placing them in a larger context (e.g., the "good of society").
a. Incorrect - The term priming is used in several contexts. e.g. in field of learning and memory, it refers to unconscious cues that activate related associations (e.g., seeing the word "test" reminds you of the licensing exam even if you are not aware that you saw the word "test").
b. Incorrect - Escalating commitmt refers to the tendency to continue w/ a prevly chosen course of action even when it is not wking.
c. CORRECT - Giving goals added meaning is referred to as framing. It is one of the characteristics of transformational leaders.
d. Incorrect - Positioning is a paradoxical technique used in family therapy. It involves helping the family see a symptom from a new perspective by exaggerating its severity.
6.19 "Criterion deficiency" refers to:
a. the degree to which the conceptual criterion is not measured by the actual criterion
b. the degree to which the actual criterion systematically measures something other than the conceptual criterion
c. the degree to which the actual criterion is entirely unrelated to the conceptual criterion
d. the degree to which the actual criterion provides inconsistent info about the conceptual criterion
6.19 Defined by Muchinsky.
a. CORRECT - This is correct defn of criterion deficiency. An actual criterion (the criterion measure) is deficient to the extent that it does not measure the conceptual (or hypothetical) criterion. In other words, job perf. is due to several factors, but most criterion measures are deficient because they only measure 1 or 2 of those factors.
b. Incorrect - This describes one aspect of criterion contamination.
c. Incorrect - This describes another aspect of criterion contamination.
d. Incorrect - This describes the unreliability of a criterion measure.
6.24 Tova and Thom are in their early 30s, have been married for 4 yrs, and are expecting their 1st child. The only vehicle they have had since their marriage is a 2-seater sports car, which they both love; but they realize they will have to trade it for something more "sensible" when the baby is born. In terms of Piaget's theory of cognitive dvpt, the couple's realization about their car can be best viewed as an example of:
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. centration
d. decalage
6.24
a. Incorrect - Assimilation involves interping new info in terms of existing cog structures.
b. CORRECT - Accommodation involves modifying existing cog structs or creating new ones to meet the demands of the environmt. In this sitn, the couple has realized that they will have to alter their schema for "car."
c. Incorrect - Centration is the inability to focus on more than 1 aspect of an object or sitn at a time and underlies the inability to conserve.
d. Incorrect - A horizontal decalage is the name for the gradual mastery of logical concepts.
6.26 Inspection of an examinee's K-corrected MMPI-2 profile reveals that she obted a T score of 65 or above on the majority of the clinical scales. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this profiel:
a. the examinee has randomly selected true and false responses
b. the examinee has answered true to all questions
c. the pattern indicates malingering
d. the pattern indicates diffuse pathology
6.26 Several causes of unusual score profiles on the MMPI-2 including random responding and answering all items either T or F.
a. CORRECT - issue addressed by Graham. Random responding (or alternating true and false responses) produces high scores on most of the clinical scales along w/ a very high score on the F-scale.
b. Incorrect - In this sitn, an approx. equal no. of clinical scales will have low and high scores.
c. Incorrect - Malingering produces a "sawtooth" pattern in the score profile.
d. Incorrect - This is not a likely sitn or outcome.
6.27 You conduct an item analysis of the items you plan to include in a new test of computer knowledge. You obtain a p value of .85 for item #47. This indicates that this item:
a. is difficult
b. is easy
c. has poor discrimination
d. has good discrimination
6.27 In the context of test construction, "p" is an index of item difficulty and is calculated by dividing the total no. of examinees who answered the item correctly by the total no. of examinees.
a. Incorrect - A low p value indcs a diffic. item.
b. CORRECT - the closer the p value is to 1.0, the easier the item since this means that a large ppn of examinees answered the item correctly.
c. Incorrect - Discrimination is deted by calculating D (subtracting the ppn of ppl in the low-scoring group from the ppn in the high-scoring group).
6.28 Dr. Looby recs a letter from the Ethics Committee stating that the Committee has rec'd a complaint from a current client who is concerned about Dr. Looby's office staff and procedures. The client has found 2 members of the staff to be consisly rude, and they have made comments to her that imply they have access to confidential info. Dr. Looby shd:
a. discuss the matter w/ the staff members
b. set up an appt w/ the client to discuss the matter
c. send a letter of apology to the client and inform her that changes will be made
d. respond to the Committee in writing
6.28
d. CORRECT - This response addresses the req'mts of APA's Ethics Code and Rules and Procedures, i.e., both documts req psycs to cooperate w/ the Ethics Committee. Specifically, Pt II, std 8.2 of the Rules and Proceds reqs psycs to respond to charges of unethical conduct personally and sTd 9 reqs full cooperation " in a timely fashion." How Dr. Looby responds to the client's charges - e.g., by talking to the client, discussing the matter w/ the staff - depends on the sitn.
6.32 Research by Gerald Patterson, John Reid, and their colleagues at the Oregon Social Learning Center has found that the likelihd that parental punishmt will inc a child's aggressive beh is greatest when the child is:
a. high in aggressiveness
b. low in fearfulness
c. high in anxiety
d. low in intelligence
6.32 You probably cd have answered this one correctly w/out being familiar w/ the research since it "makes sense" that aggressive children are likely to respond to punishmt w/ aggression.
a. CORRECT - Results of research at the Oregon Social Learning Ctr indic that highly aggressive youngsters are most likely to react aggressively to harsh punishmt.
6.35 Following the death of her pet cat, Puff, 6-year-old Jane constantly follows and clings to her mother and becomes extremely upset whenever her mother leaves the house. Jane says she can't go to school because she has a stomachache or other phys. ailmt. The most likely dx for Jane is:
a. Adjustmt DO
b. Agoraphobia
c. Separation Anxiety DO
d. Acute Stress DO
6.35 The girl's core sx is anxiety related to separation.
a. Incorrect - Adjmt DO is dxed when sxs do not meet the criteria for another Axis I DO, which is not the casehere.
b. Incorrect - Agoraphobia is characterized by anxiety about being in a place where escape might be difficult or embarrassing or where help wd not be avail. in the event of a panic attack.
c. CORRECT - The girl's anxiety is tied to separation from an attachmt figure (her mother), which is the primary characteristic of Separation Anxiety DO. This DO is often triggered by a stressor such as the death of a relative or pet and is manifested as somatic sxs ans school phobita.
d. Incorrect - The dx of Acute Stress DO reqs exposure to an extreme stressor and a specific pattern of sxs - i.e., numbing, derealization, depersonalization, and dissociative amnesia.
6.37 The best conclusion that can be drawn about biodata as a selection technique is that:
a. it is the best predr of orgal beh for entry level mgers, middle-level mgers, and nonmgers
b. it is a v. good predr of some aspects of orgal beh, but addnl research is needed to clarify which aspects it is best for predicting.
c. it is a v. gd predr of orgal beh only when an applicant is applying for a job that is similar to his/her prev jobs.
d. it is a poor predr for nonmgers but an accurate predr of some aspects of orgal beh for mgerial-level applicants.
6.37 Most reviews of lit. have found that biodata is a gd predr, w/ some experts regarding it 2nd only to cog measures. However, a close inspection of the research reveals that it is a gd predr in some sitns but not as accur. as other predrs in other sitns.
a. Incorrect - Although biodata is generally considered an accur. predr, it is an overstmt to label it the "best" predr.
b. CORRECT - the accuracy of biodata seems to depend on the criterion. e.g., there is evidence that it is a v. gd predr of training success. However, other predrs have been found to be better pedrs of actual job perf for certain types of jobs. Consequently, this is the best response of those given. Despite the lge amt of existing research on biodata, there is a need for addnl studies that clarify the circs in which it is the optimal predr.
c. Incorrect - Biodata includes background info that is not dirly reled to prev. employmt, so this is not true.
d. Incorrect - Biodata has been found useful for both mgerial and nonmgerial employees.
6.40 You rec a court order requesting that you provide info about a 17-year-old client who is currently the defendent in a court case. You discuss the request w/ the client but he refuses to sign a waiver of confidentiality. You shd:
a. refuse to provide the court w/ the requested info until you obt a waiver from the client.
b. refuse to provide the court w/ the requested info until you obt a waiver from the client's attorney or legal guardian
c. prov the court only w/ info that you believe will not be harmful to the client
d. prov the court w/ the requested info
6.40 Key term in qn is "court-ordered."
d. CORRECT - Therapist-client privilege implies that, in most circs, a psyc does not reveal confidential client info in the context of a legal proceeding w/out consent of the client or his/her legal rep. There are exceptions to privilege, however, and a court order is one of them. (If the info is damaging to the client, the normal procedure is to request that it be read by the judge in camera - i.e., in the privacy of the judge's chambers.)
6.42 Which of the following illustrates "diagnostic overshadowing":
a. a therapist lists an inaccurate dx on an insur. form because she knows the insurance company will be unwilling to pay for therapy for the correct dx
b. a therapist does not recognize a co-existing clin. DO in a mentally retarded Pt because of the salience of the MR
c. a therapist misdiagnoses a pt because the salience of an atypical sx causes her to overlook the pt's other sxs.
d. a therapist's own cultural beliefs and values impede her ability to recognize how cultural diffs impact dx and tx.
6.42 Dxic overshadowing was orig. described by Reissand colleagues in connection w/ the assessmt of ppl w/ MR. It has since been applied to other sitns and dxes.
b. CORRECT - Overshadowing occurs when the salience of one DO or condition "overshadows" consideration or recogn of another DO.
6.43 In the context of Holland's theory of vocational choice, a high degree of diff'ation:
a. reflects an uncomoon or unusual pattern of interests
b. reflects a common pattern of interests
c. incs the predictability of the person-environmt interaction
d. decs the predictability of the person-environmt interaction.
6.43 Holland used the term diff'ation to describe the extent to which a person has clearly defined interests. A person who scores high on one of his interest scales and low on all other scales is highly diff'ated.
c. CORRECT - According to Holland, the importance of a good "fit" b/w a person's interests and the characteristics of the job is most important for those who are highly diff'ated.
6.44 Children's understanding of race as a phys. social, and biol. category is usually evident by age:
a. 4
b. 6
c. 10
d. 13
6.44 Although children show awareness of racial diffs by age 3 or 4, a sophisticated understding of race does not dvp until later.
c. CORRECT - This is the finding reported by Aljandro-Wright for both white and Af-Am children, and it is consis. w/ the wk of other investigators.
6.48 Equity theory predicts that a husband will feel best about his marriage if:
a. he and his wife give and rec. the same amt in their relnship
b. he percevies that he and his wife give and rec. the same amt in their relnship.
c. in terms of their relnship, his give/rec. ratio is the same as the give/rec. ratio of his wife.
d. in terms of their relnship, he perceives that his give/rec. ratio is the same as the give/rec. ratio of his wife.
6.48 Equity theory is a cog theory of motivation that emphasizes the impact of the indiv's beliefs about the equity of the sitn in terms of inputs and outcomes. When a person perceives the sitn to be equitable, he/she will be satisfied and motivated.
d. CORRECT - According to equity theory, a person compares his/her input/outcome ratio to that of others. If he/she perceives the ratios to be similar, this has +ve effects on satisfaction and motivation.
6.51 A dx of Male Erectile DO reqs:
a. a loss of or dec in the ability to attain an erection
b. an inability to attain an erection in any circ.
c. an inability to attain or maintain an erection until completion of sexual activity.
d. an inability, for at least 2 wks, to attain or maintain an erection until completion of sexual activity.
6.51 DSM-IV defines Male Erectile DO as iinvolving a "persis. or recurrent inability to attain, or to maintain until completion of a sexual activity, an adeq. erection."
a. Incorrect - This is only partially correct.
b. Incorrect - "In any circ." is not req'd by DSM-IV.
c. CORRECT - This is the best summary of the DSM-IV dxic criteria.
d. Incorrect - DSM-IV does not specify a minimum duration of sxs for this dx.
6.52 The shortage of mentors for women and members of culturally-diverse groups at the mgerial level is likely to be of most concern for an advocate of:
a. social learning theory
b. contingency mgmt theory
c. need hierarchy theory
d. LPC theory
6.52 Mentors not only prov. support to their proteges but also act as models.
a. CORRECT - According to social learning theory, ppl learn from observing and interacting w/ others. Therefore, not having a "model" who is of the same gender or cultural background wd be of concern to advocates of this theory.
b. Incorrect - Contingency mgmt refers to the use of rewards and punishmts to elicit desired beh and is less relev. than social learning theory to the prob described in the qn.
c. Incorrect - Need hierarchy theory predits that ppl have 5 basic needs that arise in a hierarchical order. It is also less relev. than social learning theory to the prob. addressed in the qn.
d. Incorrect - LPC is assoced w/ the wk of Fiedler and refers to "least preferred co-wker." His theory is not relev. here.
6.57 Research on cig smoking has found that:
a. only 50% of self-quitters remain abstinent for 2 or more days following an attempt to quit
b. the nicotine patch and other forms of nicotine replacemt therapy are beneficial only for smokers who are highly nicotine dependent
c. on the average, men and women gain 6 and 8 pounds, respectively, after they stop smoking.
d. the risks for coronary and lung dz fall to about the same as those for ppl who never smoked 3 to 5 yrs after a smoker quits smoking.
6.57 This qn is diffic. because it reqs you to be familiar w/ the results of several diff. studies.
a. Incorrect - According to the American Psychiatric Assocn, for self-quitters, only about 33% remain abstinent for 2 days or more.
b. Incorrect - Nicotine replacemt therapy has benefits for smokers whether they are highly or less nicotine dependent (although te greater the dependence, the greater the benefits).
c. CORRECT - These are the weight gain figures reported in a recent report by the CDC.
d. Incorrect - Although the risk for coronary heart dz does drop rapidly once a smoker has stopped smoking, this is not true for lung dz.
6.59 Which of the following is a feature that has been commonly included in traditional conceptions of p-pathy that may be partic. distinuishing of Antisocial PD?
a. inflated self-appraisal
b. superficial charm
c. lack of empathy
d. all of the above
6.59 "Lack of empathy, inflated self-appraisal, and superficial charm are features that have been commonly incl. in traditional conceptions of p-pathy that may be partic. distinguishing of the DO and more predictive of recidivism in prison or forensic settings where criminal, delinquent, or aggressive acts are likely to be non-specific"
d. CORRECT - see explanation above.
6.64 Characteristics such as level of emotionality, activity, and sociability:
a. are evident in newborns and remain relatively stable in later years
b. are evident in newbors but are not predictive of future behavior
c. begin to appear as traits after the 1st year of life
d. do not become stable until the preschool years.
6.64 The 3 characteristics listed in the qn have been identified as the primary dims of temperament by Buss and Plomin.
a. CORRECT - Temperamt is believed to have a primarily genetic basis and is evident w/in the 1st few mths of life. It also appears to be rel. stable.
6.69 In recent years, psycs have attempted to become more sensitive to the uniqueness of each culture. This is most related to a(n):
a. emic approach
b. etic approach
c. etic-emic synthesis
d. neither an etic or emic approach
6.69 An emic approach takes into consideration that each culture possesses unique characteristics.
a. CORRECT - An emic approach studies a culture on its own terms. It is considered culture-specific.
6.73 Which of the following wd be a cause of conductive deafness:
a. infection of the middle ear
b. damage to the hair cells
c. cochlear damage
d. lesions in the auditory cortex
6.73 There are 3 types of deafness: conductive, sensorineural, and central.
a. CORRECT - Conductive deafness results from failure of mechanical stimulation to reach the cochlea and can be caused by an infection or obstruction in the outer or middle ear.
b. Incorrect - This refers to sensorineural deafness.
c. Incorrect - Damage to the cochlea results in sensorineural deafness.
d. Incorrect - This describes central deafness.
6.79 A woman who suffers from recurrent migraines shd be advised to:
a. take an assertiveness training class
b. det. if cert. foods precede her headaches
c. avoid becoming chilled
d. perform relaxation exercises immed. following stressful events.
6.79 Migraine headaches are triggered and maintained by a no. of factors.
a. Incorrect - Assertiveness (or a lack of) has not been assoced w/ migraines.
b. CORRECT - in some cases, migraines are precipitated by cert. foods. Although the specific foods vary from indiv to indiv, they often contain tyramine, phenylethylamine (chocolate) or nitrates.
c. Incorrect - Cold has not been found to be a predictable precipitant of migraine and, in fact, often helps alleviate it.
d. Incorrect - Interestingly, for some ppl, migraine headaches are triggered by relaxation following stress. Therefore, for ppl suffering from migraines, it is important to avoid or minimize stress.
6.85 Reseach investigating the impact of maternal employmt on parent-child interactions has shown that mothers who are employed full-time:
a. describe their sons and daughters more favorably than mothers who are unemployed.
b. describe their sons and daughters more negatively than mothers who are unemployed.
c. describe only their sons more positively than mothers who are unemployed.
d. describe only their daughters more positively than mothers who are unemployed.
6.85 The oppos. patterns have been identified for employed and non-employed mothers.
d. CORRECT - This seems to be esp. true for younger children and for mothers who have more than a H.S. education. The oppos. pattern has been found for mothers who are not employed: They describe their sons more favorably.
6.95 Research investigating the relnship b/w interest test scores and future occupational choice suggests that these tests have the highest predictive validity for:
a. lower-class people
b. middle-class people
c. upper-class people
d. lower-and upper-class people
6.95 SES is one factor that has been found to affect the predictive validity of interest inventories.
a. Incorrect - Lower-class ppl do not always have the opport. to pursue occupations that coincide w/ their interests and freqly choose those jobs that prov. the greatest pay and security.
b. CORRECT - Members of the middle-class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation, and therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide w/ their interests.
c. Incorrect - Upper-class indivs often choose occupations on the basis of family traditions or societal expectations rather than interests.
6.96 Which of the following orders (from least decline to most decline) best represents the changes in WAIS subtest scores that can be expected to occur with increasing age:
a. information, object assembly, arithmetic
b. coding, picture completion, comprehension
c. information, vocabulary, object assembly
d. object assembly, vocabulary, information
6.96 The WAIS-III consists of 7 verbal subtests (Info, Dig Span, Vocab, Arith, Compr, Sim, and L-N Seq) and 7 perf subtests (Pic Comp, Pic Arr, Blk Des, Obj Ass, Dig Symbol-Coding, Symb Search, and Matrix Reasoning).
c. CORRECT - The classic aging pattern involves a higher Verbal IQ score than Performance Score. Thus, in terms of subtests, all verbal subtests wd be expected to show less decremt than all perf. subtests.
6.108 To maximize the usefulness of prompts to facilitate the dvpt of stimulus control, you wd do all of the following except:
a. make sure prompts focus attn on the discrim. stimulus
b. use the weakest or least intrusive prompts possible
c. fade the prompts as rapidly as possible
d. make sure the prompts involve keeping the discrim. stimulus constant while changing the nature of the S-delta stimulus.
6.108 To facilitate the indiv's ability to discriminate b/w discriminative and S-delta stimuli, prompts can be used.
a. Incorrect - This makes sense: You'd wt the indiv to pay most attn to the discrim. stimulus.
b. Incorrect - The indiv's focus shd be on the discrim. and S-delta stimuli, not on the prompt. Conseqly, the less intrusive the better.
c. Incorrect - You don't wt the indiv to become too dependent on the prompt, so the best course of action is to fade it as soon as poss.
d. CORRECT - Prompts wk better when they are attached to the discrim. stimulus, apparently because this incs attention to that stimulus (which is theone that signals that the beh is desirable or acceptable).
6.109 In distinguishing Social Phobia from Agoraphobia, it is important to keep in mind taht:
a. the presence of panic attacks is more indicative of Agoraphobia than Social Phobia
b. Agoraphobia involves anxiety in multiple social settings, while Social Phobia is restricted to one or a few settings.
c. a dx of Social Phobia in adults is made only when the indiv. is aware that his/her anxiety is unreasonable.
d. a dx of Agoraphobia in indivs over 18 reqs a duration of sxs for at least 6 mths.
6.109 A diff'al dx b/w Social Phobia and Agoraphobia can be diffic. since both involve a fear of social sitns and may incl. panic attacks.
a. Incorrect - Both DOs can involve panic attacks. However, in Social Phobia they are always linked to the particular feared sitn.
b. Incorrect - Although Social Phobia is usu. ltd to one or a few sitns, it doesn't have to be, so this isn't the best answer.
c. CORRECT - This is a dxic criterion for Social Phobia but not for Agoraphobia.
d. Incorrect - This is not a dxic criterion for Agoraphobia.
6.113 The admin. of an antiandrogen as a tx for a paraphilia:
a. is contraindicated because of its negative side effects
b. is useful for reducing relapse rates following participation in a tx program.
c. is recommended as an adjunct to a beh or cog-beh intervention
d. is assoced w/ better short- and long-term effects than behal or cog-behal interventions.
6.113 The research on txs for paraphilias is lgely inconclusive. But, as you might expect, multimodal txs are better than single txs.
a. Incorrect - While the use of antiandrogens is controversial, it is because of their effects (not their side effects).
b. Incorrect - Antiandrogens are considered most useful at the onset of tx to redue sexual drive in order to make the indiv more amenable to psyc. txs.
c. CORRECT - Antiandrogens seem most useful as an adjunct to tx. While they may have gd short-term effects, long-term prognosis is improved when they are combined w/ ntxs designed to help the indiv gain self-control over his deviant behs.
d. Incorrect - There is some evidence for gd short-term effects, but not for long-term effects.
6.115 The need fo phys. guidance w/ poss. resultant negative conseqs (e.g., aggressive or avoidance behs) is assoced w/ which of the following:
a. aversive counterconditioning
b. negative practice
c. response cost
d. overcorrection
6.115 Phys. guidance involves manually guiding the indiv through the desired movements.
d. CORRECT - Phys. guidance may be a necessary component of overcorrection in order to ensure that the indiv engages in the positive practice that is part of this intervention.
6.117 Research examining the role of raters' expectations on their ratings has found that when ratees are equal in actual level of perf:
a. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform worse than they expected than to ratees whose perf matches their expectations
b. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform better than they expected than to ratees whose perf matches their expectations
c. raters assign lower ratings to ratees who perform worse or better than they expected than to ratees whose perf. matches their expectations.
d. raters assign higher ratings to ratees who perf. better than they expected and lower ratings to ratees who perform worse than they expected than to ratees whose perf. matches their expectations.
6.117 Not surprisingly, ratings are affected by one's expectations. However, the nature of the effect may not bewhat common sense suggests.
c. CORRECT - Apparently, raters don't like to be wrong. They tend to assign lower ratings regardless of whether the ratee did worse or better than expected.
6.120 Research on job satisfaction suggests that it:
a. is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes.
b. is relatively stable within the same job but unstable when measured across diff jobs
c. is rel unstable and varies over time both w/in the same job and across diff jobs
d. may be stable or unstable w/in and across jobs depending on the characteristics of the partic. wker
6.120 Overall, job satisfaction seems to be a stable trait.
a. CORRECT - This best summarizes the results of research on job satisfaction. It appears that job satisfaction is dirly reled to the tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic. Ppl w/ negative affect tend to be dissatisfied w/ wk; people w/ positive affect tend to be satisfied.
6.129 You are beginning a therapy grp for indivds dealing w/ mid-life issues. From your experience w/ new groups, you know that, during the beg stages of group therapy:
a. group members will talk to the therapist and seemingly ignore one another
b. group members will interact w/ one another and more or less ignore the therapist
c. group members will act quite hostile toward the authoritative therapist
d. cliques will begin to dvp w/in the group
6.129 In the beg of group therapy, clients rely more on the therapist. Later, as the group members become closer, group cohesion dvps and members interact more w/ one another.
a. CORRECT - Initially, group members ignore each other and direct all of their comments and questions to the therapist.
b. Incorrect - Interactions b/w grp members will be sparse at the onset of therapy.
c. Incorrect - Although this may be true in some cases, most grp members perceive the therapist as their ally.
d. Incorrect - Cliques begin to dvp, if at all, after the beg stages of grp therapy.
6.142 Sz is typically characterized by profound disturbances in thking, affect, perception, and p-motor beh. It is generally believed that a poor prognosis for Sz is assoced w/ all of the following except:
a. onset in late adolescence
b. acute onset of sxs
c. lack of emotional responsivity
d. obsessive-compulsive sxs.
6.142 The prognosis in Sz varies w/ the type of reaction, the particular pt, and the nature of the pt's home sitn. Note that the qn is asking about the type of reaction that does NOT have a poor prognosis.
a. Incorrect - Earlier onset is assoced w/ poorer prognosis.
b. CORRECT - the prognosis for Sz is best when the onset is acute (sudden) rather than insidious.
c. Incorrect - Lack of emotional responsivity at the onset of sxs is assoced w/ a poor prognosis.
d. Incorrect - The presence of obsessive-compulsive symptoms is assoced w/ a poor prognosis.
6.143 When conducting research w/ human Ss, a psyc. shd be aware that:
a. Ss must be debriefed promptly after their partic. in the study
b. Ss must be debriefed after their partic. in a study only when the study has involved deception.
c. Ss must be debriefed promptly if poss. or, if necess. to delay the debriefing, psycs must reduce the risk for harm
d. the decision to debrief is left to the psyc. and involves considering the risk for harm to Ss if they are not debriefed.
6.143 This issue is addressed in Std 6.18 of the Ethics Code.
c. CORRECT - Research participants shd be promptly provided w/ "approp. info about the nature, results, and conditions of the research." When there must be a delay in providing such info, "psycs take reasonable measures to reduce the risk of harm."
6.147 A client you have been seeing for 8 mths says he wts to quit therapy. He feels that the orig. probs he came to therapy for have all been resolved. You disagree and feel that there is gd reason for the man to continue seeing you. You shd:
a. get the client to agree to a few more sessions.
b. discuss his reasons for wting to terminate.
c. discuss his reasons for wting to terminate and your reasons for thinking he shd continue
d. let him terminate but let him know he can come back if he desires.
6.147 This is essentially a "common sense" question. Obviously you can't force a client to continue seeing you, but you shd discuss your reservations about his termination.
c. CORRECT - If you believe it wd not be gd for the client to quit at this time, you shd discuss this w/ him. If he still wts to leave, then you'd wt to assure him that he can come back and/or give him approp. referrals.
6.158 During the course of data analysis, a researcher more often double-checks results that seem to conflict w/ her hypothesis than results that confirm it. This is an e.g. of:
a. the expter expectancy effect
b. demand characteristics
c. the Pygmalion Effect
d. a correspondence bias
6.158 In this sitn, the expter's beh might have a biasing effect on the study's results in the dirn of her research hypothesis.
a. CORRECT - Expter expectancy (bias) occurs when the expter's beh biases the research results in some (usually unconscious) way so that the results are consis. w/ the research hypothesis.
b. Incorrect - Demand characteristics are cues in the research sitn that communicate to Ss what behs are expected of them. Expter expectancies can act as a source of demand characteristics (although that wdn't be the case in this sitn).
c. Incorrect - The Pygmalion Effect (aka the self-fulfilling or Rosenthal effect) occurs when a person's expectations about another indiv actually produce subtle changes in the indiv's beh so that the beh conforms to the person's expectations.
d. Incorrect - Correspondence bias is another name for the fundamtal attribution bias, which is the tendency for observers to attribute another person's beh to dispositional (rather than sitnal factors).
6.164 When conducting a research study, you wt to ensure that you will detect a diff b/w the tx group and the control (no tx) grp. Therefore, you will:
a. dec error variance by decing the magnitude of the IV
b. Inc exptal variance by controlling the effects of an extraneous variable.
c. inc exptal variance by incing the magnitude of the IV
d. dec the probability of making a Type II error (retaining a false null hypothesis) by incing beta.
6.164 Rephrased, qn reads "how do you inc the power of an expt?" Understding of power must be beyond denfal level (e.g., pwer is 1-beta or power is the porbability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis) and at an abstract or conceptual level. Power can be thought of as the sensitivity of an expt. i.e., if signif. diffs do exist b/w grps, a powerful expt will be sensitive enough to detect these diffs.
a. Incorrect - Decing the magnit. of the IV will result in less, not greater power. e.g., if you are studying the effects of a drug on a beh, you are less likely to detect its effects if your exptal grp recs a low dosage than when it recs a higher dosage. Moreover, this response does not make sense because decing the magnit. of the IV does not dec error variance.
b. Incorrect - Although decing variability due to extraneous variables shd inc the ppn ovf variability due to the IV, this is not the best answer of those given. Even when all extraneous variables are controlled, if the magnitude of the IV is insuffic., the diff b/w the exptal and control grps may not be detectable.
c. CORRECT - Inc'ing the magnitude of the IV wd inc exptal variance by incing the diff b/w the exptal and control (no tx) grps. This wd inc power, or the ability to detect the effects of the IV> As an example, if you are studying the effects of a new learning procedure on perf., you are more likely to detect its effects if you admin. the learning proced. to the exptal grp Ss for 6 weeks rather than for 1 week.
d. Incorrect - Power does inc as the probability of making a Type II error decs. However, this response does not make sense, since an inc in beta will, by defn, result in an INCREASE of the probability of making a Type II error.
6.168 Dr. Cooper is appted by the court to eval. a 42-year old man who is a plaintiff in a court proceeding. W/ regard to privilege, Dr. Cooper shd be aware that:
a. the plaintiff is still the holder of the privilege and must sign a waiver of confidentiality before any info is given to the court.
b. Dr. Cooper is the holder of the privilege in this sitn and it is his responsibility to det what info to release to the court.
c. privilege is waived in this sitn but Dr. Cooper shd inform the plaintiff of the lts on confidentiality.
c. privilege is waived in this sitn and Dr. Cooper can decide if it is approp. to inform the plaintiff of the lts on confidentiality.
6.168 There are many reasons why a court might appt a psyc. to eval a party in a court case. In these sitns, privilege is waived, and the indiv must be informed of the lts of confidentiality.
c. CORRECT - Obviously, the eval wd serve no useful purpose if the court did not have the rt to access the info obted during the course of the eval. Conseqly, this is one of the exceptions to the privilege req'mt. A psyc shd, however, always inform the indiv of the lts of confidentiality in this sitn.
6.172 According to Albert Bandura, modeling (observational learning):
a. teaches new behaviors
b. disinhibits and facilitates behs already in one's repertoire
c. provides cues as to the appropriateness of a partic. beh.
d. all of the above
6.172 While the reasons for the efficacy of modeling are not entirely clear, itdoes seem to be useful both for the acquisition of new behs and the inc or dec of behs already in one's repertoire.
d. CORRECT - According to Bandura, modeling serves a no. of fns including the ones listed in responses "a", "b", and "c."
6.173 A test is admined to 200 examinees and the distribn of raw scores is normal. If the examinee's raw scores are converted to percentile ranks, the no. of examinees who obt percentile ranks b/w 91 and 95 will be:
a. equal to the no. of examinees who obt percentile ranks between 51 and 55
b. less than the number of examinees who obtain percentile ranks b/w 51 and 55
c. more than the no. of examinees who obt percentile ranks b/w 51 and 55
d. cannot be deted
6.173 Key to answering this qn is knowing that the distribn of percentile ranks is always flat (rectangular) regardless of the shape of the distribn of raw scores; i.e., scores are distribed evenly throughout the distribn.
a. CORRECT - 5% of examinees obted percentile ranks of 91, 92, 93, 94 and 95, and 5% obted percentile ranks of 51, 52, 53, 54 and 55.
6.176 The "Zeigarnik effect" is most likely to occur:
a. under stressful conditions
b. under nonstressful conditions
c. in familiar circs
d. in unfamiliar circs
6.176 The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to remember interrupted or uncompleted tasks better than completed ones.
b. CORRECT - The Zeigarnik effect most often occurs in nonstressful sitns. Under stressful conditions, the oppos. effect is more likely to occur.
6.178 Research on goal-setting theory suggests that monetary incentives:
a. are irrelev. to goal achievemt as long as the goals have been accepted by employees
b. are irrelev to goal achievemt as long as the goals have been self-set by employees
c. have a positive effect only if employees partic. in deting the difficy of the goals
d. have a positive effect whether or not employees have been involved in goal-setting
6.178
d. CORRECT - Monetary incentives seem to have a +ve effect on goal achievemt (esp. when they are tied specifically to achievemt) regardless of the circs. Although some research suggest that monetary incentives can actually have a detrimtal effect when goals are self-set, this isn't addressed by any of the answers, so this response is the best one.)
6.179 Research on shiftwk suggests that:
a. all tasks, regardless of complexity, are perfed more efficiently and accurately on the day shift.
b. simple monotonous tasks are ordinarily performed equally well on day or night shifts.
c. complex mental tasks involving STM may be perfed better on night shifts than on day shifts.
d. perf. on complex (vs. simple) tasks is most negatively affected by rotating shifts.
6.179 This is one of the research results that is NOT consis. w/ what you might expect.
b. Incorrect - Simple monotonous tasks are generally perfed better during the day.
c. CORRECT - There is some evidence that complex tasks involving STM are actually perfed better at night.
d. Incorrect - This is the oppos. of what is true: Complex tasks seem to be less negatively affected by rotating shifts than simple tasks.
6.181 The predictions of goal-setting theory appear to be most accurate for:
a. easy tasks and ppl high in need for achievemt.
b. easy tasks and ppl low in need for achievemt.
c. complex tasks and ppl high in need for achievemt.
d. complex tasks and ppl low in need for achievemt.
6.181 While Edwin Locke (1968) considered his goal-setting theory to be applicable to all sitns, the research suggests that it may apply better to cert. tasks and cert. ppl.
a. CORRECT - There is some evidence that the predictions of goal-setting theory are more accurate for simple tasks and for ppl who are high in need for achievemt (wo are likely to commit to goals).
6.190 When using an ABAB research design, causality is suggested when:
a. the target beh changes only when the tx is applied to each baseline.
b. the target beh reverts to orig. baseline levels when the tx is withdrawn
c. the target beh is not altered by the 2nd baseline manipulation.
d. the target beh changes in the txed conditions only.
6.190 An ABAB single-subject design involves 4 phases: baseline, tx, baseline, tx.
a. Incorrect - This sounds more like multiple baseline design.
b. CORRECT - The advantage of adding a 2nd baseline (A) phase is that it helps det whether an observed change in the DV during the tx phase was in fact due to the IV. If the DV returns to its orig. baseline level, the researcher can be more cert. that the observed effect is actually the result of the IV (rather than a confounding factor).
c. Incorrect - This doesn't make sense.
d. Incorrect - You wt the beh to change during the tx phase(s), and the 2nd baseline phase is there to make sure it is actually the tx that is causing the change.
6.192 An assumption for a one-way ANOVA is violated. The best course of action wd be to use which of the following to analyze the data:
a. Mann-Whitney
b. Wilcoxon
c. Kruskal-Wallis
d. Scheffe
6.192 The one-way analysis of variance is used to compare 3 or more indep. groups. (Although the one-way ANOVA can be used to compare 2 grps, the t-test is ordinarily used in this case).
a. Incorrect - The Mann Whitney U test is used to compare two indep. grps.
b. Incorrect - The Wilcoxon Matched pairs test is used to compare two related groups.
c. CORRECT - The Kruskal-Wallis is the nonparametric alternative to the one-way ANOVA. It can be used to compare two or more indep. grps.
d. Incorrect - The Scheffe is a post-hoc test that is used to compare means. It requires that the same assumptions be met as for the ANOVA.
6.195 Alan A. has been rec'ing tx from Dr. Larry L., a psychiatrist, for several mths. Dr. L. suspects that Alan's self-esteem probs may be reled to a learning disability that has caused academic and occupational failures throughout Alan's life and, to confirm his suspicions, refers Alan to Dr. Nancy N., a psyc, for psychological assessmt. During the course of testing, Alan tells Dr. N. that he is unhappy w/ the tx he is rec'ing from Dr. L. and asks if he can begin therapy w/ her instead. As an ethical psyc, Dr. N's best course of action wd be to:
a. make an appt with Alan to discuss the reasons for his dissatisfaction with Dr. L.
b. make an appt with Alan but call Dr. L. to discuss Alan's decision.
c. make an appt with Alan but suggest that he call Dr. L. to inform him of his decision.
d. recommend to Alan that he discuss the matter w/ Dr. L. before making an appt w/ her
6.195 Std 4.04 of the Ethics Code reqs psycs to "carefully consider tx issues and the potal pt's or client's welfare" when requested to provide services to a client who is rec'ing similar services from another professional.
a. Incorrect - If Dr. N. took this action, she wd be ignoring her obligation to Dr. L. This might be the appropriate course of action if Alan's reason for his dissatisfaction was reled to an ethical or legal violation, but there is no reason to believe that this is the case in this sitn.
b. Incorrect - If Dr. N. takes this action, she wd not only be ignoring her obligation to Dr. L., but wd also be breaching the confidentiality of Alan.
c. Incorrect - Although it might be acceptable to see Alan w/ the provision that he also discuss his termination w/ Dr. L., because of the nature of the professional relnship b/w Dr. L. and Dr. N., the better course of action wd be for Alan to first discuss his desire to terminate therapy with Dr. L.
d. CORRECT - Because of the nature of their professional relnship, Dr. N.'s best course of action wd be to recommend to Alan that he discuss his dissatisfaction and poss. termination w/ Dr. L. before beginning tx w/ her.
6.196 Dr. Greene, a psyc. in private practice, sets his clients' fees according to their ability to pay as deted by their yearly income. As a result, some of his clients are paying a very low fee or no fee, while others are paying a fee that is considerably above-average for the location of his practice. Dr. Greene's fee policy is:
a. illegal in most states and clearly unethical
b. legal in most states but unethical
c. both legal and ethical
d. ethical but illegal in most states
6.196 "Sliding sclae" fees are legally and ethically acceptable as long as the fee arrangemt is made clear from the onset of therapy.
c. CORRECT - Sliding scale fees are a common practice and are both legal and ethical.