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92 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Molecule in dorsal-ventral patterning of the limb
Wnt7a
Dorsal-ventral patterning of the limb requires signals from the:
ectoderm
Anterior-posterior pattering of the limb requires signals from the:
zone of polarizing activity (ZPA)
Molecule involved in anterior-posterior patterning:
sonic hedgehog (SHH)
Proximal distal patterning of the limb requires signals from the:
apical ectodermal ridge (AER)
Molecule involved in proximal-distal patterning of the limb:
FGF
An activating mutation in this receptor leads to achondroplasia, the most common form of dwarfism (the receptor serves to limit growth)
FGFR3
T/F: BMPs are sufficient to induce bone and cartilage formation
true
T/F: BMP's are necessary for normal skeletal development
true
Transcription factor necessary for bone formation in addition to BMP
Cbfa
Defect in this transcription factor causes cleidocranial dysplasis (defect in clavicle and skull, bones formed by intramembranous ossification)
Cbfa
Three types of kidneys in development
pronephric, mesonephric, metanephric
Hypospadias
result from lack of fusion of urethral folds, retaining opening of urethral orifice on ventral side of penis
occurs in males
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
also called testicular feminization
male with no androgen receptors
female phenotype
no internal genitalia
have breasts because testosterone not able to destroy breast buds
small testes with no functioning germ cells
Cryptochidism
Undescended testes (bilateral or unilateral)
Sterility
Risk of cancer
Dosage sensitive sex reversal (DSS)
XY
SRY, so should be male but DUPLICATED DAX-1 on the X chromosome antagonizes SRY
No testes
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia has a similar phenotype to what other sex developmental disorder?
In utero androgen exposure
phenotype is female masculinization
What structures are derived from the mullerian ducts (paramesonephric ducts) in females?
uterine and fallopian tubes
Overall rate of detection of birth defects (%)
3%
What is the sequence and time of the 3 developmental stages
pre-embryonic (0-2 weeks)
embryonic (3-8 weeks)
fetal (8 weeks until birth/ 38 weeks)
What processes are in each of the 3 developmental stages
pre-embryonic (fertilization to gastrulation)
embryonic (gastrulation to basic body plan eg. limb bud patterning, branchial arch and head development)
fetal- maturation of organs
List the key events in human development in order
gametogenesis, fertilization, cleavage, implantation, gastrulation, neurulation, neural crest formation, organ formation in each of the 3 germ layer, growth and maturation
Explain how eye development is an example of how differentiation occurs sequentially
The opic vesicle induces the overlying ectoderm to become the lens. The lens then induce additional differentiated cell fates from the optic vesicle, including ciliary body and iris. Lens also induce overlying ectoderm to become cornea
What are correlation experiments
right time right place; use in situ hybridization
What are necessary experiments
remove or decrease a single factor and measure effect; gene knockout
What are sufficient experiments
add of increase a single factor and measure effects; transgenic or knock-in mice
What are correlation experiments
right time right place; use in situ hybridization
What are the 6 major signaling families
Wnts, BMP, Hedgehog, steroids, FGF (fibroblast growth factor), 7 transmembrane/ G coupled
What are necessary experiments
remove or decrease a single factor and measure effect; gene knockout
What are the four main transcription factor families
Homeodomains, basic helix loop helix, zinc finger, high mobility group (HMG, eg SOX9, SRY)
What are sufficient experiments
add of increase a single factor and measure effects; transgenic or knock-in mice
What conditions need to be met for data from humans to be classified as necessary?
Clinical disease segreagates as single Mendelian gene
Mutation studies identify many mutations in different families
Mutations in affected offspring of unaffected parent
What are the 6 major signaling families
Wnts, BMP, Hedgehog, steroids, FGF (fibroblast growth factor), 7 transmembrane/ G coupled
Give 3 examples of findings where correlation, necessary, and sufficient have been demonstrated
Optic cup induces lens, H. pylori causes stomach ulcers, limb development through quail and chick transplantation experiments
What are the four main transcription factor families
Homeodomains, basic helix loop helix, zinc finger, high mobility group (HMG, eg SOX9, SRY)
List 2 primary characteristics of transcription factors
Must be able to recognize target sequence, i.e . through DNA binding regions
Must interact with the rest of the transcription machinery to alter the amount of RNA made from a target gene
What conditions need to be met for data from humans to be classified as necessary?
Clinical disease segreagates as single Mendelian gene
Mutation studies identify many mutations in different families
Mutations in affected offspring of unaffected parent
List the associated master regulator transcription factors for the following tissues
1. Muscle
2. Bone
3. Cartilage
4. Fat
1. MYOD
2. Cbfa1
3. Sox 9
4. PPAR gamma
Give 3 examples of findings where correlation, necessary, and sufficient have been demonstrated
Optic cup induces lens, H. pylori causes stomach ulcers, limb development through quail and chick transplantation experiments
Hirschprung's disease: defect, symptoms
Defect in cell signaling
Symptoms include aganglionic colon, megacolon, severe constipation and pigmentation defects in skin and eyes. This is because cells signal to neural crest cells to migrate, proliferate and differentiate into neural crest derivatives (which include neurons and melanocytes)
List 2 primary characteristics of transcription factors
Must be able to recognize target sequence, i.e . through DNA binding regions
Must interact with the rest of the transcription machinery to alter the amount of RNA made from a target gene
List the associated master regulator transcription factors for the following tissues
1. Muscle
2. Bone
3. Cartilage
4. Fat
1. MYOD
2. Cbfa1
3. Sox 9
4. PPAR gamma
Hirschprung's disease: defect, symptoms
Defect in cell signaling
Symptoms include aganglionic colon, megacolon, severe constipation and pigmentation defects in skin and eyes. This is because cells signal to neural crest cells to migrate, proliferate and differentiate into neural crest derivatives (which include neurons and melanocytes)
When do primordial germ cells first appear in development
2nd week post fertilization
In what tissue does primordial germ cells first appear?
epiblast
What molecule activates PGCs in the epiblast i.e cause them to migrate and what experiments show this?
BMP4
1. Correlation- BMP4 expressed in pgc in epiblast
2. Necessary- mutant mice with inactivating BMP4 mutation do not form PGC
3. Sufficient - add recombinant BMP4 and pgc will migrate in vitro
What is the major receptor involved in PGC migration and what is it's ligand
cKIT tyrosine kinase and stem cell factor (ligand)
What correlation experiments demonstrate the molecules involved in PGC migration
Germ cells, neural crest cells (including pigment cells) and red blood cells (all the migrating type cells) share a common stem cell
survival factor, stem cell factor (ligand), and express cKit tyrosine kinase (transmembrane receptor)
What necessary experiments demonstrate the molecules involved in PGC migration
Mutations in the stem cell factor (ligand) or the cKIT tyrosine kinase (receptor) affect fertility, pigmentation and blood cell development.
What sufficient experiments demonstrate the molecules involved in PGC migration
Add stem cell factor to PGC in vitro ->stimulate cell division and may
decrease cell death, promote chemotaxis.
What results from defects in germ cell migration
extra-gonadal tumors (common neonatal tumor; typically cKIT positive)
Retention of totipotency in the germ cell lineage correlates with the expression of homeodomain
transcription factors ____ and _____
Oct4 and Nanog
Why is there an increased rate of sperm mutation with increased paternal age
Increased number of mitoses (stem cell division occurs throughout life)
What are some diseases that increase with paternal age
Achondroplasia, Apert's syndrome, schizophrenia
What is the sequence of sperm development?
Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, meiosis 1 gives secondary spermatocyte, meiosis 2 gives haploid spermatids, spermatozoa (
Why do the clone of sperm cells remain connected by cytoplasmic bridge
Share diffusible X- chromosome gene
products
How long does spermatogenesis in humans take?
62 days
Define stem cell
Cell with ability to self replicate and to enter differentiation pathway –
specialized cell types. A single cell has both sets of potentials (self renewal and differentiation pathway).
Where in the testes does spermatogenesis take place
In the seminiferous tubules, in close association with the sertoli cells
Define spermiogenesis
Morphogenesis and differentiation of round haploid spermatids into highly polarized spermatozoa
What are the key features of a mature human spermatozoa
1. Haploid nucleus with specialized nuclear proteins called protamines (which replace histones in the spermatid)
2. A secretory organelle (acrosome) at the front of the sperm
3. Midpiece region with mitochondria around axoneme
4. Tail motor with Dynein ATPase axoneme
Male infertility: Kartagener syndrome
Immotile cilia due to nonfunctional dynein arms (also have respiratory infections and situs inversus)
Male Infertility: Klinefelter's men
XXX
tall with long extremities, gynecomastia,
presence of inactive X chromosome (Barr body).
Individual Klinefelter men can now have fertility restored through assisted reproductive technologies (intra cytoplasmic sperm injection). normal intelligence.
correlation between advanced paternal age and sex chromosome aneuploidies; older men have
increased incidence of disomy for sex chromosomes.
What stage of development are eggs arrested in?
prophase of meiosis I
Compare and contrast the timing of meiosis in eggs vs sperm
In egg, eggs arrested in prophase of meiosis I during fetal development, then after puberty will arrest cyclically at metaphase of meiosis II. Completion of meiosis occurs upon fertilization. Males keep stem cell spermatogonia throughout life and initiate meiosis at puberty.
When do ova complete meiosis?
After fertilization
What findings show that c-kit is correlated, necessary and sufficient for oocyte development?
Correlation: c-kit expressed on oocytes and granulosa cells
Necessary: If c-kit receptor bloked, follicles undergo atresia
Sufficient: c-kit ligand permits cell locomotion
what cells synthesize zona pellucida glycoproteins?
cumulus oophorus (granulosa) cells and oocytes
List 10 steps in the process of fertilization
chemotaxis of sperm to egg follicle
binding of sperm to egg zona pellucida
acrosome reaction of sperm
penetration of sperm through zona pellucida
Fusion of sperm and egg plasma membranes
Release of sperm-specific isoform of phospholipase c
Transient peaks of intracellular free Ca++ inside zygote cytoplasm
Egg microfilaments actively draw sperm into egg
Onset of protein synthesis in zygote
Egg cytoskeletal microtubules center the pronucleus of the sperm and egg
First cleavage
5 roles of egg coat (extracellular matrix- zona pellucida) in fertilization
1. sperm binging sites
2. induces acrosome reaction
3. species specificity
4. prevents polysoermy
5. protective coat around pre-embryi during pre-implantation development
Explain how intracellular free Ca++ is correlated, necessary and sufficient for fertilization
Correlation: Ca++ increases at the right time and place (dyes reveal rise in Ca++ from point of sperm entry)
Necessary ( chelator of Ca++ prevents sperm from being effective)
Sufficient (calcium ionophore can initiate early events)
Sequence of events in pre-implantation
fertilization
cleavage
onset of transcription by 8 cell stage
formation of morula
blastocyst comprised of inner cell mass and trophectoderm (trophoblast)
two-layered bilaminar disc stage (epiblast and hypoblast)
What are some factors that can affect dizygotic twinning rates
parity, maternal age, maternal diet
What is an organizer
transient embryonic region with the ability to induce major body elements, eg. primitive streak, AVE (anterior visceral endoderm), notochord
How can you test for an organizer
Transplant and look for host response
What is the AVE (anterior visceral endoderm)
Extra-embryonic tissue that is necessary and sufficient for induction of forebrain structures
What is convergent extension and what genes are required for this?
Process during gastrulation and neurulation where sheets of moving rearrange to extend along the body axis.
Planar Cell Polarity genes (PCP)
What day does neural tube closure begin?
Day 22
What day does implantation begin
About 7-10 day, last about 1 week
When is gastrulation
By day 15
When does the cranial neuropore close
Day 24
When does the caudal neuropore close
Day 26
Where on the embryo along AP axis does neural tube closure start
Middle, proceeds outward in both directions in a zippering action
What 2 main pathways are involved in neural tube defects?
Planar cell polarity pathway and sonic hedgehog signaling pathway
What signals control differentiation of the notochord along the DV axis?
SHH from the notochord (induces floorplate, which then induces ventral motor neurons) and BMP from the overlying ectoderm (induces roof plate, which then induces sensory motor neurons)
Give 3 examples of disorders resulting from defect in SHH signaling
Gorlin's syndrome (Basal cell nervus syndrome) (too much SHH or too little Patched)
Holoprosencephaly (too little)
Spina Bifida
Polydactyly (too much)
What is the earliest functional organ in the embryo
heart
Malfunction of the heart in adults affect what 4 structures
valves
muscle (cardiomyopathies)
electrical conduction
coronary arterial circulation
What are the key events of heart development sequentially?
Formation of blood and blood vessel (~day 15)
Establishment of cardiogenic field
Formation of heart tube
Formation of heart loop
Septation of heart tube
Formation of heart valves
Development of the conduction system
What 3 families of signaling molecules have major roles in establishing cardiac cell identitity?
BMP
Wnt
FGF
DiGeorge syndrome
Deletion in chromosome 22q11, including Tbx1
Defect in neural crest
Craniofacial, heart, thymus (immunological), parathyroid (hypocapcemia) defects
What is the most common type of congenital heart defects
Vavular malformations, which mostly manifest in adults