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111 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The __________ describes the relation between interatomic distances, electronic charge, solution dielectric and free energies.

van der Waals interaction




(heads up people, VDW interaction and VDW force are the same thing, so you can say whatever)

Protein __________ defines the relation among subunits in a multisubunit lattice.

quaternary structure (becareful, don't spell it as quarternary)

Protein __________ defines the amino acid sequence.

primary structure

Protein __________ defines the packing of helices, sheets, turns, etc.

tertiary structure

Protein __________ defines the motifs formed by short-range interactions between amino acids.

secondary structure

A __________ interaction involves polar O, N, or both and the atom for which it is named, and constitutes one of the important protein stabilization events.

hydrogen bond

A __________ induces denaturation of proteins by disturbing the hydrophobic effect

chaotropic agent

Name the following protein structure:


R1-CH2-S-S-CH2-R2

disulfide bond

A __________ is a graph of the conformational torsion angles phi and psi for the residues in a protein or peptide, a map of the structure of the polypeptide backbone.

Ramachandran plot (You have to use a capital "R", I think?)

A __________ has two charges which neutralize each other

zwitterion

The __________ is the primary "force" of protein structural stabilization.

hydrophobic effect

The __________ is the characteristic speed of an enzyme's kinetics extrapolated to the time when a defined amount of substrate is added to the enzyme solution.

initial rate

An act of __________ does not change an enzyme and lowers the transition state free energy of the associated reaction.

catalysis

The __________ of an enzymatic catalysis reaction is the rate achieved when it is saturated with substrate.

maximum velocity

The __________ (or double reciprocal) equation defines parameters that are used to characterize the kinetics of an enzyme.

Lineweaver-Burk

Km is the substrate concentration when V0=Vmax/2, or __________.

Michaelis-Menten constant

A __________ is the enzyme-substrate combination formed during an enzyme catalysis event.

Michaelis complex

The catalytic rate constant of an enzyme is abbreviated as __________.

kcat

_____(1)_____ of enzyme catalysis occurs when an inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme.



_____(2)_____ of enzyme catalysis occurs when the inhibitor only binds to the active site of the enzyme-substrate complex.

(1) Competitive inhibition


(2) Uncompetitive inhibition

The __________ postulates that a constant input feed of substrate is supplied whose rate equals that of product formation.

steady state approximation

Two internal factors that limit the velocity of an enzymatic reaction are __________ and __________.

hydrophobic effect


H-bonding


disulfide bonds


van der Waals forces


ionic bonds (salt bridges)


dipole-dipole interactions

Two external factors that limit the velocity of an enzymatic reaction are __________ and __________ .

pH


solvent polarity


temperature


salt concentration(s) and types


presence of chaotropes


osmolytes

What amino acid and functional group in the esterase site of acetylcholine esterase reacts with the substrate?

serine and hydroxylate





Pyridine aldoximine methiodide (PAP) reactivates acetylcholine esterase, functioning as a __________.

Nerve gas antidote

Hey people,


Just a heads up if you're using my flashcards and you didn't get the memo - The final exam questions are in the same order as we learned the material. So the first quarter will be test 1, second quarter test 2, the latter half will be test 3 & 4, etc. The question bank on pp. 291 (this question bank will make up ~80% of our final, according to Nate dog). Use this to your advantage. Good luck!


-I love you,


David

These flashcards do not have the following questions (it requires an image, I don't have time to upload them): 1, 5, and 8. The final exam has fill in the blank questions so that hardin can have his assistants grade it faster. Also, the back of the book has abbreviated answers. However, we aren't allowed to put abbreviated answers on the test! No abbreviations, period.

What kind of reaction produces the reactivated enzyme?

nucleophilic substitution

The bisubstrate-enzyme __________ reaction is used by transaminases in the exchange of an amino group for a carbonyl group between two progessively binding substrates.

ping-pong

An __________ works by amplifying an initial signal via several linked protease cleavage reaction stages. (e.g., blood clotting)

enzyme cascade

A __________ is a protein that is converted from inactive to active forms by a covalent modification, typically protease cleavage.

zymogen

A decrease in the activity of an enzyme as a result of binding of a product from the reaction in question or subsequent reactions is referred to as __________.

feedback inhibition

__________ involves binding of a regulatory molecule at a site other than the active site.

Allosterism

__________ and __________ reactions, involving phosphate addition and removal respectively, regulate both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.

Kinase & phosphatase

__________ regulates entry and exit from mitosis by catalyzing a covalent modification reaction.

Cyclin kinase

Which two amino acids are modified in the reactions catalyzed by the enzyme in question 35 (i dont know what this question is asking because this question is question 35 in the book and there's no rxn. just memorize the answer - david)

tyrosine & threonine

Two examples of reversible factors that control the catalytic capability of an enzyme are: __________, __________.

noncovalent modifications


pH and pKa changes


[salt] changes


possibly others





The __________ accounts for the temperature dependence of the rate of a reaction.

Arrhenius equation

List the two "chemical modes of catalysis"

acid-base


covalent

The most common amino acid used by enzymes to carry out acid-base catalysis is __________.

histidine

A catalytic triad of amino acid is typically present in (enzyme class name) __________

serine proteases

The amino acids collaborate to accomplish __________.

acid-base catalysis

The most typically cited currency of energy in metabolism is (abbreviation)

ATP

__________ is typically required to achieve optimal activity with ATP cosubstrate enzyme reactions.

Mg2+

A coenzyme is either a loosely bound cosubstrate or strongly bound __________.

prosthetic group

The heavy metal molybdenum is used to facilitate the biochemical reaction in __________, a key enzyme in purine catabolism.

xanthine oxidase

When ATP used in some biochemical applications it yields AMP and __________.

pyrophosphate

The (vitamin) __________ is required to synthesize coenzyme NAD+ for use in metabolic redox reactions.

nicotinamide

The other key redox coenzyme is abbreviated __________.

FAD

The coenzyme __________ often forms a Schiff base with the e-amino group of a lysine residue in the enzyme.

pyridoxal phosphate

What chemical group does coenzyme A typically carry in the course of its biochemical function?

acetate

The __________-avidin noncovalent binding interaction is used to capture ligand-binding entities in the "affinity capture" technique.

biotin

The coenzyme __________ is required to incorporate the methyl group into thymidine, a necessary prequisite for the production of DNA.

N5,N10 methylenetetrahydrofolate

Our understanding of this function can be used in a strategy for (treatment technique)

anticancer chemotherapy

The coenzyme bound carbohydrates __________ and glucose are are required to synthesize lactose.

UDP-galactose

Cis-retinal functions in __________ the signal of a photon of light into a chemically recognizable form.

transducing

The two important straight-chain forms of carbohydrate structure are the __________ and __________.

ketose


aldose

The two important ring forms of carbohydrates are the __________ and __________.

pyranose


furanose

The two important ring conformations of B-D-glucopyranose are the __________ and __________.

chair


boat

The cyclohexane ring containing the compound __________ is released by phospholipase C in the phospholipid signal transduction mechanism.

inositol triphosphate

The acronym NAG is used to abbreviate the name of the compound __________.

N-acetyl glucosamine

The key polysaccharide in starch is __________.

amylopectin

The key polysaccharide in the liver is __________.

glycogen

The antibiotic __________ selectively inhibits cell wall peptidylglycan synthesis in bacteria.

penicillin

Extra-cellular surface __________ regulate the osmotic pressure around cells.

carbohydrates

Phospholipase C produces two different second messengers in the the phospholipid signal transduction pathway. The lipid-containing second messenger is __________.

diacylglycerol

The compound chondroitin sulfate __________ cartilage and skeletal joints.

lubricates

Saturated/unsaturated (circle one) fatty acids of the same length have a lower melting temperature (Tm).

unsaturated

Lipid Tm values monitor the transformation from __________ to dispersed forms.

liquid crystal

Lipid __________ are composed of two face-toface monolayers while lipid __________ form a biphasic sphere.

bilayers


micelles

The most popular model for a biological membrane is called the __________ model.

fluid mosaic

The four nucleic acid bases in RNA are __________ , __________, __________, and __________.

adenine


guanine


cytosine


uracil




(For these, I put out the shortest word. For example, adenine is shorter than adenosine. This works for 3 of the 4 because cytosine and cytidine both have 8 letters)

The two normal base pairs in DNA and RNA are called __________ base pairs.

Watson-Crick

The __________ bond in a nucleoside connects the base to the sugar.

glycosidic

The __________ can be used to determine if 2 single strands of DNA or RNA form a double helix.

absorbance at 260 nm

The face-to-face interaction between nucleic acid bases is called __________.

base stacking

Counterions bind all nucleic acids and are required to neutralize the __________.

phosphodiester phosphates

Protein complexes called __________ serve this counterion function in the case of most chromosomal DNAs.

histones

G*C/A*T (or A*U) (circle one) base pairs are less stable than G*C/A*T (or A*U) (circle one) base pairs.

A*T (or A*U) base pairs are less stable than G*C base pairs.

Two differences between A and B forms of DNA are

A-form:


3' endo sugar conformation


base pairs tilted 20 degrees from helix axis


central axial cavity in the helix


shorter, squatter helix




B-form:


2' endo sugar


bp's perpendicular to helix axis


base pairs cross center of helix


longer, narrower helix

The 2'-hydroxyl group catalyzes __________ of RNA, a good example of anchiomeric assistance in a non-protein biomolecular mechanism.

alkaline hydrolysis

An antisense oligonucleotide functionally inactivate a mRNA for use in translation by a ribosome by forming a double helix with it and precluding __________ binding.

tRNA anticodon

Name the two most prevalent of the four classes of RNA.

ribosomal RNA


transfer RNA

Two distinctive features of most eukaryotic mRNA are

m7G+ (5'-5') cap (the 7 and the + should be superscripted)


monocistronic


contains introns and exons


poly(A) tail

A __________ is used to detect the presence of a specific complementary nucleic acid sequence.

DNA probe

__________ are required to produce, manipulate and clone specific pieces of DNA.

Restriction endonucleases

The two functional ends of transfer RNA are the anticodon and __________.

amino acid acceptor

The three most central catabolic pathways of intermediary metabolism are

glycolysis


Krebs cycle


electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation

The four major compounds in which energy is captured in a chemically usable form by metabolic reaction pathways are

ATP


NADH


FADH2


Coenzyme QH2

The __________ (Q) corrects for deviations from standard state concentrations (1 M).

mass action ratio

__________ (number) steps in glycolysis control most of the flux through the pathway under actual cellular conditions.




What do these reactions have in common? They are __________

three


metabolically irreversible

In contrast, the rest of the reactions are __________.

near equilibrium

The kinetics of an enzyme reaction are most easily controlled when KM is the approximately equal to __________.

the actual concentration of the reactant

The enzyme triose phosphate isomerase converts __________ into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.

dihydroxyacetone phosphate

When citrate negatively regulates (discourage) the phosphofructokinase-1 reaction, the general name for this phenomenon is __________.

feedback inhibition

When fructose-1,6-bisphosphate stimulates the pyruvate kinase reaction, the general name for this phenomenon is __________.

feed-forward activation

The three possible catabolic fates of pyruvate are __________, __________, and __________.

acetyl CoA


ethanol


lactate

The enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase converts __________ to ethanol

acetaldehyde

__________ uses the coenzyme lipoic acid in fueling the Krebs Cycle.

Dihydrolipoamide acetyl transferase

What symport reaction accompanies import of pyruvate into the mitochondrion and what enzyme catalyzes the reaction? (enzyme name)

pyruvate translocase

The two oxidative decarboxylatoin reactions of the Krebs Cycle are catalyzed by __________ and __________.

isocitrate dehydrogenase


a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

List the reactions, coenzyme(s), cofactor(s), and enzymes involved in the "substrate-level phosphorylation" reaction of the Krebs Cycle.

Succinyl CoA synthetase

the enzymes __________ and malate dehydrogenase "fix" a carbonyl group on succinate in the production of oxaloacetate.

fumarase

What crucial 2 carbon compound is then "fixed" to OAA?

acetate

What amino acid and what product of pyruvate metabolism are the principle substrates for gluconeogensis in mammals?

alanine


lactate

What energy sources are used to produce the protonmotive force?

NADH


CoQH2


FADH2 (indirectly)

What enzyme complex uses this phenomenon as the driving energy for ATP synthesis in oxidative phosphorylation?

f0f1 ATP synthase

How does electron transport drive production of the protomotive force?

exports H+ from mitochondrion (which creates a gradient, making them predisposed to flowing back in)

How many reactions does each round of B-oxidation of a fatty acid require?

four

What are the products of one round of B-oxidation and what's the tally in terms of ATP equivalents of energy conserving products?

1 CoQH2


1 NADH


1 H+


1 Acetyl CoA


1 Fatty acid (which lost 2 carbons)

A set of coupled cofactor regeneration cycles siphon off reducing equivalents then fix them into coenzyme Q in reactions that are coupled to the first oxidative step of fatty acid B-oxidation. Write down the names of the four cofactors involved in this siphon.

CoA


FAD/FADH2


Fe-S2+/3+ (2+/3+ is superscripted)


CoQ/CoQH2

Which three steps of the Krebs Cycle do the first three steps of the fatty acid B-oxidation cycle resemble?

succinate dehydrogenase


fumarase


malate dehydrogenase

The __________ enlarges at an increasing propensity when it is subjected to an active site which then induces a conformational change of the active site and in the process, releases E7,A4-diethyl-3-methylacetate (NDMA) into the inner membrane space. NDMA becomes protonated through a series of redox reactions releasing a byproduct that activates 3,5-diacetylfructokinase-2 further fueling the production of pyruvate in glycolysis.

big black cock