D2 Fall Test6

Front 1

Name 2 conditions that can cause supernumerary teeth.

Back 1

Gardner's syndrome and cleidocranial dysplasia

Front 2

Name a condition that can cause a fewer number of teeth. When there a too few teeth, which teeth are most commonly affected?

Back 2

ectodermal dysplasia; third molars then second premolars then upper lateral incisors then lower central incisors

Front 3

Name a condition that can cause microdontia. Which teeth are most commonly affected by microdontia?

Back 3

pituitary dwarfism; supernumerary teeth then third molars then upper lateral incisors

Front 4

Name 3 conditions that can cause macrodontia. What two other conditions may be confused with macrodontia?

Back 4

pituitary gigantism, hemifacial hypertrophy, and hemangioma; fusion and gemination

Front 5

What are the 3 most common cases of transposition in order of most common to least?

Back 5

canine and 1st premolar; canine and lateral incisor; central and lateral incisor

Front 6

Where is tooth fusion most common and will it cause fewer or more teeth? Where is gemination most common and will it cause fewer or more teeth?

Back 6

deciduous teeth and its will reduce the # of teeth; primary incisors and normal tooth count

Front 7

Where are taurodontia most commonly seen?

Back 7

Down's syndrome patients

Front 8

What is the major risk for dens in dente and which teeth are most affected?

Back 8

pulp disease; lateral/central incisors then premolars then canines

Front 9

Turner's tooth could be confused with __.

Back 9

fever lines

Front 10

Laminated enamel that is resistant to caries is common with __.

Back 10

amelogenesis imperfecta

Front 11

What is the inheritance trait of supernumerary teeth?

Back 11

autosomal recessive

Front 12

What is the inheritance trait of DI? What color are the teeth usually?

Back 12

autosomal dominant; yellow or blue-gray

Front 13

Type I dentin dysplasia is __ while Type II is __. It is characterized by a __ or __ shaped pulp chamber.

Back 13

radicular; coronal; thistle tube; flame

Front 14

What is the inheritance trait of odontogenesis imperfecta?

Back 14

it is not hereditary

Front 15

Missing clavicles and a hypoplastic maxilla is seen with what condition?

Back 15

Cleido-cranial dysplasia

Front 16

Hypoplastic zygomatic bones and a steep mandibular angle is seen with __ sundrome,

Back 16

Treacher-collins

Front 17

What is Stafne's defect and where does it usually occur?

Back 17

an aberrant salivary gland lobe; below the infra-alveolar canal

Front 18

The localized form of early-onset periodontitis usually affects which teeth?

Back 18

incisors and 1st molars

Front 19

Name 3 systemic conditions that can cause periodontitis in adults? Children?

Back 19

diabetes mellitus, renal esteodystrophy/hyperparathyroidism, and progressive system sclerosis; Langerhan's cell histiocytosis, cyclic neutropenia, and Papillon-Lefevre syndrome

Front 20

Name 3 forms of Langerhan's cell histiocytosis?

Back 20

Eosinophilic granuloma, Hand-Schuller-Christian syndrome, and Letterer-Siwe disease

Front 21

What is the cause of osteomyelitis and what is the most common finding?

Back 21

bacterial infection and sequestrum

Front 22

Porphymonas gingivalis is associated with what forms of periodontitis?

Back 22

chronic and aggressive

Front 23

Pg has two __-specific and one __-specific gingipain. Which cleaves erythrocytes providing heme?

Back 23

arginine; lysine; arginine

Front 24

Gingipains cleave which 4 complement components and also monocyte __?

Back 24

C3 and C5a and IgG and IgA; CD14

Front 25

Pg __ and __ promote adherence to host cells. Pg persists in plaque biofilm on tooth surfaces by attaching to __ via the __.

Back 25

fimbriae and Arg-gingipain; Strep. Gordonii; major fimbrial subunit protein (FimA)

Front 26

The variability of Lipid A with Pg stops the ability of the host to express __ (which is important in the chemotaxis of neutrophils to the site of an infection).

Back 26

E-selectin

Front 27

Endodontic files are made of metal alloys such as __ (_,_,_) or __.

Back 27

stainless steel (C,Fe,Ni) or NiTi

Front 28

What 2 tests were developed to overcome the problem of testing strength of an endo file since it is often difficult to clamp in a machine?

Back 28

transverse flexural strength and diametral tensile strength tests

Front 29

The stress in abending beam is given by the formula __. The deflection of the beam is given by __.

Back 29

S=(3 x load x length)/(2 x width x thickness^2) D=(load x length^3)/(4 x elastic modulus x width x thickness^3)

Front 30

What two factors does the flexibility of a material depend on?

Back 30

elastic modulus and geometry of the specimen

Front 31

Give an example of a substitutional solid? Interstitial? Intermetallic?

Back 31

AuCu; FeC; NiTi

Front 32

Stainless steel is a carbon steel with _ or _ added. It is highly corrosion resistant to to __. Strengthening of the steel is due to __ while __ will weaken the alloy.

Back 32

Ni or Cr; passivation; cold working; heating steel

Front 33

What are the stabilizers in stabilized Beta-Titanium?

Back 33

Mo, Zr, and Sn

Front 34

What factors cause the transition from Austenitic to Martensic phase of titanium? From MP to AP? Which has a high E?

Back 34

stress; heat; Austenitic has a High E

Front 35

What are the materials and their percentages of a titanium alloy implant?

Back 35

90% titanium, 6% Aluminum and 4% Vanadium

Front 36

How much torque is required for implant placement?

Back 36

50 Ncm

Front 37

A Level 1 periodontal patient is one with which systemic conditions? Also which treatments put the patient at risk from perio infection?

Back 37

diabetes, pregnancy, cardiovascular, and chronic respiratory disease; cancer management, cardiovascular surgery, joint replacement therapy and organ transplantation

Front 38

What is the tobacco counseling code in the clinic?

Back 38

D1320

Front 39

Where are deeper probing depths seen in smokers vs. non-smokers?

Back 39

maxillary lingual and mandibular anterior

Front 40

Do smokers see more supra or subgingival calculus? What is the consistency of their gingiva and which cytokine is seen? Do smokers have greater or less iflammation?

Back 40

supragingival calculus; fibrotic gingiva with elevated levels of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta); less inflammation b/c nicotine is a vasoconstrictor

Front 41

What microbial agent has the greatest odds ratio for getting periodontitis?

Back 41

T. forsythia

Front 42

Who did the twins studies showing the relevance of genetics in susceptibility to getting perio disease?

Back 42

Michalowicz et al.

Front 43

For genetic influences on perio disease, what altered antibody is associated? Cytokines? Prostanoids?

Back 43

Altered IgG2; IL-1 and TNF-alpha; PGE2

Front 44

State Offenbacher's hypersecretory model.

Back 44

Diabetic patients with the Monocyte positive tendency secrete more inflammatory mediators leading to high levels of PGE2 and TNF-alpha

Front 45

Which study performed the genetic screening for periodontitis? Which genes were significant? What were the results?

Back 45

Kornman et al.; Allele 2 in both the IL-1 alpha and IL-1 beta genes; odds ratio of 18.9 for 40-60 years olds with the exclusion of smoking

Front 46

According to Grossi et al. with the study of diabetes in the Pima Indians, which antibiotic was best? Also perio treatment for diabetics can also improve __. When is the best time to schedule diabetic patients?

Back 46

doxycycline; glycosylated hemoglobin levels; short AM appointments

Front 47

Elevated levels of __ and __ can lead to PTLBW in perio mothers.

Back 47

PGE2 and Pg IgG

Front 48

Ingestion of __ by macrophages leads to foam cell formation and consequently atheromatous plaque.

Back 48

oxidized LDL

Front 49

Name 3 systemic markers of inflammation.

Back 49

C-reactive protein, hyperlipidemia, and acute phase reactants

Front 50

Which drugs is specifically good at closing the ductus arteriosus?

Back 50

indomethacin

Front 51

All NSAIDs except __ cause GI side effects. Co-administration with the PGE2 analog __ may help prevent gastric ulceration.

Back 51

acetominaphen; misoprostol

Front 52

What is the only NSAID to irreversibly inhibit COX activity and what is the mechanism?

Back 52

acteylsalicylate (aspirin) by acetylating COXs

Front 53

Aspirin may result in __ in children with the chicken pox virus or influenza virus.

Back 53

Reyes syndrome

Front 54

Acetaminophen is useful for __ and __ effects but not __ so not useful in treating __.

Back 54

antipyretic and analgesic; antiinflammatory; rheumatoid arthritis

Front 55

Excess acetaminophen is a leading cause of __ but has no effects on __ or __.

Back 55

hepatotoxicity; GI irritation or prolonged bleeding

Front 56

Acetaminophen in the lover in usually converted to acetaminophen-__ or __. The intermediate N-acteyl-parabenzoquinomine is also formed which is conjugated to __. High levels of acetaminophen reduce the levels of __ leading to toxicity.

Back 56

glucuronide or sulfate; glutathione (GSH); glutathione

Front 57

If serum level of acetaminophen are >150g/ml adter 4 hrs or >75 after 8 then __ can be given to replenish hepatic glutathione.

Back 57

sulfhydryl compounds

Front 58

Indomethacin is useful in treating __ and __.

Back 58

arthritis and gout

Front 59

What is the only NSAID approved for injection?

Back 59

Ketorolac

Front 60

What drug would be recommended for short term use for severe pain such as with postoperative pain and inflammation following surgery?

Back 60

Ketorolac

Front 61

Arthrotec is a combination of __ and __ and provides __ b/c __ is a PGE1 analog.

Back 61

diclofenac and misoprotol; gastric protection; misoprotol

Front 62

What is the half life of ibuprofen? Naproxen? Oxaprozin?

Back 62

2 hrs; 14 hrs; 40 hrs

Front 63

Piroxicam is equivalent of __, __, or __. Its principal advantage is its __.

Back 63

advil, indomethcacin, and naproxen; long half life of about 50 hrs

Front 64

What drug can be used to reduce the renal excretion of lithium?

Back 64

Piroxicam

Front 65

What drugs are selective COX2 inhibitors? Which only affects COX2?

Back 65

Meloxicam and Celecoxib; Celecoxib

Front 66

What is the most common problem seen with Celecoxib (celebrex)?

Back 66

CV problems

Front 67

What drug elevates hepatic aminotransferase in blood?

Back 67

Diclofenac

Front 68

How can selective COX2 inhibitors be more beneficial than nonselective COX inhibitors?

Back 68

there is less GI ulceration and less inhibition of platelet function

Front 69

Name 4 uses of methotrexate. What drugs can be used with methotrexate and what is the advantage?

Back 69

rheumatoid arthritis, leukemias, psoriasis, and as an immunosuppressive agent; glucocorticoids b/c methotrexate takes 4-6 weeks to kick in and glucocorticoids can provide short term antiinflammatory releif until metho starts to work

Front 70

What supplements are recommended with methotrexate?

Back 70

folic acid supplements

Front 71

What 2 DMARDs can cause liver toxicity?

Back 71

methotrexate and leflunomide

Front 72

Since leflunamide is is teratogenic, women who wish to become pregnant should take __to bind and eliminate leflunomide.

Back 72

cholestyramine

Front 73

Name the antimalarial agent and 2 of its side effects.

Back 73

hydrochloroquinone; hemolysis in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency and retinal/vision damage

Front 74

A patient with Crohn's disease or mild ulcerative colitis should be given __.

Back 74

sulfasalazine

Front 75

What is the key difference between Infliximab and Adalimumab?

Back 75

infliximab uses a mouse antibody while adalimumab uses a human antibody

Front 76

Which TNF inhibitors can be used for ulcerative colitis? Crohn's disease?

Back 76

infliximab and adalimumab; infilixmab

Front 77

Anakinra should not be used with __. What is its most common side effect?

Back 77

TNF inhbitors; injection site effects

Front 78

What is the target of anakinra? Abatacept? Rituximab?

Back 78

IL-1 receptor anatagonist; T cells; B cells

Front 79

What drug comes in the eye drop form to treat eye inflammation?

Back 79

ketorolac

Front 80

Name 3 old and 3 new AEDs that work at Na+ channels.

Back 80

old=phentytoin, carbamazepine, and valproic acid; new=lamitrogen, topiramate, and zonisamide

Front 81

Name the 2 old and 1 new AEDs that work at Ca2+ channels.

Back 81

old=ethosuximide and valproic acid; new=zonisamide

Front 82

What drug works to enhance GABA function while also working at sodium and calcium channels?

Back 82

valproic acid

Front 83

Name the 3 old GABA enhancing drugs and the 2 new ones. How do they affect GABA?

Back 83

old=valproic acid, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines; new=tiagabine and vigabatrin; valproic acid and vigabatrin work to inhibit GABA metabolism; tiagabine inhbits reuptake of GABA; barbiturates and benzodiazepines enhance GABA function

Front 84

Name the 2 glutamate receptor antagonists and the receptor they work on. Which drug inhibits glutamate release?

Back 84

topiramate (AMPA receptor) and Felbamate (NMDA receptor); lamotrigen

Front 85

What drug can be used as a CYP3A4 inhibitor and which drugs will it increase the concentration of?

Back 85

erythromycin; carbamazepine and ethosuximide

Front 86

What is the therapeutic use of lamotrigen? What syndrome can develop from its use?

Back 86

the add on therapy for partial or generalized tonic-clonic seizures; Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Front 87

What 2 drugs can cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

Back 87

lamotrigen and ethosuximide

Front 88

What 2 drugs can cause aplastic anemia?

Back 88

carbamazepine and ethosuximide

Front 89

What drugs are metabolized by CYP3A4? UGT?

Back 89

carbamazepine and ethosuximide; lamotrigine and valproic acid

Front 90

Which drug is a teratogen that can cause spina bifida?

Back 90

valproic acid

Front 91

Which drug can displace those extensively bound that plasma proteins such as phenytoin?

Back 91

valproic acid

Front 92

What drug can cause nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) and glaucoma?

Back 92

topirimate

Front 93

Which drug can exacerbate absence and myoclonic seizures?

Back 93

carbamazepine

Front 94

Xerostomia is a common side effect of which AED?

Back 94

carbamazepine

Front 95

What is often coadministered with L-Dopa?

Back 95

carbidopa and COMT inhibitors such as entacapone or tolcapone

Front 96

What non-motor side effects can develop from prolonged use of L-Dopa?

Back 96

hallucinations and confusion, orthostatic hypotension, and hypertensive crisis if used with non-specific MAO inhibitors (MAOB-I is ok)

Front 97

What are the D2 like receptor agonists and what advantages do they have? Name the 2 side effects.

Back 97

ropinirole and pramipexole; they have a longer duration of action, effective for patients who have developed on/off symptoms of L-Dopa, and less likely to produce on/off and dyskinesia; orthostatic hypotension and sleep disorders

Front 98

What MAO-I drug is used for PD and what does it do?

Back 98

selegiline which is a selective MAOB-I that prevents DA oxidation to DOPAC

Front 99

Name the 4 muscarinic cholinergic antagonists.

Back 99

benzotropine, biperidine, procyclidine, and tryhexyphenidyl

Front 100

Name the PD antiviral agents and 3 things it does?

Back 100

amantadine; blocks DA reuptake and stimulates release, anticholinergic, and glutamate NMDA antagonist (<- femadate, the AED drug, is one too)

Front 101

What is the most common type of acidophil adenoma?

Back 101

prolactin producing

Front 102

The ACTH producing basophil adenoma can cause __.

Back 102

Cushing's disease

Front 103

Craniopharyngiomas can resemble what?

Back 103

ameloblastomas of the jaw

Front 104

Gigantism may be associated with __ syndrome and the radiographic feature is __.

Back 104

McCune-Albright syndrome; enlarged sella turcica

Front 105

__ syndrome can cause hypopituitarism. Hypofunction of the posterior pituitary can cause __.

Back 105

Sheehan's syndrome; diabetes insipidus

Front 106

The thyroid gland requires _ and _ for normal function.

Back 106

I2 and TSH

Front 107

What is exopthalmic goiter or Grave's disease secondary to?

Back 107

autoantibody IgG that binds to and stimulates TSH receptors

Front 108

What are the lab findings for hyperthyroidism? Hypothyroidism?

Back 108

elevated levels of free (T4) and decreased levels of TSH; decreased levels of free (T4) levels and elevated levels of TSH

Front 109

What are the 2 forms of hypothyroidism?

Back 109

cretinism (congenital) and myxedema

Front 110

What is Hashimoto's disease?

Back 110

lymphocytic thyroiditis where lymphocytic infiltrate replaces the normal thyroid cells

Front 111

What is the most common thyroid adenoma? Carcinoma?

Back 111

follicular; papillary (good prognosis)

Front 112

What is secondary hyperparathyroidism due to?

Back 112

chronic renal failure or failure of kidney to activate Vit D

Front 113

What are the clinical features of hyperparathyroidism?

Back 113

brown tumor, osteitis fibrosa cystica, and renal osteodystrophy (stones, bones and abdominal groans)

Front 114

Chvostek's sign is seen with __.

Back 114

hypocalcemia associated with hypoparathyroidism

Front 115

__ from the adrenal cortex are under the control of ACTH while __ are independent.

Back 115

glucocorticoids; mineralocorticoids

Front 116

What is the chronic form of hypoadrenocorticism?

Back 116

Addison's disease

Front 117

Hyperpigmentation is a common clinical feature of __.

Back 117

Addison's disease

Front 118

For which condition should the dentist consult with the physician prior to the dental treatment?

Back 118

hypercorticolism

Front 119

What are the 2 most common clinical features of primary aldosteronism?

Back 119

hypokalemia and hypertension

Front 120

Monitoring the effects of dexamethosone can be used to diagnose __.

Back 120

Cushing's disease

Front 121

Nasopharyngeal fibroma almost exclusively affects __ and what is the clinical feature?

Back 121

male adolescents; anterior bowing of posterior wall of maxillary sinus

Front 122

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is more common in parts of what continent? It is associated with __, __ diets, and diets high in __. What is typically the first sign for detection?

Back 122

Asia; Eppstein-Barr virus, low Vit C diets, and diets high in salted fish; enlarged cervical lymph nodes

Front 123

What is the most common preventable cause of hospital death?

Back 123

pulmonary embolism

Front 124

Saddle embolims affects which vessel and is associated with __ embolism?

Back 124

pulmonary artery; pulmonary embolism

Front 125

Pulmonary vascular sclerosis is due to __ and death is secondary to __.

Back 125

pulmonary hypertension; right sided heart failure

Front 126

Name the primary congenital form of atelectasis and what is it due to?

Back 126

respiratory distress syndrome or hyaline membrane syndrome; it is due to a deficiency of pulmonary surfactant

Front 127

Panacinar emphysema is due to a deficiency of __.

Back 127

alpha-1-antitrypsin

Front 128

Pink puffers is ___ while blue boaters refers to __.

Back 128

chronic emphysema; chronic bronchitis

Front 129

What 2 bacteria commonly cause bronchiestasis?

Back 129

Staph. aureus and Klebsiella

Front 130

What pulmonary condition is usully associated with superimposed, necrotizing infection?

Back 130

bronchiestasis

Front 131

Strep. pneumonia usually causes which type of pneumonia?

Back 131

lobar pneumonia

Front 132

Name the 2 most prominent clinical features of TB?

Back 132

Ghon complex and consumption (weight loss)

Front 133

Whats the #1 fatal cancer in the US and which is the most common form?

Back 133

bronchiogenic carcinoma; adenocarcinoma

Front 134

Papilloma usually affects the __. Papillomas of the larynx are caused by __.

Back 134

nasal septum; HPV

Front 135

Staticus asthmaticus is usually seen with intrinsic or extrinsic asthma?

Back 135

extrinsic

Front 136

Acute nephrotic syndrome is due to __ which leads to a loss of __.

Back 136

derangement of glomerular capillary walls; albumin

Front 137

Name 3 nephritic syndrome manifestations and 4 nephrotic.

Back 137

hypertension, hematuria, and impaired renal function; hypoalbuminuria, lipiduria, hyperlipidemia, and proteinuria

Front 138

Uremic frost is a sign of __.

Back 138

chronic renal failure

Front 139

Acute GN involves how many glomeruli? It follows infection from __. It is a __ hypersensitivity rxn. Symptoms include __ and usually affects which people?

Back 139

all of the glomeruli are affected; beta-hemolytic strep. infection; Type III hypersenstitivty; nephritic syndrome; pre-school kids

Front 140

Subacute progressive GN causes __.

Back 140

Goodpasture's syndrome

Front 141

What is the prognosis of Subacute GN?

Back 141

death from renal failure in 3-12 months

Front 142

What is the most common cause of Chronic GN?

Back 142

idiopathic

Front 143

What is the main cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and what is the symptom seen under EM? What is the prescription and prognosis?

Back 143

minimal change syndrome; flattening and fusion of the foot processes of epithelial cells; steroids leading to complete remission in most

Front 144

What is the most common type of GN in teens?

Back 144

membranoproliferative GN

Front 145

What type of GN is resistant to steroids?

Back 145

membranoproliferative GN

Front 146

A finely granular kidney surface is due to __.

Back 146

renal hypertension

Front 147

Name 3 symptoms of malignant hypertension.

Back 147

papilledema, encephalopathy, and rapid renal failure

Front 148

Onion skinning and flea bitten kidneys are seen with __.

Back 148

malignant hypertension

Front 149

__ (__) is seen with diabetic renal disease showing __.

Back 149

diabetic glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease); large deposits of hyaline material deposited in glomeruli

Front 150

What is the autoimmune disease of random medium and small arteries? Prognosis and Treatment?

Back 150

polyarteritis nodosa; poor prognosis but controlled by steroids

Front 151

What are the 2 types of acute tubular necrosis? What are the 2 phases?

Back 151

anoxic/ischemic and toxic; Phase1 is oliguria and Phase2 is diuretic

Front 152

Shock kidney is seen with __.

Back 152

anoxic/ischemic acute tubular necrosis

Front 153

Pyleonephritis is a bacterial infection of both renal __ and __. What is the most common bacterium found? Name 2 common predisposing factors.

Back 153

parenchyma and pelvis; E. Coli; honeymoon cystitis and vesicouretal refulx (stagnation)

Front 154

Acute pyelopnephritis can lead to __; chronic can lead to __. Chronic cause is usually __.

Back 154

abscesses; broad-based irregular scarring; ideopathic

Front 155

Hydronephrosis is usually due to __ such as __ or __.

Back 155

obstruction; enlarged prostate or kidney stones

Front 156

Renal failure from polycystic kidneys results from __. It is asymptomatic until __. It is due to __ gene on chromosome __. The adult form is __ while the child form is __.

Back 156

pressure atrophy;4th-5th decade; PDK1; 16; autosomal dominant; autosomal recessive

Front 157

Pyonephrosis can be secondary to __.

Back 157

hydronephrosis

Front 158

What are tumors of the renal pelvis called?

Back 158

transitional cell carcinoma

Front 159

What is the most common renal tumor in adults?

Back 159

clear cell carcinoma

Front 160

What is the tumor of embryonic renal cells called? What is the therapy?

Back 160

Wilms tumor; combination therapy

Front 161

Transitional cell carcinoma often affects the __. Its cause is usually __ but can be caused by __ or infection by __.

Back 161

urinary bladder; idiopathic; smoking; Schistosoma haematbium