D2 Fall Test 3

Front 1

The cytokine __ initiates transformation into a Treg cell? __ and __ for TH1 and __ for TH2

Back 1

TGF-beta; IL-12 and IFN-gamma; IL-4

Front 2

__ mediate the initial interaction between cells and APCs.

Back 2

cell adhesion molecules

Front 3

Antigen specific T cells that recognize peptide MHC class II on the B cells supply the 2nd signal for B cell activation in the form of __ that binds to __ on B cells.

Back 3

CD40L; CD40

Front 4

The second signal in T cell activation (interaction of CD28 bith B7) leads to an increase in __ expression.

Back 4

IL-2

Front 5

Signalling through Fas activates a series of proteases known as __ that release __.

Back 5

caspases; caspase-activated DNAase (CAD)

Front 6

The cytokine __ is the main activator of macrophages along with CD40L.

Back 6

IFN-gamma

Front 7

When Th2 cells stimulate B cell activation, which isoptypes of antibodies are produced?

Back 7

IgG, A, and E

Front 8

NK cells are stimulated by cytokines produced by __ and in turn respond by enhancing macrophage activation. __ and __ syergize to elicit production of __ by NK cells. Activated NK cells produce __ and __ that stimulate production of macrophages and activate them.

Back 8

macrophages; TNF-alpha and IL-12; IFN-gamma; IL-1 and GM-CSF

Front 9

Virally infected cells produce the cytokines __ and __ that induce the killing activity of NK cells.

Back 9

IFN alpha and beta

Front 10

The 1st step in the development of the adaptive immune response is the activation of antigen-specific __ in 2ndary lympoid tissues.

Back 10

T cells

Front 11

Plasma cells leave the lymphoid tissue and migrate to the __.

Back 11

bone marrow

Front 12

Superantigens stabilize binding between __ and TCR __ domain; regardless of peptide recognition. Result is production of __ throughout the body.

Back 12

MHC II; Vbeta; cytokines

Front 13

What are the 2 surface protein antigens of influenze?

Back 13

hemaglutinin and neuraminadase

Front 14

__ cause sleeping sickness.

Back 14

Trypanosomes

Front 15

__ is taken up by macrophages but prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion. __ is a bacterium that can escape from the phagosome and replicate freely in the cytoplasm of the macrophage.

Back 15

M. TB; Listeria monocytogenes

Front 16

The envelope protein complex of HIV (gp120:gp41) binds to CD4 molecules and the __ receptor.

Back 16

CCR5 chemokine

Front 17

Brutons X-linked agammaglobulinemia is due to defective gene codes for __ that is expressed by B cells resulting in failure of __ production.

Back 17

tyrosine kinase; light chain

Front 18

X-linked hyper IgM syndrome is due to defective __ on T cells.

Back 18

CD40L

Front 19

Chronic Granulomatous Disease is caused by the inability of phagocytes to produce __ and thus be unable to kill bacteria.

Back 19

superoxide radicals

Front 20

Bare lymphocyte syndrome is caused by the lack of __ molecules resulting in the inability of CD4 T cells to be positively selected in the thymes.

Back 20

MHC class II

Front 21

Conjugate vaccines have the advantage that they elicit __.

Back 21

B and T cell memory

Front 22

An antigen that selectively stimulates TH2 cells to drive an IgE response is an __.

Back 22

allergen

Front 23

The combination of which two signals by Th2 cells induces class switching to IgE?

Back 23

Il-4 and CD40L

Front 24

The most common cause of anaphylaxis is IgE mediated allergy to __.

Back 24

penicllin

Front 25

Name 3 drugs that can cause a Type 2 hypersensitivity rxn. They do so by binding to RBCs and creating new __ which the immune system is not tolerant.

Back 25

penicillin, quinidine, and methyldopa; epitopes

Front 26

The Arthus (Type 3) rxn is due to __ of an antigen.

Back 26

subcutaneous injection

Front 27

Acute rheumatic fever is due to similarities of __ by the __ bacteria and the proteins of healthy heart valves.

Back 27

M protein; streptococci

Front 28

The autoimmune response of Graves disease is biased towards a __ response.

Back 28

Th2

Front 29

In IDDM _ cells attack the beta cells of the pancreas.

Back 29

CTL

Front 30

__ is one of the primary mediators of the inflammatory response of rheumatoid arthritis.

Back 30

TNF-alpha

Front 31

Activated __ cells appear to be responsible for the demyelination seen in MS by producing __ that activates macrophages.

Back 31

Th1 CD4; IFN-gamma

Front 32

Some tumors produces cytokines such as __ that create an immunosuppressive environment around itself.

Back 32

TGF-beta

Front 33

Acute rejection is mediated by which cells?

Back 33

CTLs

Front 34

Name 3 immunosuppressive drugs.

Back 34

corticosterioids, cyclosporin A, and rapamycin

Front 35

The __ test is used to distinguish staphylococci from streptococci.

Back 35

catalase

Front 36

__ is a major cause of nosocomial infection of surgical wounds and infection associated with indwelling medical devices.

Back 36

S. aureus

Front 37

__ is a traditional marker for identifying S. aureus in the clinical microbiological lab.

Back 37

coagulase

Front 38

__ is a surface protein of S. aureus which binds _ molecules by their Fc regions inhibiting opsonization andphagocytosis.

Back 38

Protein A; IgG

Front 39

A characteristic of many pathogenic strains of S. epidermis is __ formation.

Back 39

biofilm

Front 40

__ is currently the leading cause of invasive bacterial disease in children, the elderly and the immunocompromised.

Back 40

S. pneumoniae

Front 41

__ are important in S. pneumonia to cross the BBB during development of meningitis.

Back 41

Choline binding proteins

Front 42

In newborns, __ is the most common cause of sepsis and meningitis.

Back 42

Group B streptococci (pyogenes)

Front 43

Unlike other streptococci, S. pneumonia do not display an __.

Back 43

M protein

Front 44

Two host derived elements that recognize choline are __ and __.

Back 44

PAF and C reactive protein

Front 45

Pili increase the formation of large amount of __.

Back 45

TNF

Front 46

__ is the leading cause of uncomplicated pharyngitis and tonsilitis referred to as strep throat.

Back 46

strep. pyogenes

Front 47

__ has many different sequences and is the major cause of antigenic drift and shift in Group A streptococci.

Back 47

M protein

Front 48

The Dent-X automated film processor can process what size films? The Peri-Pro processor?

Back 48

0,1,2,3,4, and panoramic; 0,1, and 2

Front 49

What color safe light is unsafe for panoramics?

Back 49

orange

Front 50

What is the time-temp requirement for developing film?

Back 50

5 min at 68-70 degrees

Front 51

What are the developer chemicals and which one is fast/slow? What is the preservative chemical? Activator? Inhibitor?

Back 51

hydroquinone (slow) and elon phenidone (fast); sodium sulfite; sodium carbonate; potassium bromide

Front 52

For the fixation process, what is the fixing agent? Preservative? Hardening agent? Acidifier?

Back 52

Sodium/ammonium thiosulfate; sodium sulfite; potassium alum; acetic acid

Front 53

THe amount fo metallic silver remaining on the film is inversely proportional to the __ of the object.

Back 53

radiodensity

Front 54

Static electricity artifacts frequently occur in what season? Occurs when humidity is high or low? Usually on __ films.

Back 54

winter; low; extraoral

Front 55

When the film is placed in colder wash water or fixer, ocassionally __ may appear in emulsion referred to as __.

Back 55

cracks; reticulation

Front 56

The higher the concentration of trapped electrons the __ the density on the radiograph.

Back 56

higher

Front 57

In the H and D curve, above _ is too dark and below _ is too light.

Back 57

2.5; 0.5

Front 58

How are object density and radiographic density related?

Back 58

inversely

Front 59

mA affects the __. Increasing mA or exposure time, __ the density of the radiograph.

Back 59

# of available photons; increase

Front 60

mA controls image __ while kVp controls __.

Back 60

density; contrast

Front 61

As kVp increases, the penetrating power of the beam __ and allows for more radioation to strike the image receptor. Increase in penetrating power is due to more availability of __ wavelength photons (higher energy photons).

Back 61

increases; short

Front 62

Is high contrast synonymous to long or short scale contrast?

Back 62

short

Front 63

Which cytokines mediate inflammation, fever, pain? Protect against viruses? Stimulate proliferation and differentiation? Stimulate lymphocytic response? Activate infalmmatory cells?

Back 63

IL-1 and TNF; IFN; IL-2 and 4; TGF-alpha; IFN-gamma and TNF-beta

Front 64

What is the treatment for X-linked agammaglobulinemia?

Back 64

replacemtn therapy with human Ig

Front 65

What is the half like of HIV? The process of __ for HIV kills the host cell.

Back 65

2 days; replication

Front 66

What is the pulmonary clinical feature associated with AIDs?

Back 66

pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

Front 67

What are the 2ndary/late phase mediators to a Type 1 hypersensitivity rxn?

Back 67

leukotrienes and prostaglandins

Front 68

What is the most common cardiac manifestation of lupus?

Back 68

Libman-sacks endocarditis

Front 69

What are common antibodies in SLE? Specifically, __ are common.

Back 69

anti-nuclear antibodies; anti-double stranded DNA

Front 70

What is the clinical feature of xerostomia and xeropthalmia associated with Sjogrens called?

Back 70

Sicca syndrome

Front 71

A lab finding of AntiSSA (anti-ro) and AntiSSB (anti-la) are associated with which disease?

Back 71

Sjogrens

Front 72

What type of antibodies are found in diagnosing Systemic sclerosis?

Back 72

Anti-Scl 70 (topoisomerase I)

Front 73

Nikolskys sign is associated with which disorder?

Back 73

Pemphigus

Front 74

__ are used to treat Pemphigus, specifically __.

Back 74

systemic corticosteroid; azathioprene

Front 75

In Pemphigus antibodies are directed against components of the epithelial _ complex.

Back 75

desmosome

Front 76

In Cicatricial Pemphigoid, antibodies are directed against the __.

Back 76

basement membrane

Front 77

Are visible oral blisters common to pemphigus or cicatrical pemphigoid?

Back 77

cicatricial pemphigoid

Front 78

Scarring of the conjuctival mucosa and symblepharon are assoicated with which disease?

Back 78

cicatricial pemhigoid

Front 79

Chronic transplant rejection is secondary to what?

Back 79

late arterial fibrosis

Front 80

PUVA is used for treatment with which disorder?

Back 80

GVHD

Front 81

What is the treatment for familial amyloidosis?

Back 81

systemic colcichine

Front 82

Serum sickness and glomerulonephritis are what type of hypersensitivity rxn?

Back 82

Type 3

Front 83

Which cell layer is degenerated in skin LE?

Back 83

basal cell layer

Front 84

What are the 2 most common findings of rheumatoid arthritis?

Back 84

RF and ANA

Front 85

What is the most common associated autoimmune disease in 2ndary Sjogrens?

Back 85

rheumatoid arthritis

Front 86

What are the 4 related diseases of pemphigus?

Back 86

P. vulgaris, vegetans, erythematosus, and foliaceus

Front 87

Histologically, GVHD resembles __ b/c both exhibit __.

Back 87

lichen planus; hyperkeratosis

Front 88

Primary type amyloid and myelome type are derived from __ while the secondary type is from __ produced in response to inflammation.

Back 88

Ig light chains; serum proteins

Front 89

Coup de sabre is associated with __.

Back 89

localized scleroderma