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556 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
In a gastrointestinal closure, the mucosa of the intestinal tract is closed with
chromic 4-0 or 3-0
Which type of suture would be used to invert the stump of the appendix
purse-string
Why are bumpers or bolsters used on retention sutures?
to prevent the suture from cutting into the skin surgace
A Nissen Fundoplication procedure is done to correct
antireflux disease

- The three most frequently performed procedures are Nissen, Hill, and Belsy Mark IV
A dissecting sponge that is a small roll of heavy cotton tape is a
Kitner
Peanuts and dissecting sponges are generally
moistened with saline
Intraabdominally, lap pads are most often used
moistened with saline
A catheter commonly used in a gastrostomy is a
mushroom
Before handing a Penrose drain to the surgeon
moisten it in saline
A closed-wound suction system works by
negative-pressure vacuum
Which condition regarding sterile technique is NOT recommended?
a. sterile tables are set up just before the operation
b. sterile tables may be set up and safely covered until time of surgery
c. once sterile packs are open, someone must remain in the room to maintain vigilance
d. sterile persons pass each other back to back
b. is NOT recommended
Which of the following conditions is not an acceptable aseptic technique?
a. scrub nurse standing on a platform or standing stool
b. scrub nurse keps hands below shoulder level
c. scrub nurse fold arms with hands at axillae
d. scrub nurse's hands are at or above waist level
c. is not acceptable aseptic technique
The disposable circular staple designed to hold two tubular structures together after resection is known as
EEA
When a sterile item is hanging or extending over the sterile table edge, the scrub nurse
does not touch the part hanging below table level
In which situation should sterility be questioned?
a. if a sterilized pack is found in an unsterile workroom
b. if the surgeon turns away from the sterile field for a brown wipe
c. if the scrub drapes a nonsterile table, covering the edge nearest the body first
d. if the lip of a pour bottle is held over the basin as close to the edge as possible
a. sterility should be questioned
Transduodenal sphincterotomy referes to the incision made into the ________ to relieve stenosis
sphincter of Oddi
When handing skin towels to the surgeon, where should the scrubperson stand in relation tothe surgeon?
On the same side of the table
Irrigating fluid used to flush the organ between harvest and transplantation of a liver is known as
Collin's
Each of the following actions by a scrubperson prevents wounds and punctures, according to CDC guidelines
1. use an instrument to remove blades
2. account for each needle as surgeon finishes with it
3. protect sharp blades, edges, and tips
The following are acceptable technique when draping
1. hold the drapes high until directly over the proper area
2. protect the gloved hands by cuffing the end of the drape over them
3. place the drapes on a dry area
The procedure to follow if a hair is found on the operative field is to
remove it with a clamp, cover over area
Cancer technique in surgery refers to
the discarding of instruments coming in contact with tumor after each use
Why are gowns, gloves, drapes, and instruments changed following a breast biopsy and before incision for a mastectomy?
to protect margins of healthy tissue from tumor cells
A postoperative complication attributed to glove powder entering a wound is
granulomata
The correct procedure for sterile dressing application is
apply dressing before drape removal
When drop technique for an intestinal procedure is utilized
contaminated instruments are discarded, floves are changed
If the floor or wall becomes contaminated with organic debris during a case, the curculator
decontaminates promptly
The Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used for
esophageal hemorrhage
A specially treated form of sugical gauze that has a hemostatic effect when buried in tissue is
Oxycel
An enzyme extract from bovine blood used as a topical hemostatic agent is
thrombin
A common complication of extubation is
hypoxia
The desirable position for better visualiation in the loer abdomen or pelvis is
Trendelenburg
Another name for the Kraske position is
jackknife
All of the following are helpful in keeping accurate account of sponges EXCEPT
a. keep sponges separate fom linen and instruments
b. keep needles separate from sponges
c. keep all sponges and tapes in a basin or close together on the field
d. keep a mental count of the number of sponges on the field at any given time
c. is NOT helpful
Dark blood in the operative field may indicate that the patient is
hypoxia
In an extreme emergency, a sponge count
may be omitted
Cultures obtained during surgery
are passed off the sterile field into a bag or container held by the circulator
How is a frozen section sent to the lab?
dry
Which of the following specimens is NOT placed in preservative solution?
stones
The term transduodenal sphincterotomy indicates surgery of the
distal end of the common bile duct
McBurney is an incision used for
appendectomy
The simplest abdominal incision offering good exposure to any part of the abdominal cavity is the
vertical midline
During an appendectomy, a purse-string suture is placed around the appendix stump to
invert the stump of the appendix
Gastrointestinal technique is required in all of the following procedures EXCEPT
a. cholecystectomy
b. low anterior colon resection
c. appendectomy
d. hemicolectomy
a. NOT required for a cholecystectomy
A hernia occurring in Hesselback's trangle is called
direct
Pathologic enlargement of the male breast is called
gynecomastia
Sutures placed in a wound to prevent wound evisceration are called
retention
Surgical enlargement of the passage between the prepylorus of the stomach and the duodenum is a
pyloroplasty
A Whipple operation is surgically termed a
pancreatoduodenectomy
A left subcostal incision indicates surgery of the
spleen
A lower oblique incision is an
inguinal
The curved transverse incision used for pelvic surgery is
Pfannenstiel
Which breast procedure removes the entire breast and axillary contents but preserves the pectoral muscles?
modified radical mastectomy
The breast procedure performed to remove extensive benign disease is a
simple mastectomy
What incision is indicated for an esophagogastrectomy?
thoracoabdominal
In which incision could retention sutures be used
vertical midline
In which hernia is the blood supply of the trapped sac contents compromised and in danger of necrosing
strangulated
In which hernia does the herniation protrude into the inguinal canal but NOT the cord?
direct
Which hernia leaves the abdominal cavity at the internal inguinal ring and passes with the cord structures down the inguinal canal?
indirect
An abdominal wall defect may be reconstructed using
Gore-Tex patch
Mersilene is
synthetic mesh
In a cholecystectomy, which structures are ligated and divided?
cystic duct and cystic artery
All of the following statements refer to pilonidal cyst surgery EXCEPT
a. it is performed with an elliptical incision
b. the wound frequently heals by granulation
c. probes are requires on setup
d. the cyst is removed, but the tract remains
d. is false because the cyst AND sinus tract must be completely removed to prevent recurrence
An important consideration during cholangiogram is to
remove all air bubbles form the cholangiocath
An instrument used to elevate the thyroid lobe during surgical excision is a
Lahey
The intestinal layer in order, from inside to outside, is
mucosa, submucosa, serosa
A common postoperative patient complaint following a laparoscopic procedure is
shoulder pain
A subphrenic abscess occurs in the
liver
Portal pressure measurement is indicated in
hepatic resection
Which organ is removed either because of trauma, a blood condition, or as a staging procedure for malignancy?
spleen
Following a hemorrhoidectomy, a
petroleum gauze packing is placed in the anal canal
A benign anal wall "slit" type of lesion requiring excision is an
anal fissure
Which gallbladder procedure ALWAYS requires intraoperative x-rays?
cholangiogram
In a pilonidal cystectomy, the defect frequently is too large to close and requires use of a
packing and pressure dressing
The instrument most commonly used to grasp the mesoappendix during an appendectomy is a
Babcock
Vaporization and coagulation of hemorrhoidal tissue can be accomplished with
CO2 laser
An entire tumor/mass removal is termed
excisional biopsy
A surgical procedure performed to relieve esophageal obstruction caused by cadiospasm is an
esophagomyotomy
Thrombosed vessels of the rectum are known surgically as
hemorrhoids
A procedure done to give the colon a rest and is then reverse is
temporary colostomy
A device that may obviate the need for an abdominoperineal resection because a low anterior anastamosis can be performed is an
end-to-end anastomosis (EEA)
- stapling device that allows a very low anastomosis and thus avoids a colostomy
An advanced inflammation of the bowel could be conservatively treated with which procedure?
temporary colostomy
Blunt dissection of the gall bladder from the sulcus of the liver requires the use of a
peanut or Kitner

-employed when removing the gallbladder from the infundibulum up to the fundal region
Direct visualization of the common bile duct is accomplished with a
choledochoscipe
"Scratch" marking is done in surgery of the
thyroid
Fogarty biliary catheters are used to
facilitate stone removal
In laparoscopy, tubal patency is checked by
injecting methylene blue into the cervicdal canal
In a thyroidectomy, a loop retractor retracts the
sternocleidomastoid muscle
Which sturcture are identified and preserved in thyroid surgery?
parathyroid glands
Bariatric surgery treats
obesity
Which incision would require cutting through Scarpa's fascia
inguinal
A gastroplasty
reduces stomach size
Which item retracts the spermatic cord structure in herniorrhaphy?
penrose drain
After utuerus removal in a hysterectomy
cervical and vaginal instruemtns are isolated from the instruent set in a discard basin
An irreducible hernia whose abdominal contents have become trapped in the extraabdominal sac is called a
incarcerated hernia
Which type of endoscopy camera produces the truest color
three-chip
White balancing a video camera in endoscopy requires the scrub person to focus the camera on
a white sponge, a white wall, a glove wrapper
Defogging the video camera is usually the responsiblity of the
camera operator
A palliative invasive procedure done to prevent malnutrition or starvation is known as
gastrostomy
The use of noninvasive high-energy shock waves to pulverize gallstones into small fragments for easy passage through the common bile duct and out of the body is called
cholelithotripsy
Intraoperative cholangiograms can be performed either through open abdominal or laparoscopic procedures using a contrast medium directly into the common bile duct through a
cholangiocath
Intra-abdominal pressure durging the instilliation of CO2 for creation of pneumoperitoneum is 8-10mm Hg. A pressure reading higher than this may indicate that the needle may be
buried in fatty tissue, burined in the omentum and/or in a lumen of intestines
The proper method of removing the gallbadder specimen after complete dissection and irrigation of the operative site in a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is to
utilize and endobag, pull gallbladder through the largest port, decompress the gallbladder by suctioning the bile before removal
All of the following are recommendations for actions necessary to support the aseptic principle of "confine and contain" EXCEPT
a. restrict patient contacts to an area 3 feet around the patient
b. discard sponges into plastic-lined pails
c. clean spills immediately with broad-spectum disinfectant
d. all launddry should be discarded into impervious bags
d. is NOT a recoommendation. The use of fluid-impervious bags eliminates potential contamination from wet linen soaking through. All linens from open packs, whether soiled or not, should be discarded in fluid-impervious bags
During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy the surgeon generally stands
at the left side of the patient
gastrointestinal decompression during a general surgical procedure can be effected by the use of a
Levine tube and Vari-Dyne
- Both the Levine tube and the Miller-Abbot tube effect gastrointestinal decompression. The Levine tube is placed through the nasal passageway into the stomach, while the Miler-Abbot tube reaches into the small intestines
A selected alternative to a conventional ileostomy that denies spontaneous stool exiting from the stome and requires catheterization of the stoma daily to evacuate the contents is a
Kock pouch
When both direct and indirect hernias occur in the same inguinal area, the defect is termed
pantaloon
An inguinal hernia containing a Meckel's diverticulum is called a
Littre's
All of the following are designated options fo laparoscipic hernia repair EXCEPT
a. TAPP
b. ERCP
c. IPOM
d. LEP
b. ERCP is a view of biliary system
Which muscles are incised in the midline of the neck once the skin flaps are completed druring a thyroidectomy?
strap
Which bone is transected with bone-cutting forceps before removal of a thyroglossal cyst?
hyoid
Drainage of an incision following a simple or modified radical mastectomy is accomplished by a
closed-wound drainage
During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the camera operator usually stands
to the right of the first assistant
The maximum pressure allowed to preent the possible intraoperative complications of bradycardia, blood pressure changes, or potential gas emboli during a laparoscopic procedure is
15 mm Hg
During surgery, towel clips
may be removed and discarded as long as the area is covered with sterile linen
As grossly soiled instruemtns are returned to the scrub, they should be
wiped of with a sponge moistened with water or soaked in a basin of sterile distilled water
Which of the following actions by the scrub person is NOT an acceptable sterile technique principle?
a. discarding tubing that falls below sterile field edges without touching the contaminated part
b. reaching behind sterile team members to retrieve instruments so they do not collect on the patient
c. facing sterile areas when passsing them
d. stepping away from the sterile field if contaminated
b. reaching behind is NOT acceptable sterile technique
When the scrubperson is draping a nonsterile table, he or she must
cuff the drape over his or her gloved hands
When covering a Mayo stand, the scrubperson should
use a side cuff
If a sterile field becomes moistened during a case
extra drapes are added to area
The main purpose of the skin prep is to
remove dirt, oil, and microbes, and to reduce the microbial count
Which is the antiseptic solution of choice for a skin prep?
povidone-iodine
When are counts done inthe OR?
before beginning of case, at beginning of wound closure, and at skin closure
Soiled sponges are
never touched with bare hands
Specimens may be passed off the sterile OR table by the scrub person on all of the following items EXCEPT
a. sponge
b. towel
c. basin
d. paper
a. NEVER a sponge!
When handling uterine curettings
keep the endometrial and the endocervical curettings separate
Labor can be induced using
Pitocin (oxytocin)
The needle used to instill the gas during a laparoscopy is a
Verres
A Hulka forceps is used in
gynecologic surgery
Which drug is given to aid in placental expulsion?
oxytocin (Pitocin)
A Humi cannula is used in
gynecologic surgery
The aim of stress incontinence operations includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. to improve performance of a dislodged vesical neck
b. to restore normal urethral length
c. to tighten and resotre the anteriorurethral vesical angle
d. to repair a congenital defect
d. is NOT a reason
A procedure done on young women who evidence benign uterine tumors but who wish to preserve fertility is a
myomectomy
A procedure to prevent cervical dilatation that results in release of uterine contents is a
Shirodkar
An endoscopic investigation of the uterus and tubes is a
hysteroscopy
Sterility can be accomplished by all of the following procedures EXCEPT
a. laparoscopy
b. minilaparotomy
c. posterior colpotomy
d. culdoscopy
d. cannot be used for this purpose
A scheduled procedure whose ultimate surgical goal involves abdominal, perineal, and groin dissection is a
radical vulvectomy and lymphadenectomy
An endoscopic approach to pelvic and intraabdominal examination is
pelviscopy
The procedure that provides visualization of the internal contour of the uterus is a
hysteroscopy
- Hysteroscopy is an endoscopic visualization of the uterine cavity and tubal orifices (internal)
Extrauterine pregnancies can occur in the
abdominal cavity and tube
- a salpingostomy done before rupture may preserve the tube
What gynecologic setup would include various sizes of sterile cannulas?
suction curettage
A Foley catheter is placed into the presurgical hysterectomy patient to
avoid injury to the bladder
What would an anterior and posterior repair accomplish
repair of cystocele and rectocele
Reconstruction of the cervical canal is called
trachelorrhaphy
An incision made during normal labor to facilitate delivery with less trauma to the mother is an
episiotomy
Cervical carcinoma in situ can be classified as
limited to the epithelial layer, noninvasive
The fallopian tube is grasped with a
Babcock
Reconstruction of the fallopian tube setup would include
Bowman lacrimal probes
To confirm the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, it is sometimes necessary to perform a
culdocentesis
Cervical conization is acomplished using all of the folowwing EXCEPT
a. scalpel
b. cautery
c. laser
d. chemical ablation
d. can not use chemical ablation
The most commonly identified ovarian cyst is the
follicle
A herniation of the cul-de-sac at the Pouch of Douglas is an
enterocele
A vesicourethral abdominal suspension is known as a
Mashall-Marchetti
A condition causing leakage of urine into the vagina is a
vesicovaginal fistula
What special technique is employed during a hysterectomy?
discard intruments used on cervix and vagina
Papanicolaou indicates
cytologic study of cervical smear
A technique employed for cervical bx is
multiple punches at 3, 6, 9, and 12 o'clock
In a cesarean birth, the uterus is opened with a knife and extended with a
bandage scissor
At which point in a cesarean is a bulb syringe used?
when the fetal head is delivered
Oxytocics are given in a cesarean after the baby's shoulders are delivered
to contract the uterus
When closing a uterus in a cesarean, the edges of the uterine incision are clamped with which of the following?
a. allis
b. kocher
c. pennington
d. babcock
pennington
Intraoperative chromotubation can be eeffected by all of the following surgical cannulaes EXCEPT
a. Humi
b. Rubinc
c. Hui
d. Hulka
d. Hulka
What suture would be placed into the wall of a large ovarian cyst before aspiration of its contents and final removal?
purse-string
What is the preferred procedure for recurrent or persistent carcinoma of the cervix after radiation therapy has been completed?
pelvic exenteration
Which of the following intruments would be used to grasp the anterior cervix of the uterus just before dissection from the baginal vault during a total abdominal hysterectomy?
Allis
Laparoscopic tubal occlusion may utilize all of the following methods of effecting sterilization EXCEPT
a. bipolar coagulation
b. Silastic bands
c. Surgitie ligating loop
d. spring clip
c. is a preknotted suture loop used to ligate pedicle tissues
A holding instrument not found in a vaginal procedure is a
a. jacobs
b. lahey
c. staude
d. skene
b lahey culsellum clamp is used to elevate the thyroid lobe during dissection
Conization of the cervix may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT
a. scalpel
b. Thomas uterine curette
c. laser
d. electrosurgery
b. Thomas uterine curette is used to remove endocervical and well as endometrial tissue scrapings from the internal lining of the uterus. All other options can be used to remove the endocervical cone to treat diseased tissue and preserve fertility
An enterocele differs diagnostically from a rectobcele by its contents and its position in the perineum. Its location is in the
Pouch of Douglas
Pelviscopy differs from laparoscopy in the
utilization of a larger trocar and scope, and utilization of a 30 degree angled scope
A Stamey endoscopic procedure is performed to
suspend the vesicle neck
What is the name given to a radiacal vaginal hysterectomy?
Schauta
What surgical procedure provides obliteration of the vagina by denuding and approximating the anterior and posterior walls of the vagina?
copocleises
The hysteroscope may be used to identify or remove all of the following EXCEPT
a. fallopian adhesions
b. lost IUDs
c. intrauterine adhesions
d. submucosa fibroids
a. fallopian adhesions are NOT identified this way
- the hysteroscope can also be used for endometrial ablation
Needle aspiration of the cul-de-sac is surgically termed
culdocentesis
An alternative to abdominal hysterectomy utilizating an endoscope is surgically termed a
LAVH laparopscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy and PAVH pelviscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy
What procedure cannot be performed through a pelviscope?
a. ovarian cystectomy
b. hysterectomy
c. oophorectomy
d. adhesiolysis
hysterectomies can not be performed because of the size of the viscus
Endometrial ablation is performed to correct
menorrhagia
Endoscopic visualization of the uterine cavity is called
hysteroscopy
Marsupialization of a Bartholin cyst involves the
suturing the posterior wall of the cyst to the skin edges, removal of anterior wall of cyst
What is the self-retaining retractor used in vaginal procedures?
Graves
Extrauterine disease of the female reproductive system may utilize any of the following lasers via a colposcope or laparoscope EXCEPT
a. CO2
b. Nd: YAG
c. Candela
d. argon
Candela; however, it is valuable to disintegrate stones in the urinary tract because it is tunable, and the wavelength can be adjusted.
- THe CO2, argon, and Nd:YAG are used to treat pelvic endometriosis, cervical dysplasia, condylomata, and premalignant disease of the vulva and the vagina
A sponge used in brain surgery is a
cottonoid patty
A sponge that is cotton-filled gauze with a cotton thread attached is a
tonsil
In cataract surgery, a vesicoelastic drug sometimes used to occupy space in the posterior cavity of the eye is
Healon
A miotic drug is
pilocarpine
What topical anesthetic is used most frequently for preoperative ocular instillation?
tetracaine
The drug added to a local ophthalmic anesthetic to increase diffusion is
hyaluronidase
A solution used for eye irrigation is
BSS, balanced salt solution
A synthetic local anesthetic that is effective on the mucous membrane and is used as a surface agent in ophthalmology is
tetracaine
Dilating eye drops are called
mydriatics
Which of the following uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens in extracapsular cataract extraction?
phacoemulsifier
A chalazion is chronic inflammation of the
meibomian gland
- Removal of a chalazion is the incision and curettage of a chronic granulomatous inflammation of one or more of the meibomian glands of the eyelid
What procedure is done for chronic dacrocystitis?
dacrocystorhinostomy
A procedure to treat retinal detachment is
scleral buckling
Sagging and eversion of the lower lid is
ectropion
Removal of the entire eyeball is
enucleation
A noninvasive process to treat glaucoma by means of a slit lamp is an
argon or Nd: YAG laser
Removal of a portion of an ocular muscle with reattachment is called
resection
Opacity of the vitreous humor is treated by performing
vitrectomy
Miocol solution is prepared for a cataract procedure no more than _____ min before actual instillation
30 min
Molteno implants are used surgically to reduce intraocular pressure during
trabeculectomy
A drug used as a lubricant and as vesicoelastic support to maintain separation of tissues before removal of lens during cataract surgery is
sodium hyaluronate
A drug used to contract the sphincter of the iris during an intracapsular cataract extraction is
Miocol
What procedure accomplishes correction of myopia?
keratophakia and keratotomy
An enzymatic drug commonly used with anesthetic solutions to increase tissue diffusion is
Wydase
Injection of anesthetic solution into the base of the eyelids or behind the eyeball to block the ciliary ganglion and nerves is known as
retrobulbar
A fleshy, trieangular encroachment onto the cornea is surgically termed a
pterygium
A procedure performed wen the cornea is thickened or opacified is called a
keratoplasty
What is the procedure used to correct accidental vitreous loss during a cataract extraction?
anterior vitrectomy
A surgical treatment for chronic wide angle-closure glaucoma that re-establishes communication between the posterior and anterior chamber of the eye is
iridectomy
Which of the following hyperosmotic drugs is given preoperatively solely by oral administration to induce osmotic pressure and thereby reduce intraocular pressure in surgery?
glycerol
What eye disease uses the argon slit lamp with a noninvasive procedure, which if successful, prevents the need for more invasive surgery
glaucoma
Which dressing is sed after nasal surgery
moustache
What combination of lasers are particularly useful in surgery of the larynx and vocal cords
CO2 and helium0neon
The most common topical anesthetic agent used in ENT surgery is
cocaine
Irrigation is used with the ear drill
to minimize transfer of heat from burr to surrounding structures
A surgical schedule would describe the procedure to treat acute otitis media as a
myringotomy
In myringotomy, the tube to facilitate drainage is placed into the tympanic membrane with an
alligator forceps
A perforated eardrum is corrected by
tympanoplasty
Severe vertigo may be relieved by
labyrinthectomy
Middle ear ventilation is facilitated by
mryingotomy
Cholesteatoma is treated by doing a
mastoidectomy
A benign tumor arising from the eighth cranial nerve, which may grow to a size that produces neurologic symptoms is an
acoustic neuroma
Facial nerve trauma can be decreased by use of
computerized nerve monitor
Another name for submucous resection is
septoplasty
Surgical correction of a deviated septum is known as a
submucous resection
A forceps used in nasal surgery
bayonet
Which sinus is entered during an intranasal antrostomy (antral window)?
maxillary
Nasal polyps are removed with either a polyp forceps or a
nasal snare
Which of the following medication would be used as a topical anesthetic before nasal surgery?
cocaine
Which surgery requires an incision under the upper lip above the teeth?
Caldwell-Luc
To establish a tracheostomy, a midline incision is created in the neck, below the
cricoid cartilage
Which medication is found on a tracheostomy setup to reduce the coughing reflex at tube insertion?
lidocaine 1%
When a tracheostomy tube is inserted, the obturator is quickly removed and the trachea is suctioned with a
catheter
The majority of benign salivary gland tumors occur in which gland?
parotid
Which position is used following a tonsillectomy
on side, horizontally
Total laryngectomy includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. soft palate
b. strap muscles
c. hyoid bone
d. larynx
soft palate
What mode would be utilized to maintain drainage postoperatively in radical neck surgery?
Hemovac
A trifurcate neck incision is done for a
radical neck dissection
During ear surgery, pledgets generally used to control bleeding are soaked in
epinephrine
In cochlear implantation, the receiver is placed into which bone of the skull to gether impulses and send it along to the cerebral cortex?
mastoid
Facial nerve decompression is designed to identify as area of compression often seen in
Bell's palsy
Which of the following endotracheal tubes can prevent a fire
stainless steel
Lesion of the larynx and vocal cords can be addressed surgically using which laser?
CO2
Which degree endoscope is used ONLY in maxillary sinus surgery?
120 degrees
What is the instrument used to effect removal of the septal cartilage in a rhinoplasty?
Jansen-Middleton forceps
After the anterior pillar of a tonsil is incised with a #12 blade, the tonsil is freed from its attachments with a
Hurd dissector
What is the most effective barrier to stop laser energy from penetrating healthy tissue?
moist padding of surrounding tissue
A safer alternative laser retardant endotracheal tube used for CO2 laser surgery of the larynx is made of
copper and stainles steel
A continuous suture placed beneath the epidermal layer of the skin in short lateral stitches is called a
subcuticular suture
An item used for padding that has smooth and clingy layers is called
Webril
A temporary biologic dressing is
porcine
Which of the following is NOT a reason for a pressure dressing
conforms to body contour is not a reason
A dressing that is held in place by long suture ends criss-crossed and tied is called
stent
When local anesthetic is passed to the surgeon
state kind and percentage of solution
Which procedure is followed if the scrub is pricked with a needle?
discard needle, change glove
All of the following statements regarding the preparation for a skin graft are true EXCEPT
a. the dermatome is placed on the recipient table
b. the donor site is prepared with a colorless antiseptic agent
c. separate setups are necessary for skin preparation of recipient and donor sites
d. items used in preparation of the recipient site must not be permitted to contaminate the donor site
a. the dermatome should always be placed SEPARATELY
When using a sterile syringe, the scrub nurse should
never touch the plunger except at the end
Which of the following is the LEAST desirable method for needle accountability?
a. insert needle into original packet
b. collect needles in a medicine cup
c. place on an adhesive or magnetic board
d. return to needle rack
b. collecting needles in a medicine cup is the least desirable method
Colorless prep solution may be indicated for
plastic surgery
A graft containing epidermis and only a portion of the dermis is called a
split-thickness graft
A progressive disease of the palmar fascia is termed
Dupuytren's contracture
Microtia refers to
absence of the external ear
Good contact between a skin graft and the recipient site is facilitated by use of a
stent dressing
Syndactyly refers to
webbing of the digits
A penile defect in which the urethra ends on the ventral surface of the penile shaft or in the perneum is termed
hypospadias
A face lift is termed a
rhytidectomy
The intraoperative use of bone allografts requires all of the following responses from the scrub team EXCEPT
a. culture before implant
b. wash with an antibiotic solution
c. completely thaw
c. do NOT let the allograft completely thaw
Bulky dressings added to the intermediate layer of a three-layer dressing are used to
eliminate dead space, and immobilize a body part

they are NOT used to concentrate pressure in one area
All of the following rules cover handling of prosthetic devices during plastic surgery procedures EXCEPT
a. powder must be wiped from gloves before handling
b. prosthesis must be dried completely before implant
c. gloves must be used to prevent skin oils from causing inflammatory response
d. prosthesis must be placed on lint-free surface to sterilize
b is flase
Adherent occlusive dressigns that are used when slight or no drainage is expected are transparent polyurethan film such as
Bioclusive and Opsite
A method of applying dressings to an unstable area, such as the face or neck, utilizing long sutures tied over the dressing for stability is known as
stent
Free jejunal tissue transfers are frequently sucessfull as adjunct surgical revisions following
laryngoesophagectomy and esophagectomy
What is the most commonly used donor tendon for a free flexor tendon graft?
palmaris longus and plantaris tendon
What bandage effects the process of exsanguination of a limb prior to the use of a tourniquet?
Eschmarch
Which muscle is utilized to effect a TRAM flap in breast reconstruction?
transrectus abdominis
The most widely used method of scar revision next to scar removal is
Z-plasty
The Pereyra needle is used in which specialty area of surgery?
urology
Which ureteral catheter is used to dilate the ureter?
Garceau tapered tip
The used of distilled water during a highly invasive genitourinary procedure such as a TURP is prohibited for irrigation because of the potential for
hemolysis of RBC
Why is a 30cc bag Foley used after a TURP?
hemostasis
The three lumens of a Foley are used for inflation, drainage, and
continuous irrigation
The purpose ofthe kidney elevator is to
increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest
Why is the table straightened before closing a kidney incision
to create better approsimation of tissues
Nonmalignant enlargement o the prostate is termed
benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
Urethral strictures can be dilated by use of each of the following EXCEPT
a. Philips filiform and followers
b. Van Buren sounds
c. Braasch bulb
d McCarthy dilators
c. Braasch builb are NOT used for dilation, it is used to occulde the ureteral orifice during x-ray study.
A staghorn stone is one that lodges and continues to grown in the
renal calyx
In cystoscopy, the irrigating solution is
distilled water
Which of the following is NOT considered a permanent urinary diversion?
a. ileal conduit
b. ureterocystostomy
c. cutaneous ureterostomy
d. nephrostomy
d. a nephrostomy is NOT a permenant urinary diversion because it temporarily drains the kidney with a Malecot or Pezzar catheter. In an ileal conduit, the erueter is implanted into the ileum, and an ilial stome is created. The ureter diverted to the skin of the lower abdomen is a cutaneous ureterostomy. Repositioning the ureter is a ureterocystostomy.
Rib removal for surgical expposure of the kidney requires all of the following EXCEPT a
a. Alexander periosteotome
b. Doyen raspatory
c. Heaney clamp
d. Stille shears
c. the heaney is used in GYN
Penile condylomata are muost successfully removed by
laser
Removal of a testis or the testes is called
orchiectomy
Which solution is NOT used during a TURP?
NORMAL SALINE is not used.
Temporary diversion of urinary drainage by means of an external catheter that drans the renal perlvis is called
pyelostomy
The procedure to treat organic sexual impotence is
penile implant
Which anomaly is corrected by the MAGPI procedures?
chordee specifically PROXIMAL hypospadias with chordee
Microscopic reversal of the male sterilization procedure is termed
vasovasostomy
A needle biopsy of the prostate may be accomplished with a
Tru-cut needle
When the male penis is curved ventrally with the meatus and the glans in close proximity to each other it is called
chordee
An endoscopic procedure to treat stress incontinence is a
Stamey procedure
Continuous irrigation following TURP is accomplished by use of a
30cc three-way Foley catheter
Bladder drainage that diverts urine away from the urethral vaginal area is a
cystostomy
When the prostate gland is removed through an abdominal incision into the anterior prostatic capsule, it is called a ______ prostatectomy
retropubic
Kidney stones are sent to the lab in
dry state
A Pereyra procedure is done for
stress incontinence, a Pereyra procedure is a bladder neck suspension involving urethrovesical suspension with vaginourethroplasty
A percutaneous nephrolithotomy utilizes all of the following EXCEPT
a. ultrasound wand
b. flexible nephroscope
c. lithotriptor
d. lithotriptor tub
d. does not use lithotriptor tub, it is used in ESWL
Orchiopexy can be defined as
fixation of a testicle
Abdominal resection of the prostate gland through an incision into the bladder is known surgically as a
suprapubic prostatectomy
A lumbar or simple flank incision for ureter or kidney surgery may include removal of which ribs?
11 and 12
An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the scrotum
hydrocele
What is the alternative approach to surgical TURP that has resulted from advances in radiologic techniques and balloon catheter technology
urethroplasty
Bladders stones are crushed with a
lithotrite
Urethral meatal stenosis is corrected by a
meatotomy
In a penile implant the inflation pump is located in the
scrotum
Exceision of the tunica vaginalis is a
hydrocelectomy
Circumcision refers to
removal of the foreskin
An alternative approach to surgical TURP utilizing a cystoscopic setup as its base is
transcstoscopic urethroplasty
The laser used to destroy small recurrent bladder tumors is the
Nd: YAG
In creating a continent urinary diversion post-cystectomy, all of the following procedures are options for diversion EXCEPT
a. Kock pouch
b. Indiana pouch
c. "Le bag"
d. ileal conduit
d. ileal conduit is NOT used postcystectomy for diversion. Ileal conduit is a cutaneous urinary diversion exteriorizing the urinary tract by creating a stoma.
In creating a continent urinary diversion post-cystectomy, all of the following procedures are options for diversion EXCEPT
a. Kock pouch
b. Indiana pouch
c. "Le bag"
d. ileal conduit
d. ileal conduit is NOT used postcystectomy for diversion. Ileal conduit is a cutaneous urinary diversion exteriorizing the urinary tract by creating a stoma.
Stones removed during surger should be sent to the laboratory
dry
Stones removed during surger should be sent to the laboratory
dry
Following anastomosis of a ureter during a ureteral reimplantation procedure, ______ is left in place to ensure free drainage of the kidney postoperatively
soft stent
Following anastomosis of a ureter during a ureteral reimplantation procedure, ______ is left in place to ensure free drainage of the kidney postoperatively
soft stent
The combined correction of a redundant renal pelvis and resection of a stenotic portion of the ureteropelvic junctions is known as
Foley Y-V procedure
The combined correction of a redundant renal pelvis and resection of a stenotic portion of the ureteropelvic junctions is known as
Foley Y-V procedure
A reverse sterilization procedure in the amle is called
vasovasostomy and epididymovasostomy
A reverse sterilization procedure in the amle is called
vasovasostomy and epididymovasostomy
Before insertion of a penile implant, the insertion site, as well as the implant itself, is irrigated with
Kanamycin and Bacitracin
Before insertion of a penile implant, the insertion site, as well as the implant itself, is irrigated with
Kanamycin and Bacitracin
To prevent thrombi from forming in the walls of the renal vein during transfer from the donor to the recipient, _____ is geven just before clamping of the renal vessels
heparin
To prevent thrombi from forming in the walls of the renal vein during transfer from the donor to the recipient, _____ is geven just before clamping of the renal vessels
heparin
The drug of choice for adequate duiresis of a living donor before, during, and postremoval of the kidney is
mannitol
The drug of choice for adequate duiresis of a living donor before, during, and postremoval of the kidney is
mannitol
All of the following are ideal requirements of cadaver donors EXCEPT
a. any age
b. free of infection or malignancy
c. normotensive up until death
d. under ospital observation before death
a. because the ideal donor should be young
All of the following are ideal requirements of cadaver donors EXCEPT
a. any age
b. free of infection or malignancy
c. normotensive up until death
d. under ospital observation before death
a. because the ideal donor should be young
Cooling and flushing of pancreas, liver, and kidneys of dadaver donors is accomplished by cannulation of the organ and infusion of large amounts of cold
Ringer's lactate solution
Cooling and flushing of pancreas, liver, and kidneys of dadaver donors is accomplished by cannulation of the organ and infusion of large amounts of cold
Ringer's lactate solution
Nonconducting, isomotic glycine irrigating soluting must be used in the surgial presence of a
resectoscope
All of the following procedures may be completed through a cystoscope EXCEPT
a. biopsy of bladder tumor
b. removal of foreign body in bladder
c. total removal of bladder tumor
d. cystogram for diagnostic studies
c. total removal of badder is NOT done through a cystoscope
After incision is made into the scrotum, during a vasectomy, the forceps used to grasp the vas and bring it to the surface fore surgery is the
Allis
ESWL disintegrates stones by introducting shock waves into the body through the medium of
water
Laser lithotripsy utilizes the tunable pulse-dyed laser known as
Candela
The tube that collects bronchial washingsis
Lukens
The procedure of choice for removal of a foreign body in a child's tracheobronchial tree is
bronchoscopy
A cytologic specimen collector used in bronchoscopy is
Lukens
All of the following are true regarding disposable chest drainage units EXCEPT
a. provides drainage collection from intrapleural spcae
b. maintians a seal to prevent air from entering the pleural cavity
c. provides suction control determined by water level
d. aids in re-establishing positive pressure in the intrapleural space
d. is false because we want NEGATIVE pressure
Compression of the subclavian vessels and the brachial plexis usually caused by the first rib is surgically known as
thoracic outlet syndrome
A reduction in negative pressure on one side of the thoracic cavity that causes the negative pressure on the normal side to pull in an effort to equalize pressure is called
mediastinal shift
Surgical removal of fibrinous deposits onbthe visceral and parietal pleura is called
decortication of the lung
What substance is introduced through a thoracoscope to deal with recurrent pleural effusion attributable to advanced cancer?
talc
What instrumetn is used to reapproximate the ribs following an open thoracotomy?
Bailey
What cold solution is used to preserve a donor lung before transplant into a recipient?
Collin's
How many anastomoses must be completed to effect a single-lung transplant?
three
Which of the following would be the suture of choice for a graft-to-tissue anastomosis in vascular surgery?
Ti-Cron
Which suture would be used on an aortic valve replacement?
polypropylene
In which procedure could a Fogarty catheter be utilized?
embolectomy
Amputated extremities are
wrapped and refrigerated in the morgue
An anticoagulant given for its antagonistic effect on heparin is
Protamine sulfate
The action to be followed if a patient is experiencing a cardiac arrhythmia, specifically a ventricular fibrillation, would to
defibrillate
Dextran is used parenterally to
expand blood plasma volume
Which drug can be added to saline for irrigation during a vascular procedure?
heparin
The intraoperative diagnostic test that measures tissue perfusion is
ABG
Passage of a sterile catheter into the heart via the brachial or femoral artery for the purpose of image intensification is called
cardiac catheterization
Hypothermia is employed in cardiac surgery
to reduce oxygen consumption
Which vessels are harvested for a coronary artery bypass?
saphenous vein and internal mammary artery
If a knitted graph is preclotted, it
minimizes bleeding
The term used to denote the function accomplished by the cardiopulmonary bypass machine is
perfusion
The term used to denote the function accomplished by the cardiopulmonary bypass machine is
perfusion
A cardiopulmonary technique that employs the principle of counterpulsation tat increases cardiac output is
IAPP
The antagonist to heparin sodium is
Protamine sulfate
Pedal pulses are assessed with a
Doppler
Heparin is utilized during vascular surgery
to prevent thrombosis
The prime consideration in a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy is
hemorrhage control
In which surgery would a tunneler by used?
a. aaa
b angioplasty
c. embolectomy
d. femoral-popliteal bypass
d. femora-popliteal bypass
In balloon angioplasty, the dilating balloon is inflated with
diluted solution of contrast media
Which piece of equipment would be placed on an embolectomy setup for the purpose of removing clots through an arteriotomy?
Fogarty
What instrument is used to reapproximate the ribs following an open thoracotomy?
Bailey
The goal of a carotid endarteretomy is to
remove plaque
Decompression of the portal circulation can be achieved by all of the following EXCEPT
a. splenorenal shunt
b. portocaval anastomosis
c. arteriovenous shunt
d. mesocaval shunt
c. arteriovenous shunt is NOT used for portal circulation it is used for dialysis
Plaque removal froma vessel is termed
endarterectomy
Placement of a vascular graft proximal to and inclusive of the common iliac vessels will necessitate the use of a
bifurcated graft
The most common vessels used for access procedures to facilitate hemodialysis are
radial artery and cephalic vein
Migrating clots taht have formed inthe lower extremities can be intercepted onthe way to the heart of lungs be a
Greenfield Filter
Retraction of finstructures and blood vessles during vascular surgery is accomplished by use of
vessel loop
Fluoroscopy is required for all of the following vascular procedures EXCEPT
a. Greenfield filter
b. endocardial pacing electrode
c. myocardial pacing electrode
d. A-V fistula creation
c. myocardial pacing electrode requires a thoracotomy and direct visualization
A drug used intraoperatively for its antispasmodic effect on the smooth muscle of the vessel wall is
papaverine hydrochloride
Compression of subclavian vessels and brachial plexus at the superior aperture of the thorax is
pectus excavatum
In vascular surgery, the term in situ graft references the use of an
autogenous graft
The surgery schedules as"Greenfield filter insertion" indicates a diagnosis of
emboli formation
The intraoperative endoscopic visualization of internal vessels is known as
angioscopy
During a vascular procedure, monitoring the activated clotting time intraoperatively provides useful data for jueging the need for reversal or addition of
heparin
A low-molecular-weight protein that, when combined with heparin, causes a loss of anticoagulant activity postoperatively is
Protamine sulfate
What is the purpose for the surgical creation of an arteriovenous fistula?
hemodialysis
Conservative treatment of occlusive disease involving recanalization to restore the lumen of a vessel is called
percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
What catheter is used to remove thrombi or emboli from vascular structures?
Fogarty
What procedure is used intraoperatively and postoperatively to determine blood flow in a vessel
Doppler ultrasound
Removal of artherosclerotic plaque from a major artery is termed
endarterectomy
An abnormal localized dilatation of an artery resulting from mechanical pressure of blood on a weakened wall is called
aneurysm
What is the treatment of choice for capturing emboli that arise from the pelvis or lower extremities?
Greenfield filter
What intraoperative test determines the needed reversal or addition of heparin?
ACT activated clotting time
What drug is used intraoperatively in a topical manner for its direct effect on the muscle of the vessel wall?
papaverine hydrochloride
The technique applied to the patient who is unable to be weaned from cardiopulmonary bypass is
IAPB and VADs
What is the most common acquired valvular lesion?
mitral stenosis
What drug is used to effect coronary thrombosis in the cardiac catheterization laboratory?
tissue plasminogen activator and streptokinase
The term in situ graft represents the use of an
autograft
Which sutre is commonly used to attach tendon to bone?
wire
Seamless tubular cotton that stretches to fit a contour and is used for padding is called
stockinette
What is the proper wrapping procedure utilizaing an Esmarch bandage?
start at the distal end of the extremity
Fracture of the patella may be repaired with all of the following hardware EXCEPT
a. buttress plate
b. bone screws
c. tension band
d. circumferential loop
a. buttress plate
A variation of bunionectomy, in which the surgeon includes resection of the proximal third of the phalanx and possible silicone implant is called a
Keller arthroplasty
Baker's cysts are found in the
popliteal fossa
Benign outpouchings of synovium from intercarpal joints are called
ganglia
Compression of the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist is known as
carpal tunnel syndrom
A fixation device that provides maximum holding and rigid fixation of a fracture by tightening bone fragments together is called a
compression plate and screws
In a total hip replacement, which structure is reamed?
acetabulum
A dorsal angulated fracture of the distal radius is commonly called a
Colles' fracture
The ideal condidate for a noncemented total hip arthroplasty is
young and healthy person
A total hip replacement would be indicated when the patient has
degenerative hip joint disease
All of the following are frames used to attain the prone position during orthopedic sureger EXCEPT
a. Alvarado
b. Wilson
c. Andres
d. Hastings
a. Alvarado is NOT used
Which hardware could not be used to repair a tibial plateau fracture?
Ambi compression plate
A flexion deformity at the proximal joint of the four lateral toes is called
hammer toe
Joint reconstruction is known as
arthroplasty
Wat is the name of a shoulder positioning device used to position a shoulder for surgery?
McConnell
Osteaogenesis or bone growth can be induced by
electrical stimulation
An infection in bone is termed
osteomyelitis
A surgical procedure designed to stiffen or fuse a joint is called `
arthrodesis
A lateral curvature of the spine is
scoliosis
Harrington rods are used to treat
scoliosis
A rotator cuff repair is called a
Bankart
The congenital deformity known as clubfoot is surgically referred to as
talipes varus (inversion of the forefoot)
The most frequent site of cartilage tears in the knee joint are at the
medial meniscus
An abduction pillow would be used to
immobilize hip joints after hip surgery
A Free Lock compression screw system is _____ fracture
hip
Decreased bone mass results in a condition called
osteoporosis
Place the stages of fracture healing in order:
1. hemaoma formation
2. fibrin network formation
3. invasion of osteoblasts
4. callus formation
5. remodeling
An olecranon fracture occurs in the
elbow
All ofthe following are considered good methods of maintaining strict asepsis within an orthopedic surgical suite EXCEPT
a. isolation units
b. laminar flow rooms
c. charcoal masks
d. isolation bubble systems
c. charcoal masks are not used
Water temperature for paster cast application is
70-75 degrees
Orthopedic surgery prepping
is done under sterile conditions
Limb exsanguination is accomplished by using
Esmarch
In orthopedic surgery, the viewing of the progression of a procedure on a television screen is known as
image intensification
Surgery on the medial malleolus would be of the
tibia
Plaster is ready for application
when air bubbles cease to rise
Which fracture most commonly occurs in childhood?
greenstick
Which of the following is added to polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA), chemically siilar to Plexiglas, to it to make it possible to assess distribution and changes at a later time?
barium sulfate
Which orthopedic hip procedure is indicated for patients with degenerative joint disease or rheumatoid arthritis?
total hip arthroplasty
Which total joint arthroplasty utilizes the Miller-Galante joint replacement prosthesis?
knee
Which of teh following is a disadvantage of arthroscopic sugery?
scarrring of articular surface
The proper positioning for a patient undergoing arthroscopic knee surgery is
degree flexion of foot of table
What skeletal traction requires the use of sterile supplies for application of a traction appliance?
Crutchfield
Anterior spinal fusion is accomplished by use of which of the following instrumentations?
Isola
An infectious musculoskeletal condition affecting the bone and marrow is
osteomyelitis
An immobilization device used after total hip arthroplasty is
abduction pillow
Electrical stimulation is artificially applied postoperative electrical current that influences
osteogenesis
All of the following are indications for external fixation EXCEPT
a. infected joints
b. clean long-bone fractures
c. highly comminuted closed fractures
d. major alignmentand length deficits
b. clean long-bone fx are not indications for external fixation
A procedure done to correct recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder that involves reattachment of the rim of the glenoid fossa is called a
Bankart
The most commonly fractured carpal bone is the
scaphoid
All of te following are intramedulallary nails or rods EXCEPT
a. Ender nail
b. Sampson rods
c. Harrington rods
d. Russell-Taylor rods
c. Harrington rods are for the back
Compression force of the distal femur upon the tibia produces varying types of fractures of the
tibia plateau
Fracture of the lateral malleolus can be treated with a
Rusch rod
Surgery that requires incision of the long extensor tendon of teh interphalaneal joint of the four lateral toes and subsequent fusion is called
hammer toe correction
To maintain hydrostatic pressure against the joint wall during irrigation of an arthroscopic procedure the solution must be kept above the joint
3 feet
A prosthetic implant that allows gliding and shifting motions resembling normal range of motion is generally termed a
nonconstrained implant
Total wrist replacement indicates use of which of the following implants to replace the radiocarpal joint in the wrist?
silicone rubber
The rare use of laser during orthopedic surgery may be seen in the use of the CO2 laser dring a revision arthroplasty to
remove a cementeed implant
After surgery on a shoulder, the arm may be bound against the side of the arm for
immobilization
To provide decompression of the spinal roots and vertebral alignment following a thoracolumbar spinal fusion, which of the following may be used for fixation?
Harrington rods and Luque rods
The most commonly used implants in hand surgery are made of flexible
Silastic
The procedure indicated by which of the following named prostheses tells one that a total hip arthroplasty is scheduled?
Miller-Galant
Before the insertion of cement into the femoral medually canal during a total hip arthroplasty, which of the following is placed with an inserter to occludethe canal?
cement restrictor
Femoral prostheses such as Austin Moore and Thompson are used to correct all of the following dx EXCEPT
a. avascular necrosis
b. nonunion fx
c. displaced femoral neck fx
d. rheumatoid artritis
d. rheumatoid arthritis
Before sterilizing unsterile Silastic or Teflon implants, they should be
washed with mild soap
Orthopedic implants are covered by all of the following rules EXCEPT
a. different metals should not be mixed because they may react chemically
b. If the implant is driven by force, a driver with a metal head must be used
c. a template must be used for sizing purposes
d. handle as little as possible before insertion
b. if the implant is driven by force, a driver with a metal head must be used
Galvanic corrosion is a process that occurs postoperatively because of
mixed use of metals for implant
Raney clips are
hemostatic scalp clips
Which of the following are tongs providing skeletal traction for cervical fracture/dislocation?
Crutchfield
A surgical procedure used most frequently to control intractable pain of terminal cancer is called a
cordotomy
Which operative procedure facilitates the draining of a subdural hematoma?
burr holes
Hemostatis in neurosurgery is achieved by using Gelfoam saturated with saline solution or
topical thrombin
A tumor arising from the covering of the brain
meningioma
Which of the following is used to control bleeding beneath the skull and around the spinal cord?
cottonoid
A large encapsulated collection of blood over one or both cerebral hemispheres that produces ICP is known as
subdural hematoma
A surgical procedure in which a nerve is freed from binding adhesion for relieft of pain and restoration of function is termed a
neurolysis
Surgical creation of a lesion in treatment of a disease such as Parkinson's is called
cryosurgery
During neurosurgical procedures, venous stasis in the lower extremities and maintenance of blood pressure may be aided by all of the following EXCEPT
a. Esmarch bandage wrapped groin to toe
b. elastic bandages wrapped toe to groinc. sequential compression devices
c. sequential compression devices
d. TED stockings
a. esmarch bandage wrapped groin to toe is F
Which of the following diseases CANNOT be treated by a sympathectomy?
a. intractable nerve pain
b. vascular extremity disorders
c. hyperhydrosis
d. neuroma
d. neuroma CANNOT be treated by a sympathectomy
All of the following are used for hemostsis in neurosurgical procedure EXCEPT
a. bone wax
b. compressed cotton strips
c. bipolar coagulation
d. monopolar coagulation
d. monopolar is NOT used
All of the following are permanent aneurysm clips EXCEPT
a. Scoville
b. McFadden
c. Heifitz
d. Olivecrona
b
Upon craniotomy closure, the bone flap is sutured on with
stainless steel suture
Removal of an anterior cervical disc with accompanying spinal fusion is termed a
Cloward procedure
In a laminectomy, herniated disc fragments are removed with a
pituitary ronguer
When using the perforator to create burr holes, heat is counteracted by
irrigating drill site as hole is drilled
A ventriculoperitoneal shunt treats
hydrocephalus
The advantage of using a Javid Shunt during a carotid endartherctomy is
continuous cerebral blood flow
Metal suction tips used during neurosurgery are used continuously to keep the field dry. They may be all of the following EXCEPT
a. Cone
b. Sacks
c. Frazier
d. Yankeur
d. Yankeur
Neurosurgical sponges soaked in solution are placed within the reach of the surgeon and displayed on a
inverted emesis basin and plastic drape
All of the following statements are true about knee-chest positioning for laminectomy EXCEPT
a. decreased bleeding
b. better exposure of laminae
c. increased operating time
d. increased ease of ventilation
c. increased operating time is F
What is the most common congenital lesion encountered, requiring neurosurgical intervention?
meningomyelocele
To effect hemostasis during a neuro surgical procedure, small pieces of Gelfoam are cut into several different sizes and soaked in
topical thrombin
What instrument is used to excise the laminae overlying the herniated disc during its removal in a laminectomy procedure?
Schwartz-Kerrison
Malabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and resultant hydrocephalus are corrected by a neurosurgical
VP shunt and VA shunt
Neurosurgical procedures done for the purpose of locating and destroying target structures in the brain are called
stereotactic
What is the incisional approach use to effect a transsphenoidal hyphysectomy?
middle of the upper gum
Dorsal sympathectomy entails removal of which of following chains of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
cervicothoracic
A Hakim shunt is used to
treat hydrocephalus
The invagination of the proximal intestine into the lumen of the distal intestine is called
intussusception
An imperforation or closure of a normal opening is called an
atresia
Failure of the intestines to encapsulate within the peritoneal cavity of the newborn is called
omphalocele
A congential malformation of the chest wall with a pronounced funnel-shaped depression is called
pectus excavatum
Newborn vomiting, free of bile and projectile in nature, is indicative of
pyloric stenosis
The increased metabolic rate of a surgical pediatric patient establishes the need for all of the following EXCEPT
a. oxygen
b. caloric intake
c. blood transfusion
d. fluids
c. blood transfusions
Hirschsprung's disease is synonymous with
congenital aganglionosis
The condition evidenced by incomplete closure of the verteral arches in newborns is
spina bifida
The condition involving premature closure of infant cranial suture lines is referred to as
transsphenoidal hypophysectomy
An imperforate anus means
anal opening is absent
Geriatric patients aremore prone to each of the following EXCEPT
a. infection
b. poor wound healing
c. cardiovascular problems
d. gallbladder disease
b. NOT more prone to ppor wound healing
A Wilms' tumor, the most common intraabdominal childhood tumor is known as a
nephroblastoma
Incomplete closure of paired vertebral arches that can be treated surgically is known as
spina bifida
Nonclosure at birth of the duct that carries blood from the pulmonary artery directly to the aorta is termed
patent dutus arteriosus
The most common congenital cardiac anomaly in the cyanotic group is
tetralogy of Fallot
The mechanical strength of a weak eye muscle due to strabismus in a pediatric patient can be corrected by all of teh following EXCEPT
a. tucking
b. advancement
c. recession
d. resection
c. recession
A cardiac procedure used primarily for anomalies associated with excessive pulmonary flow due to large intracardiac left-to-right shunt is called
pulmonary bonding
An abnormal communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery of an infant is termed
patent ductus arteriosus
Failure of the abdominal viscera to become encapsulated within the peritoneal cavity during fetal development is known as an
omphalocele
What surgery is performed to treat otitis media?
myringotomy
What problem is most commonly seen in the pediatric postoperative patient?
airway impairment
Which of the following is the primary indication for total joint arthroplasty of the hip and knee in elderly persons?
osteoARTHRITIS (degenerative) and rheumatoid arthritis (long-term disease)
What is the predominant reason for urological surgery in elderly men?
BPH (benign prostatic hypertrophy
An emergency drug useful in ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia is
Inderal
An emergency drug that increases myocardial contractility is
calcium chloride
The action of sodium bicarbonate in an advanced life support effort is to
counteract metabolic acidosis
Xylocaine is used intravenously for
treatment of cardiac arrhythmias
If cardiac arrest occurs in the OR, who is responsible for handling artificial ventilation?
the anesthesiologist
Sudden shortness of breath in a postoperative patient may be indicative of
pulmonary embolism
Which pulse is checked during a cardiac arrest effort?
carotid
Airways should be
left in place until the patient breathes normally
An anesthetic complication characterized by progressive elevation of body temperature is known as malignant
hyperthermia
ALl of the following are results from aspiration of gastric contents during anesthesia EXCEPT
a. impeded blood gas exchange
b. impaired lung function
c. gastric decompression
d. chemical pneumonitis
c.
A telethermometer monitors the body temperature during surgery. It can be placed in all of the following areas EXCEPT the
a. rectum
b. esophagus
c. axilla
d. tympanic area
c. axilla
Dark blood in the operative field may indicated that the patient is
hypoxic
The first and most important step for successful resuscitation in cardiac arrest is
immediate opening of the airway
The responsibiliyty of the scrub nurse in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is to
give attention to the sterile field and the surgeon's needs
A safety precaution used when a patient is being shocked with the defibrillator is
no one is to touch the patient or anything metallic in contact with the patient
When handing a sytinge of medication to the surgeon for a local anesthetic, the scrub nurse should
state the kind and percentage of the solution
When cardiac arrest occurs, resuscitative measures must begin within
3-5 minutes
Who is responsible for recording all medications given during CPR in the OR?
the circulating nurse
CPR is instituted if
there is no pulse, respiration, or blood pressure, and the pupils are fixed and dilated
The first action to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest in teh OR is to
alert the OR supervisor and personnel
Intraoperative and postoperative emergency procedures require the scrub person to
maintain sterile Mayo with instruments
The following rules apply to needle use at the field EXCEPT
a. give needles to surgeon on an exchange basis
b. use needles and needleholders as a unit
c. keep needles away from sponges and laps
d. keep used needles in a medicine cup
d. NO!
What is the disposition of all sharps that have been passed off the field intraoperatively?
keep off the field for rinal resolution of count
A washer-decontaminator, used after instruments are presoaked, uses which of the following processes to remove blood and protein?
impingement
What is the first step in handling the used and unused instruments after a case is completed?
presoaking in a basin