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454 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the length of the aircraft?
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106’8”
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What is the wingspan?
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76’3”
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What is the height of the aircraft at the tail?
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24’ 10”
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How much room is required for a 180 degree turn?
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75’
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What type of engines does the airplane have?
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General Electric CF34-8C5B1
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Name all “8” pressurized doors.
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1. Main Passenger Door
2. Crew Escape Hatch 3. Galley Service Door 4. Avionics Bay Door 5. Forward Cargo Bay Door 6. Right over-wing Emergency Exit 7. Left Over-wing Emergency Exit 8. Aft Cargo Bay Door |
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Which pressurized door is not displayed on the doors page of ED2?
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The crew escape hatch
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What other major exterior door is not displayed, and is it pressurized?
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The Aft equipment bay door is not displayed. No it is NOT pressurized.
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Aside from the doors page on ED2, how can you verify the main cabin door is closed?
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By verifying all of the green alignment pins on the inside of the door are aligned
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How many gallons do the forward and aft potable water tanks hold?
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11.5 gallons forward, and 10.1 gallons aft
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What provides pressure for the potable water system to dispense water?
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Bleed air in flight and an electric motor on the ground
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Are the drain masts of the potable water system heated?
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Yes
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How many total fire extinguishers and PBEs are there onboard the aircraft?
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4 of each located within 3 feet of each other
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How many people can the main cabin door stairs support at once?
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4 people or 1,000 pounds
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What is the minimum oxygen pressure for a crew of three versus a crew of two?
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3 crewmembers require 1110 psi, and two require 810 psi
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What equipment is required for flight in RVSM airspace?
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A- one autopilot
A- altitude alerting system A- Two altitude reporting transponders, one must be operational A- Two air data computers, both must be operational |
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List the maximum weights for the aircraft:
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Maximum Taxi & Ramp Weight = 75,250 lbs
Maximum Takeoff Weight = 75,000 lbs Maximum Landing Weight = 67,000 lbs Maximum Zero Fuel Weight = 62,300 lbs Maximum Flight Weight = 42,000 lbs Minimum Operating Empty Weight = 39,835 lbs |
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What is the maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?
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8,000 feet
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What is the maximum operating altitude of the aircraft?
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41,000 feet
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What is the maximum temperature approved for takeoff and landing?
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ISA +35 degrees C
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What is the minimum temperature approved for takeoff?
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-40 degrees C or –40 degrees F
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What alerts the pilots to SLD icing?
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Ice accretion on the flight deck side windows.
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Is takeoff permitted with frost, ice, snow or slush adhering to any critical areas for takeoff?
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No, with one exception: a maximum of 1/8th in. of frost on the underside of the wings is permitted if it is associated with chilled fuel in the fuel tanks.
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What are the maximum and minimum runway slopes for takeoff and landing?
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+ - 2% (plus/minus 2%)
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What is the maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing?
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10 knots
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What is the minimum flight crew?
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Captain and First Officer without passengers, Captain First Officer and 2 Flight Attendants with any number of passengers
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When cargo is carried, what is the maximum distance in terms of time that the aircraft can be operated from a suitable airport?
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60 minutes
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Why must the aircraft be operated within 60 minutes of an airport when cargo is carried?
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The aircraft’s fire extinguishing system is only capable of providing 60 minutes of fire suppression
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May the flight deck door be unlocked in flight?
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The flight deck door must remain closed and locked in flight, excluding the provisions listed in airline operating manuals for physiological needs.
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What is the maximum N1 rpm?
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99.4% which is the top of the green arc
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What is the maximum N2 rpm?
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99.3% which is the top of the green arc
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What is the maximum oil temperature?
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164 degrees
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What is the minimum oil pressure?
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25 psi
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The engines must remain at idle after start until what parameters are reached?
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Do not exceed 75% N1 for 2 minutes or until all operating indications are in the normal range, whichever is longer
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With the engines running, within what percentage of the performance charts must the targeted N1 be?
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+ - 1% (plus minus 1%)
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When is an airplane considered to be cold soaked?
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When the aircraft is exposed to temperatures of –30 degrees C or below for more than 8 hours.
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What actions must the pilots take with regard to the engines when an aircraft is cold soaked?
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The engines must be motored for 60 seconds prior to start, and fan rotation must be verified. The thrust reversers must be actuated until the deploy and stow cycles are 2 seconds or less
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What is the maximum N2 rpm for starter engagement?
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45%
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What is the maximum ITT for engine start on the ground versus in flight?
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120 degrees C on the ground, and 90 degrees C in flight
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What is the maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff versus in flight?
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300 lbs for takeoff, and 800 lbs in flight
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What must be observed if there is more than 500 lbs of fuel in the center tank prior to takeoff?
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Each wing tank must have a minimum of 4,400 lbs or the AFM must be referenced
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What is the minimum quantity of fuel for the execution of a go-around?
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600 lbs of fuel per wing provided the aircraft’s pitch attitude does not exceed 10 degrees nose up
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What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature for takeoff with JET A?
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-30 degrees C
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What is the bulk fuel freezing point of JET A?
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-40 degrees C
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What is the minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?
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-40 degrees C or –40 degrees F
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What is the absolute maximum APU EGT?
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1038 degrees C
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What is the maximum APU rpm?
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106%
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What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed air extraction?
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25,000 feet
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What is the maximum altitude for APU operation versus APU start?
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41,000 feet for apu operation, and 37,000 feet for start
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What is the maximum altitude for starting the main engines?
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21,000 feet
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What is the aircraft’s maximum mach number?
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Mach 0.85
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What is the maximum mach number in RVSM airspace?
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Mach 0.83
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What are the maximum flap extension speeds?
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Flaps 1 = 230 KIAS
Flaps 8 = 230 KIAS Flaps 20 = 230 KIAS Flaps 30 = 185 KIAS Flaps 45 = 170 KIAS |
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What is the maximum speed to extend and fly with the landing gear down?
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220 KIAS
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What is the maximum speed for landing gear retraction?
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200 KIAS
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What is the maximum tire speed?
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182 knots
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What is the maximum speed with the ADG deployed?
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Vmo/Mmo
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What is the maximum turbulent penetration speed?
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280 KIAS or 0.75 Mach, whichever is lower
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What is the maximum speed for windshield wiper operation?
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250 KIAS
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If the windshield wipers fail out of the parked position, what is the maximum speed?
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250 KIAS
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What is the maximum “G” loading with the flaps retracted verses extended?
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-1.0 to 2.5 flaps retracted, and 0.0 to 2.0 flaps extended
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What are the maximum and minimum relief differential pressures?
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8.7 psi to - 0.5 psi
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During taxi, takeoff and landing, what is the maximum differential pressure?
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0.1 psi
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Why is the maximum differential pressure 0.1 psi for taxi, takeoff and landing?
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To allow the doors to easily open in the event of an emergency evacuation
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What is the maximum permissible load on each generator excluding the ADG?
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40 kVA
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What is the maximum permissible load on each TRU?
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120 amps
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What is the maximum altitude with the flaps extended?
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15,000 feet
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What is the minimum altitude allowed with spoilers extended?
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300 feet
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What are the thrust reverser limitations?
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--Do not attempt a go-around after thrust reverser deployment
--Power back operations are prohibited --Takeoff with any thrust reverser warning or caution messages is prohibited --After landing begin moving the thrust reverse to idle by 75 KIAS |
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When must the taxi lights be turned off when the aircraft is stationary?
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After 10 minutes
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How long must the photo luminescent strips in the cabin be exposed to light prior to passenger boarding?
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15 minutes
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How many minutes of light will the emergency lights provide?
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10 minutes
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When does the FDR begin recording?
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When the strobe lights are turned on prior to takeoff
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What will cause the emergency lights to illuminate when the switch is in the armed position?
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A loss of either the AC or DC Essential bus
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How many emergency light battery packs are there?
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4
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If the primary wing NAV light burns out, how is the secondary bulb selected?
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The secondary bulb will illuminate automatically
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When the seatbelt sign switch is in the AUTO position, when will the seatbelt sign illuminate automatically?
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When the landing gear or flaps extend, or when the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet
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What sends the signal for the seatbelt sign to illuminate when the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet?
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The CPAM
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What do the following EICAS display color codes mean: red, amber, green & white?
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Warning, Caution, Advisory, Status
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What powers the two EICAS screens?
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The battery bus
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Are the two EICAS cooling fans powered by the battery bus?
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NO
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What is it important to provide APU or external electrical power to the aircraft within 5 minutes of energizing the battery?
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To prevent the EICAS screens from overheating without the cooling fans
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What gathers data for EICAS display?
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The 2 Data Concentrator Units
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How many chimes are there for a CAUTION message or a WARNING message?
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One chime and three chimes respectively
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Name a few other aural warnings that the DCUs can generate.
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The fire bell for a fire, the warbler for a stall, the clacker for an overspeed, and the siren for windshear and terrain
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Which aural warnings will the DCU audio warning inhibit switches not cancel?
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Windshear, EGPWS and TCAS
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Which 4 ECP buttons are mechanical and not dependant on the ECP microprocessor or ECP power?
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PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP
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When will the oil pressure gauges be present on the primary display in addition to the digital readout?
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With the engines shutdown, or with low oil pressure.
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When will the N1 Vibration gauges replace the oil gauges?
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With the engines running and normal oil pressure
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How is N2 vibration monitored?
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The system monitors N2 vibration independently without display. If the N2 vibration exceeds a predetermined amount, VIB will be displayed inside the N2 gauge.
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When will the flap gauge disappear?
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With the wheel brake temperatures in the normal range, and the gear, slaps and flaps retracted
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When will the wheel brake temperature indicators disappear?
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With the wheel brake temperatures in the normal range, and the gear, slats and flaps retracted.
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When can you box caution messages, and how?
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By pressing the CAS button with both engines running. New messages will appear above the boxed MSG icon.
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When are certain caution messages inhibited on take-off?
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The fire bell for a fire, the warbler for a stall, the clacker for an overspeed, and the siren for windshear and terrain
Which aural warnings will the DCU audio warning inhibit switches not cancel? Windshear, EGPWS and TCAS Which 4 ECP buttons are mechanical and not dependant on the ECP microprocessor or ECP power? PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP When will the oil pressure gauges be present on the primary display in addition to the digital readout? With the engines shutdown, or with low oil pressure. When will the N1 Vibration gauges replace the oil gauges? With the engines running and normal oil pressure How is N2 vibration monitored? The system monitors N2 vibration independently without display. If the N2 vibration exceeds a predetermined amount, VIB will be displayed inside the N2 gauge. When will the flap gauge disappear? With the wheel brake temperatures in the normal range, and the gear, slaps and flaps retracted When will the wheel brake temperature indicators disappe |
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When are certain caution messages inhibited on landing?
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400 AGL to weight on wheels plus 30 sec. or when climbing above 400 feet
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What will happen if ED1 fails?
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The primary page will automatically revert to ED2
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If ED1 fails, the primary page will revert to ED2. How can the synoptic pages be viewed?
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Select EICAS on the MFD reversionary panel and use the ECP (EICAS control panel) to cycle through synoptic pages OR; select ED 2 on the source select panel to un-inhibit the ECP, then select the desired synoptic page.
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What drives the accessory gear box?
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The high pressure turbine (N2)
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What items are on the accessory gear box?
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One engine driven hydraulic pump, fuel pump, oil pump, FADEC alternator, integrated drive generator and air turbine starter
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What are the rated thrust outputs of the engines?
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Normal is 12,670 and APR is 13,790
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What drives the N1 fan?
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The low pressure turbine
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How many stages is the low pressure turbine?
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4
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How much of the engines overall thrust is provided by the N1 fan?
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80%
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What is Variable Geometry (VG)?
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Variable Geometry refers to the first 4 starter vane stages in the compressor section, which moved based on commands from the FADEC to improve airflow through the engine and protect against compressor stall
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What powers the VG vanes?
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Fuel pressure directed by the FADEC
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What is the operability valve?
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The operability valve works in conjunction with the VG vanes to remove internal air pressure from the compressor section of the engine reducing the risk of a compressor stall.
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What powers the operability valve?
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Fuel pressure directed by the FADEC
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How many channels does the FADEC have, and when do the channels change?
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There are 2 channels, A and B. The channels change when the N2 rpm reaches 7% on EVERY OTHER engine start
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How many FADEC channels are in use at once?
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One channel commands the engine, while the other channel monitors the controlling channel and is in standby incase the commanding channel fails.
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Is there ever a time when both FADEC channels will command the engine simultaneously?
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In an engine overspeed situation, both FADEC channels will command the fuel valves to close to bring the speed into the normal range.
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What happens if both FADEC channels fail or the FADEC loses power?
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The engine will fail
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How is fuel heated prior to combustion?
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Through the use of a fuel/oil heat exchanger
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Can the left engine’s FADEC control the right engine?
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NO
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Do the left and right engine’s FADECs cross-talk with each other?
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YES. They compare engine speed and thrust reverser position information
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While cross-talking, when will one engine’s FADEC assume the other engine has failed?
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When there is a difference of at least 15% N1
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When an engine fails, what will the operative engine’s FADEC automatically command?
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APR in the TOGA detent, MCT in the climb detent, and a proportionate increase throughout the cruise range
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What will the FADEC command if a thrust reverser deploys in flight?
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It will reduce that engine’s thrust to idle
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What powers the FADEC?
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Aircraft electrical power with an N2 of less than 50%, and the FADEC alternator with an N2 of greater than 50%
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Will the engine automatically shutdown for a hot start on the ground?
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YES
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If we wait for the FADEC to shut the engine down during a hot start are we guaranteed that the ITT limit will not be exceeded?
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NO
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Is there ITT protection and subsequent auto-shutdown in flight?
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NO
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What is the time limit for single engine APR thrust?
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10 minutes
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What is the time limit for normal or FLEX thrust?
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5 minutes
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At what speed does the FADEC lock in the final N1 computation during takeoff?
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65 KIAS
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When will the L or R OIL LEVEL LO status message appear?
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Below 57% with the engine running and below 80% with the engine stopped
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What is FLEX thrust?
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It is a reduced power setting for takeoff calculated using an assumed temperature
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When using FLEX thrust for takeoff, what must the pilot in command verify prior to takeoff?
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The PIC must verify that the computed thrust displayed on the primary display is equal to or greater than that required in QRH vol. 1
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What color will the FLEX thrust rating be displayed in on the primary display?
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Magenta
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When is FLEX thrust not permitted?
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--Wing and/or cowl anti-ice bleeds are in use
--Runway is contaminated (more than 1/8th inch) with standing water, slush, snow, or ice --Warnings or forecasts of windshear or downdrafts exist --Antiskid system is inoperative |
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What stages of the engine is bleed air extracted from?
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6th and 10th stage
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Can both stages be used at once?
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NO
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What powers the igniters?
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Igniter A is powered by the AC essential bus, and igniter B is powered by the aircraft’s battery
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When is the use of continuous ignition required?
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--Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms
--Flight through moderate or severe turbulence --Flight through moderate or severe intensity rainfall --Operations on a contaminated runway |
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When will the continuous ignition fire automatically?
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--When the FADEC senses a flameout
--When approaching a stickshaker during a stall --When a disruption of airflow is detected through the engine |
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How are the thrust reversers actuated?
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Hydraulically
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How are the thrust reversers locked?
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Hydraulically, and mechanically
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What are the thrust reverser limitations?
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Use in flight is prohibited. Do not attempt a go-around after reverser deployment. Upon landing the thrust reversers must be below 60% N1 by 75 KIAS
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What is the maximum ITT for engine start on the ground and in flight?
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120 degrees on the ground, and 90 degrees in flight
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What is the maximum altitude for engine re-light?
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FL 210
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What are the five different engine idles?
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Flight idle, approach idle, landing idle, reverse idle and ground idle
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When is APR armed on takeoff?
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When within 8% of target thrust
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When is the go-around armed on approach?
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With the gear extended or the flaps greater than 20
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What does the blue circle indicate on the N1 gauge during cruise (CRZ) flight?
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The maximum thrust setting for cruise (less than MCT)
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What are the engine warm-up limitations?
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The engines must remain at idle until the oil pressure is in the normal range. Do not exceed 75% N1 until all indications are in the green or 2 minutes has passed whichever is greater.
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What is the engine cool down limitation?
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After landing the engine must be at or near idle thrust for 2 minutes prior to shutdown
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What is the Maximum ITT during start?
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815 degrees
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What are the engine starter limits?
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See chart
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What is the primary purpose of the APU?
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The primary purpose of the APU is to provide electrical power
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Name some things that would cause the APU to automatically shutdown on the ground or in flight:
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Overspeed, >106% Speed fallback
Loss of overspeed protection APU fire/emergency Loss of speed sensor signals Loss of air inlet No APU rotation APU door failure No APU lightoff Uncommanded door closure Slow start ECU internal failure No Acceleration Loss of DC power |
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Will the APU shutdown on the ground due to high oil temp or low oil pressure?
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yes
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Will the APU shutdown in flight due ot high oil temp or low oil pressure?
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no
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If the APU shuts down automatically due to fire on the ground will the bottle fire?
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yes
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If the APU shuts down automatically due to fire in flight will the bottle fire?
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no
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At what altitude will the surge control valve open?
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17,000 feet
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What is the maximum altitude for APU operation?
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FL 410
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What is the maximum altitude for APU start?
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FL 370
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What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed air extraction?
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FL 250
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The APU will not start if the APU rpm is rotating above what speed on the ground verses in flight?
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5% on the ground and 12% in flight
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If the APU door is open or the door position is unknown with the APU shutdown, what is the limitation?
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Flight is restricted to 220 knots
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What are the primary reasons for the above restriction?
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To prevent the APU from wind-milling without the proper lubrication, and to ensure the APU rpm remains below 12% in the event it becomes necessary to start the APU in flight
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Is there a way around the 220 knots restriction with the APU door open?
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Yes. Normal speeds can be used if the APU is running
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What provides fuel to the APU?
|
A dedicated 28 VDC pump feeding from the left collector tank
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If the APU fuel pump fails will the APU continue to operate?
|
Yes, but it cannot be restarted without the pump
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What is the purpose of the Load Control Valve (LCV)?
|
The LCV varies pneumatic load to ensure electrical power and 45 psi in the manifold
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Can APU bleed air be used by the anti-ice system?
|
NO
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What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start?
|
22 volts
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What are the APU starter limitations?
|
Maximum of 3 starts per hour with a 2 minute cooling period in between
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What powers the APU door, and what powers the ECU?
|
The APU battery provides power to the door and is secondary for the ECT. The Main battery is the primary power source for the ECU
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If the APU is left unattended, can the ground crew shut it down?
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YES, through the use of an APU shutoff switch on the forward nose, or in the APU compartment
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Which engine normally provides bleed air to which pack?
|
The left engine to the left pack, and the right engine to the right pack
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How is the bleed air from both engines kept separate?
|
The isolation valve
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Can the Left engine provide bleed air to the right pack? If so, how?
|
Yes. By selecting the ISOL switch to OPEN, the BLEED SOURCE rotary selector to L ENG, and then placing the BLEED VALVES rotary selector to MANUAL
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How is the ISOL switch normally positioned?
|
CLSD
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What does the Cabin Pressure Controller do?
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It independently acquires and monitors cabin pressure, outside air pressure, differential pressure, and rate of change information and commands the outflow valve to move based on this information.
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How many automatic Cabin Pressure Controllers are there and why?
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Two. One is active and the other is in standby ready to assume control if the active controller fails.
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What does the CPAM (Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module) do?
|
First, it acquires cabin pressure and rate of change information for display on the EICAS. In the event both CPCs fail, this information will let the crew know how they should manually operate the outflow valve. Second, It commands the passenger oxygen masks to deploy and the seatbelt no smoking signs to illuminate if the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet
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Describe how to manually control cabin pressure.
|
Push the PRESS CONTROL switchlight, and adjust the MAN RATE knob to full decrease. Then move the MAN ALT switch either up or down depending on if you want the cabin to climb or descend. To increase the rate of change, slowly move the MAN RATE knob toward the increase position.
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How many outflow valves are there?
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1
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How is the outflow valve powered?
|
Electrically (not pneumatically) by three separate electric motors
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During automatic mode when the CPCs are in control, how many operational phrases are there?
|
7
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Name 4 of the CPCs operational phrases.
|
Ground phase, takeoff phase, flight abort phase, climb/cruise phase, descent phase, landing phase, and touch-and-go phase
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What does flight abort phase do?
|
It will assume the departure field will be the landing field elevation until the airplane climbs through 6,000 feet or ten minutes passes
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What is the EMER DEPRESS button used for?
|
In an emergency the crew can push it to depressurize the airplane. Its use is prohibited above 15,000 feet
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When will the cabin altitude aural warning sound?
|
At a differential pressure of 8.7
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Will the cabin fully decompress if I’m flying at 41,000 feet?
|
No. The cabin will depressurize up to a cabin altitude of 14,500 feet plus or minus 500
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What does the ground valve do?
|
It ensures the cabin is depressurized on the ground, and increases air flow for avionics cooling
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When does the ground valve open and close?
|
The ground valve closes when the main cabin door is closed prior to departure, and opens after landing with weight on wheels
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What does the OVBD COOL FAIL status message indicate?
|
The ground valve has failed closed after landing
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|
What does the “PACK” acronym stand for?
|
Pneumatic Air-Conditioning Kit
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Which Pack provides cooling to the cockpit? Which to the Cabin?
|
Normally the left pack to the cockpit, and the right to the cabin
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Can the left pack provide cooling to the cabin if the right pack fails?
|
Yes
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How can the left pack provide cooling to the cabin if the right pack fails?
|
Both packs provide air to the mixing manifold under the aft cargo. Internal baffling in the mixing chamber will allow either packs air to both the cockpit and cabin
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How is the cabin temperature manually adjusted.
|
Push the MAN CABIN button to take manual control of the temperature control valve, then move the HOT COLD switch in the desired direction for the cabin temperature.
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Can the aircraft be flown with one pack inoperative?
|
Yes, but the flight is limited to 31,000 feet
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What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?
|
+8.7psi, and –0.5psi, 0.1psi during taxi
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From what engine stages can bleed air be extracted from?
|
The 6th stage under normal operations and a 10th stage HPV (high pressure valve) for high demand situation (anti-ice on, or low power settings).
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Can air be taken from the 6th and 10th stage simultaneously?
|
No. There is a one-way check valve.
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When does bleed air switch from the APU to the engines after takeoff?
|
After takeoff when the thrust levers are pulled out of the TOGA detent with the gear up and flaps at 20 degrees or less
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When does the bleed air switch from the engines to the APU on approach?
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With the gear OR flaps extended to 20 degrees or greater, with thrust out of TOGA
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Describe the function of the Load Control Valve (LCV, figure 5-7)
|
The LCV regulates the flow of air from the APU
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What is the APU’s priority, pneumatic or electric?
|
The APU’s primary purpose is to provide electric power
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What manages bleed air distribution, and the air-conditioning system?
|
Two air-conditioning system controllers (ACSC 1 & 2)
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Is the external ground air connector displayed on the ECS page?
|
NO. However, a digital air pressure readout will indicate external air is being provided.
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What emergency situation requires the RAM-AIR Switchlight to be pressed?
|
When emergency ventilation of the cabin is required
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Where does ram air come from?
|
A scoop at the base of the vertical stabilizer
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What is the water extracted from the pack used for?
|
It is sprayed across the heat exchangers in the ram air duct.
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When does the CABIN PRESSURE aural warning sound?
|
If cabin alt. exceeds 10,000 feet or the pressure differential exceeds 8.7 psi
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Which hydraulic systems are cooled by ram air?
|
Systems 1 & 2
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How many recirculation fans are there?
|
One switch, but two fans
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How are the cockpit avionics and displays cooled?
|
They’re cooled by dedicated cooling fans
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If both display fans fail, how are the displays kept cool?
|
STDBY should be selected on the DISPLAY FAN rotary selector, which allows conditioned cockpit air to cool them
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What does the amber CABIN ALT caution message indicate?
|
Cabin altitude is between 8,500 – 10,000 feet
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Generally describe the journey of air from outside the airplane, through the airplane, and back outside.
|
Air first enters the engine. Then it is ducted to the packs as hot bleed air. From the packs it enters the cabin as conditioned air. From the cabin it would exit outside through the outflow valve.
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Are the vertical and horizontal stabilizers provided with anti-ice protection?
|
NO. Anti-ice protection is not required for these surfaces. Tests have proven no significant ice can form there.
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How many temperature schedules are there for the slats?
|
2. Low for slats retracted, and high for slats extended.
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Which engine bleed air stage does hot anti-ice air come from?
|
The 10th stage.
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Can the APU provide anti-ice protection?
|
NO
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How are the windshields protected from ice?
|
They are electrically heated
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Which position is the windshield heat switch normally in?
|
LOW
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Are the wings protected from getting too hot, and if so how?
|
Yes, the anti-ice leak controller (AILC) monitors wing temperature, and regulates the anti-ice valves to maintain the appropriate temperature
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Can one bleed provide air to both wings, and if so how?
|
Yes, by opening the wing A/I CROSS BLEED selector to the desired side.
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When is the ice detector test accomplished?
|
On the first flight of the day
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What do the PROBES switches do in flight?
|
Nothing, in flight all probes are fully powered regardless of switch position
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When should the WING A/I CROSS BLEED rotary selector be turned?
|
During a bleed leak condition or an engine failure as directed by the QRH
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Which pilots WIPER switch is controlling?
|
The last one moved
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|
Define ground icing, and flight icing conditions
|
--Ground icing condition = OAT 10 degrees or less with visible moisture.
--Flight icing conditions = 10 degrees TAT through –40 degrees SAT while flying through visible moisture such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals |
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|
Define visible moisture.
|
Visible moisture is a visibility of 1 mile or less (fog on the ground or clouds in flight), rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals.
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When should the cowl anti-ice be turned on while on the ground?
|
During Ground icing conditions or while taxiing on a contaminated surface such as snow, ice, standing water or slush.
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When should the wing anti-ice be turned on while on the ground?
|
Only for takeoff when the OAT is 5 degrees or less with visible moisture
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What exceptions are made when type II or IV fluid has been applied to the wings?
|
Only activate wing anti-icing just prior to thrust increase for takeoff
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When should the cowl anti-ice be turned on in flight?
|
When in flight icing conditions, or when the ICE message is displayed
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When should the wing anti-ice be turned on in flight?
|
When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system, or while flying in icing conditions with an airspeed of less than 230 KIAS
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How can external power be used by the ground crew when the cockpit door is locked?
|
Press the AC PUSH switchlight on the external service panel
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What might the DC Service switch be used for?
|
External aircraft lights while repositioning the aircraft without the battery master on
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|
In an aircraft with no power switched on, which buses are powered?
|
The APU and Main battery direct buses, and the emergency bus
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|
How many volts must be present prior to APU start?
|
22-volts minimum
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What is the time limit on battery power without the APU or external power and why?
|
5 minutes, to prevent over heating the CRTs without the cooling fans
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|
How many AC buses are there?
|
4
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How many DC buses are there?
|
9
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What normally powers AC bus 1 & 2 and what is the switching priority in an abnormal situation?
|
G – onside Generator
A – APU G – offside Generator E – External power |
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|
How many TRUs are there and what is there maximum power rating?
|
4 rated at 120-ampere 28 VDC
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|
How many DC bus ties are there and what are their names?
|
5: The Main Tie, Cross Tie, Utility Tie, Essential Tie and Essential TRU Tie
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|
If the Cross Tie closes, what else will close?
|
The Main Tie and Essential Tie will always close if the Cross Tie closes
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|
When is the DC utility bus shed?
|
When the main tie or cross tie closes
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|
What items are on the utility bus?
|
The Passenger Service Units (primarily reading lights)
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|
How are the DC bus ties controlled?
|
DC but tie control is automatically accomplished through the two DC Power Centers (DCPCs)
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|
When will the ESS TRU TIE close (causing it to display on the DC synoptic page)?
|
With the loss of AC BUS 2 and ESS TRU 1
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What does the DC ESS bus primarily provide power for?
|
The captain’s flight instruments
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When will the ADG automatically deploy?
|
During a complete AC power failure
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|
What buses are powered by the ADG?
|
The ADG bus, AC essential bus, DC Essential bus and the DC battery bus
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|
What items are powered by the ADG?
|
H – Hydraulic pump 3B
E – Essential AC bus F – Flaps and slats at ½ speed A – ADG bus S – Stab trim channel 2 |
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|
How much power does the ADG produce?
|
115 volts, 15kVA
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|
What is the minimum airspeed for ADG operation?
|
135 KIAS
|
|
|
Why must the ADG handle be pulled after an auto deployment?
|
As the aircraft slows below 135 KIAS on approach, the ADG will no longer be able to generate sufficient power for operation. The DC ESS bus will continue to be powered through the batteries, but after landing with weight on wheels internal logic will cause the loss of power to the DC ESS bus if the handle is not pulled.
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How is normal power restored after an ADG deployment if a generator returns?
|
By stowing the ADG handle and pressing the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE button.
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|
What items are powered by the DC emergency bus?
|
Engine fire extinguishers, APU Fire Extinguisher, Fuel SOVs and Hyd SOVs
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|
When is the DC emergency bus displayed on the DC synoptic page?
|
When power is lost from one or both of its power sources.
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|
When operating only off the batteries in an emergency power situation, how many minutes of battery life does each APU start attempt cost?
|
6 minutes
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|
|
Describe the fuel tank venting system.
|
There are Naca vents and climb vents. The tanks are positively pressurized.
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|
Describe the fuel quantity gauging system.
|
A DC type capacitance system indicates usable fuel
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|
Is the capacitance system calibrated fro ground flight conditions?
|
Both. In flight the computer compensates for pitch and roll.
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|
Aside from the digital readouts, is there any other way to determine fuel quantity?
|
Yes. There are 5 Magnetic Level Indicators that can manually be checked on the exterior of the aircraft, two under each wing and one under the fuselage.
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|
Can raw data from the MLIs be used to determine the fuel level?
|
No. A conversion chart must be used found in the AFM.
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|
Is dispatch authorized with the Fuel Quantity Gauging Computer inoperative?
|
no
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|
What are the tank capacities with pressure refueling vs. gravity?
|
Pressurized: 7,492 in each wing, and 4,610 in the center totaling 19, 594
Gravity: 7,290 in each wing totaling 14,580. The center tank can only be pressure refueled. |
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|
Where is the bulk fuel temperature sensor?
|
In the right wing tank
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|
Describe the function of the automatic fuel crossflow system.
|
The FQGC initiates a crossflow by activating the bi-directional crossflow pump when it detects a fuel imbalance of 200 pounds between the wings. The crossflow pump will continue to operate until the low wing has 50 pounds more fuel than the wing with the previous higher quantity.
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|
Describe the path of fuel from the center tanks to the engines.
|
T – transfer ejector from the center tank to the main tanks
S – scavenge ejector from the main tanks to the collector tanks M – main ejectors from the collector tanks to the engines |
|
|
How is fuel manually transferred?
|
First, press the MAN XFLOW AUTO OVERIDE switchlight. Then press the L or R XFLOW switchlight on the low side (remember “press the light on the light side”) to activate the bi-directional crossflow pump. The GRAVITY XFLOW switchlight could also be pressed allowing fuel to freely move from one tank to the other. By banking the aircraft or entering a gentle slip, gravity will move the fuel.
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|
|
From where does the APU get its fuel?
|
A dedicated boost pump in the left collector tank.
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|
|
If the APU boost pump fails, will it keep running?
|
Yes, however it will not start unless the pump is operating.
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|
Will the main engines start without their respective boost pumps running?
|
Yes
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|
After turning on the boost pumps, what do the switch lights look like?
|
The upper section of the switch lights illuminate “on”, because low pressure is detected in the fuel lines and the pumps begin running.
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|
|
After starting both engines, what do the fuel switchlights look like?
|
They extinguish because the pumps enter the standby mode. Motive flow supplies the fuel to the engines.
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|
Will both boost pumps turn on if only one of the boost pump switchlights is pressed?
|
yes
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|
|
At what fuel quantity does the digital fuel readout turn amber?
|
Less than 1200 lbs. total or less than 600 lbs per wing
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|
|
What is the max imbalance for takeoff and flight?
|
300 for takeoff, 800 for flight
|
|
|
What is the minimum fuel for the execution of a go-around?
|
600 lbs. per wing tank assuming a maximum of 10 degrees nose up
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|
|
What is the center tank fuel limitation?
|
Each wing tank must have a minimum of 4,400 pounds to takeoff with more than 500 lbs. in the center tank unless otherwise directed by the AFM.
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|
|
What is the bulk fuel freezing temperature for Jet A?
|
-40 degrees C
|
|
|
What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature for Jet A for takeoff?
|
-30 degrees C
|
|
|
What fuel temp is required for takeoff at the engine?
|
5 degrees C
|
|
|
How is the fuel warmed to reach 5 degrees or greater?
|
The fuel / oil heat exchanger
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|
|
Describe the fuel check-valve test.
|
On the first flight of the day start the left engine first. Turn off both boost pumps and look for 3 amber EICAS messages, L and R BOOST PUMPS, and R FUEL LOW PRESS. This check is accomplished to verify that the one way check-valve is operating correctly and motive flow fuel is not pressurizing the opposite engine. Upon completion of the first flight, shut down the left engine and turn off off both boost pumps. Look for the three EICAS messages, L and R BOOST PUMPS, and L FUEL LOW PRESS to check the remaining check-valve.
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|
|
What is normal system pressure?
|
3000psi
|
|
|
What is the normal reservoir quantity?
|
45% to 85%
|
|
|
If the reservoir is outside of the normal range, what color will the digital quantity be displayed in?
|
White
|
|
|
Can hydraulic quantity be accurately read without the system energized?
|
no
|
|
|
What kind of hydraulic fluid do we use?
|
Skydrol
|
|
|
What color is it?
|
Purple
|
|
|
If pump 1A or 2A fails, will the respective electric pump activate automatically?
|
NO
|
|
|
When will the electric pumps (ACMPs) automatically activate?
|
With their respective switches in auto, at least one generator online, and the flaps greater than zero
|
|
|
Is system cooling provided for hydraulic system 3?
|
no
|
|
|
How are hydraulic system 1 and 2 cooled?
|
Ram air. If on the ground a cooling fan in the ram air duct blows cooling air over the shared heat exchanger in the aft equipment bay.
|
|
|
Is fluid flowing through the heat exchanger shared by Systems 1 and 2?
|
no
|
|
|
If there is an engine driven pump problem, 1A or 2A, is the associated engine required to be shutdown?
|
No. A shutoff valve has been positioned between the pump and the reservoir to isolate the pump from the system.
|
|
|
When will the HYD 1 or 2 HI TEMP caution be displayed?
|
When the temperature EXCEEDS 96 degrees C
|
|
|
When a powered system is displayed in white on the hydraulic synoptic page, what is indicated?
|
The system is pressurized above 1800 psi
|
|
|
What is indicated when a system is displayed in amber?
|
The system is pressurized LESS than 1800 psi
|
|
|
What is indicated when a system is displayed in muted (dim) magenta?
|
The sensing system is receiving invalid data
|
|
|
Which pumps are not controlled by the hydraulic control panel?
|
Pumps 1S and 2A
|
|
|
How many total hydraulic pumps are there?
|
Six; Four electric pumps and two engine driven pumps
|
|
|
How can the engine hydraulic shutoff valves be closed?
|
By pressing the associated L or R HYD SOV switchlight, or by pressing the associated engine fire switch
|
|
|
What powers hydraulic pump 3B?
|
Normally AC bus 1, and it is hard wired to the ADG to be powered when the ADG is deployed.
|
|
|
If the ADG is providing power to pump 3B, can it be manually turned off?
|
NO, the switch will not work
|
|
|
What effect will a loss of hydraulic systems 2 and 3 have on the landing gear?
|
Manual gear extension is required, and the nose gear will not extend.
|
|
|
What purpose does the accumulator serve?
|
It dampens oscillations in pressure.
|
|
|
What is the normal accumulator charge?
|
1500 psi
|
|
|
Which systems provide power to the brakes?
|
System 2 and 3; 3 inboard brakes, and 2 outboard brakes
|
|
|
Which system provides power to the nose-wheel steering?
|
System 3
|
|
|
Describe the hydraulic check performed on the originating check.
|
Select the hydraulic synoptic page on ED2 and position the switches as follows: 1B OFF, 3A ON, 3B OFF, 2B OFF (all down). Check system 3 quantity and pressure. Reposition the switches as follows: 1B ON, 3A OFF, 3B ON, 2B ON (all up). Check system 1,2 and 3 pressure and quantity. Engage the stab trim and look to see if the SSCU test activates. Return the switches 1B, 3B and 2B to AUTO, and move switch 3A to ON to resume normal operations (all down). When checking each system be sure to verify that the associated hydraulic services are displayed in white.
|
|
|
What holds the MLG in the extended position?
|
Mechanical over centering with down locks
|
|
|
What holds the nose gear in the retracted position?
|
A spring loaded, over-center type locking mechanism
|
|
|
What holds the main gear in the retracted position?
|
Mechanical up locks and hydraulic system 3 pressure
|
|
|
What controls the landing gear?
|
The proximity Sensing Electronic Unit (PSEU)
|
|
|
After the nose gear is extended, do the gear doors close?
|
NO, any time the nose gear is down the doors are open
|
|
|
What ensures the nose wheel is centered prior to retraction into the well?
|
The ECU sends a signal to center after takeoff, and then a centering cam deeps it centered when hydraulic pressure is removed.
|
|
|
What complications can be expected if both hydraulic system 2 and 3 fail?
|
The nose wheel will not extend for landing.
|
|
|
Which hydraulic system is used to raise and lower the gear?
|
Hydraulic system 3
|
|
|
When will the “TOO LOW GEAR” aural warning sound?
|
With a radar altitude below 500 feet at a speed of less than 190 KIAS
|
|
|
What is the maximum steering angle for the nose tiller and rudder respectively?
|
80 degrees and 8 degrees
|
|
|
Why is it important not to move the tiller in flight with the gear extended?
|
The steering will be inoperative as annunciated by a STEER INOP message on the EICAS upon landing; however, you will have no warning in flight.
|
|
|
Where can flight crew specific supplemental maintenance procedures be found to clear a STEER INOP nuisance message?
|
Supplementary procedures in chapter 5 of the SOP
|
|
|
What is locked wheel protection?
|
The Antiskid Control Unit (ASCU) monitors each wheel to ensure even rotation. If one wheel enters a skid and is at least 30% slower than the others, the ASCU will release brake pressure to that wheel to balance the rotation speeds.
|
|
|
What is touchdown protection?
|
This guards from inadvertent landing with the brakes applied if the pilot is pressing the brake pedals. Braking will not be applied until a wheel spin up of 35 knots is achieved, or weight on wheels plus 5 seconds.
|
|
|
What colors does the Brake Temperature Monitoring System display brake heat in?
|
Green – Normal range between 0 and 6
White – Caution range between 7 and 14 Red – Overheat range between 15 and 20 |
|
|
How can an actual temperature be calculated based on the BTMS readings?
|
Take the readout valve and multiply by 35 to determine actual brake temp
|
|
|
After a landing or rejected takeoff, what is the minimum turn around time?
|
15 minutes to insure max brake temperate is reached.
|
|
|
Where is the brake energy chart found?
|
QRH volume 1
|
|
|
Can braking be accomplished through the use of accumulator pressure?
|
yes
|
|
|
How many brake applications are available from an accumulator charge?
|
Up to 6
|
|
|
What are the brake accumulators charged to?
|
750 psi
|
|
|
How are the tires thermally protected from blowout?
|
Through the use of 4 thermal fuse plugs in each wheel
|
|
|
Can the brake wear indicators be checked without brakes applied?
|
No, both hydraulic system 2 and 3 must be activated and the brakes applied
|
|
|
How does the parking brake work?
|
The parking brake shutoff valve is used to lock the brakes on by trapping hydraulic system 3 pressure. When the hydraulic systems are shutdown, system 3 accumulator pressure should keep the brake applied for an extended period of time.
|
|
|
Which hydraulic systems power the flight controls?
|
All three hydraulic systems provide power
|
|
|
What is the rudder travel limiter?
|
The rudder travel limiter restricts rudder movement to prevent excessive tail loading at high speeds. It receives airspeed inputs from the air data computers, and the slat flap electronic control unit. Rudder travel will be restricted from 33 degrees to 4 degrees based on flap position and airspeed.
|
|
|
What provides gust lock protection on the ground?
|
Residual hydraulic pressure trapped by checkvalves in the PCUs
|
|
|
Which control wheel is the autopilot roll servo connected to?
|
The first officer’s
|
|
|
Which control column is the autopilot pitch servo connected to?
|
The captain’s
|
|
|
What indications will be present with a PCU runaway.
|
One of the two green roll select lights will be illuminated.
|
|
|
When the aileron trim is in the normal range on the ground, what color will it be displayed in?
|
Green. It will turn white when moved out of the normal range
|
|
|
What color will the aileron trim be displayed in during flight?
|
White, regardless of trim position
|
|
|
Where do the yaw dampers receive data from?
|
YD 1 receives data from FCC 1, and YD 2 receives data from FCC 2
|
|
|
What do the yaw dampers do?
|
They improve lateral stability, and alleviate dutch roll
|
|
|
When the ROLL DISC handle has been pulled, what “ROLL” control surfaces will each yoke have control of?
|
The left yoke controls the left aileron, and the right yoke controls the right aileron. Each yoke controls the opposite side’s multifunction spoilers.
|
|
|
How many PCUs power the rudder?
|
3
|
|
|
If the Rudder is jammed, how can control be regained?
|
Increasing the pressure on the rudder pedals, will cause the bungee breakout system to be activated and control can be regained.
|
|
|
How many stab trim motors are active at a time?
|
Only one motor drives the jackscrew at a time. The other motor free wheels with the operative motor, and assumes control if the operative motor fails.
|
|
|
Will the autopilot disengage if manual control yoke trim is used?
|
Yes, the autopilot will disengage.
|
|
|
Name the 4 different trims in order of priority:
|
M – manual trim from either control yoke (captain’s has priority)
A – autopilot trim A – auto trim (flap compensation trim) M – mach trim |
|
|
What protection is provided in the event of a stab trim runaway?
|
Stab trim brakes controlled by the SSCUs
|
|
|
What is auto trim?
|
Auto trim compensates for changes in aircraft pitch associated with flap extension or retraction. It is also known as flap compensation trim.
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the split on the control yoke for stab trim?
|
Both halves of the switch must be moved together to engage the trim motors. If one half of the switch jams, the trim motors will not run.
|
|
|
Will the alternate flap extension switch move the slats and flaps while flying faster than 230 KIAS?
|
no
|
|
|
Will the alternate flap extension switch override the position of the flap handle?
|
yes
|
|
|
Will the stick pusher engage if only one switch is armed?
|
no
|
|
|
If the ground spoilers fail to deploy after touchdown, what action can be taken?
|
Move the GND LIFT DUMPING switch to MAN ARM
|
|
|
How is hydraulic pump 3B powered in the event of a total electrical failure?
|
The ADG
|
|
|
What protects the ailerons from flutter in the even tof a loss of pressure to the PCUs?
|
Flutter dampers
|
|
|
What protects the flight controls in the event of a PCU runaway?
|
Bungee breakouts
|
|
|
What are the slats and flaps powered by?
|
Two electric motors, each controlled by two Slat/Flap Electronic Control Units (SFECUs)
|
|
|
What happens if one slat or flap motor fails?
|
The slats or flaps will operate at half speed.
|
|
|
What is the elevator travel?
|
23 degrees Up and 18 degrees down
|
|
|
Where is rudder or aileron mistrim indicated?
|
It will be indicated as a boxed R and A on the PFD
|
|
|
When do the spoilers retract after landing?
|
Forty seconds after weight on wheels
|
|
|
Stall protection angle of attack trip points result in progressive automatic warnings. What are they?
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Continuous ignition, autopilot disengages, shaker, pusher, glare-shield lights, and finally the audio warbler.
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What does the GLD UNSAFE caution message indicate?
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It indicated ground lift dumping may occur inadvertently if the system is not manually disarmed.
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Which fire detection system is not monitored from the flight deck?
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The lavatory fire system
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How does the lavatory fire extinguisher work?
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A halon bottle is located in the trash bin. It is sealed with a heat sensitive plug. Heat from a fire will burn through the plug and release the halon into the trash bin.
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Is there a way to test the smoke detector in the lavatory?
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Yes, a pushbutton is located on the detector mounted on the ceiling. When pressed, the SMOKE AFT LAV warning message illuminates on ED1.
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Will the APU shutdown automatically on the ground for a fire?
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Yes, and the extinguishing bottle will fire five seconds later.
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Will the APU shutdown automatically in flight?
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yes
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Will the APU extinguishing bottle fire automatically in flight?
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no
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How many engine fire detection loops are there?
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2
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How many fire detection loops are in the APU?
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2
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Can a flight be dispatched with one engine or APU fire detection loop inoperative?
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yes
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How many overheat detection loops are in the main landing gear bay?
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1
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How many fire detectors are there in the forward and aft cargo compartments?
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3 in the forward, and 2 in the aft
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If we extinguish a fire with the cargo bottle in the forward cargo compartment, what can be done for a fire in the aft cargo compartment?
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Nothing, a landing should be made as soon as possible.
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Why are there two cargo fire bottles if they can only be used in one compartment?
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One bottle is used to extinguish the fire, and the other bottle is released slowly over 60 minutes to suppress the fire until landing.
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Why must we fly within 60 minutes of a suitable airport while carrying cargo?
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The fire extinguishing system provides 60 minutes of fire suppression.
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What is the restriction for use of the portable halon extinguisher on the flight deck?
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Both pilots must wear their oxygen masks selected at 100%
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How does halon work to fight a fire?
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It eliminates oxygen in the air causing the fire to suffocate
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Where is crew oxygen bottle pressure read?
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The status page on ED2
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What is the minimum pressure authorized for dispatch with 3 flight deck crew?
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1110 psi
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What is the minimum pressure authorized for dispatch with 2 flight deck crew?
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810 psi
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At what pressure will the OXY LO PRESS caution message appear?
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960 psi
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Where else can bottle pressure be read?
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Outside the aircraft on the oxygen service panel
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Is the exterior oxygen pressure gauge calibrated?
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NO, a correction chart must be used for non-standard temperature.
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Where is the crew oxygen bottle located?
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In the wardrobe closet behind an access panel
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At what altitude will the crew oxygen masks provide 100% regardless of switch position?
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30,000 feet cabin altitude
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At what altitude will the passenger oxygen masks deploy?
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Cabin altitude of 14,000 feet
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What system controls the passenger mask auto deployment?
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The Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module (CPAM)
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How many minutes of oxygen are provided by the passenger oxygen generators?
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13 minutes
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What is important to remember about the oxygen generators?
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They produce an extreme amount of heat and are able to reach 500 degrees F
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How many walk-around bottles are there, and where are they located?
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2: one in the forward cabin and one in the aft cabin overhead bin
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How many passenger oxygen masks are there in each row on either side of the aisle?
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Each row has 3 masks on both sides of the aisle
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How many PBEs are there?
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4
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If the autopilot and flight directors are off, what will happen if the autopilot is engaged?
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Pitch and Roll will become the active mode and the flight directors will appear.
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In vertical speed mode, is there structural speed protection?
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yes
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Why are there two lights next to the APPR switch?
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Each light represents one of the two FCCs
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At what altitude will ½ bank be automatically engaged?
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31,600 feet
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At what altitude will mach mode replace IAS mode?
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31,600 feet
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What does the sync button on the back of the yoke do?
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The SYNC button synchronizes the flight director to the present flight attitude.
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Will the SYNC work with the autopilot engaged?
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no
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What do the TOGA switches on the thrust levers do?
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Commands GA/GA mode (go-around) during a missed approach, disengages the autopilot, moves the flight director up to 10 degrees, inhibits the ½ back switch, engages heading hold, and sequences the FMS missed approach
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When is ½ bank inhibited?
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It is inhibited during takeoff or go-around mode, or when the approach localizer has been armed.
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Will a yaw damper failure cause the autopilot to disconnect?
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yes
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How can the autopilot be disengaged?
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It can be disengaged by the AP DISC switch bar, the AP / SP switch on the yoke, or the TOGA switches
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What is the minimum altitude for autopilot engagement?
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600 feet
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What is the minimum altitude for autopilot disconnect on a visual approach?
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1000 feet
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What is the minimum altitude for autopilot disconnect on an ILS?
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Glideslope <_ (less than or equal to) 3.5 degrees disconnect at 80 feet
Glideslope > (greater than) 3.5 degrees disconnect at 120 feet |
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What is the minimum altitude for autopilot disconnect on a non precision approach?
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400 feet
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What is the function of the trend vector on the airspeed tape?
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They are arrows representing where the aircraft will be in 10 seconds.
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What does the green line indicate on the airspeed tape?
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1.3 x VS
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If the aircraft exceeds +30/-20 degrees of pitch or 65 degrees of bank, what will the PFD do?
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It will de-clutter, and provide a red chevron pointing to the sky
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What does would a DCP 2 message indicate on the captain’s PFD?
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The first officer’s display control panel is controlling his flight instruments
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How long does the AHRS take to initialize on the ground versus in flight?
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70 seconds on the ground and 10 – 35 seconds in flight
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If booting the AHRS in DG mode how long could the initialization process take?
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10 minutes
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What does a red “X” through the airspeed tape, altitude tape and VSI indicate on the captain’s PFD?
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This indicates that ADC 1 has failed. The QRH should be referenced which will guide the captain to select ADC 2 on the source select panel. An amber ADC 2 message will be displayed on his PFD once selected.
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What does the flight mode annunciator in the upper left corner of the PFD display?
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Current flight mode in green, armed mode in white
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What powers each AHRS if its respective power source is lost?
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Battery power for up to 11 minutes
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If only supplied by battery power, will the AHRS re-initialize?
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no
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Which pitot tube provides information to the Integrated Standby Instrument (ISI)?
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Pitot 3
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How many seconds of warning is provided by a Traffic Advisory (TA)?
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45 seconds
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How many seconds of warning is provided by a Resolution Advisory (RA)?
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30 seconds
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In order to display TCAS information, what must the MFD range be selected to?
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It must be selected to at or below 40 miles
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During a Resolution Advisory (RA), what happens to the MFD range?
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It will reduce to 2.5 miles
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What is indicated by the EFIS COMP MON message?
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A discrepancy exists between the left and right EFIS displays
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Which navigation sensors are normally considered primary?
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GPS
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How many radio altimeters are there?
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2
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If the FMS database is out of date, what color will it be displayed in?
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Amber
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How is a TCAS test performed?
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Press the TFC button on the display control panel, and verify the white sector “tic-marks” are displayed on the inner range ring of the MFD. Select the TCAS page on the Radio Tuning Unit (RTU), and press the TEST button. Observe the white, blue, yellow and red aircraft targets on the MFD, and listen for the “TCAS system test okay” aural message indicating a successful test.
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Where can the MFD radar line be found?
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It’s the top line of MFD, and is displayed in cyan.
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How long is Ground Clutter Suppression (GCS) active after pressing the button?
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12 seconds
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What is radar attenuation?
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Attenuation occurs when the radar beam is absorbed by an extremely intense shaft of precipitation. This absorption is displayed as a “shadow” on the radar screen, and typically indicates an area of extreme precipitation that should be avoided.
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How does the weather radar alert the flight crew of possible attenuation?
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The crew is alerted to possible attenuation by the presence of a yellow backer bar on the outer range ring of the MFD behind the area of attenuation. This feature is only available when the GAIN knob is in NORM, and the radar is selected to WX.
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When using cross-side tuning, what color will the displays be?
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Yellow
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What mode are the aircraft’s transponders?
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Mode S
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When does the cockpit voice recorder begin recording?
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When battery power is applied
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What is the recording interval of the cockpit voice recorder?
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The CVR is a 30 minute rolling loop
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If an RTU fails what can be done to regain control of its radios?
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Press the RTU INHIB switchlight and use cross-side tuning
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What is the EMER switch used for on the audio control panel?
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The EMER switch “hardwires” the respective headset directly to the on-side radio bypassing the RTUs and audio control panels
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What is COM 2 used for?
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ACARS
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How is the EGPWS tested?
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The EGPWS is tested by pressing the switchlight. Holding the switchlight down for less than 2 seconds will initiate an abbreviated test. Holding the switchlight down for longer than 2 seconds will initiate the complete test.
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If the aircraft’s GPS systems are inoperative, will the EGPWS still function?
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Yes, it will compare DME information to determine the aircraft’s position and provide terrain warnings.
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What indications will the pilot have when an increasing performance windshear condition is encountered?
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WINDSHEAR will be annunciated on the PFD in flashing yellow, along with the Alpha Margin Indicator (AMI).
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When an increasing performance amber windshear caution is displayed, will the autopilot disconnect?
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no
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What indications will the pilot have when a decreasing performance windshear condition is encountered?
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WINDSHEAR will be annunciated on the PFD in flashing red, along with the Alpha Margin Indicator (AMI). The windshear aural alert will be heard, and the autopilot will disconnect.
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What is the recommended recovery maneuver for an encounter with windshear?
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* Set maximum thrust
* Ensure spoilers are retracted * Follow the flight director commands smoothly and precisely, but do not follow the AMI * Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until terrain is no longer a factor * DO NOT CHANGE LANDING GEAR OR FLAP CONFIGURATION until the vertical flight path is under control and the AMI has been removed |
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Is a FLEX takeoff permitted when windshear is suspected?
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NO
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Is a go-around required when an increasing performance windshear is encountered?
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A go-around is at the pilot’s discretion, but is not required unless the approach becomes unstable. Extra caution and vigilance should be exercised.
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When following EGPWS escape guidance, what should the pilot do?
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* Set maximum thrust
* Ensure spoilers are retracted * Disengage the autopilot * Climb at the maximum rate possible to gain as much altitude as possible |
