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190 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
To satisfy the actus rea requirement an act must be _____--
intentional
Acts which are not intentional for the purposes of actus rea:
1. reflexive or convulsive acts
2. acts performed while unconcsious or asleep
When does intention exist even where the act itself was unintentional?
Where the person intentionally did something in spite of knowledge that they had a dangerous preexisting condition which could result in harm. (such as eplieptic driving w/out meds)
When can an omission form the basis for criminal liability?
When there is a duty to act:
1. required by statute
2. contractual agreements relied on by others
3. relationship between the paries
4. voluntary assumption of duty (must perform reasonably)
5. D's conduct created the peril
What is the definition of a strict liability crime?
One in which intent is not required and there is no associated mental state.
How can you identify a strict liability crime?
The crime is regulatory, administrative, or moral AND the statute does not contrain adverbs (for intent)
What defenses will not apply to strict liability crimes?
Those that negate intention (eg mistake of fact, voluntary intoxication).
What defenses are available for strict liability crimes?
insanity, involuntary intoxication, duress
Most crimes are ________ intent crimes.
general
Is mistake of fact a defense to a general intent crime?
Reasonable mistake of fact is, but unreasonable mistake is not
Name two commonly tested general intent crimes:
rape and simple battery
What defenses are available to a specific intent crime:
1. mistake of fact (reasonable or not)
2. diminished capacity (eg in/voluntary intoxication
3. insanity
4. duress (generally)
Name the specific intent crimes from the bar:
1. inchoate crimes
2. 1st degree murder
3. assault
4. felonies against property
Name the 3 inchoate offenses:
1. solicitation
2. conspiracy
3. attempt
Typically what result for a successful defense of voluntary intoxication or unreasonable mistake in murder 1 charge.
reduced to murder 2
Unless otherwise specified "murder" refers to what under the common law?
2nd degree murder (a malice crime)
what are the 6 felonies against property? What level of intent crimes are these?
Specific intent
1. larceny
2. embesslement
3. false pretenses
4. robbery
5. burglery
6. forgery
What malice crimes are tested on the bar?
Murder and arson
Is mistake of fact a defense to a malice crime?
Generally, reasonable mistake is defense, but never unreasonable.
what is the doctrine of transferred intent?
an intent to commit a crime against one person is transferred to the actual victim
Can intent be trasnferred between crimes?
No. Felonious intent to do one crime cannot be trasnferred to a different felony.
accomplices are liable for:
1. the originally intended crime +
2. all other foreseeable crimes committed by the principals
When is an accomplice liable?
1. When he has actually done something with the intent to assist a criminal enterprise OR
2. assisted the principals in a significant way w/ knowledge that assistance would be used to commit a crime
What is the rule where the accused accomplice provides a lawful product or service?
Accomplice must
1. know that it is going to be used in a crime; AND
2. have a "stake in the outcome" (e.g., charging more for the product)
* on the bar, knowing provision tends = guilt
When is the crime of soliciation complete?
When the question is asked.
How does the merger doctrine apply to solicitation?
If the person solicited agrees to the crime then a conspiracy exists. The crimes merge and the person cannot be convicted of both.
Does conspiracy merge with attempt or underlying crime?
No, never.
What are the elements of a conspiracy?
1. an agreement
2. some overt act in furtherence of the conspiracy (ie predicate act, slight act ok)
3. intent to pursue an unlawful objective
4. a meeting of the minds
When is mistake a defense undermining intent to pursue a unlawful objective for conspiracy?
Mistake of fact is a defense where it is a defense to the underlying crime (no liability for conspiracy or the predicate crime). Mistake of law is not a defense.
what result where D is charged w/ conspiracy where his "coconspirator" is in fact an undercover agent or otherwise unwilling to commit the crime?
There is no meeting of the minds and therefore no liability for conspiracy. There may be liability for solicitation.
what crimes are coconspirators liable for?
all crimes of their coconspirators
1. committed in furtherance of the conspiracy; and
2. which were reasonably foreseeable
Under the Common Law and in a minority of jurisdictions does conspiracy require an overt act?
No, but the majority requires it.
How can a person withdraw from a conspiracy?
1. By informing all coconspirators of intent to withdraw; and
2. notice must be given while there is still time for the others to abandon criminal plan
What is the effect of an effective withdrawal from a conspiracy?
The conspirator is still liable for conspiracy and any foreseeable crimes already committed in furtherence of it. But he is not liable for further crimes of the coconspirators.
What are the elements of attempt?
1. specific intent to commit a target offense; and
2. take a substantial step towards completion of that offense (apply unless told otherwise. might also see dangerous proximity test)
what intent is required to attempt a general intent or strict liability crime?
a specific intent to attempt the crime.
How does the merger doctrine work w/ attempt?
Attempt merges into the completed crime. But in a transferred intent crime can be convicted of attempt w/ regard to one victim and target crime w/ regard to another.
Insanity is a defense to what crimes?
all including strict liability
What does the M'Naghten test say?
Insane if as a result of a mental defect the D lacked capaity to understand the nature and quality of his acts
What does the irresistible impulse test say?
As a result of a mental defect D lacked capacity for self control and free choice (a volitional test about whether you were capable of controlling action)
What does the Durham Rule say?
Was the D's conduct a "product" of a mental illness? (not really followed anymore)
What does the Model Penal Code (ALI) insanity test say?
1. D lacked the substantial capacity to either appreciate the wrongfulness of conduct; OR
2. conform conduct to the requirements of law as a result of mental disease or illness.
What is the most commonly used insantity rule?
The M'Naghten Test
what is voluntary intoxication?
toxin was knowingly and voluntarily ingested (even by addicts)
What is involuntary intoxication a defense to?
All crimes including strict liability (assuming intoxication caused the actus rea)
what is the rule regarding infancy under common law?
1. under 7, no criminal liability
2. under 14 there is a rebuttable presumption of no criminal libaility
When may a person use non-deadly force in self defense?
when they are:
1. not the initial aggressor; and
2. they reasonably believe that force is about to be used against them
When may a person use deadly force in self defense?
Maj. when they are:
1. not the initial aggressor; and
2. they reasonably believe that deadly force is about to be used against them
Min: duty to retreat prior to using deadly force where safe to do so
Under the minority rule that retreat must be attempted prior to using deadly force, what exceptions apply?
1. V is in their own home
2. V of a violent felony such as rape or robbery (even if retreat would be safe)
3. police officers have no duty to retreat
Under what circumstances may an initial aggressor claim a right to self defense?
1. the initial aggressor withdraws and tells the V that he is surrendoring/withdrawing
2. a non-deadly aggressor is defending against a deadly response
* but note, initial aggressor must make a retreat if it is safe to do so
What right does a person have to defend someone else?
Maj. when they reasonably believe force is about to be used against that person (an honest and reasonable mistake is a defense)
Min. Alter ego rule--defender's legal rights are the same as the person they are defending (so if person defending has no right, eg, they were initial aggressor) the defendor has no right
What are the rules regarding defense of a dwelling?
1. deadly force may never be used in defense of dwelling (eg., spring gun w/ person gone = no defense)
2. may use deadly force to defend self/family when reasonably believe its necessary during a burglery
What is duress a defense to?
All crimes except homocide.
In order to establish the defense of entrapment D must show?
D had no predisposition to commit the crime. Predisposition negates the defense.
What is common law battery?
A completed assualt. General intent.
What is common law assualt?
1. an attempted battery (specific intent); OR
2. a threat (general intent crime)
What is a homocide?
The taking of a life of a human being (even if only briefly shortening life)
what intent is indicated when the bar mentions murder w/out further info?
malice
Homocide is murder when accompanied with what types of intent?
1. intent to kill
2. intent to do serious bodily harm
3. a depraved heart
4. felony murder
What is the definition of a depraved heart?
An act performed inspite of knowledge that a substantial likelihood of cuasing death or great bodily harm exists (gross negligence)
What is a felony murder?
A homocide committed during the course of a felony.
What defenses exist for felony murder?
1. any defense to the underlying felony
2. underlying felony cannot be the killing (felony must be in addition to the homocide)
3. death was unforeseeable
4. death occurred after the felon had reached a point of temporary safety after fleeing crime
5. V is a co-felon at hands of 3rd party, but if innocent pty dies at hands of 3rd pty that is felony murder
How do you get a murder reduced to voluntary manslaughter?
1. provocation/heat of passion
2. imperfect claim of self-defense (honestly, but unreasonably believed they were in danger)
3. diminished capacity
How do you establish provocation for voluntary manslaughter?
1. V must have done something to provoke D
2. that would provoke a reasonable person
3. D acted while still in throes of passion
4. a reasonable person would still have been in throes of passion
What type of murder can be reduced to involuntary manslaughter?
depraved heart (gross negligence). not quite reckless enough to be murder
what seperates involuntary manslaughter from reckless murder?
1. less reckless than gross; or
2. lack of subjective awareness of creating a danger
how does involuntary manslaughter arise?
1. criminal negligence
2. misdemeanor manslaughter (death occurs during a misdemeanor or unlisted felony)
how will you know that you are dealing with 1st degree murder on the bar?
they will tell you, otherwise treat as 2nd degree
What are the elements of kidnapping?
1. some movement of the V; or
2. V kept in a secret place
Is mistake a defense for rape?
Yes, as a general intent crime reasonable mistake is a defense.
What type of crime is statutory rape?
A strict liability crime
Is consent or mistake of fact a defense to statutory rape?
No.
What are the elements of larceny?
1. a wrongful taking (can include mispresentation of fact)
2. a carrying away (however slight)
3. the personal property of another (from the rightful possessor)
4. without valid consent
5. with the intent to permanently deprive of rightful possession
Does a larceny result when someone takes personal property with the intent to return it safely, but in fact destroys it.
No, no intent to deprive permenantly
Does a larceny result when someone unreasonably believes the property they are taking is their own?
No, No, no intent to deprive rightful owner permenantly
Is a mistake of law a defense for larceny?
No.
What are the elements of embezzlement?
1. The lawful possessor of property improperly converts property to their own uses.
need an embezzler carry away property? benfit from the conversion? kept the property?
no, no, no
What are the elements of false pretenses?
1. D uses false pretenses to persuade owner to convey title of property.
2. lie must be about a past or present fact, not about future promises.
Robbery = ? + ?
larceny + assault
What are the elements of robbery?
1. all elements of larceny; and
2. taking from a person or his presence; and
3. by means of physical harm or threat of imminent physical harm against a person
what constitutes use of physcial harm or threat for robbery?
1. any use of a small amount of force (taking w/out V being aware is not robbery)
2. threats of imminent harm to a human life (no future threats)
How is extortion different than robbery?
1. no need to remove property from person or presence of V
2. threat may be of future harm
3. threatened harm need not be against a person
4. threat does not have to be of physical harm
what is arson?
the malicious burning of the dwelling house of another.
what constitutes a burning for the purpose of arson?
Maj. must be some charring of the property (mere damage by smoke or water is not enough)
what constitutes a dwelling for the purpose of arson?
At common law, required that it be somewhere that someone sleeps. For mbe, any structure will do.
At common law could a person commit arson by burning their own home?
No. (but maybe insurance law)
what are the elements of burglary?
1. breaking (removal of obstruction through force, fruad, or threat. includes internal doors)
2. entering (any part of the body crossing threshold)
3. dwelling house
4. at night
5. with intent to commit a felony or theft inside
what result where a person breaks into a home and then forms the intent to steal? if they intend to steal and then do not commit theft?
1. no burglary
2. burglary
What is the exclusionary rule?
Rule that prevents criminal prosecution from using unconstitutionally obtained info (but not necessarily illegally obtained info).
In what settings does the exclusionary rule not apply?
1. civil cases
2. deportation or parol cases
3. grand jury hearings
4. impeachment
5. good faith reliance
What type of unconstitutionally obtained evidence may be used to impeach the accused?
1. improperly mirandized statements
2. pre or post arrest UN-mirandized silence
3. unconstitutionally seized evidence
When may unconstitutionally obtained evidence be used to impeach the accused?
when the D personally testifies in a manner inconsistent with the unconstitutionally obtained statement
What types of statements are not admissable as impeachment evidence?
1. coerced confessions
2. post-Mirandized silence
3. 6th amendment right to counsel violations
When does the good faith reliance exception to the exclusionary rule apply?
police relied on
1. later changed judicial opinion
2. a statute or ordinence later found unconstitutional
3. a search warrant defective as a result of insufficient probable cause (but exceptions)
What when can the police not rely in good faith on a defective warrant?
1. the affidavit is so lacking in probable cause that no reasonable officer could rely on it
2. the law is so outlandish that no reasonable officer could rely on it
3. warrant is invalid on its face
4. the affiant lied to or intentionally misled the magistrate
5. the magistrate wholly abandoned his judicial role (insufficiently neutral and detached)
In what situations is a magistrate insufficiently neutral and detached to allow good faith reliance on a warrant?
1. magistrate is also prosecutor
2. is paid per warrant
3. acted in such a way as to become a member of the law enforcement team
To be valid on its face a warrant must state ________
the place or things to be searched with particularity.
what does the fruit of the poisonous tree rule do?
excludes all evidence obtained or derived from unconstitutional police acts
How is the chain of taint broken in the fruit of the poisonous tree?
Through a free will act by D (but only as applies to that D)
What exceptions apply to the fruit of the posionous tree rule?
1. intervening act of free will
2. inevitable discovery
3. physical evidence obtained through a Miranda violation
4. Knock and announce violations
When does the inevitable discovery rule apply?
when a preponderance of evidence establishes that evidence would inevitably have been discovered without the constitutional violation
what is the knock and announce rule?
police need to knock and announce their presence prior to entering to serve a warrant--but violating does not create fruit of poisonous tree exception
when is an arrest warrent required?
to arrest someone in their home (or a place they are spending the night)
what do the police need to perform a valid arrest?
probable cause
when do the police not need a warrant to arrest someone in their home?
in an emergency situation
what is the search and seizure question model?
1. was there state action
2. does D have standing to object
3. did the police have a search warrant
4. if no warrant, is search covered by an exception
for the purposes of the 4th amendment is an off-duty police officer covered? a private citizen working at urging of the government?
yes; yes
in order to have standing to object to a search and seizure the D must have __________
a reasonable expectation of privacy in the area searched or the items seized. no reasoanble expection where item has been exposed to the public.
name some situations in which the Court has found no reasonable expectation of privacy?
1. eavesdropping in public
2. scrapping paint off exterior of car
3. monitoring vehicles in public
4. search of open fields
5. observation during a fly-over in public airspace
6. search of garbage left for pickup in public street
7. search for contraband where only the presence of contraband will be found (drug dog)
may the police pull over a car on the pretext of a traffic violation in order to peek into a car?
yes, if they actually observe a traffic violation
may the police constitutionally enter an open field protected by no tresspassing signs and fence?
yes, no reasonable expectation of privacy in open fields
standing to challenge search and seizure always exists where a person:
1. owns the searched premises
2. lives on the premise searched
3. is an overnight guest at the premises
standing to challenge search and seizure generally exists where a person:
1. is legitimately on the searched premises
2. they owned the property seized
does a drug dealer in another's premises for the purposes of illegal activity have standing to challenge search and seizure?
no, because he is not there for legitimate purposes
when does a passanger in a car have standing to object to evidence seized from a closed container?
where the passanger can establish that the container belonged to them
is the testimony of a passanger in a car testifying to ownership of a container in order to establish standing later admissable against that person
no. no case on point, but might be admiss on impeachment
what do the police need to obtain a search warrant?
probable cause
how is probable cause determined?
based on a totality of circumstances
can an anonymous tip provide probable cause?
yes, depending on the totality of the circumstances
what are the elements of a valid warrant?
1. probable cause, supported by enough info for magistrate to make a commonsense evaluation
2. issued by a neutral and detached magistrate
3. properly executed (timely)
4. states place to be search and items with particularity
when is search warrant unnecessary?
1. search incident to lawful arrest
how can police overcome an invalid warrant?
the good faith exception or within a search warrant exception
what are the rules regarding a search incident to arrest?
1. arrest must occur first
2. must occur at time and place of arrest
3. limited to person's wingspan
4. special rules for cars
what are the rules for a search incident to arrest as applies to cars?
1. every place in passanger compartment can be searched (including closed containers) but not trunk
2. police can reenter the car after suspect is out and search
3. recent occupant rule allows search of car exited just prior to arrest
During a search incident to arrest the police are permitted to search _________.
in the area of the person's wingspan and areas immediately adjoining the place of arrest for others who might attack officers (need reasonable suspicion to search for non-adjoining rooms.
A reasonable suspicion is ___________.
something less than probable cause.
The automobile exception requires __________, but it does not require _________. The police may search _________. Probable cause may arise __________.
probable cause to search the car; a warrant;
anywhere in the car where the items being search for may be kept;
after stopping the car.
Pretextual auto stops ___________.
are permitted where the stop is objectively justified.
Searches at a border require ________.
no probable cause, reasonable suspicion, or anything else.
Items may be seized by officers without a warrant when they are in ________. To qualify the officers must have been able to perceive the items from a place the officer was _________.
plain view;
constitutionally permitted to be.
To seize something in plain view the police must have __________.
probable cause connecting the item to a crime (except abandoned property).
A stop and frisk is __________.
a brief detention during which the police may question and pat down a person with only reasonable suspicion
A frisk is an _________. If an officer finds something during a pat down that they believe to be ______ they may then ___________.
exterior pat down of clothing for a weapon only requiring reasonable suspicion;
contraband;
search for it with probable cause.
During a pat down police get _______ to develop probable cause that something is contraband.
one squeeze (plain feel)
Consent must be _________.
intelligent and voluntary.
Before performing a search the police ______ a warning that consent is voluntary.
do not need to give
Where two or more persons are believed to have an equal right to possess property one of them ________, unless ___________.
can consent to a warrantless search and bind the other;
an objecting co-occupant is present and informs the police of his objections.
Police may seize evidence without a warrant where the evidence is __________.
evanescent (could disappear in the time to get a warrant)
Bodily intrusions to suspects must be _____. If the method is _______________ the intrusion may be deemed a violation of Due Process and the evidence excluded.
reasonable;
too intrusive, painful, or dangerous
In order to enter a dwelling without a warrant on hot pursuit the entry must be _____________. While in hot pursuit the police may seize items found in ______.
within moments of the suspect entering the home;
plain view.
As a general rule, wiretapping and eavesdropping require _________, however, the police may ________. Pin register numbers dialed are _________.
a warrant based on probable cause;
listen in on conversations with another person with that person's permission;
not protected by the 4th amendment.
As a general rule, under the principal of double jeopardy, a defendant cannot be retried ________.
for the same offense by the same sovereign after a dismissal, acquittal, or conviction.
Jeopardy attaches when _______________.
the defendant pleads guilty, the jury is sworn in, in a bench trial when the first witness is sworn in.
Retrying a defendant is permitted where _______.
1. the jury was unable to reach a verdict,
2. a mistrial is granted at the defendant's request
3. it is manifestly necessary to abort the trial;
4. when the defendant has successfully appealed their conviction unless the appeal was for insufficient evidence (dismissal as a matter of law);
6. the D has breached their plea bargain
A defendant may be retried after a successful appeal where __________. The defendant may be charged with ________. If the jury in the first trial found that __________ was inappropriate it may not be granted in the second trial.
the appeal was granted on the basis of the weight rather than sufficiency of the evidence;
the same of a lesser crime (but not greater);
the death penalty
Two crimes are different offenses where______________.
each crime requires proof of an additional element (so mere addition of single element to one crime is insufficient).
If two crimes have the same elements, punishment may be cumulative where ___________.
there was legislative intent for that to occur.
Attachment of jeopardy for ___________ bars retrial for a _____ and vice versa. The exception is ________. A state may continue to prosecute after a guilty plea ____________.
a greater crime, lesser included offense (eg murder and attempted murder);
where the victim of a battery dies after jeopardy has attached (then murder prosecution is okay);
to a lesser or allied crime.
The state may retry a person for a greater offense after jeopardy has attached for a lesser included offense where______________.
1) the greater crime had not occurred at the time of prosecution or
2) had not been discovered yet despite due diligence.
Double jeopardy prevents repetitive __________. The exception is where the civil statute is intended to ________.
criminal prosecutions only, subsequent civil trials are allowed.
The constitutional prohibition on double jeopardy only applies to multiple prosecutions by ___________.
the same sovereign, so the federal government and a state government may both prosecute (but municipalities are considered the same sovereign as the state).
The government may appeal any dismissal of criminal charges _________.
that is not based on acquittal on the merits (even where a successful appeal would cause a retrial).
A defendant may not be retried for a crime if an earlier trial by that sovereign resulted in __________ under the doctrine of________.
an inconsistent factual determination with that required for conviction;
collateral estoppel
Miranda only applies when the suspect is __________ and being _________.
in custody; interrogated (conduct the police knew or should have known would obtain an incriminating response).
In order to exercise the Miranda rights the suspect must ___________. The burden is on ________ to show the suspect waived his rights.
unambiguously exercise the right;
police
A suspect's silence before or after arrest may be used for impeachment, except ___________.
after he has been given his Miranda warnings (violation of due process).
Non-testimonial evidence obtained from an un-Mirandized suspect is _____________.
admissible (no fruit of the poisonous tree problem)
The requirement for Miranda can be satisfied by _______.
substantial compliance with the articulation
No Miranda warnings are required before questioning a suspect in a ___________, but the exception does not apply to ___________.
public safety scenario;
coerced statements.
Once a suspect has elected to exercise their Miranda rights the police may not_____________.
again attempt to obtain a waiver with regard to the same crime.
If a suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the police may question him about _________, but not about ____________. What result where the suspect requests a lawyer?
a different crime with new Miranda warning;
the same crime;
the police can no longer question about any crime
The police may not question a suspect about any crime after he has exercised his right to counsel under the _____________.
5th amendment
Confessions must be____________.
voluntary (no coercion)
The 6th amendment right to counsel applies when__________.
the defendant has a lawyer and formal proceedings have commenced.
Under the ___ th Amendment right to counsel, the government may not _____________.
6th;
question the defendant about the crime without his attorney being present (in any setting).
The 6th amendment right to counsel prohibits the government from questioning the defendant about __________. The 5th amendment right to counsel prohibits the government from questioning the suspect about ___________.
the specific crime for which he has been charged and retained counsel;
any crimes without his lawyer while in custody
The defendant is entitled to counsel during _____________ lineups.
post-indictment, in person
A lineup is a denial of Due Process where ______________.
it is so unnecessarily suggestive as to create a substantial likelihood of misidentification.
If a lineup identification is inadmissible due to lack of counsel or unnecessarily suggestive, the in court identification________
will also be inadmissible unless the prosecution can show through clear and convincing evidence that there is an independent source for the witness' recognition of the defendant (such as knew him before the crime or got a really good look).
Under the constitution there is only a right to a grand jury in __________.
in federal court for felonies
The _______ rule does not apply to grand jury proceedings.
exclusionary
The defendant in a grand jury proceeding does not have what customary rights?
to be present, to have his attorney present, or to call or question witnesses
Bail issues are _______ appealable.
immediately
Preventative detention is permissible (not a due process violation) where ___________.
defendant has received a hearing about the detention and the court has determined that:
1. no amount of bail would guarantee defendant's return to court, or
2. there is no way to ensure the safety of the community if defendant is released.
The speedy trial right only applies to _________.
post-arrest delays
In a criminal trial the jury must be _________ and the decision ____.
at least 6;
need not be unanimous (9-3 is sufficient), but for juries of 6 the verdict must be unanimous
There is only a right to jury trial for ________ as defined by ___________.
non-petty offenses;
a possible punishment of more than 6 months sentence.
The jury pool must represent __________. The jury itself _________.
a fair cross-section of the community;
need not be a fair cross section
As a general rule, lawyers may dismiss jurors with ________ challenges for ___________. However, it is unconstitutional to exclude a juror on the basis of ___________. Lawyer can avoid this problem by offering _________.
peremptory, any reason;
race or gender (applies to both D and P);
any race or gender neutral reason.
The prosecution cannot exclude a juror in a capital case for cause because __________. But they can be excluded if _______________.
they are opposed to the death penalty;
their opposition would substantially impair their ability to follow the court's instructions in that regard.
In order for a guilty plea to be valid the court must _______________. If this is not done ______________.
determine on the record that the defendant has been advised of his rights and waived them by pleading guilty;
the guilty plea may be withdrawn
A D pleading guilty must be advised of ________________.
1. the rights that they are waiving
2. the nature of the charges
3. the maximum possible sentence and any minimum sentence
4. that he has a right to plead not guilty and have a trial
Plea bargains are governed by the same principals as ____________. The D may demand ___________ in the P breaches its duty.
contract theory;
rescission or specific performance.
Pleas can be withdrawn on the basis of ineffective assistance of counsel where ___________.
1. the advice of counsel was truly unreasonable, and
2. it effected the outcome of the case (D would not have plead guilty but for the advice).
Please may only be revoked or appealed after sentencing where:
1. the plea was involunary (including no advisement of rights or effective waiver)
2. trial lacked right to hear the case
3. P failed to keep plea bargain
4. ineffective assistance of counsel
There is only a right to an appointed attorney for misdemeanors where__________. As a collerary ___________.
jail sentence is imposed.
If the judge tries you without appointing a lawyer, then they cannot give you jail time.
There is a right to an appointed attorney where:
1. the charge is a felony
2. it is a misdemeanor and jail time is actually imposed
In felonies the right to appointed counsel includes the right to _______.
state funded experts where necessary
The right to appointment of counsel applies to _____ appeals. It does not apply to __________.
first appeals of right;
to writs for habeas or 2nd level appeals