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101 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method
a. permits the use of tradeoffs between price and non-price factors.
b. may include non-price factors such as technical and past performance.
c. allows the government to accept other than the lowest priced proposal.
d. requires the relative importance of all evaluation factors to be identified in the solicitation.
b. may include non-price factors such as technical and past performance.
Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors with instructions for
proposal preparation?
a. Section C.
b. Section K.
c. Section L.
d. Section M.
c. Section L.
An offeror’s technical volume is used by offerors to
a. provide offeror representations and certifications.
b. identify previous experience with similar requirements.
c. address how it intends to meet the government’s requirement.
d. demonstrate the financial capacity to complete the subsequent contract.
c. address how it intends to meet the government’s requirement.
What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page limitations stated in the
solicitation?
a. Determine the contractor non-responsive.
b. Eliminate the offeror from the competitive range.
c. Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.
d. Accept the proposal “as is” only if determined to be one of the most highly rated proposals.
c. Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.
Which of the following is true regarding awards made without discussions?
a. The government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the request for proposal (RFP)
instructions.
b. The government is not obligated to notify offerors of its intent to award without discussions.
c. It is in the government’s best interest to avoid discussions for time-sensitive acquisitions.
d. Discussions may be held with only the most favored offerors still within the competitive range.
a. The government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the request for proposal (RFP)
instructions.
Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by
a. using discriminators.
b. using non-commercial specifications.
c. including as many evaluation factors as possible.
d. tailoring the evaluation criteria contained in Section K.
a. using discriminators.
Price or cost to the government
a. is only evaluated when using tradeoffs.
b. must be evaluated in every source selection.
c. may not be used as an evaluation factor when using tradeoffs.
d. is only evaluated when an acquisition is subject to the Truth in Negotiations Act (TINA).
b. must be evaluated in every source selection.
Lowest Price Technically Acceptable (LPTA) source selections consider
a. price only.
b. the acceptability of a product or service only.
c. the acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors.
d. the rankings of non-price factor/subfactors and the acceptability of a product or service.
c. the acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors.
A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding
of the requirements is given what color/rating?
a. Green/Good.
b. Yellow/Marginal.
c. Blue/Outstanding.
d. Purple/Acceptable.
c. Blue/Outstanding
Common aspects of past performance relevancy include all of the following except
a. complexity.
b. dollar value.
c. similarity of service/support.
d. number of contracts performed.
d. number of contracts performed.
Offerors without a record of relevant past performance will receive what performance
confidence rating?
a. No Confidence.
b. Limited Confidence.
c. Unknown Confidence.
d. Satisfactory Confidence.
c. Unknown Confidence.
Which of the following methods is not used in support of price analysis?
a. Use of weighted guidelines.
b. Comparison of proposed prices.
c. Use of parametric estimating methods.
d. Analysis of data other than certified cost or pricing data.
a. Use of weighted guidelines.
Which of the following factors affect comparability during price analysis?
a. Type of funding being used.
b. Differences in quantities or size.
c. Use of federal supply schedules.
d. Differences in contractor business size.
b. Differences in quantities or size.
When price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable price,
a. the requirement must be cancelled and resolicited.
b. other than certified cost or pricing data may be used.
c. use a cost analysis to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data.
d. offerors must provide certified cost or pricing data to support the proposed cost.
c. use a cost analysis to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data.
Which of the following is true regarding the evaluation of past performance?
a. Past performance information provided directly by the offeror should not be relied upon.
b. The past performance evaluation satisfies the responsibility determination required under FAR
subpart 9.1.
c. Evaluations should take into account past performance information regarding predecessor
companies.
d. Offerors with demonstrated past performance that is neither relevant nor recent must not be
removed from further consideration for award.
c. Evaluations should take into account past performance information regarding predecessor
companies.
Technical analysis of offeror proposals should
a. analyze each offeror’s profit margin.
b. only be conducted by the contract officer (CO).
c. review each offeror’s experience on similar projects.
d. examine the types and quantities of materials proposed.
d. examine the types and quantities of materials proposed.
Which of the following is true when determining the competitive range?
a. Only the top five firms should be included in the competitive range.
b. A proposal may be included in the competitive range even though it is not among the most
highly rated.
c. Include only those proposals within 20 percent of the most favorable proposal in the
competitive range.
d. Limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition
among the most highly rated proposals.
d. Limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition
among the most highly rated proposals.
Communications are held after receipt of proposals to
a. negotiate prices with only those offerors who are in the competitive range.
b. determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range.
c. identify proposal deficiencies and allow offerors to revise its proposal accordingly.
d. discuss aspects of an offeror’s proposal that could, in the opinion of the CO, be altered to
materially enhance the proposal’s potential for award.
b. determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding discussions?
a. Discussions allow for revisions to proposals.
b. Discussions are used to establish the competitive range.
c. Discussions must be held with only those offerors in the competitive range.
d. Discussions permit offerors to clarify aspects of the proposal that are deficient.
b. Discussions are used to establish the competitive range.
What type of exchange does not allow for responses to identified weaknesses, but allows
offerors to address apparent minor or clerical errors?
a. Discussions.
b. Notifications.
c. Clarifications.
d. Communications.
c. Clarifications.
The overall objective of negotiations is to
a. obtain the lowest price possible.
b. never settle on a price that is outside of the government’s minimum and maximum objective.
c. negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance.
d. negotiate a contract below what the government believes is reasonable for a particular contract
requirement while still allowing the contractor to make a profit.
c. negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance.
In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports the price believed to be most
reasonable based on the government’s analysis?
a. Minimum price position.
b. Objective price position.
c. Median price position.
d. Maximum price position.
b. Objective price position.
Which of the following is not true regarding negotiations?
a. Both parties to a negotiation expect movement by the other party.
b. When the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers (CO) are required to
analyze profit.
c. Before entering into competitive discussions, develop separate minimum, objective, and
maximum positions for each proposal.
d. In competitive discussions, minimum contract requirements cannot be changed unless all
offerors remaining in the competitive range have an opportunity to revise their proposal.
b. When the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers (CO) are required to
analyze profit.
The inability to compromise may be avoided by
a. using concessions to split any differences.
b. threatening to cancel and resolicit the requirement.
c. using other non-price factors to take the focus off price alone.
d. establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.
d. establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.
It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when
a. a reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.
b. the government will exceed its maximum price position.
c. the negotiations begin to exceed a reasonable amount of time.
d. the parties cannot agree on price alone, although it is known that a better deal does not exist.
a. a reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.
When a deficiency is found in an offeror’s proposal, the government must
a. not further consider the offeror for award.
b. provide suggestions on how to correct the deficiency.
c. identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal.
d. discuss every aspect of the proposal that received less than the maximum possible rating.
c. identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal.
When opening competitive discussions, all of the following are emphasized to offerors
except
a. discussions will not involve offers and counteroffers.
b. the government will rely on the forces of competition to obtain a win/win result.
c. the contract officer (CO) may request or allow a proposal revision to clarify the offeror’s
position for further discussion.
d. the CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the
government.
d. the CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the
government.
What document is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on
adequate price competition?
a. Sole Source Letter.
b. Best Value Determination.
c. Determination and Findings.
d. Price Negotiation Memorandum.
d. Price Negotiation Memorandum.
When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source
selection
a. compare proposals against each other.
b. the evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used.
c. the government may not request final proposal revisions from any offerors.
d. the government may only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors.
b. the evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used.
Which of the following statements regarding the source selection decision document
(SSDD) is incorrect?
a. The SSDD must include the rationale for any business judgments made or relied on.
b. The SSDD may use reports and analyses prepared by others as supporting rationale.
c. The SSDD must support the selection of the best value proposal consistent with the stated
evaluation criteria.
d. The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated,
comparative assessment and decision.
d. The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated,
comparative assessment and decision.
Which of the following may be disclosed when conducting a preaward debriefing?
a. The number of offerors.
b. The identity of other offerors.
c. The rationale for eliminating the offeror from the completion.
d. The ranking of the offeror (if rankings were used) in comparison with other offerors.
c. The rationale for eliminating the offeror from the completion.
Post-award debriefings must include
a. the overall evaluated cost or price and technical ratings of all offerors.
b. the government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal.
c. names of individuals providing reference information about the offeror’s past performance.
d. a point by point comparison of the debriefed offeror’s proposal with those of other offerors.
b. the government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal.
Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that
a. no further questions are permissible.
b. debriefings may be reopened at the discretion of the contract officer (CO).
c. only the most highly rated offers will be retained for use in future acquisitions.
d. requests for additional information must be submitted in writing with 3 days after conclusion of
the debriefing.
a. no further questions are permissible.
What action might a contract officer (CO) take if an untimely request for a debriefing was
received?
a. The CO may decline to provide the debriefing.
b. The CO must limit the debriefing to who received the award and the award amount.
c. The CO must provide a complete debriefing to all offerors who request one regardless of
timeliness.
d. The CO is required to provide a debriefing in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act.
a. The CO may decline to provide the debriefing.
All of the following actions can help eliminate the potential for protests, except
a. ensure all of an offeror’s questions are answered.
b. provide timely debriefings in response to written requests.
c. document when an offeror receives notification of being excluded from the competitive range.
d. use source selection documents and evaluation reports to form the basis of debriefing material.
a. ensure all of an offeror’s questions are answered.
A preconstruction orientation
a. may only be provided via a formal conference.
b. is mandatory and must be provided to all government contractors prior to starting work on a
military installation.
c. is used to validate contractor payrolls and ensure compliance with labor laws.
d. may be used to issue the Notice to Proceed.
d. may be used to issue the Notice to Proceed.
When a preconstruction orientation is held, offerors must be informed of significant matters
including all of the following except
a. contracting authority.
b. a review of the pricing schedule.
c. statutory matters such as labor standards.
d. a review of performance and payment bonds.
b. a review of the pricing schedule.
The Material and Workmanship clause
a. establishes the submittal process.
b. requires all used equipment, material, and articles to be like new.
c. requires contractors to warrant construction for a minimum of 5 years from the date final
payment is made.
d. provides a detailed list of the most suitable equipment and materials that may be incorporated
into work covered by the contract.
a. establishes the submittal process.
Material Approval Submittals must be approved
a. within a reasonable time.
b. prior to issuance of the Notice to Proceed.
c. within 3 days after receipt of the submittal.
d. within 10 days after receipt of the submittal.
b. prior to issuance of the Notice to Proceed.
Contractor progress schedules are required
a. for all construction contracts.
b. for only architect and engineering contracts.
c. when contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 30 days.
d. when contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.
d. when contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.
Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to make sure
a. the use of subcontractors does not hinder the target performance progress.
b. the contractor has identified areas in which unforeseen delays are expected.
c. the target and actual performance progress is plotted prior to beginning work.
d. the length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed.
d. the length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed.
Which of the following is used to update and post the percentage completed to the
appropriate time interval on the progress schedule?
a. Payrolls.
b. Progress report.
c. Preorientation conference.
d. Material approval submittal.
b. Progress report.
Which of the following is a contractor entitled to when the government fails to provide
timely submittal approval?
a. Time only.
b. Money only.
c. Both time and money.
d. Neither time nor money.
c. Both time and money.
Which statement does not apply when a contractor undertakes voluntary acceleration?
a. It is for the contractor’s benefit.
b. The acceleration is not government directed.
c. The acceleration is always compensable if the government allows it to continue.
d. If the government allows the acceleration and does nothing, it could potentially be held to have
constructively accelerated the contractor.
c. The acceleration is always compensable if the government allows it to continue.
Which of the following is not allowable under the Suspension of Work clause?
a. Profit cannot be paid during the suspension period.
b. The contractor may be granted a time extension under this clause.
c. The clause provides the contractor with an adjustment for any increase in cost of performance.
d. The government may suspend work under the contractor for a period of time the CO deems
appropriate.
b. The contractor may be granted a time extension under this clause.
Which of the following clauses allows for time extensions in the event of a delay due to fire,
flood, or labor strikes?
a. Default clause.
b. Changes clause.
c. Suspension of Work clause.
d. Schedules for Construction clause.
a. Default clause.
The Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) provides a centralized
repository of contractor performance information for
a. official use only.
b. classified use only.
c. unclassified use only.
d. both unclassified and classified use.
c. unclassified use only.
An evaluation of contractor performance must be prepared for orders placed against Federal
Supply Schedules (FSS) and that exceed what dollar threshold?
a. Orders placed against FSS are not reportable.
b. Only those orders that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold.
c. Only those orders that exceed $1,000,000.
d. Only those orders that exceed $5,000,000.
b. Only those orders that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold.
What type of Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) report is
used at the end of the first 12 month option period on a 5 year contract?
a. Final report.
b. Interim report.
c. Addendum report.
d. Annual interim report.
d. Annual interim report.
Grounds for a protest include all of the following except
a. relaxing the announced criteria.
b. failure to follow the existing criteria.
c. excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated
proposals.
d. imposing additional unannounced criteria to increase the number of discriminators needed to
include only the most highly rated proposals in the competitive range.
c. excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated
proposals.
What type of change improperly exceeds the scope of a procurement and is one which could
not have been reasonably anticipated by offerors?
a. Cardinal change.
b. Unilateral change.
c. Restrictive change.
d. Constructive change.
a. Cardinal change.
When a protest is received before award, a contract may not be awarded unless
a. the protest is determined to be invalid by the contracting officer (CO).
b. the protest is determined to be invalid by the staff judge advocate.
c. justified in writing for urgent and compelling reasons and approved by the CO.
d. justified in writing for urgent and compelling reasons and approved at a level above the CO.
d. justified in writing for urgent and compelling reasons and approved at a level above the CO.
A statement of facts must be prepared by the contract officer (CO) within how many
business days after receiving notification of a protest to the Government Accountability Office
(GAO)?
a. 5 days.
b. 10 days.
c. 30 days.
d. 60 days.
b. 10 days.
When submitting the contract officer’s (CO) statement of facts to the Government
Accountability Office (GAO), which of the following documents should not be included as
supporting documentation?
a. Legal reviews.
b. Source selection plan.
c. Abstract of bids or offers.
d. Proposal analysis documents.
a. Legal reviews.
What procedure is available for use by contractors and the government to resolve issues in
controversy?
a. Litigation.
b. Congressional inquiry.
c. Inspector General complaint.
d. Alternative Dispute Resolution.
d. Alternative Dispute Resolution.
A contractor may submit a claim
a. within 3 years after accrual of a claim.
b. within 3 years after final payment is made.
c. within 6 years after accrual of a claim.
d. within 6 years after final payment is made.
c. within 6 years after accrual of a claim.
When is a contractor required to certify a claim?
a. Any claim exceeding the micro-purchase threshold.
b. Any claim exceeding $100,000.
c. Any claim exceeding $1,000,000.
d. When the contract is subject to the Truth in Negotiations Act (TINA).
b. Any claim exceeding $100,000.
All of the following are options available to contractors upon receipt of the contract
officer’s (CO) final decision except
a. accepting the CO’s final decision “as is”.
b. appealing to the US Court of Federal Claims within 12 months.
c. seeking assistance from a third party using Alternate Dispute Resolution.
d. appealing to the Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals within 90 days.
c. seeking assistance from a third party using Alternate Dispute Resolution.
Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) is generally best suited
for
a. cost-type contracts.
b. non-complex minor construction.
c. projects estimated at less than $100K.
d. small projects requiring extensive design.
b. non-complex minor construction.
How is pricing established in Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements
(SABER) contracts?
a. Prices are set by law.
b. Unit price guides and coefficients.
c. According to Davis-Bacon Act wage determinations.
d. Negotiation of individual line items in the main SABER contract.
b. Unit price guides and coefficients.
Contractor costs such as overhead, profit, design cost, bond premiums, and General
&Administrative (G&A) expenses are
a. negotiated into coefficients.
b. built into the unit price guide.
c. included in non-prepriced items.
d. negotiated prior to issuing each task order.
a. negotiated into coefficients.
Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) contracts normally
authorize the inclusion of minimum design in task orders up to
a. 25%.
b. 35%.
c. 50%.
d. 100%.
b. 35%
What option does a contract officer (CO) have to expedite fiscal year-end requirements
reserved for Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) when funding is
not yet available?
a. Issue the award using the next fiscal year funds.
b. Make the award and negotiate after funding is received.
c. Make the award as long a hold harmless agreement is signed by the contractor.
d. Obtain a no-cost or hold harmless agreement and process up to the point of award.
d. Obtain a no-cost or hold harmless agreement and process up to the point of award.
Payments against Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineer Requirements (SABER) task
orders are typically based upon
a. physical completion of the entire project.
b. initial submission of the progress schedule.
c. a percentage of completion for projects of 30 calendar days or longer.
d. a percentage of completion for projects of 60 calendar days or longer.
d. a percentage of completion for projects of 60 calendar days or longer.
Which of the following is not one of the phases of strategic sourcing?
a. Standup phase.
b. Execution phase.
c. Source selection strategy phase.
d. Management performance phase.
c. Source selection strategy phase.
During the standup phase
a. a commodity sourcing strategy (CSS) is developed.
b. recommendations for policies are formulated, issued, and widely communicated.
c. high level market research is conducted to develop an understanding of the market.
d. spend data is gathered from sources such as Federal Procurement Data System-Next
Generation (FPDS-NG), government purchase card (GPC) databases, suppliers, etc.
d. spend data is gathered from sources such as Federal Procurement Data System-Next
Generation (FPDS-NG), government purchase card (GPC) databases, suppliers, etc.
Benefits of strategic sourcing include all of the following except
a. reduced duplication of effort.
b. enhanced supplier relationships.
c. standardized business processes.
d. increased consolidation of contracts.
d. increased consolidation of contracts.
What strategic sourcing tool is used to assess data such as money spent, type of contracts
used, size of purchase, item(s) purchased, etc?
a. Cost analysis.
b. Price analysis.
c. Spend analysis.
d. Portfolio management
c. Spend analysis.
Which of the following responsibilities is not identified in AFI 64–102, Operational
Contracting Program, as a function to be overseen by the contracting squadron superintendent?
a. Unit training.
b. Competition advocate.
c. Self-inspection program.
d. Enlisted personnel career advisor.
b. Competition advocate.
Providing career advice to enlisted personnel requires all of the following except
a. becoming familiar with personnel programs.
b. encouraging membership in professional organizations.
c. discussing pros and cons of separating from the Air Force.
d. encouraging on duty study time for promotions during downtime.
d. encouraging on duty study time for promotions during downtime.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Acquisition Professional Development
Program?
a. It requires members to quickly attain the highest possible certification.
b. It is designed to be a progressive program of training, education, and education.
c. Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) course work may be used to receive businesshour
credits to satisfy Acquisition Professional Development Program (APDP) requirements.
d. Both military and civilians occupying acquisition coded contracting positions must meet
education and training standards.
a. It requires members to quickly attain the highest possible certification.
Contracting Level I certification is identified by what special experience identifier (SEI)?
a. 128.
b. 129.
c. 130.
d. 131.
b. 129
In order for an enlisted member to obtain the Acquisition Professional Development
Program (APDP) Level III certification, they must meet all of the following requirements except
a. possess a Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) degree.
b. occupy a superintendent position.
c. hold the rank of Senior/Chief Master Sergeant.
d. completed the SNCOA correspondence course.
c. hold the rank of Senior/Chief Master Sergeant.
Responsibilities as the enlisted advisor to squadron leadership does not include
a. overseeing awards and decorations.
b. providing input on disciplinary actions.
c. advising only the commander on enlisted matters.
d. ensuring civilians understand the enlisted evaluation system.
c. advising only the commander on enlisted matters.
The unit personnel management roster (UPMR) lists available positions, personnel
assigned, and
a. total personnel by workcenter.
b. positions by specialty code.
c. projected gains and losses.
d. required upgrade training.
c. projected gains and losses.
How might the overall quality of awards packages be improved?
a. Involving people in the process.
b. Requiring Airmen to draft their own awards.
c. Assigning the unit’s best writers to draft all awards.
d. Provide unit members with a copy of the installation writing guide.
a. Involving people in the process.
Which of the following is an example of an extra-organizational stressor?
a. Deployments.
b. Financial issues.
c. Increased workload.
d. Network downtime.
b. Financial issues.
Who is required to receive job safety training?
a. Only civilian personnel.
b. Only military personnel.
c. Only contractor personnel.
d. All government personnel.
d. All government personnel.
Which of the following unit type codes represents an equipment package?
a. XFFK2.
b. XFFK4.
c. XFFK6.
d. XFFK8.
b. XFFK4.
A designator determining detailed manpower and logistical support requirements that
describes necessary personnel, skill levels, numbers, and equipment required for deployments is
called a
a. unit type code.
b. force manning code.
c. standard force package.
d. mission capability designator.
a. unit type code.
What process is used to request relief from deployment taskings due to extenuating
circumstances?
a. Shortfall.
b. Reclama.
c. Relief request.
d. Medical profile.
b. Reclama.
Which of the following tools enable commanders to report the ability of an individual unit
type code to perform its mission capability?
a. Air Expeditionary (AEF) Online.
b. AEF Reporting Tool.
c. Status of Training System.
d. Status of Resources and Training System.
b. AEF Reporting Tool.
Functional experts assigned to the exercise evaluation team are made up of
a. unit commanders.
b. MAJCOM personnel.
c. Inspector General personnel.
d. the most qualified unit personnel.
d. the most qualified unit personnel.
Which unit management program assists units in determining whether or not they are in
compliance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies?
a. Self-inspection program.
b. Exercise evaluation program.
c. Special interest item program.
d. Compliance inspection program.
a. Self-inspection program.
What is not a benefit of the Self-Inspection Program?
a. Identifies training needs.
b. Allows for immediate corrective actions.
c. Promotes effective levels of standardization.
d. Dissolves the need for other compliance inspections.
d. Dissolves the need for other compliance inspections.
The purpose of a Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is to
a. standardize procedures for professional military education (PME).
b. develop new procedures for skill level upgrade and promotion.
c. periodically review the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
d. develop a new training standard to accommodate changes in the field.
d. develop a new training standard to accommodate changes in the field.
What is the “contract” between the technical school and field personnel that is used to
develop training courses called?
a. Job Qualification standard (JQS).
b. On-the-job training (OJT).
c. Specialty Training Standard (STS).
d. Career Field Manager’s Memorandum of Agreement (MOA).
c. Specialty Training Standard (STS).
What information is provided in Part II of the Career Field Education and Training Plan
(CFETP)?
a. Life-cycle requirements.
b. Duties, tasks, and references.
c. An explanation of the plan and how it is used.
d. Identifying each level with its specialty qualifications.
b. Duties, tasks, and references.
When you as a supervisor, schedule a goal oriented plan for subordinate training, it builds
confidence for the trainee by
a. achieving each particular goal.
b. building a routine that becomes part of the daily processes.
c. obtaining the necessary skill level ahead of preset time limitations.
d. scheduling training around other appointments.
a. achieving each particular goal.
Which of the follow priorities is assigned to students that do not occupy an acquisition
coded position?
a. Priority 1.
b. Priority 2.
c. Priority 3.
d. Priority 4.
d. Priority 4.
Final approval authority for enlisted members to attend any Level III training course resides
with
a. DAU.
b. AFCFM.
c. Unit commander.
d. MAJCOM commander.
b. AFCFM.
Which of the following management tools is used to ensure contract quality and compliance
with established law and policy directives throughout the acquisition process?
a. Peer review.
b. Self-inspection program.
c. Quality assurance program.
d. Contract review committee.
d. Contract review committee.
Contract clearance involves all of the following except
a. approval to issue a solicitation.
b. approval to request final proposal revisions.
c. approval to make a source selection decision.
d. approval for the source selection authority to make the award.
a. approval to issue a solicitation.
Which of the following actions is subject to business clearance approval?
a. Orders issued against existing contracts.
b. actions that create undefinitized contract actions (UCA).
c. action intended to result in award of a competed contract.
d. modifications increasing fund obligations under incrementally funded contracts.
c. action intended to result in award of a competed contract.
All of the following are responsibilities of the Quality Assurance Program Coordinator
except
a. support multi-functional teams.
b. assist with the evaluation of contractor Quality Control Plans.
c. act as a liaison between contractors and the wing commander.
d. provide initial and recurring training to contracting officer representatives (COR).
c. act as a liaison between contractors and the wing commander.
How often must the contracting squadron commander brief the installation commander on
government purchase card violations, suspended accounts, and surveillance results?
a. At least weekly.
b. At least monthly.
c. At least quarterly.
d. At least annually.
c. At least quarterly.
Which of the following is not an internal management control of the government purchase
card program?
a. Establishment of grade requirements for cardholders.
b. Separation of duties to ensure conflicts of interest are avoided.
c. Span of control to an appropriate A/OPC to master account ratio.
d. Separation of function for cardholders and personnel receiving, inspecting, and accepting
goods.
a. Establishment of grade requirements for cardholders.
The Air Force Contracting Officer test
a. is a timed 50 question closed book test.
b. guarantees a limited contracting officer warrant up to $5M.
c. requires candidates to score a minimum of 75% to pass the test.
d. is required for warrants above the simplified acquisition threshold.
d. is required for warrants above the simplified acquisition threshold.
The ratification authority for unauthorized commitments less than $30,000 is the
a. contracting officer.
b. chief of the contracting office.
c. head of the contracting activity.
d. MAJCOM A7K.
b. chief of the contracting office.
Who is responsible for establishing the Designated Operational Capability Statement for
each unit tasked in support of an OPLAN?
a. Unit Deployment Manager (UDM).
b. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
c. MAJCOM Senior Contracting Official (SCO).
d. SAF/AQC.
c. MAJCOM Senior Contracting Official (SCO).
The operational contracting commander is responsible for all of the following except
a. reviewing all tasked operational plans.
b. accomplishing and documenting contingency contracting officer training.
c. developing contracting support elements and UTC packages to meet the requirements of
current policy directives.
d. developing and maintaining local procedures to support the Comprehensive Emergency
Management Plan (CEMP).
c. developing contracting support elements and UTC packages to meet the requirements of
current policy directives.