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200 Cards in this Set
- Front
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1. You need a network that provides centralized authentication for your users. Which of the following logical topologies should you use?
A. VLANs B. Peer-to-peer C. Client-server D. Mesh |
C. A client-server logical topology allows you to have a centralized database of users so that authentication is provided in one place.
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2. You need a topology that is scalable to use in your network. Which of the following will you install?
A. Bus B. Ring C. Star D. Mesh |
C. To install a physical topology that provides ease of scalability, use a star network. This is a hub or switch device, and this is the most common LAN network today.
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3. Which of the following physical topologies has the most connections and is the least popular for LANs?
A. Bus B. Star C. Ring D. Mesh |
D. Only a mesh physical topology has point-to-point connections to every device, so it has more connections and is not a popular LAN technology.
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4. In a physical star topology, what happens when a workstation loses its physical connection to another device?
A. The ring is broken, so no devices can communicate. B. Only that workstation loses its ability to communicate. C. That workstation and the device it’s connected to lose communication with the rest of the network. D. No devices can communicate because there are now two unterminated network segments. |
B. In a star topology, each workstation connects to a hub, switch, or similar central device but not to other workstations. The benefit is that when connectivity to the central device is lost, the rest of the network lives on.
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5. Which type of WAN technology uses labels, which enables priority of voice though the network?
A. VPN B. T1 C. MPLS D. LAN |
C. MultiProtocol Label Switching has many advantages as a LAN protocol. When labels are used, voice can have priority over basic data, for example.
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6. What is a logical grouping of network users and resources called?
A. WAN B. LAN C. MPLS D. Host |
B. A logical grouping of hosts is called a LAN, and you typically group them by connecting them to a switch.
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7. Which of the following is a concern when using peer-to-peer networks?
A. Where to place the server B. Whose computer is least busy and can act as the server C. The security associated with such a network D. Having enough peers to support creating such a network |
C. It is easy to relax about security in a peer-to-peer environment. Because of the trouble it takes to standardize authentication, a piecemeal approach involving users’ personal preferences develops. There are no dedicated servers in a peer-to-peer network, and such a network can be created with as few as two computers.
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8. Which of the following is an example of when a point-to-multipoint network is called for?
A. When a centralized office needs to communicate with many branch offices B. When a full mesh of WAN links is in place C. When multiple offices are daisy-chained to one another in a line D. When there are only two nodes in the network to be connected |
A. When a central office, such as a headquarters, needs to communicate directly with its branch offices, but the branches do not require direct communication with one another, the point-to-multipoint model is applicable. The other scenarios tend to indicate the use of a point-to-point link between sites.
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9. Which of the following is an example of a LAN?
A. Ten buildings interconnected by Ethernet connections over fiber-optic cabling B. Ten routers interconnected by Frame Relay circuits C. Two routers interconnected with a T1 circuit D. A computer connected to another computer so they can share resources |
D. LANs generally have a geographic scope of a single building or smaller. They can range from simple (two hosts) to complex (with thousands of hosts).
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10. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the star topology?
A. When a port on the central concentrating device fails, the attached end device and entire network loses connectivity to the rest of the network. B. When the central concentrating device experiences a complete failure, all attached devices lose connectivity to the rest of the network. C. In a star topology, a more expensive type of host must be used compared to the host used when implementing a physical bus. D. It is more difficult to add stations and troubleshoot than with other topologies. |
B. The only disadvantage mentioned is the fact that there is a single point of failure in the network. However, this topology makes troubleshooting easier; if the entire network fails, you know where to look first. The central device also ensures that the loss of a single port and the addition of a new device to an available port do not disrupt the network for other stations attached to such a device.
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11. What is a difference between a LAN and a WAN?
A. WANs need a special type of router port. B. WANs cover larger geographical areas. C. WANs can utilize either private or public data transport. D. All of the above. |
D. A typical WAN connects two or more remote LANs together using someone else’s network (your ISP’s) and a router. Your local host and router see these networks as remote networks and not as local networks or local resources. Routers use proprietary serial connections for WANs.
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12. Which of the following provides the most physical layout flexibility in a very large, geographically dispersed enterprise network?
A. Bus topology B. LAN switch C. Star topology D. MPLS cloud network |
D. MultiProtocol Label Switching provides logical links between sites, so branch offices can be easily and quickly added.
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13. In what type of network are all computers considered equals and they do not share any central authority?
A. Peer-to-peer B. Client-server C. Physical topology D. None of the above |
A. In a peer-to-peer network, all computers are considered equals. It is up to the computer that has the resource being requested to perform a security check for access rights to its resources.
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14. What advantage does the client-server architecture have over peer-to-peer?
A. Easier maintenance B. Greater organization C. Tighter security D. All of the above |
D. In client-server networks, requests for resources go to a main server that responds by handling security and directing the client to the resource it wants instead of the request going directly to the machine with the desired resource (as in peer-to-peer).
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15. Which of the following is an example of a hybrid network?
A. Ethernet switch B. Ring topology C. Bus topology D. Star topology |
A. The best answer to this question is an Ethernet switch, which uses a star physical topology with a logical bus technology.
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16. You have a network with multiple devices and need to have a smaller broadcast domain while working with a single device. Which of the following is the best solution?
A. Use static IP addresses. B. Add more hubs. C. Implement more switches. D. Install a router. |
D. Routers break up broadcast domains and are used to connect different networks together.
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17. Which type of topology has the greatest number of physical connections?
A. Point-to-multipoint B. Star C. Point-to-point D. Mesh |
D. In the mesh topology, there is a path from every connection to every other one in the network. A mesh topology is used mainly because of the robust fault tolerance it offers—if one connection goes on the blink, computers and other network devices can simply switch to one of the many redundant connections that are up and running.
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18. What type of topology gives you a direct connection between two routers so that there is one communication path?
A. Point-to-point B. Star C. Bus D. Straight |
A. As its name implies, in a point-to-point topology you have a direct connection between two routers, giving you one communication path. The routers in a point-to-point topology can either be linked by a serial cable, making it a physical network, or be far away and only connected by a circuit within a Frame Relay network, making it a logical network.
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19. Which network topology is a combination of two or more types of physical or two or more types of logical topologies?
A. Point-to-multipoint B. Hybrid C. Bus D. Star |
B. A hybrid topology is a combination of two or more types of physical or logical network topologies working together within the same network.
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20. When designing a network and deciding which type of network topology to use, which item(s) should be considered? (Select all that apply.)
A. Cost B. Ease of installation C. Ease of maintenance D. Fault-tolerance requirements |
A, B, C, D. Each topology has its own set of pros and cons regarding implementation, so it’s important to ask the right questions and consider cost, ease of installation, maintenance, and fault tolerance.
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1. Host 1 sent a SYN packet to Host 2. What will Host 2 send in response?
A. ACK B. NAK C. SYN-ACK D. SYN-NAK E. SYN |
C. A connection-oriented session is set up using what is called a three-way handshake. The transmitting host sends a SYN packet, the receiving host sends a SYN-ACK, and the transmitting host replies with the last ACK packet. The session is now set up.
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2. TCP and UDP reside at which layer of the OSI model?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
D. TCP and UDP are Transport layer protocols. The Transport layer is Layer 4 of the OSI model.
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3. Which layer of the OSI model provides a user interface in the form of an entry point for programs to access the network infrastructure?
A. Application B. Transport C. Network D. Physical |
A. The top layer of the OSI model gives applications access to the services that allow network access.
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4. You are connected to a server on the Internet and you click a link on the server and receive a time-out message. What layer could be the source of this message?
A. Application B. Transport C. Network D. Physical |
A. If the remote server is busy or does not respond to your web browser request, this is an Application layer problem.
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5. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for code and character-set conversion as well as recognizing data formats?
A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Network |
B. The Presentation layer makes data “presentable” for the Application layer.
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6. At which layers of the OSI model do bridges, hubs, and routers primarily operate, respectively?
A. Physical, Physical, Data Link B. Data Link, Data Link, Network C. Data Link, Physical, Network D. Physical, Data Link, Network |
C. Bridges, like switches, are Data Link layer devices. Hubs, like repeaters, are Physical layer devices. Routers are Network layer devices.
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7. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for converting data into signals appropriate for the transmission medium?
A. Application B. Network C. Data Link D. Physical |
D. The Physical layer’s job is to convert data into impulses that are designed for the wired or wireless medium being used on the attached segment.
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8. A receiving host has failed to receive all the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. Send a different source port number. B. Restart the virtual circuit. C. Decrease the sequence number. D. Decrease the window size. |
D. A receiving host can control the transmitter by using flow control (TCP uses windowing by default). By decreasing the window size, the receiving host can slow down the transmitting host so the receiving host does not overflow its buffers.
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9. Which Layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment? (Choose two.)
A. Firewall B. NIC C. Hub D. Repeater E. RJ-45 transceiver |
C, D. Not that you really want to enlarge a single collision domain, but a hub (multiport repeater) will provide this functionality for you.
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10. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Physical B. Data Link C. Network D. Transport |
D. The Transport layer receives large data streams from the upper layers and breaks these up into smaller pieces called segments.
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11. When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order?
A. Data, frame, packet, segment, bits B. Segment, data, packet, frame, bits C. Data, segment, packet, frame, bits D. Data, segment, frame, packet, bits |
C. The encapsulation order is data, segment, packet, frame, bits.
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12. What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge?
A. To add more broadcast domains B. To create more collision domains C. To add more bandwidth for users D. To allow more broadcasts for users |
B, C. Bridges and switches break up collision domains, which allow more bandwidth for users.
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13. Acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control are characteristic of which OSI layer?
A. Layer 2 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 7 |
C. A reliable Transport layer connection uses acknowledgments to make sure all data is received reliably. A reliable connection is defined by the use of acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control, which is characteristic of the Transport layer (Layer 4).
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14. Which if the following is true regarding sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception. B. If a segment is not received, the virtual circuit must be restarted from the beginning at a slower transmit interval. C. Any segments not acknowledged are retransmitted. D. Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination. E. All segments are retransmitted on time slot intervals. |
A, C, D. When using sequencing and acknowledgments, the segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception. At this point, any segments not acknowledged are retransmitted, and segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination.
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15. What is the purpose of flow control?
A. To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender D. To regulate the size of each segment |
C. Flow control allows the receiving device to control the pace of the transmitting device so the receiving device’s buffer does not overflow.
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16. At which layer of the OSI model would you find IP?
A. Transport B. Network C. Data Link D. Physical |
B. IP is a Network layer protocol. TCP is an example of a Transport layer protocol, Ethernet is an example of a Data Link layer protocol, and T1 can be considered a Physical layer protocol.
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17. Of the following, which is the highest layer in the OSI model?
A. Transport B. Session C. Network D. Presentation |
D. The Presentation layer is the sixth layer of the model. Only the Application layer is higher, but it is not listed. Session is Layer 5, Transport is Layer 4, and Network is Layer 3.
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18. Routers perform routing at which OSI layer?
A. Physical B. Data Link C. Network D. Transport E. Application |
C. A router is specified at the Network layer and a router routes packets. Routers can also be called Layer 3 switches.
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19. Which of the following mnemonic devices can you use to remember the first letter of the name of each layer of the OSI model in the proper order?
A. All People Seem To Need Processed Data B. Always Should People Never Threaten Dog Police C. Please Do Not Throw Sausage Pizza Away D. All Day People Should Try New Professions |
C. The phrase “Please Do Not Throw Sausage Pizza Away” contains the first letters of the layers in order from Layer 1 through Layer 7. “All People Seem To Need Data Processing” works from the top down, but that’s not exactly how the option that looks similar reads. The other options have all the right letters, just not completely in the right order.
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20. Which IEEE standard specifies the protocol for CSMA/CD?
A. 802.2 B. 802.3 C. 802.5 D. 802.11 |
B. The 802.3 standard, commonly associated with Ethernet, specifies the media-access method used by Ethernet, which is known as Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD).
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1. Why would a network administrator use plenum-rated cable during an installation? (Choose two.)
A. Low combustion temperature B. High combustion temperature C. Reduces toxic gas released during a fire D. Is not susceptible to any interference |
B, C. Plenum-rated means that the cable’s coating doesn’t begin burning until a much higher temperature of heat, doesn’t release as many toxic fumes as PVC when it does burn, and is rated for use in air plenums that carry breathable air, usually as nonenclosed fresh-air return pathways that share space with cabling.
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2. Which of the following Ethernet Unshielded twisted-pair cabling types are commonly used?
A. 10BaseT B. 100BaseTX C. 1000BaseTX D. All of the above |
D. UTP is commonly used in twisted-pair Ethernet like 10BaseT, 100BaseTX, 1000BaseTX, and so on.
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3. In which of the following categories is UTP cable not rated?
A. Category 2 B. Category 3 C. Category 5e D. Category 8 |
D. Unshielded twisted-pair has standards from Category 2 through 6 for use on Ethernet networks. There is no Category 8 defined.
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4. What type of connector does UTP cable typically use?
A. BNC B. ST C. RJ-45 D. SC |
C. UTP usually connects with RJ-45. You use a crimper to attach an RJ connector to a cable.
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5. Which of the following provides the longest cable run distance?
A. Single-mode fiber B. Multimode fiber C. Category 3 UTP D. Coax |
A. Single-mode fiber allows for the maximum cable run distances.
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6. You need to crimp on a connector using an RJ-45 connector. Which pin-out configuration would you use to connect a host into a switch?
A. UTP B. Straight-through C. Crossover D. Rolled |
B. You would use a straight-through cable to connect a host to a switch, and the typical pin-out is called 568A.
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7. Fiber-optic cable is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) because it ___________________ .
A. Transmits analog signals using electricity B. Transmits analog signals using light impulses C. Transmits digital signals using light impulses D. Transmits digital signals using electricity |
C. Fiber-optic cable transmits digital signals using light impulses rather than electricity; therefore, it is immune to EMI and RFI.
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8. What type of cable transmits lights from end to end?
A. Coax B. Fiber-optic C. UTP D. Category 2 |
B. Remember that fiber-optic cable transmits a digital signal using light impulses. Light is carried on either a glass or a plastic core.
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9. What is the main difference between single-mode fiber (SMF) and multimode fiber (MMF)?
A. Electrical signals. B. Number of light rays. C. Number of digital signals. D. Signal-mode can be run a shorter distance. |
B. The difference between single-mode fibers and multimode fibers is in the number of light rays (and thus the number of signals) they can carry. Generally speaking, multimode fiber is used for shorter-distance applications and single-mode fiber for longer distances.
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10. What type of cable should be used if you need to make a cable run longer than 100 meters?
A. Category 5e B. Category 6 C. Fiber-optic D. Coaxial |
C. Standards limit UTP to a mere 100 meters. Different fiber-optic types have different maximum lengths, but fiber-optic is the only cable type that can extend well beyond 100 meters.
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11. Which of the following are fiber-optic connectors? (Select three.)
A. BNC B. ST C. RJ-11 D. SC E. LC F. RJ-45 |
B, D, E. There are many different types of fiber-optic connectors. SC, ST, LC, and MT-RJ are some of the more typical connectors in use today.
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12. You need to connect two devices on a vertical connect and they need to send voice traffic. Which of the following cable will you use?
A. Cat 3 B. Cat 5 C. Cat 8 D. Rolled |
B. To connect two devices for voice on a vertical connect, the minimum cable you can use is Category 5.
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13. How many hosts on a half-duplex segment can talk at one time?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. Unlimited |
B. In half-duplex communication, a device can either send communication or receive communication, but it cannot do both at the same time.
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14. Which type of cable does EMI have the least effect on?
A. Coax B. Fiber-optic C. UTP D. STP |
B. Fiber-optic cable transmits only light (not electricity like UTP), so EMI has zero effect on it.
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15. How many devices can be connected to a full-duplex segment?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 |
C. Full-duplex communication requires a point-to-point configuration because the collision-avoidance circuit is disabled.
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16. How many wires are used in a 100 Mbps UTP transmission?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
B. Both wiring standards for UTP (568A and 568B) utilize only pins 1, 2, 3, and 6.
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17. A crossover cable is used to connect all of the following except ___________________.
A. Switch to switch B. Host to host C. Hub to switch D. Host to switch |
D. All devices that are pinned the same for transmit and receive require a crossover cable to communicate directly.
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18. How is a T1 crossover cable crosses wired?
A. Pins 1, 2, 4, and 5 are connected to 4, 5, 1, and 2. B. Pins 2, 3, 4, and 5 are connected to 4, 5, 1, and 2. C. Pins 1, 2, 4, and 5 are connected to 3, 4, 5,and 6. D. Pins 4, 5, 6, and 7 are connected to 4, 5, 1, and 2. |
A. A T1 cable uses T568B pairs 1 and 2, so to connect two T1 CSU/DSU devices back-to-back requires a crossover cable that swaps these pairs. Specifically, pins 1, 2, 4, and 5 are connected to 4, 5, 1, and 2, respectively.
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19. The purpose of the demarcation point is to separate the customer from whom?
A. The branch office B. Headquarters C. The data center D. The service provider |
D. The demarcation point, or demarc, is the point at which the operational control or ownership changes from your company to a service provider. This is often at the MDF in relation to telephone connections and the CSU/DSU in regard to WAN connections.
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20. You need to make a 568B cable for a FastEthernet link. How many pairs will you use?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. A 568B is an RJ-45 wiring standard and this type of cable uses two pairs of wires.
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1. On an Ethernet switched network, what address does one host computer use to communicate with another?
A. IP address B. MAC address C. Street address D. HUB address |
B. On an Ethernet network, the MAC address (hardware address) is used for one host to communicate with another.
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2. Which of the following can run full duplex and achieve 200Mbps with CAT5e cable?
A. 100BaseF B. 100BaseTX C. 1000BaseF D. 1000BaseT |
B. 100BaseTX uses CAT 5e and can run 200Mbps when using full duplex.
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3. How many devices in a collision domain have to listen when a single host talks?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. All |
D. When one device sends a packet out on a network segment, all other devices on the same physical network segment must wait and let it be transmitted.
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4. If you are using a cable medium called 100BaseTF, what does this mean?
A. That you are running Ethernet over cable B. That you are running Ethernet over fiber C. That you are running Ethernet over ThickNet D. That you are bundling multiple connections |
B. 100BaseTF means that you have an Ethernet over fiber cable implementation.
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5. What protocol helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium?
A. TCP/IP B. CSMA/CD C. HTTPS D. TFTP |
B. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) helps packets that are transmitted simultaneously from different hosts share bandwidth evenly.
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6. What is the maximum distance of 10GBaseSR?
A. 100 meters (328 feet) B. 302 meters (990 feet) C. 305 meters (1000 feet) D. 1593 km (6 miles) |
B. A 10GBaseSR cable can have a maximum distance of 990 feet (302 meters).
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7. How many wire pairs are used with half duplex?
A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 D. None of the above |
B. With half duplex, you are using only one wire pair with a digital signal either transmitting or receiving.
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8. How many wire pairs are used with 100BaseT full duplex?
A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 D. A or C |
A. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires at the same time.
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9. What is the maximum distance of 10GBaseLR?
A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 6 miles D. 25 miles |
C. A 10GBaseLR implementation can go a distance of up to 6 miles.
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10. What is the effective total throughput increase with a full-duplex connection?
A. None B. Twice as much C. Four times as much D. Ten times as much |
B. Double up! You can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex or 200Mbps for Fast Ethernet.
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11. What device can you not use full-duplex communication with?
A. Host B. Hub C. Switch D. Router |
B. Full-duplex communication cannot be used with a hub because a hub is a half-duplex single communication device. A host, switch, and router have the ability to process traffic (frames), whereas a hub is a multiport repeater.
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12. What is the decimal equivalent of this binary number: 11000000.10101000.00110000.11110000?
A. 192.168.48.192 B. 192.168.48.240 C. 192.168.64.224 D. 192.168.32.248 |
B. 11000000 is 192, 10101000 is 168, 00110000 is 48, and 11110000 is 240.
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13. Which technology increases the bandwidth for network transmission by joining together multiple connections in one logical connection?
A. Bonding B. VLANs C. STP D. Traffic shaping |
A. Bonding can increase bandwidth and provide redundancy for devices that have multiple links connected together.
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14. How is the decimal value 10 represented in binary?
A. 1000 B. 1001 C. 1010 D. 1011 |
C. Nibble values are 8 + 4 + 2 + 1, giving us a maximum value of 15. If we have a decimal value of 10, that means the 8 bit and the 2 bit are turned on.
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15. What is the decimal value for the binary number 11101000?
A. 128 B. 194 C. 224 D. 232 |
D. The 128, 64, 32, and 8 bits are on, so just add the values: 128 + 64 + 32 + 8 = 232.
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16. What is the decimal number 10 in hexadecimal?
A. 9 B. A C. C D. B |
B. The first 10 hexadecimal digits (0–9) are the same values as the decimal values. We already know the binary value for the number 10 is 1010—in hex, the number 10 needs to be displayed as a single character. To display double-digit numbers as a single character, we substitute letters. In our example, 10 is A.
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17. How many bits is a MAC address?
A. 16 B. 32 C. 48 D. 64 |
C. A MAC, or hardware, address is a 48-bit (6-byte) address written in hexadecimal format.
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18. What is the maximum distance of 1000BaseT?
A. 100 meters (328 feet) B. 128 meters (420 feet) C. 1000 meters (3280 feet) D. 1024 meters (3360 feet) |
A. 100BaseT and 1000BaseT both have a maximum distance of 100 meters, or 328 feet.
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19. What is the purpose of the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) in an Ethernet frame?
A. Error correction B. Error detection C. Error recovery D. Creating errors |
B. The FCS can detect frames in the sequence by calculating the cyclic redundancy check (CRC), which verifies that all the bits in the frame are unchanged.
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20. What does the Base mean in 100BaseTX?
A. Broadband B. 100Mbps C. Baseband D. Twisted-pair at 100Mbps |
C. The 100 means 100Mbps. The Base means baseband, which refers to baseband technology—a signaling method for communication on the network.
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1. Which of the following is not a term used when making SOHO Internet connections?
A. Hub B. Repeater C. NIC D. Switch |
C. NICs are the physical network connections for a computer but are not one of the devices or mediums used to provide Internet access in a SOHO setting.
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2. What advantage does a switch have over a hub?
A. It discards frames. B. Transmissions received on one port will be sent out all the other ports. C. It recognizes frame boundaries and destination MAC addresses of incoming frames. D. Any two or more devices the switch connects have are capable of causing a collision with each other. |
C. Like a hub, a switch connects multiple segments of a network together, with one important difference. Whereas a hub sends out anything it receives on one port to all the others, a switch recognizes frame boundaries and pays attention to the destination MAC address of the incoming frame as well as the port on which it was received.
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3. Which device is used to segment a network?
A. Hub B. Switch C. Repeater D. All of the above |
When we say segment, we mean to create multiple collision or broadcast domains. Hubs don’t segment a network; they just connect network segments together. Repeaters don’t segment the network; they repeat a signal and allow the distance covered to be increased. So the only correct option is B, a switch.
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4. What is the primary function of a bridge?
A. Breaks up collision domains B. Allows a NIC or other networking device to connect to a different type of media than it was designed for C. Allows mobile users to connect to a wired network wirelessly D. None of the above |
A. The primary function of a bridge is to keep traffic separated on both sides of the bridge, breaking up collision domains.
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5. A network device that is used to connect multiple devices together without segmenting a network is a
A. Hub B. Wireless access point C. Switch D. Router |
A. Hubs create one collision domain and one broadcast domain.
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6. Which of the following is among the benefits of a switch?
A. Protects LAN resources from attackers on the Internet B. Provides extra bandwidth C. Reduces throughput D. Allows access to all computers on a LAN |
B. By allowing full duplex operation on each port, a switch provides extra bandwidth to each port.
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7. Which of the following devices can work at both Layers 2 and 3 of the OSI model?
A. Hub B. Switch C. Multi-layer switch D. Bridge |
B. A switch is typically just a Layer 2 device segmenting the network by using MAC addresses. However, some higher-end switches can provide Layer 3 services.
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8. What is an advantage of using DHCP in a network environment?
A. More difficult administration of the network B. Static IP addressing C. Can send an operating system for the PC to boot from D. Assigns IP address to hosts |
D. Remember that DHCP servers assign IP addresses to hosts. Thus DHCP allows easier administration than providing IP information to each host by hand (called static IP addressing).
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9. What is a benefit of a multilayer switch (MLS) over a Layer 2 switch?
A. Less bandwidth B. Routing functions C. Fewer features D. Fewer ports |
B. Multilayer switches (also called Layer 3 switches) don’t have any fewer features, less bandwidth, or fewer ports than a normal switch; they just allow routing functions between subnets.
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10. Which device should be used if you need to send incoming packets to one or more machines that are hidden behind a single IP address?
A. Switch B. Load balancer C. Hub D. Repeater |
B. A load balancer uses a little trickery and sends incoming packets to one or more machines that are hidden behind a single IP address. Modern load-balancing routers can use different rules to make decisions about where to route traffic, which can be based on least load, fastest response times, or simply balancing requests.
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11. What role does the “A” record in a Domain Name Service (DNS) server have in your network?
A. Translates human name to IP address B. Translates IP address to human name C. Enables printing, copying, and faxing from one device D. Controls network packets to optimize performance |
A. DNS translates human names to IP addresses for routing your packet through the Internet. Hosts can receive the IP address of this DNS server and then resolve host names to IP addresses.
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12. Which device does not aid in network segmentation?
A. Router B. Switch C. Hub D. Bridge |
C. Routers, switches, and bridges are all devices that help break up big networks into a number of smaller ones—also known as network segmentation. Hubs don’t segment networks—they just connect network segments together.
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13. What is the most common use for a web proxy?
A. Web cache B. Increases throughput C. DHCP services D. Supports user authentication |
A. Web cache, of course! Most proxy programs provide a means to deny access to certain URLs in a blacklist, thus providing content filtering, usually in corporate environments.
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14. Which is not an advantage of network segmentation?
A. Reduced congestion B. Improved security C. Containing network problems D. Preventing broadcast storms |
D. Options A, B, and C all aid in boosting network performance, so the only option left is broadcast storms. Increased traffic will increase LAN congestion.
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15. Users arrive at the office after a weekend and the hosts that were shut down over the weekend are restarted but cannot access the LAN or Internet. Hosts that were not shut down are working fine. Where can the problem be?
A. The DNS server B. The DHCP server C. The proxy server D. The firewall |
B. If the DHCP server has stopped functioning, it will not hand out IP addresses to hosts that are restarted. However, the hosts that were not shut down still have an IP addresses because the lease time has not expired.
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16. You need a device that can prevent your users from accessing certain web sites . Which device should you install?
A. Firewall B. IDS C. IPS D. Proxy server |
D. A proxy server can be used to prevent external traffic from reaching your internal network directly and can also be used to filter the sites to which your users are allowed to connect.
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17. Which device creates separate collision domains and a single broadcast domain?
A. Hub B. Router C. Switch D. Modem |
C. Switches create separate collision domains but a single broadcast domain. Remember that routers provide a separate broadcast domain for each interface.
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18. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using appliances to offload services like encryption and content filtering?
A. Less expensive B. Takes load off other devices C. Additional functionality D. Better performance |
A. Using appliances to offload functions such as encryption, content filtering and VPN concentration can decrease the workload of other systems and add functionality that may be present in these dedicated devices.
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19. Which type of server in your network uses pointer and A records?
A. NAT Translation server B. IPS/IDS Server C. DNS Server D. Proxy Server |
C. A DNS server uses many types of records. An “A” record is a hostname to IP address record and a pointer record is an IP address to hostname record.
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20. Users on your network are saturating your bandwidth because they are using too many non-work-related sites. What device would limit the availability of the types of sites that users on a LAN have access to while providing granular control over the traffic between the local LAN and the Internet?
A. Switch B. DHCP server C. DNS server D. Proxy server |
D. A proxy server can provide many functions. A proxy server can use a caching engine so repeated access requests for web information would accelerate repeated access for users, and they can also limit the availability of web sites.
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1. The OSI model has seven layers and the DoD has four. At which layer does SMTP work in both models?
A. Network B. Transport C. Session D. Application E. Internet |
D. SMTP resides at the Application layer of the OSI and DoD models.
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2. You need to have secure communications using HTTPS. What port number is used by default?
A. 69 B. 23 C. 21 D. 443 |
D. HTTPS, or Secure HTTP, uses port 443 by default.
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3. You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?
A. SMTP B. SNMP C. DHCP D. ARP |
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to provide IP information to hosts on your network. DHCP can provide a lot of information, but the most common is IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information.
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4. What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?
A. RARP B. ARP C. IP D. ICMP E. BootP |
B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find the hardware address from a known IP address.
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5. You need to log in to a Unix server across a network that is not secure. Which of the following protocols will allow you to remotely administrator this server securely?
A. Telnet B. SSH C. SFTP D. HTTP |
B. Secure Shell (SSH) allows you to remotely administer router, switches, and even servers securely.
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6. If you can ping by IP address but not by hostname, or FQDN, which of the following port numbers is related to the server process that is involved?
A. 21 B. 23 C. 53 D. 69 E. 80 |
C. The problem is with DNS, which uses both TCP and UDP port 53.
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7. Which of the following describe the DHCP Discover message? (Choose two.)
A. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a Layer 2 broadcast. B. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol. C. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol. D. It does not use a Layer 2 destination address. |
A, B. A client that sends out a DHCP Discover message in order to receive an IP address sends out a broadcast at both Layer 2 and Layer 3. The Layer 2 broadcast is all Fs in hex, or FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. The Layer 3 broadcast is 255.255.255.255, which means all networks and all hosts. DHCP is connectionless, which means it uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) at the Transport layer, also called the Host-to-Host layer.
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8. What Layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection, and what is the default port number?
A. IP, 6 B. TCP, 21 C. UDP, 23 D. ICMP, 21 E. TCP, 23 |
E. Telnet uses TCP at the Transport layer with a default port number of 23.
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9. Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of a TCP segment. B. They guarantee datagram delivery. C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems. D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams. E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams. |
C, D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used to send error messages through the network, but ICMP does not work alone. Every segment or ICMP payload must be encapsulated within an IP datagram (or packet).
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10. Which of the following services use TCP? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. FTP E. HTTP F. TFTP |
B, D, E. SMTP, FTP, and HTTP use TCP.
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11. Which of the following services use UDP? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. FTP E. HTTP F. TFTP |
A, C, F. DHCP, SNMP, and TFTP use UDP. SMTP, FTP, and HTTP use TCP.
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12. Which of the following TCP/IP protocols are used at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. IP B. TCP C. Telnet D. FTP E. TFTP |
C, D, E. Telnet, File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Trivial FTP (TFTP) are all Application layer protocols. IP is a Network layer protocol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a Transport layer protocol.
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13. Which of the following protocols is used by email servers to exchange messages with one another? Choose all that appply.
A. POP3 B. IMAP C. SMTP D. HTTP |
C. SMTP is used by a client to send mail to its server and by that server to send mail to another server. POP3 and IMAP are used by clients to retrieve their mail from the server that stores it until it is retrieved. HTTP is only used with web-based mail services.
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14. You need to have a connection to run applications that are installed on only your desktop computer at your office. Which protocol will provide a GUI interface to your work computer?
A. Telnet B. FTP C. RDP D. IMAP E. SMTP |
C. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) allows you to connect to a remote computer and run programs, as Telnet does. However, the large advantage that RDP has over Telnet is that RDP allows you to have a GUI interface connection.
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15. Which of the following protocols can use TCP and UDP, permits authentication and secure polling of network devices, and allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices? Choose all that appply.
A. DNS B. SNMP C. SMTP D. TCP |
B. Simple Network Management Protocol is typically implemented using version 3, which allows for a connection-oriented service, authentication and secure polling of network devices, and alerts and reports on network devices.
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16. You need to transfer files between two hosts. Which two protocols can you use?
A. SNMP B. SCP C. RIP D. NTP E. FTP |
B, E. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) and File Transfer Protocol (FTP) can be used to transfer files between two systems.
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17. What layer in the IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
A. Application B. Host-to-Host C. Internet D. Network Access |
B. The four layers of the IP stack (also called the DoD model) are Application/Process, Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access. The Host-to-Host layer is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model.
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18. You need to make sure that the time is consistent across all your network devices. What protocol do you need to run on your network?
A. FTP B. SCP C. NTP E. RTP |
C. Network Time Protocol will ensure a consistent time across network devices on the network.
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19. Which of the following allows a server to distinguish among different simultaneous requests from the same host? Choose all that appply.
A. They have different port numbers. B. A NAT server changes the IP address for subsequent requests. C. A server is unable to accept multiple simultaneous sessions from the same host. One session must end before another can begin. D. The MAC address for each one is unique. |
A. Through the use of port numbers, TCP and UDP can establish multiple sessions between the same two hosts without creating any confusion. The sessions can be between the same or different applications, such as multiple web-browsing sessions or a web-browsing session and an FTP session.
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20. Which of the following uses both TCP and UDP? Choose all that appply.
A. FTP B. SMTP C. Telnet D. DNS |
D. DNS uses TCP for zone exchanges between servers and UDP when a client is trying to resolve a hostname to an IP address.
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1. Which of the following addresses is not allowed on the Internet?
A. 191.192.168.1 B. 191.168.169.254 C. 172.32.255.0 D. 172.31.12.251 |
D. The addresses in the range 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 are all considered private, based on RFC 1918. Use of these addresses on the Internet is prohibited so that they can be used simultaneously in different administrative domains without concern for conflict. Some experts in the industry believe these addresses are not routable, which is not true.
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2. A host automatically configured with an address from which of the following ranges indicates an inability to contact a DHCP server?
A. 169.254.0.x with a mask of 255.255.255.0 B. 169.254.x.x with a mask of 255.255.0.0 C. 169.254.x.x with a mask of 255.255.255.0 D. 169.255.x.x with a mask of 255.255.0.0 |
B. APIPA uses the link-local private address range of 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 (see RFC 3330). APIPA addresses are used by DHCP clients that cannot contact a DHCP server and have no static alternate configuration. These addresses are not Internet routable and cannot, by default, be used across routers on an internetwork.
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3. Which statement regarding private IP addresses is most accurate?
A. Private addresses cannot be used in intranets that require routing. B. Private addresses must be assigned by a registrar or ISP. C. A remote host across the Internet cannot ping your host if it has a private address. D. Private addresses can only be used by a single administrative domain. |
C. Private IP addresses are not routable over the Internet, as either source or destination addresses. Because of that fact, any entity that wishes to use such addresses internally can do so without causing conflicts with other entities and without asking permission of any registrar or service provider. Despite not being allowed on the Internet, private IP addresses are fully routable on private intranets.
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4. Which of the following is a valid Class A address?
A. 191.10.0.1 255.0.0.0 B. 127.10.0.1 255.0.0.0 C. 128.10.0.1 255.0.0.0 D. 126.10.0.1 255.0.0.0 |
D. The Class A range is 1 through 126 in the first octet/byte, so this makes option B incorrect. Only option D is a valid Class A address.
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5. Which of the following is a valid Class B address?
A. 10.1.1.1 255.255.0.0 B. 126.1.1.1 255.255.0.0 C. 129.1.1.1 255.255.0.0 D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.0.0 |
C. The Class B range is 128 through 191 in the first octet/byte. Only option C is a valid Class B address.
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6. Which of the following describes a broadcast address?
A. All network bits are on (1s). B. All host bits are on (1s). C. All network bits are off (0s). D. All host bits are off (0s). |
B. If you turned on all host bits (all of the host bits are 1s), this would be a broadcast address for that network.
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7. Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast?
A. FF.FF.FF.EE.EE.EE B. FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF C. 255.255.255.255 D. 255.0.0.0 |
B. A Layer 2 broadcast is also referred to as a MAC address broadcast, which is in hexadecimal and is FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.
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8. In a Class C IP address, how long is the network address?
A. 8 bits B. 16 bits C. 24 bits D. 32 bits |
C. A default class C subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets, or first 24 bits, are the network number.
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9. Which of the following is true when describing a unicast address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like regular publicly routable addresses in IPv4. C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed. D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap. |
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. For load balancing, multiple interfaces can use the same address.
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10. A host is rebooted and you view the IP address that it was assigned. The address is 169.123.13.34. Which of the following happened?
A. The host received an APIPA address. B. The host received a multicast address. C. The host received a public address. D. The host received a private address. |
C. I wonder how many of you picked APIPA address as your answer? An APIPA address is 169.254.x.x. The host address in this question is a public address. Somewhat of a tricky question if you did not read carefully.
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11. An IPv4 addresses uses 32 bits. How many bits is an IPv6 address?
A. 64 B. 128 C. 192 D. 255 |
B. An IPv6 address is 128 bits in size.
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12. Which of the following is true when describing a multicast address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address from a multicast address are delivered to a single interface. B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a one-to-many address. C. It identifies multiple interfaces and is delivered to only one address. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many. D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap. |
B. Packets addressed to a multicast address are delivered to all interfaces identified by the multicast address, the same as in IPv4. A multicast address is also called a one-to-many address. You can tell multicast addresses in IPv6 because they always start with FF.
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13. Which of the following is true when describing an anycast address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address from an anycast address are delivered to a single interface. B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a one-to-many address. C. This address identifies multiple interfaces, and the anycast packet is delivered to only one address. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many. D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap. |
C. Anycast addresses identify multiple interfaces, which is the same as multicast; however, the big difference is that the anycast packet is delivered to only one address: the first one it finds defined in terms of routing distance. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many.
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14. You want to ping the loopback address of your local host. Which two addresses could you type?
A. ping 127.0.0.1 B. ping 0.0.0.0 C. ping ::1 D. trace 0.0.::1 |
A, C. The loopback address with IPv4 is 127.0.0.1. With IPv6, that address is ::1.
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15. What two statements about IPv6 addresses are true?
A. Leading zeros are required. B. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros. C. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields. D. A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types. |
B, D. In order to shorten the written length of an IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may be replaced by double colons. In trying to shorten the address further, leading zeros may also be removed. Just as with IPv4, a single device’s interface can have more than one address; with IPv6 there are more types of addresses and the same rule applies. There can be link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses all assigned to the same interface.
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16. What two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are true?
A. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long, represented in hexadecimal. B. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in decimal. C. An IPv4 address is 32 bits long, represented in decimal. D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in hexadecimal. |
C, D. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits long and are represented in decimal format. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long and represented in hexadecimal format.
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17. Which of the following is a Class C network address?
A. 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 B. 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.0 C. 128.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 D. 192.255.254.0 255.255.255.0 |
D. Only option D is in the Class C range of 192 through 224. It might look wrong because there is a 255 in the address, but this is not wrong—you can have a 255 in a network address.
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18. Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. 12.0.0.1 B. 168.172.19.39 C. 172.20.14.36 D. 172.33.194.30 E. 192.168.24.43 |
C, E. The Class A private address range is 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255. The Class B private address range is 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, and the Class C private address range is 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255.
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19. Which of the following is a valid IP address that can be used on the Internet (meaning the public addressing scheme)?
A. 10.10.1.1 B. 168.16.1.1 C. 234.1.1.1 D. 172.30.1.1 |
B. The private address range is 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255. Also, 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 is reserved for multicast addressing.
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20. Which of the following is an invalid IP address for a host?
A. 10.0.0.1 B. 128.0.0.1 C. 224.0.0.1 D. 172.0.0.1 |
C. Option C is a multicast address and cannot be used to address hosts.
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1. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
A. 14 B. 15 C. 16 D. 30 E. 31 F. 62 |
D. A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never change.
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2. You have a Class A host of 10.0.0.110/25. It needs to communicate to a host with an IP address of 10.0.0.210/25. Which of the following devices do you need to use in order for these hosts to communicate?
A. A Layer 2 switch B. Router C. DNS server D. Hub |
B. Don’t freak because this is a Class A. What is your subnet mask? 255.255.255.128. Regardless of the class of address, this is a block size of 128 in the fourth octet. The subnets are 0 and 128. The 0 subnet host range is 1–126, with a broadcast address of 127. The 128 subnet host range is 129–254, with a broadcast address of 255. You need a router for these two hosts to communicate because they are in different subnets.
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3. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
A. 200.10.5.56 B. 200.10.5.32 C. 200.10.5.64 D. 200.10.5.0 |
C. This is a pretty simple question. A /28 is 255.255.255.240, which means that our block size is 16 in the fourth octet (0, 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, and so on). The host is in the 64 subnet.
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4. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each B. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each C. 7 subnets, 8,190 hosts each D. 8 subnets, 30 hosts each E. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each F. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each |
F. A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.
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5. You receive a call from a user who is complaining that they cannot get on the Internet. You have them verify their IP address, mask, and default gateway. The IP address is 10.0.37.144, with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is 10.0.38.1. What is the problem?
A. Incorrect DNS server address B. Invalid subnet mask C. Incorrect gateway IP D. IP address and mask not compatible |
C. The host ID of 10.0.37.144 with a 255.255.254.0 mask is in the 10.0.36.0 subnet (yes, you need to be able to subnet in this exam!). Do not stress that this is a class A, what we care about is that the third octet has a block size of 2, so the next subnet is 10.0.38.0, which makes the broadcast address 10.0.37.255. The default gateway address of 10.0.38.1 is not in the same subnet as the host. Even though this is a Class A address, you still should easily be able to subnet this because you look more at the subnet mask and find your interesting octet, which is the third octet in this question. 256 – 254 = 2. Your block size is 2.
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6. If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork this host belongs to?
A. 172.16.45.0 B. 172.16.45.4 C. 172.16.45.8 D. 172.16.45.12 E. 172.16.45.16 |
D. A /30, regardless of the class of address, has a 252 in the fourth octet. This means we have a block size of 4 and our subnets are 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, and so on. Address 14 is obviously in the 12 subnet.
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7. On a network, which mask should you use on point-to-point WAN links in order to reduce the waste of IP addresses?
A. /27 B. /28 C. /29 D. /30 E. /31 |
D. A point-to-point link uses only two hosts. A /30, or 255.255.255.252, mask provides two hosts per subnet.
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8. On which of the following devices are you most likely to be able to implement NAT?
A. Hub B. Ethernet switch C. Router D. Bridge |
C. Devices with Layer 3 awareness, such as routers and firewalls, are the only ones that can manipulate the IP header in support of NAT.
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9. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to router interface?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 30 D. 62 E. 126 |
A. A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts is the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.
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10. When configuring the IP settings on a computer on one subnet to ensure that it can communicate with a computer on another subnet, which of the following is desirable?
A. Configure the computer with the same default gateway as the other computer. B. Configure the computer with the same subnet mask as the other computer. C. Configure the computer with a default gateway that matches the IP address of the interface of the router that is attached to the same subnet as the computer. D. Configure the computer with a subnet mask that matches the IP address of the router’s interface that is attached to the same subnet as the computer. |
C. A computer should be configured with an IP address that is unique throughout the reachable internetwork. It should be configured with a subnet mask that matches that of all other devices on its local subnet, but not necessarily one that matches the mask used on any other subnet. It should also be configured with a default gateway that matches its local router’s interface IP address.
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11. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. What is the broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN?
A. 192.168.192.15 B. 192.168.192.31 C. 192.168.192.63 D. 192.168.192.127 E. 192.168.192.255 |
A. A /29 (255.255.255.248) has a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. This means the subnets are 0, 8, 16, 24, and so on. 10 is in the 8 subnet. The next subnet is 16, so 15 is the broadcast address.
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12. What is the highest usable address on the 172.16.1.0/24 network?
A. 172.16.1.255 B. 172.16.1.254 C. 172.16.1.253 D. 172.16.1.23 |
B. A 24-bit mask, or prefix length, indicates that the entire fourth octet is used for host identification. In a special case, such as this, it is simpler to visualize the all-zeros value (172.16.1.0) and the all-ones value (172.16.1.255). The highest usable address, the last one before the all-ones value, is 172.16.1.254.
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13. A network administrator is connecting two hosts directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)
A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-though cable. C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192. D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host. E. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0. |
A, E. First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a crossover cable. A straight-through cable won’t work. Second, the hosts have different masks, which puts them in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set both masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24).
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14. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the subnet address of this host?
A. 172.16.112.0 B. 172.16.0.0 C. 172.16.96.0 D. 172.16.255.0 E. 172.16.128.0 |
A. A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits: 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Because there is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on—which is a value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 because 128 is the next subnet.
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15. Using the following illustration, what would be the IP address of E0 if you were using the eighth subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28, and you need to use the last available IP address in the range. The 0 subnet should not be considered valid for this question.
A. 192.168.10.142 B. 192.168.10.66 C. 192.168.100.254 D. 192.168.10.143 E. 192.168.10.126 |
A. A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. Let’s count to the ninth subnet (we need to find the broadcast address of the eighth subnet, so we need to count to the ninth subnet). We start at 16 (remember, the question stated that we will not use subnet 0, so we start at 16, not 0): 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 144. The eighth subnet is 128, and the next subnet is 144, so our broadcast address of the 128 subnet is 143. This makes the host range 129–142. 142 is the last valid host.
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16. Using the illustration in question 15, what would be the IP address of E0 if you were using the first subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28, and you need to use the last available IP address in the range. Again, the zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question.
A. 192.168.10.24 B. 192.168.10.62 C. 192.168.10.30 D. 192.168.10.127 |
C. A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. The first subnet is 16 (remember that the question stated not to use subnet 0), and the next subnet is 32, so our broadcast address is 31. This makes our host range 17–30. 30 is the last valid host.
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17. If you are forced to replace a router that has failed to the point that you are unable to access its current configuration to aid in setting up interface addresses on the new router, which of the following can you reference for assistance?
A. The default-gateway settings on computers from each subnet that the old router interconnected. B. The router’s configuration that was periodically cached on the DHCP server. C. The router’s configuration that was periodically cached on the DNS server. D. The new router will auto-configure itself with the correct settings. |
A. The best method here is to check the configuration of devices that were using the old router as a gateway to the rest of the internetwork. Routers do not periodically cache their configurations to servers of any sort. You might have copied the old router’s configuration to a TFTP server or the like, but failing that, you will have to rebuild the configuration from scratch, which might well be much more than interface addresses. Therefore, keeping a copy of the router’s current configuration somewhere other than on the router is a wise choice. Routers don’t auto-configure themselves; we wouldn’t want them to.
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18. You have a network with a subnet of 172.16.17.0/22. Which of the following is a valid host address?
A. 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252 B. 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0 C. 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0 D. 172.16.16.1 255.255.255.240 E. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0 F. 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0 |
E. A Class B network ID with a /22 mask is 255.255.252.0, with a block size of 4 in the third octet. The network address in the question is in subnet 172.16.16.0 with a broadcast address of 172.16.19.255. Only option E has the correct subnet mask listed, and 172.16.18.255 is a valid host.
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19. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router? (Choose two.)
A. 172.16.0.5 B. 172.16.1.100 C. 172.16.1.198 D. 172.16.2.255 E. 172.16.3.0 F. 172.16.3.255 |
D, E. The router’s IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is a 255.255.254.0. This makes the third octet a block size of 2. The router’s interface is in the 2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255 because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 2.1 through 3.254. The router is using the first valid host address in the range.
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20. You have one IP address provided from your ISP with a /30 mask. However, you have 300 users that need to access the Internet. What technology will you use to implement a solution?
A. PAT B. VPN C. DNS D. LANs |
A. Network Address Translation can allow up to 65,000 hosts to get onto the Internet with one IP address by using Port Address Translation (PAT).
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1. Which is not a routing protocol?
A. RIP B. RIPv2 C. RIPv3 D. EIGRP |
C. Yup, you got it. RIP, RIPv2, and EIGRP are all examples of routing protocols.
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2. Which of these best describes dynamic routing?
A. All network addresses must be hand-typed into the routing table. B. Only a portion of the network address must be hand-typed into the routing table. C. Routing tables are updated automatically when changes occur in the network. D. A and B. |
C. In dynamic routing, routers update each other about all the networks they know about and place this information into the routing table. This is possible because a protocol on one router communicates with the same protocol running on neighbor routers. If changes occur in the network, a dynamic routing protocol automatically informs all routers about the event.
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3. Which is true regarding dynamic routing?
A. Static routes are best in large networks and thus better to use than dynamic routing protocols. B. Static routes are automatically added to the routing table but dynamic routes must be added by hand. C. You must use a DNS and WINS server when configuring dynamic routing. D. Dynamic routes are automatically added to the routing table. |
D. Dynamic routing scales well in large networks and routes are automatically added into the routing table. Static routing is done by hand, one route at a time into each router.
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4. Which of the following is true for MAC addresses?
A. MAC addresses are never local on the LAN and always pass through a router. B. MAC addresses are always local on the LAN and never go through or past a router. C. MAC addresses will always be the IP address of Fa0/0 interface. D. None of the above. |
B. Media Access Control (MAC) addresses are always local on the LAN and never go through and past a router.
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5. What is it called when protocols update their forwarding tables after changes have occurred?
A. Name resolution B. Routing C. Convergence D. ARP resolution |
C. Routing convergence is the time required by the routing protocols to update the routing tables (forwarding tables) on all routers in the network.
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6. What command would be used to view the ARP cache on your host?
A. C:\ >show ip route B. C:\ >show ip arp C. C:\ >show protocols D. C:\ >arp -a D. The arp -a command will show the ARP cache on your host. |
D. The arp -a command will show the ARP cache on your host.
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7. What happens when a router receives a packet for a network that isn’t listed in the routing table?
A. It forwards the packet to the next available router. B. It holds the packet until the address is updated in the routing table. C. The router will use RIP to inform the host that it can’t send the packet. D. None of the above. |
D. Hope you answered D! A router will not send a broadcast looking for the remote network—the router will discard the packet.
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8. Which of the following is not a distance vector protocol?
A. RIPv1 B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. IGRP |
C. RIPv1 and 2 and IGRP are all distance vector (DV) protocols. Routers using a DV protocol send all or parts of their routing table in a routing-update message at a regular interval to each of their neighbor routers.
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9. Which two of the following are link state protocols?
A. RIPv1 B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. IS-IS E. IGRP |
C, D. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) are link state (LS) routing protocols.
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10. Which of the following is a hybrid routing protocol?
A. RIPv2 B. EIGRP C. IS-IS D. IGRP |
B. The only protocol you could select is Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).
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11. What does the acronym IGRP stand for?
A. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol B. Inside Gateway Redundancy Protocol C. Interior Group Reliability Protocol D. Interior Gateway Redundancy Protocol |
A. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol is a DV interior gateway protocol.
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12. What EGP protocol is used on the Internet?
A. GGP B. EGP C. BGP D. IGP |
C. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is the most popular choice for ISPs or really large corporations.
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13. What are the two categories of IGP protocols?
A. Link state B. Static C. Distance vector D. EGP |
A, C. Distance vector (DV) and link state (LS) are the two routing protocols to remember.
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14. What two pieces of information does a router require to make a routing decision?
A. Destination network (address) B. Destination MAC address C. Application layer protocol D. Neighbor router |
A, D. A frame uses MAC addresses to send a packet on the LAN. The frame will take the packet to either a host on the LAN or a router’s interface if the packet is destined for a remote network.
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15. Where does a frame have to carry a packet if it is destined for a remote network?
A. Default gateway B. Neighbor host C. Switch D. Hub |
A. I hope you said A! Packets specifically have to be carried to a router in order to be routed through a network.
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16. Where along the IP routing process does a packet get changed?
A. Router B. Host A C. Destination device D. Host B |
C. Remember that the frame changes at each hop but that the packet is never changed in any way until it reaches the destination device.
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17. When all routers in a network agree about the path from one point to another, the network is said to be what?
A. Dynamic B. Static C. Secure D. Converged |
D. When the routing tables are complete because they include information about all networks in the internetwork, they are considered converged.
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18. What type of request must a client send if it does not know the destination MAC address?
A. ARP broadcast B. Multicast C. ICMP redirect D. Reverse ARP |
A. This is step 6 in the IP routing process. If the hardware address isn’t in the ARP cache of the host, an ARP broadcast is sent out onto the local network to search for the hardware address.
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19. You need to perform maintenance on a router in your corporate office. It is important that the network does not go down. What can you do to accomplish your goal?
A. Configure BGP on the router. B. Implement NAT on the router. C. Configure on the router a static route that temporarily reroutes traffic through another office. D. Implement convergence on the router. |
C. The best answer would be to reroute traffic using a temporary static route until the maintenance is complete on the router.
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20. When are you most likely to see a Request Timed Out message?
A. When an unknown error has occurred B. When you have used the arp -a command incorrectly C. When a known error has occurred D. When you are using a hybrid routing protocol |
A. You are most likely to see a Request Timed Out message when (if) a packet is lost on the way back to the originating host for an unknown error. Remember, if the error occurs because of a known issue, you are likely to see a Destination Unreachable message.
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1. Which of the following protocols support VLSM, summarization, and discontiguous networking? (Choose three.)
A. RIPv1 B. IGRP C. EIGRP D. OSPF E. BGP F. RIPv2 |
C, D, F. RIPv1 and IGRP are true distance vector routing protocols and can’t do much, really—except build and maintain routing tables and use a lot of bandwidth! RIPv2, EIGRP, and OSPF build and maintain routing tables, but they also provide classless routing, which allows for VLSM, summarization, and discontiguous networking.
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2. Which of the following are considered distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF B. RIP C. RIPv2 D. IS-IS |
B, C. RIP and RIPv2 are distance vector routing protocols. OSPF and IS-IS are link state.
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3. Which of the following are considered link state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF B. RIP C. RIPv2 D. IS-IS |
A, D. RIP and RIPv2 are distance vector routing protocols. OSPF and IS-IS are link state.
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4. Which of the following is considered a hybrid routing protocol?
A. OSPF B. BGP C. RIPv2 D. IS-IS E. EIGRP |
E. RIP and RIPv2 are distance vector routing protocols. OSPF and IS-IS are link state. EIGRP uses qualities from both distance vector and link state to create a hybrid routing protocol.
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5. Why would you want to use a dynamic routing protocol instead of using static routes?
A. There is less overhead on the router. B. Dynamic routing is more secure. C. Dynamic routing scales to larger networks. D. The network runs faster. |
C. Dynamic routing is typically used in today’s networks because it scales to larger networks and takes less administrative work.
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6. Which of the following is a vendor-specific routing protocol?
A. STP B. OSPF C. RIPv1 D. EIGRP E. IS-IS |
D. EIGRP is called a hybrid routing protocol because it uses the characteristics of both distance vector and link state routing protocols. However, EIGRP can be run only on Cisco routers and is not vendor neutral.
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7. RIP has a long convergence time and users have been complaining of response time when a router goes down and RIP has to reconverge. Which can you implement to improve convergence time on the network?
A. Replace RIP with static routes. B. Update RIP to RIPv2. C. Update RIP to OSPF using link state. D. Replace RIP with BGP as an exterior gateway protocol. |
C. Static routes may be a good solution, but remember that they are not dynamic and if a piece of equipment goes down, new routes to remote networks will not automatically update, so OSPF is the best answer. It dynamically will update the routing tables with faster convergence then RIP.
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8. What is the administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120 |
C. The administrative distance (AD) is a very important parameter in a routing protocol. The lower the AD, the more trusted the route. If you have IGRP and OSPF running, by default IGRP routes would be placed in the routing table because IGRP has a lower AD of 100. OSPF has an AD of 110. RIPv1 and RIPv2 both have an AD of 120, and EIGRP is the lowest at 9.
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9. Which of the following protocols will advertise routed IPv6 networks?
A. RIP B. RIPng C. OSPFv2 D. EIGRPv3 |
B. The routing protocols that have been upgraded to advertise IPv6 routes are RIPng, OSPFv3, and EIGRPv6. IS-IS can advertise IPv6 routes as well, but no upgrade was needed for IS-IS.
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10. What is the difference between static and dynamic routing?
A. You use static routing in large, scalable networks. B. Dynamic routing is used by a DNS server. C. Dynamic routes are added automatically. D. Static routes are added automatically. |
C. Dynamic routing protocols, like RIP, EIGRP and OSPF, automatically add route updates to the routing table. Static routes must be added by hand.
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11. Which routing protocol has a maximum hop count of 15?
A. RIPv1 B. IGRP C. EIGRP D. OSPF |
A. The distance vector protocols RIPv1 and RIPv2 both have a maximum hop count of 15 (remember, 16 is unreachable). IGRP and EIGRP have a hop count of 255, and OSPF doesn’t have a maximum hop count.
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12. Which of the following describes routing convergence time?
A. The time it takes for your VPN to connect B. The time required by protocols to update their forwarding tables after changes have occurred C. The time required for IDS to detect an attack D. The time required by switches to update their link status and go into forwarding state |
B. Routing convergence time happens in many protocols, for many devices, but routing convergence time is the time for all routers to update their routing tables (forwarding tables).
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13. What routing protocol is typically used to connect ASs on the Internet?
A. IGRP B. RIPv2 C. BGP D. OSPF |
C. BGP is used to connect autonomous systems together on the Internet for its ability to make classless routing and summarization possible. These capabilities help to keep routing tables smaller and more efficient at the ISP core.
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14. RIPv2 sends out its routing table every 30 seconds just like RIPv1, but it does so more efficiently. What type of transmission does RIPv2 use to accomplish this task?
A. Broadcasts B. Multicasts C. Telecast D. None of the above |
B. RIPv1 sends broadcasts every 30 seconds and has an AD of 120. RIPv2 sends multicasts (224.0.0.9) every 30 seconds and also has an AD of 120. RIPv2 sends subnet-mask information with the route updates, which allows it to support classless networks and discontiguous networks. RIPv2 also supports authentication between routers; RIPv1 does not.
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15. Which routing protocols have an administrative distance of 120? (Choose two.)
A. RIPv1 B. RIPv2 C. EIGRP D. OSPF |
A, B. Both RIPv1 and RIPv2 have an AD of 120. EIGRP has an AD of 90.
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16. Which of the following routing protocols uses AS-Path as one of the methods to build the routing tables?
A. OSPF B. IS-IS C. BGP D. RIP E. EIGRP |
C. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) attributes include the IP address to get to the next AS (the next-hop attribute) as well as an indication of how the networks at the end of the path were introduced into BGP (the origin code attribute). The AS path information is useful to construct a graph of loop-free autonomous systems and is used to identify routing policies so that restrictions on routing behavior can be enforced based on the AS path.
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17. Which IPv6 routing protocol uses UDP port 521?
A. RIPng B. EIGRPv6 C. OSPFv3 D. IS-IS |
A. RIPng has many of the same features as RIPv2: It’s a distance vector protocol; it has a max hop count of 15; and it uses split horizon, poison reverse, and other loop-avoidance mechanisms. And it still uses multicast to send its updates too, but in IPv6, it uses FF02::9 for the transport address. For RIPv2, the multicast address was 224.0.0.9, so the address still has a 9 at the end in the new IPv6 multicast range.
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18. What EIGRP information is held in RAM and maintained through the usage of hello and update packets? (Select all that apply.)
A. DUAL table B. Neighbor table C. Topology table D. Successor route |
B, C. EIGRP holds three tables in RAM: neighbor, topology, and routing. The neighbor and topology tables are built and also maintained with the use of hello packets.
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19. Which is true regarding EIGRP successor routes?
A. Successor routes are saved in the neighbor table. B. Successor routes are stored in the DUAL table. C. Successor routes are used only if the primary route fails. D. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination. |
D. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination and is stored in the routing table. It is backed up by a feasible successor route that is stored in the topology table—if one is available. Remember that all routes are in the topology table.
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20. Which of the following uses only hop count as a metric to find the best path to a remote network?
A. RIP B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. BGP |
A. RIP and RIPv2 use only hop count as a metric, with a maximum of 15 hops, to find the best path to a remote network.
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