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589 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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How many pins do the SIMMS RAM have. (Two Answers)
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30/72 Pins
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How many pins do the DIMMS RAM have. (Three Answers)
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168/184/240 Pins
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How many pins do the micro-SIMMS RAM have. (Three Answers) |
68/144/172 Pins |
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How many pins do the SO DIMMS RAM have. ( Select three)
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72/144/200
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How many pins do the RIMMS RAM have. (one answer) |
184 |
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What size is the Minijack
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1/8
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RAID Level 0
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Disk striping will distribute data across 2-32 hard disks. This provides the fastest read/write performance as the system can access the data from more than one place. This level of RAID does not provide any redundancy.
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RAID Level 1
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Disk mirroring writes exact copies of data to more than one disk. Each disk or partition of a disk will contain the exact same data. If one hard disk fails, the data still exists on the other disk. This level of RAID also increases disk read performance as it can pull the data off of both disks.
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Raid Level 3
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Stripes data at a byte level across several drives, with parity stored on one drive. It is otherwise similar to level 4. It can be used in data intensive or single-user environments which access long sequential records to speed up data transfer. However, RAID-3 does not allow multiple I/O operations to be overlapped and requires synchronized-spindle drives in order to avoid performance degradation with short records.
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RAID Level 4
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Disk Striping in which the parity information is written to 1 drive at a block level. The parity information allows recovery from the failure of any single drive. The performance of a level 4 array is very good for reads(the same as level 0). Writes require that parity data be updated each time. The process offers no advantages over RAID-5 and does not support multiple simultaneous write operations.
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Raid Level 5
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Very similar to RAID level 4, however, parity information is written to each of the disks in the array. If one of the disks fails, the data can be reconstructed by installing a working hard disk. The parity information is used to reconstruct the data that was lost.
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DVI-A
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DVI-A - High-Res Analog DVI-A format is used to carry a DVI signal to an analog display, such as a CRT monitor or an HDTV. Although some signal quality is lost from the digital to analog conversion, it still transmits a higher quality picture than standard VGA.
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What is DVI-I
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DVI-I - The Best of Both Worlds DVI-I format is an integrated cable which is capable of transmitting either a digital-to-digital signal or an analog-to-analog signal, but it will not work transmitting a digital-to-analog or analog-to-digital signal. In addition to the above formats, the DVI interface has 2 additional types: single link and dual link. Dual link has a lot more pins so it offers higher throughput, hence, better resolutions can be supported. Below is a chart of the various DVI types available:
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What resolution is a VGA
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640x480 Now Obselete
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What resolution is a SVGA
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800x600 Nearly Obselete
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What resolution is a XGA
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1024x768
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What resolution is a HDTV 720P
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1280x720
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What resolution is a SXGA
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1280x1024
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What resolution is a UXGA
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1600x1200
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What resolution is a WSXGA+
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1680x1050
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What resolution is a HDTV I080p
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1680x1050
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What resolution is a HDTX 1080
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1920x1080
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What resolution is a WUXGA
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1920x1200
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What resolution is a WUXGA
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2560x1600
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What port number is for FTP
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21
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What port number is for SSH
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22
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What port number is for TELNET
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23
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What port number is for SMTP
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25
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What port number is for DNS
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53
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What port number is for HTTP
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80
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What port number is for POP3
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110
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What port number is for IMAP
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143
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What port number is for HTTPS
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443
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What port number is for RDP
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3389
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Tim installs a new CPU in a computer. After a few hours, the processor starts to overheat. Which of the following might be the cause?
A. The CPU is not locked down. B. The CPU is not properly seated. C. Thermal compound was not applied. D. The CPU is not compatible with the motherboard. |
C. Thermal compound was not applied |
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Which of the following could cause the POST to fail? (Select all correct answers.)
A. CPU B. Power supply C. CD-ROM D. Memory E. Hard drive |
Answers: A and D.
The CPU and memory need to be installed properly for the POST to run (and to pass). The hard drive and CD-ROM might or might not be installed properly, but they are not necessary for the POST to complete. If the power supply is defective, the system will simply not boot and will not even get to the POST stage. |
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Which expansion bus uses lanes to transfer data?
A. PCI B. PCI-X C. PCIe D. IDE |
Answer: C. PCIe (PCI Express) uses serial lanes to send and receive data. That means one bit at a time per lane. PCI, PCI-X, and IDE are parallel technologies, which means 8 bits at a time or multiples of 8. IDE stands for Integrated Device Electronics, the predecessor to SATA hard drive technology.
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Which of the following are 64-bit CPUs? (Select all correct answers.)
A. Core i5 B. Phenom II C. Pentium IV D. x64 |
Answers: A and B.
Intel’s Core i5 and AMD’s Phenom II are both 64-bit CPUs. The Pentium IV is an older 32-bit CPU. x64 is the name given to 64-bit processor technology but is not an actual CPU. |
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14. Which of the following uses a 24-pin main motherboard power connector?
A. ATX B. ATX 12V 1.3 C. ATX 12V 2.0 D. ATX 5V 2.0 |
Answer: C.
ATX 12V 2.0 (and higher) combined the 20-pin and 4-pin connectors used in ATX 12V 1.3 into one 24-pin connector. ATX is simply the name of the form factor; there are many types of ATX. There is no ATX 5V. Although ATX sends 12-volt and 5-volt signals, it is known as ATX 12v. |
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21. What is the delay in the RAM’s response to a request from the memory controller called?
A. Latency B. Standard deviation C. Fetch interval D. Lag |
Answer: A.
Memory latency or CAS (Column Address Strobe) latency happens when a memory controller tries to access data from a memory module. It is a slight delay (usually measured in nanoseconds) while the memory module responds to the memory controller. The memory controller (also known as the northbridge) has a specific speed at which it operates. If the CPU asks the chip for too much information at once, this might increase latency time while the memory controller works. |
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24. What type of adapter card is normally plugged into a PCIe x16 adapter card slot?
A. Modem B. Video C. NIC D. Sound |
B Video
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25. To prevent damage to a computer, the computer should be connected to what?
A. A power strip B. A power inverter C. An AC to DC converter D. A UPS |
Answer: D.
A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) protects computer equipment against surges, spikes, sags, brownouts, and blackouts. Power strips, unlike surge protectors, do not protect against surges. Power inverters are effectively AC to DC converters; the power supply acts as a power inverter. |
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27. Which of the following components could cause the POST to beep several times and fail during boot?
A. Sound card B. Power supply C. Hard drive D. RAM |
Answer: D. RAM is one of the big four (RAM, CPU, motherboard, and video) that can cause the POST to fail. Different RAM errors can cause the POST to make a different series of beeps. Consult your motherboard documentation for more information about the different beep codes. The sound card does not have an effect on the POST. If the power supply has a problem, either the computer will not boot at all (and not even enter POST) or it will have intermittent problems— for example, shutting down unpredictably. Hard drive problems will result in a variety of errors. While the POST will complete in these cases, the operating system will not boot.
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28. Which of the following is the proper boot sequence of a PC?
A. CPU, POST, boot loader, operating system B. Boot loader, operating system, CPU, RAM C. POST, CPU, boot loader, operating system D. CPU, RAM, boot loader, operating system |
Answer: A.
The CPU must be installed correctly for the POST to begin. After the POST is successful, the boot loader then runs (for example, BOOTMGR for Windows 7/ Vista or NTLDR for Windows XP), and then the operating system comes up. That is, if there are no boot loader errors. The CPU is crucial; if installed incorrectly, the system will not POST, making it more difficult to troubleshoot. |
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29. Roger informs you that none of the three SCSI drives can be seen on his SCSI chain. What should you check?
A. Whether the host adapter is terminated and that the disks have consecutive IDs of 1, 2, and 3 B. Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7 or 15, and whether all the disks are terminated and have consecutive IDs of 0, 1, and 2 C. Whether the host adapter has an ID of 0, and whether the disks are terminated with the same ID D. Whether the SCSI adapter has an ID of 7, and whether both ends of the chain are terminated, and that each disk has a unique ID |
Answer: D.
The adapter should use the ID 7. Both ends of the SCSI chain need to be terminated (some SCSI cards and devices auto-terminate). Each disk needs a unique ID. The particular ID you give the disks doesn’t matter. |
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35. What does a CAD/ CAM workstation require? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Powerful CPU B. HDMI output C. Surround sound D. High-end video |
Answers: A and D.
A computer-aided design/ computer-aided manufacturing workstation requires a powerful CPU, high-end video, and as much RAM as possible. The CPU is especially important to run design applications such as AutoCAD. HDMI output is necessary on HTPCs. Surround sound is needed on HTPCs and perhaps gaming computers as well. |
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36. You need to install the fastest hard drive possible. Which port should you connect it to?
A. USB B. SATA C. IDE D. eSATA |
Answer: B.
You should connect the hard drive to a SATA port. SATA revision 3.0 offers 6.0 Gb/ s data transfer resulting in a maximum throughput of 600 MB/ s. USB 3.0 comes in a close second at 5.0 Gbps (480 MB/ s). However, SATA will usually still be the preferred choice because it has less latency and is internal to the computer. IDE is the predecessor to SATA and has a maximum transfer rate of 133 MB/ s. As of early 2012, eSATA is limited to 3.0 Gb/ s (300 MB/ s). Unless you specifically are required to use an external drive, internal SATA is the way to go. |
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42. The IP address 192.168.1.1 uses what addressing scheme?
A. 64-bit B. 32-bit C. 128-bit D. 40-bit |
Answer: B.
There are 32 bits in a standard IPv4 address. In this case, the binary equivalent of the IP numbers would be 192 = 11000000, 168 = 10101000, 1 = 00000001, and 1 = 00000001. If you count all the binary bits, you end up with 32 in total. Therefore, the address is a 32-bit dotted-decimal address. 64-bit is a term used with newer x64 CPUs. 128-bit is used by IPv6. 40-bit is a commonly used amount of bits in older encryption techniques. |
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44. The wireless protocol 802.11n has a maximum data transfer rate of what?
A. 11 Mbps B. 600 Mbps C. 480 Mbps D. 54 Mbps |
Answer: B.
802.11n runs at a maximum of 600 Mbps. 802.11b runs at a maximum of 11 Mbps. USB 2.0 Hi-Speed runs at a maximum of 480 Mbps. 802.11g has a maximum data transfer rate (DTR) of 54 Mbps. |
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47. What is the minimum category cable needed for a 1000BASE-T network?
A. Category 3 B. Category 5 C. Category 5e D. Category 6 |
Answer: C.
The minimum cable needed for 1000BASE-T networks is Category 5e. Of course, Cat 6 would also work, but it is not the minimum of the listed answers. 1000BASE-T specifies the speed of the network (1000 Mbps), the type (baseband, single shared channel), and the cable to be used (T = twisted pair). Cat 3 is suitable for 10 Mbps networks. Cat 5 is suitable for 100 Mbps networks. |
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48. Which of these IP addresses can be routed across the Internet?
A. 127.0.0.1 B. 192.168.1.1 C. 129.52.50.13 D. 10.52.50.13 |
Answer: C.
The only public address (needed to get onto the Internet) is 129.52.50.13. All the others are private IPs, meant to be behind a firewall. 127.0.0.1 is the local loopback IP address. 192.168.1.1 is a common Class C private IP address used by SOHO networking devices. 10.52.50.13 is a Class A private address. |
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49. Which port number does HTTP use?
A. 21 B. 25 C. 80 D. 110 |
Answer: C.
The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80 (by default). Port 21 is used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Port 25 is used by the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Port 110 is used by the POP3 e-mail protocol. |
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52. Which of the following types of cable have a copper medium? (Select the three best answers.)
A. Twisted pair B. Coaxial C. Fiber optic D. Cat 5e E. Multi-mode |
Answers: A, B, and D.
Twisted pair, coaxial, and Category 5e cable are all examples of network cables with a copper medium. They all send electricity over copper wire. Multi-mode is a type of fiber-optic cable; it uses light to send data over a glass or plastic medium. Twisted pair is the most common type of cabling used in today’s networks. |
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55. You are configuring Bob’s computer to access the Internet. Which of the following is required? (Select all that apply.)
A. DNS server address B. Gateway address C. E-mail server name D. DHCP server address E. Domain name |
Answers: A and B.
To get on the Internet, the DNS server is required so that the computer can get the resolved IP addresses from the domain names that are typed in. The gateway address is necessary to get outside the network. E-mail server information is not necessary if the person is just looking to get onto the Internet. A DHCP server address is not necessary either. However, it is an easier method. The beauty of DHCP is that you don’t need to know the DHCP server’s address to acquire an IP address. The domain name for your network is normally not needed either. That will only be necessary if you want to add the computer to the organization’s domain. |
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58. You just configured the IP address 192.168.0.105 in Windows 7. When you press the tab key, Windows automatically configures the default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Which of the following IP addresses is a suitable gateway address?
A. 192.168.1.100 B. 192.168.1.1 C. 192.168.10.1 D. 192.168.0.1 |
Answer: D.
192.168.0.1 is the only suitable gateway address. Remember that the gateway address must be on the same network as the computer. In this case the network is 192.168.0, as defined by the 255.255.255.0 subnet mask. As to the other answers: 192.168.1.100 is on the 192.168.1.0 network; so is 192.168.1.1. 192.168.10.1 is on the 192.168.10.0 network. Don’t forget that a zero at the end of an IP address denotes the network number. |
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61. Which protocol uses port 53?
A. FTP B. SMTP C. DNS D. HTTP |
Answer: C.
The Domain Name System (DNS) protocol uses port 53 by default. FTP uses port 21. SMTP uses port 25. HTTP uses port 80. |
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63. Which of the following terms best describes two or more LANs connected together over a large geographic distance?
A. PAN B. WAN C. WLAN D. MAN |
Answer: B.
A wide area network (WAN) is a network in which two or more LANs are connected together over a large geographic distance— for example, between two cities. The WAN requires connections to be provided by a telecommunications or data communications company. A personal area network (PAN) is a small network made up of short-distance devices such as Bluetooth. WLAN stands for wireless local area network. This is the name that the IEEE uses for their 802.11 standards. That is because the term Wi-Fi, though widely used, is copyrighted. A MAN is a metropolitan (or municipal) area network; it can connect two or more LANs together but does it in a small city-based area. |
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71. What would you normally install into a Type II PCMCIA slot on a laptop? (Select all that apply.)
A. Hard drive B. Modem C. NIC D. RAM |
Answers: B and C.
Input/ output devices such as modems and NICs (network interface cards/ network adapters) are the most commonly installed Type II devices. Hard drives would normally be installed internally but could also be connected to USB and FireWire ports. RAM is installed internally. |
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75. Which of the following are typical names for expansion busses on laptops? (Select the two best answers.)
A. ExpressCard B. SODIMM C. PC Card D. AGP |
Answers: A and C.
ExpressCard and PC Card (also known as PCMCIA) are expansion busses used on laptops. SODIMM is the type of RAM in a laptop. AGP is the Accelerated Graphics Port; it is the predecessor of the PCIe x16 video expansion bus. Mini-PCIe is another expansion bus that is used by laptops, but it is internal and is more difficult to install cards to then its PC version.llllll) |
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76. You use your laptop often. What is a simple, free way to keep your laptop running cool?
A. Keep the laptop on a flat surface B. Put the laptop in the freezer when not in use C. Direct a fan at the laptop D. Keep the laptop turned off whenever possible |
Answer: A.
Laptops have airflow underneath them; if the unit is not on a flat surface, that airflow will be reduced or stopped altogether, leading to component damage. The freezer is not a good idea because condensation could build up inside the unit. A fan won’t do much good unless the laptop is on a flat surface, and although it is plausible to keep the laptop turned off, it negates the reason for using the laptop. |
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88. How can you take control of a network printer from a remote computer?
A. Install the printer locally and access the Sharing tab B. Install the printer locally and access the spool settings C. Install the printer locally and access the Ports tab D. Connect to the printer via FTP |
Answer: C.
After you install the driver for the printer locally, you can then take control of it by going to the properties of the printer and accessing the Ports tab. Then click the Add Port button and select the Standard TCP/ IP Port option. You will have to know the IP address of the printer or the computer that the printer is connected to. |
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89. A color laser printer is producing images that seem to be tinted blue. What should you do?
A. Clean the toner cartridge B. Calibrate the printer C. Change the fusing assembly D. Clean the primary corona |
Answer: B. After installing a printer, it is important to calibrate it for color and orientation, especially if you are installing a color laser printer or an inkjet printer. These calibration tools are usually built in to the printer’s software and can be accessed from Windows. Or, you can access them from the printer’s display. If a toner cartridge needs to be cleaned, it probably has a leak and should be replaced. The fusing assembly needs to be changed only when it fails. Many printers will give you an indication of when the fuser is at 20% life and needs to be replaced soon. If the fuser fails, the toner will fail to stick to the paper. The primary corona wire can be cleaned; it is near the drum. This can help with other types of print quality problems such as lines and smearing.
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93. You are running some cable from an office to a computer located in a warehouse. As you are working in the warehouse, a 55-gallon drum falls from a pallet and spills what smells like ammonia. What should you do first?
A. Call 911. B. Call the building supervisor. C. Get out of the area. D. Save the computer. |
Answer: C.
If there is something that is immediately hazardous to you, you must leave the area right away. Afterward, you can call 911, the building supervisor, or your manager, depending on the severity of the situation. Computers and all other technology come second after human life. Remember that. Plus, if backup systems have been implemented properly, you have nothing to lose if a computer is damaged. |
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96. Which of the following statements is not assertive communication?
A. “I certainly know how you feel— losing data is a terrible thing.” B. “Could you explain again exactly what you would like done?” C. “Do your employees always cause issues on computers like these?” D. “What can I do to help you?” |
Answer: C.
Asking a customer if employees always cause issues is just plain rude; this type of communication should be avoided. However, the other three statements are positive and helpful, or at least consoling. Stay away from being judgmental of the customer. |
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98. What could be described as the chronological paper trail of evidence?
A. First response B. Chain of custody C. Setting and meeting expectations D. Data preservation |
Answer: B.
Chain of custody is the chronological paper trail of evidence that may or may not be used in court. First response describes the steps a person takes when first responding to a computer with prohibited content or illegal activity: it includes identifying what exactly is happening, reporting through proper channels, and preserving data and devices. Setting and meeting expectations deals with customer service; it is something you should do before you start a job for a customer. Data (and device) preservation is a part of first response; a person who first arrives at the scene of a computer incident will be in charge of preserving data and devices in their current state. |
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100. Active communication includes which of the following?
A. Filtering out unnecessary information B. Declaring that the customer doesn’t know what he or she is doing C. Clarifying the customer’s statements D. Mouthing off |
Answer:
C. One example of active communication is clarifying a customer’s statements. For instance, if you are unsure exactly what the customer wants, always clarify the information or repeat it back to the customer so that everyone is on the same page. Never declare that the customer doesn’t know what he is doing. This is a surefire way to lose the customer and possibly your job. It should go without saying, mouthing off could be the worst thing you could do. Save that for the drive home on the freeway— I’m just kidding! Be professional at all times when working with customers. |
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1. Which of the following IP addresses would a technician see if a computer is connected to a multifunction network device and is attempting to obtain an IP address automatically but is not receiving an IP address from the DHCP server?
A. 172.16.10.10 B. 192.168.0.10 C. 169.254.10.10 D. 192.168.10.10 |
Answer: C.
If the computer fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, Windows will take over and apply an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). This address will be on the 169.254.0.0 network. All of the other addresses could possibly be obtained from a DHCP server. 172.16.10.10 is a Class B private IP. 192.168.0.10 and 192.168.10.10 are Class C private IP addresses. |
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3. What is the total number of devices that can be daisy-chained to an IEEE 1394 port?
A. 127 B. 63 C. 15 D. 255 |
Answer: B.
An IEEE 1394 (FireWire) chain can have up to 63 devices. USB can handle up to 127 devices, though both of these numbers are outside the realm of normalcy for most individuals! 15 is the maximum amount of devices that can be on a SCSI chain. Remember this doesn’t count the SCSI card. 255 is a commonly used number when it comes to maximums but doesn’t apply to IEEE 1394. |
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4. What does a yellow exclamation point next to a device in the Device Manager indicate?
A. A driver is not properly installed for this device. B. The device is disabled. C. The driver is not digitally signed. D. The device driver needs to be upgraded. |
Answer: A.
If you see a yellow exclamation point in the Device Manager, this indicates that the device does not have a proper driver. If the device is disabled, it will have either a down arrow (for Windows 7/ Vista) or a red x (Windows XP). If a driver was not digitally signed, the device might show up in the Unknown devices category until it is installed properly. If a device has a working driver, then upgrading it will be up to you, but you won’t necessarily be notified of this. |
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10. Where is the memory controller located in a Core 2 Duo system?
A. On the CPU B. On memory C. Within the chipset D. Within the PCIe controller |
Answer: C.
On Core 2 Duo, Quad, and Extreme systems, the memory controller is located within the chipset and is known as the Memory Controller Hub (MCH) by Intel, but it is also referred to as the northbridge. On AMD systems and newer Intel systems such as the Core i5 or i7, the memory controller is located “on-die,” meaning within the CPU. |
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13. What is the main advantage of selecting a 64-bit operating system over a 32-bit operating system?
A. The ability to use software-based data execution prevention (DEP) B. The ability to use unsigned drivers C. The ability to access more than 4 GB of RAM D. The ability to run multiple 16-bit programs in separate memory spaces |
Answer: C.
If you want to access more than 4 GB of RAM, you will need a 64-bit operating system. 32-bit OSes are limited to 4 GB of RAM, and in some cases 3.25 GB. Many computers today, especially custom computers such as virtualization systems and gaming computers, require more than 4 GB of RAM so a 64-bit operating system is the only choice. Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a security feature in today’s operating systems; it stops a program from executing code in a forbidden area of memory. Most of today’s 32-bit or 64-bit systems offer this. Unsigned drivers are based on the operating system itself; whether that particular OS is 32-bit or 64-bit will not be a factor. You must be an administrator to allow the use of unsigned drivers. 32-bit operating systems can run older 16-bit programs, but 64-bit operating systems will have problems running 16-bit programs even in compatibility mode. |
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20. What are advantages of using the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Select the two best answers.)
A. IP addresses can be managed from a central location. B. The network speed can automatically adjust based on the type of traffic being generated. C. The hosts file on the computer can be validated for proper entries. D. Media access control addresses can be changed. E. Computers can automatically get new addressing when moved to a different network segment. |
Answers: A and E.
Advantages of using DHCP include: IP addresses can be managed from a central location and computers can automatically get new addressing when moved to a different network segment (perhaps one that uses a different DHCP server). Quality of Service (QoS) adjusts the network speed based on the type of traffic generated. DHCP has nothing to do with the Hosts.txt file; that file contains static entries of hostname to IP address conversions. Media Access Control addresses are usually not changed on a network adapter, although they can be masked. MAC filtering maintains a list of MAC addresses that are allowed to access a network, but once again, this is a different concept from DHCP. |
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22. Which of the following storage technologies is used by traditional hard disk drives?
A. Magnetic B. Optical C. Impact D. Solid-state |
Answer: A.
The traditional hard drive is still the magnetic disk. This is because it is well known and has a low cost per MB of storage space. There are optical hard drives, but they are rare; optical drives are commonly implemented as CD, DVD, or Blu-ray drives. Impact refers to a type of printer, such as the dot matrix or the daisy wheel printer. Solid-state hard drives are gaining in popularity because they have no moving parts, are quiet, and work as fast as (if not faster than) traditional magnetic hard drives. However, they are far more expensive than the traditional drive, which slows their general acceptance. |
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23. On which type of computer is RAM the most important?
A. Gaming PC B. Virtualization workstation C. AV workstation D. HTPC |
Answer: B.
RAM is more essential to the virtualization workstation than any of the other types of custom PCs listed. Virtual operating systems (virtual machines or VMs) require a lot of RAM to run, much more than any other application. Plus, a virtualization workstation will often have more than one virtual machine running, increasing its need for RAM even further. Gaming PCs biggest requirements are CPU and video card. Audio/ video workstations require specialized audio and video cards, fast hard drives, and dual monitors. Home theater PCs (HTPCs) require an HDMI output, surround sound, a small form factor, and possibly a TV tuner. |
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25. Which of the following is the default port for HTTPS?
A. Port 25 B. Port 80 C. Port 143 D. Port 443 |
Answer: D.
Port 443 is the default port for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS). This is the protocol used during online banking sessions, or if you go to checkout when shopping online. Port 25 is the default port for SMTP. Port 80 is HTTP. Port 143 is the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP); it’s similar to POP3 but offers offline operation, and multiple clients can access the same mailbox. |
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28. You and a co-worker are running network cables above the drop ceiling. The co-worker accidentally touches a live AC power line and is thrown off the ladder and onto the ground. He is dazed and can’t stand. He is no longer near the AC power line. What should you do first?
A. Cut the power at the breaker. B. Move the co-worker farther down the hall. C. Apply CPR. D. Call 911. |
Answer: D.
Because the immediate danger is gone, call 911 right away. Then apply first aid and CPR as necessary. The next step would be to shut the power off at the electrical panel or call the building supervisor to have the power shut off. |
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29. A customer reports that an optical drive in a PC is no longer responding. What question should you ask first?
A. “What has changed since the optical drive worked properly?” B. “Did you log in with your administrator account?” C. “What did you modify since the optical drive worked?” D. “Have you been to any inappropriate websites?” |
Answer: A.
You should first ask if anything has changed since the optical drive worked properly. Don’t blame the user by asking what “you” modified; it implies that you think the user caused the issue. Always ask if anything has changed first before any other questions. Try not to accuse a user of accessing inappropriate websites because this could be considered inflammatory and harassment. Think like a robot with the single purpose of fixing the problem, but act like a professional and courteous human being! |
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33. Which type of RAM has a peak transfer of 12,800 MB/ s?
A. DDR3-800 B. DDR2-1600 C. DDR3-1600 D. DDR2-800 |
Answer: C.
DDR3-1600 has a peak transfer rate of 12,800 MB/ s. It runs at an I/ O bus clock speed of 800 MHz and can send 1600 megatransfers per second (MT/ s). It is also known as PC3-12800. To figure out the data transfer rate of DDR3 from the name “DDR3-1600”, simply multiply the 1600 by 8 (bytes) and solve for megabytes: 12,800 MB/ s. To figure out the data transfer rate of DDR3 by the consumer name “PC3-12800”, just look at the number within the name and add “MB/ s” to the end. To figure out the data transfer rate when given only the I/ O bus clock speed (for example, 800 MHz), multiply the clock speed by 2 and then multiply that number by 8 and solve for megabytes: 800 MHz × 2 × 8 = 12,800 MB/ s. DDR3-800 has a peak transfer rate of 6,400 MB/ s; it is also known as PC3-6400. There is no DDR2-1600. The fastest DDR2 standard is DDR2-1066, which has a peak transfer rate of 8,533 MB/ s. DDR2-800 (like DDR3-800) has a peak transfer rate of 6,400 MB/ s. It is commonly sold as PC2-6400. |
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35. What is a possible symptom of a failing CPU?
A. CPU is beyond the recommended voltage range. B. Computer won’t boot. C. BIOS reports low temperatures within the case. D. Spyware is installed into the browser. |
Answer: A.
If the CPU is running beyond the recommended voltage range for extended periods of time, it can be a sign of a failing CPU. It could also be caused by overclocking. Check in the BIOS to see if the CPU is overclocked or not. If the computer won’t boot at all, another problem might have occurred, or the CPU might have already failed. Low case temperatures are a good thing (if they aren’t below freezing!), and spyware is unrelated to this issue. |
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41. How many pins would you see in a high-quality printhead on a dot matrix printer?
A. 24 B. 15 C. 8 D. 35 |
Answer: A.
High-quality dot matrix printheads can come in 9, 18, or 24 pins, with 24 being the highest quality. |
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44. What is an LCD display’s contrast ratio defined as?
A. Power consumption B. Display resolution and brightness C. The darkest and lightest outputs D. Power savings |
Answer: C.
LCD contrast ratio is the brightness of the brightest color (measured as white) compared to the darkest color (measured as black). Static contrast ratio measurements are static; this done as a test with a checkerboard pattern. But there is also the dynamic contrast ratio, a newer technology in LCD displays that adjusts dynamically during darker scenes in an attempt to give better black levels. It usually has a higher ratio, but it should be noted that there isn’t any real uniform standard for measuring contrast ratio. |
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48. Which device limits network broadcasts, segments IP address ranges, and interconnects different physical media?
A. Switch B. WAP C. Firewall D. Router |
Answer: D.
A router can limit network broadcasts through segmenting and programmed routing of data. This is part of a router’s job when connecting two or more networks. It is also used with different media. For example, you might have a LAN that uses twisted-pair cable, but the router connects to the Internet via a fiber-optic connection. That one router will have ports for both types of connections. A switch connects multiple computers together on the LAN; it does not limit IP-based network broadcasts. However, the switch does not segment by IP address— it communicates with computers and segments the network, via MAC addresses. Also, the switch will normally use one type of media: twisted pair, connecting to RJ45 ports. However, it is possible that the switch might connect to another switch by way of a specialized fiber-optic connector. A wireless access point (WAP) connects the computers on the wireless LAN (WLAN). It often has only one connection, a single RJ45 port. A hardware-based firewall will usually connect to the network via RJ45; regardless, it will have only one or only a few connections. It doesn’t deal with routing, or broadcasts; instead it prevents intrusion to a network. |
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49. You just upgraded the CPU. Which of the following can make your computer shut down automatically after a few minutes? (Select the best answer.)
A. Wrong CPU driver. B. Wrong voltage to the CPU. C. Incorrect CPU has been installed. D. The CPU has overheated. |
Answer: D.
The CPU could overheat if thermal compound has not been applied correctly (common) or if it is not seated properly (rare). As part of the boot process, power needs to verify the CPU. If the wrong voltage is running to the CPU, the system won’t even boot. If an incorrect CPU has been installed, the system will probably not boot, especially if the BIOS doesn’t recognize it. Finally, the CPU doesn’t use a driver; instead the BIOS recognizes it (or doesn’t, if it needs a BIOS update) and passes that information to the operating system. |
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50. Which of the following power connections might be used by hard drives? (Select the two best answers.)
A. 8-pin B. 7-pin C. Molex D. 15-pin E. Berg |
Answers: C and D.
Molex power connectors are used by IDE drives. 15-pin power connectors are used for SATA drives. 8-pin power connectors are used by high-end PCI Express video cards. There are several types of 7-pin connectors, such as SATA data, and S-Video, but 7-pin power connections are less common. Berg is the power connector for floppy drives. Okay, we are halfway through the exam. Take a deep breath— then continue on with power! (Pun intended.) |
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51. Which of the following is a valid IPv4 address for a network host?
A. 127.0.0.1 B. 169.254.0.0/ 16 C. 172.17.58.254 D. 255.10.15.7 |
Answer: C.
Of the answers listed, 172.17.58.254 is the only valid IPv4 address for a network host. A host on the network is any computer or network device that uses an IP address to communicate with other computers or devices (hosts). 172.17.58.254 is a Class B private IP address so it fits the description of a valid IPv4 address for a network host. 127.0.0.1 is the local loopback address. Every computer using TCP/ IP gets this address; it is used for testing. It cannot be used to communicate with other hosts on the network. 169.254.0.0/ 16 means an IP address of 169.254.0.0 with a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, indicating the network number is 169.254. It is not a valid host IP address because it ends in 0.0. The first IP address of a network is always reserved for the network number; it can not be used by a host. Otherwise, if the address was, say, 169.254.0.1, the address would work, but because it is an APIPA address, it would be able to communicate only with other systems using APIPA addresses. 255.10.15.7 is not valid. That address is within the Class E reserved range. Normal host IP addresses’ first octet will either be between 1 and 126, or 128 and 223, but not between 224 and 255. |
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53. You want to upgrade memory in your computer. Which of the following is user-replaceable memory in a PC?
A. CMOS B. BIOS C. DRAM D. SRAM E. ROM |
Answer: C.
Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) is the modules (or sticks) of memory that you can install into a motherboard. SDRAM, DDR, DDR2, and DDR3 are all examples of DRAM. The complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) is a chip that is soldered onto the motherboard that works in conjunction with the Basic Input/ Output System, another chip soldered on to the motherboard. Static RAM (SRAM) is memory that is nonvolatile (as opposed to DRAM); it is also soldered to the circuit board. Read-Only Memory (ROM) is usually not serviceable. The BIOS resides on a ROM chip, more specifically an electrically erasable programmable ROM (EEP-ROM) chip. |
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56. You are asked to fix a problem with a customer’s domain controller that is outside the scope of your knowledge. What action should you take?
A. Learn on the job by trying to fix the problem. B. Tell the customer that the problem should be reported to another technician. C. Assure the customer that the problem will be fixed very soon. D. Help the customer find the appropriate channels to fix the problem. |
Answer: D.
Make sure that the customer has a path toward a solution before dismissing the issue. Do not try to fix the problem if the scope of work is outside your knowledge. Most PC technicians will not work on domain controllers because they are advanced Microsoft servers that are used in client/ server networks. |
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57. Of the following, which IP address is private?
A. 11.58.254.169 B. 169.255.10.41 C. 172.31.1.1 D. 192.169.0.1 |
Answer: C.
172.31.1.1 is the only address listed that is private. It is within the Class B range of private addresses: 172.16.1.1– 172.31.255.255. 11.58.254.169 is not private because it is on the Class A 11 network. The Class A private range is within the 10.0.0.0 network. 169.255.10.41 is not private either. Microsoft’s APIPA, however, uses the 169.254.0.0 network which is private. 192.169.0.1 is public because of the second octet: 169. The Class C private range is 192.168.0.0– 192.168.255.255. |
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60. Which of the following statements is correct concerning IPv6 addresses?
A. They cannot be used with IPv4. B. They are supported by all routers. C. They represent addressing using 128 bits. D. They require fiber-optic connections. |
Answer: C.
The only statement that is correct concerning IPv6 is that it uses 128-bit addressing. This is compared to IPv4, which uses 32-bit addresses. IPv6 and IPv4 can co-habit a computer with no problems. IPv6 is not necessarily supported by all routers. Some routers still only support IPv4. IPv6 is a logical concept. The physical cable that connects to the computer has no bearing over which IP version is used. |
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61. What operating CPU temperature is typical?
A. 60 ° Fahrenheit B. 60 ° Celsius C. 72 ° Fahrenheit D. 72 ° Celsius |
Answer: B.
60 ° Celsius is a typical operating temperature for CPUs such as the Core i5 or Phenom II. The operating range may be above or below that. However, 72 ° Celsius becomes less typical. 60 ° Fahrenheit is equal to 15.5 ° Celsius. A processor will not run that cold (but it would be pretty efficient if it did!). 72 ° Fahrenheit is excellent room temperature and is what you should set the room temperature for computers to run at their best. |
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63. In current motherboards, which memory bus width can be accomplished by using the dual channel technology?
A. 64-bit B. 128-bit C. 256-bit D. 448-bit |
Answer: B.
Dual channel memory combines two sticks of RAM into a bank that is 128-bit. Single channel memory is 64-bit. 256-bit is a common bit length used by the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). 448-bit memory bus width is used by some video cards. These types of video cards have much faster RAM access than motherboards do. |
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68. Which of the following traits and port numbers are associated with POP3?
A. Receives inbound e-mail on port 110 B. Receives inbound e-mail on port 25 C. Sends outbound e-mail on port 110 D. Sends outbound e-mail on port 25 |
Answer: A.
POP3 is the protocol used by e-mail clients to receive e-mail. It makes use of Port 110. SMTP is used by e-mail clients to send e-mail. It uses port 25. |
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70. Which of the following controls the connection between the CPU and the PCIe x16 expansion slot?
A. Northbridge B. Power supply C. Memory D. Memory controller |
Answer: A.
The northbridge takes care of the connections between the CPU and the PCI Express (PCIe) x16 expansion slot. On older Intel systems and AMD systems, the northbridge is the first of a pair of chips in the chipset (the other is the southbridge). On newer Intel systems, the northbridge functionality is combined with the CPU. |
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76. In order to perform a network installation of Windows, which of the following must be supported by the computer’s network interface card?
A. PXE B. PCI C. PCL D. PnP dual-core processor versus a single-core processor? |
Answer: A.
Network installations require that the network card be configured for Preboot Execution Environment (PXE). This allows the network card to boot off of the network, locate a network installation server, and request that the installation begin. This configuration might be done in the BIOS of the computer (if the network adapter is integrated to the motherboard), within a special program in Windows, or one that boots from CD (if the network adapter is an adapter card). Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is an expansion bus that accepts network adapter cards, sound cards, and so on. PCL stands for Printer Command Language, developed by HP so a computer can properly communicate with dot matrix or thermal printers. PnP stands for Plug ‘n Play, a Windows technology that allows devices to be located and installed automatically. |
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77. In which of the following slots would you place an 8x video card?
A. PCI B. PCIe C. AGP D. AMR |
Answer:C.
Any card named with a number followed by an x is most likely an AGP card, (2x, 4x, 8x, 16x). AGP is the Accelerated Graphics Port, usually a brown slot on the motherboard. It is faster than PCI but slower than PCIe (PCI Express) video cards. PCIe cards place the x before the number (for example, x16— pronounced “by 16”). AMR stands for Audio-Modem Riser, a small expansion slot developed by Intel to be used with sound cards and modems. |
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79. How can you reduce the chance of EDS? ( select the three best answers.)
A. Use an antistatic strap B. Use an antistatic mat C. Raising the temperature D. Raising the humidity E. Lowering the humidity F. Work in a carpeted area |
Answers : A, B, D.
To reduce the chance of electrostatic discharge (EDS, using enter static wrist strap and mat. Also consider raising the humidity. The most community there is, the less friction, and ultimately, and ultimately., less EDS. Raising the temperature will have no effect. Lowering humidity increases the chance of EDS. |
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80. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of a dual-core processor versus a single core processor?
A. A dual-core processor has two core, with separate cash, on the same physical chip. B. A dual core processor has several unique cores, with the same cache, on two different chips. C. A dual-core processor uses higher voltage than a single-core processor. D. A dual-core processor requires more RAM to function than a single - core processor |
Answer A
A dual core processor has two course, which separate cache, honesty if its a good chip. A processor with several cores would be known as Multi-core (quad - core or her core) dual core processor are generally more efficient than other older single core processor and often use less voltage. A dual core processor does not require more RAM than a single core, but it usually requires more cache memory. Every core of a multi-core CPU has its own L1 and L2 cache. |
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82. If the bandwidth is 1000 Mbps, how many bits are you sending /receiving? ( select the two best answers)
A. 100,000,000 bits per minute B. 1000 bits per second C. 1,000,000,000 bits per second D. 1 gigabit per second |
Answers C and D
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88. Which of the following best describes the difference between a switch and a router?
A. A switch in to connect devices on the same network so that they can communicate, whereas a router interconnect one or more networks. B. A router broadcast all data packets that are sent on the network, in a switch transmit data directly to the device. C. A switch broadcast all data packets that are sent on the network, and a router transmit data directly to the device. D. A switch interconnects one or more network, whereas a router interconnect devices on the network. |
Answer A
A switch and to connect devices on the same network so that they can communicate, whereas a ridah interconnect 1 or more networks. Remember that the switch is in charge of connecting devices on the LAN. But the router is in charge of connecting the LAN to another LAN, to the internet or to both. |
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94. What are the respective functions of two corona wires in a laser printer? (Select the two best answers)
A. Condition too drum to be written to B. Transfer toner from the drum to the paper C. Fuse the toner to the paper D. Clean the drum |
Answers A and B
Know the six main steps of the laser printing: cleaning, charging, writing (also known as exposing), developing, transferring, and fusing. |
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Your co-worker Patrick has a Core i5 3.1 GHz CPU. Pat wants you to tell him what the bus speed is and what the maximum multiplier is. What do you tell him?
A. 3.1 GHz and 31 B. 3.1 GHz and 100 C. 100 and 31 D. 200 and 31 |
Answer: C.
The default bus speed (without overclocking) for a Core i5 3.1 GHz CPU is 100 MHz. The maximum multiplier is 31 times that, or 3.1 GHz. But that is only if the processor requires it. Often, a CPU such as this will hover at around 1600 MHz (1.6 GHz), for a multiplier of 16. The multiplier is variable and will only increase if the system runs more applications and requires more CPU power. Of course, many Intel CPUs also have TurboBoost technology, which allows the CPU to be raised by 10% beyond the maximum; in this case it would be up to 3.4 GHz when needed. This is a basic and fairly safe type of overclocking. Many motherboards also let you increase the system bus speed. Some boards will stop you at say 105 MHz; others let you overclock the system bus to as high as 300 MHz (not recommended). Treat overclocking with extreme caution— the increased voltage and ensuing heat can easily cause the CPU to overheat and cause damage to the CPU and other devices in the system, as well as possibly corrupt data stored on the hard drive. |
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2. Which of the following expansion busses can transmit 1 GB/ s per lane?
A. PCI B. AGP C. USB 3.0 D. PCIe |
Answer: D.
PCI Express (PCIe) version 3.0 can transmit 1 GB/ s per lane. That means it can send and receive 1 GB of data every second. And PCIe x16 slots, since they have 16 lanes, can send and receive 16 GB/ s simultaneously. PCIe is the only technology listed that uses lanes. AGP maxes out at 2,133 MB/ s. PCI has a maximum of either 133 or 266 MB/ s. USB 3.0 sends 5 Gbps, or 480 MB/ s. Neither AGP, PCI, nor USB use lanes. AGP and PCI are parallel technologies. PCIe and USB are serial technologies. |
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3. A user complains that his network interface card (NIC) is not functioning and has no link lights. The weather has been changing drastically over the past few days, and humidity and temperature have been rising and falling every day. What could be the direct cause of this problem? (Select the best answer.)
A. Thermal expansion and contraction B. Thermal sublimation C. Chip creep D. POST errors |
Answer: A.
Thermal expansion and contraction happen when humidity changes quickly. This can lead to what some technicians refer to as “chip creep” or “card creep.” Although there might have been chip creep, the direct cause of the problem was most likely thermal expansion/ contraction. POST errors would not be the cause of the error but in some cases could give you diagnostic information leading to the cause. Thermal sublimation deals with a specific type of printing process and is not involved in the problem. While in the computer, you might want to check other adapter cards in case they were affected by this phenomenon as well. |
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5. What is the most important consideration when installing Windows 7 Ultimate 64-bit?
A. Memory type B. Processor speed C. Memory speed D. Processor type |
Answer: D.
The most important consideration when installing any 64-bit operating system is the processor type. The CPU needs to be 64-bit to run 64-bit Windows. 32-bit CPUs will not run 64-bit Windows. Yes, Windows 7 requires a 1 GHz CPU, but honestly, if you don’t have that speed, then you don’t have much of a computer. Memory type doesn’t really matter much; if it’s a PC, then the memory type should be fine. But the amount of memory is important. 1 GB is necessary for 32-bit systems, but once again, the 64-bit consideration becomes important again; 64-bit versions of Windows 7 require 2 GB RAM. |
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10. Which of the following defines the protocols associated with the following TCP or UDP port numbers, in order? 21, 22, 25, 53, 443, 3389.
A. FTP, Telnet, SMTP, DNS, HTTP, RDP B. FTP, SSH, SMTP, DNS, HTTP, RDP C. FTP, SSH, SMTP, POP3, HTTPS, RDP D. FTP, SSH, SMTP, DNS, HTTPS, RDP |
Answer: D.
The port numbers 21, 22, 25, 53, 443, and 3389 correspond to the protocols FTP, SSH, SMTP, DNS, HTTPS, and RDP. The Telnet protocol uses port 23. Telnet is deprecated, insecure, and outdated; plus it isn’t even enabled or installed on newer versions of operating systems. Use SSH in its place for a more secure connection. HTTP uses port 80. POP3 uses port 110. Know your port numbers! |
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13. You are tasked with installing a new SATA revision 3.0 hard drive controller so that the computer can access hard drives at 6 Gb/ s. Which step list will most likely prevent errors?
A. 1. Install the card. 2. Update the BIOS. 3. Upgrade the card’s firmware. 4. Install the driver. 5. Apply system updates.
B. 1. Apply system updates. 2. Update the BIOS. 3. Install the card. 4. Install the driver. 5. Upgrade the card’s firmware.
C. 1. Update the BIOS. 2. Install the driver. 3. Install the card. 4. Upgrade the firmware. 5. Apply system updates.
D. 1. Apply system updates. 2. Install the driver. 3. Install the card. 4. Upgrade the firmware. 5. Update the BIOS. |
Answer: B.
The process order for installing a new hard drive controller card is to: 1. Apply system updates; 2. Update the BIOS; 3. Install the card physically; 4. Install the driver; and finally 5. Upgrade the card’s firmware. That’s the smartest list of steps for any hardware upgrade. You want to update the BIOS before installing the card, so that the BIOS will have a better chance of recognizing it. Of course, you should have made sure that the card is compatible with the motherboard and your version of Windows before purchasing. Update the controller card’s firmware last. All of the other listed orders have anomalies that could lead to errors. For example, applying the system updates last would cause Windows to recognize the card properly too late. It might also cause Windows to attempt to install a Microsoft driver when you really want the manufacturer’s driver. When upgrading, think this way: Windows updates, BIOS updates, physical install, driver install, special firmware upgrades. Then test it, and if it tests true, sit back and whistle your favorite tune. All PC techs do that, right? |
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15. Russ’s computer has a 60 GB IDE hard drive that contains his operating system. He wants to add a second IDE hard drive to his computer. How should he configure the two drives?
A. Russ should configure the new drive as master and set the old drive as slave. B. Russ should configure both drives as slaves. C. Russ should configure both drives as master. D. Russ should configure the new drive as slave and the old drive as master. |
Answer: D.
The operating system should be contained within the master drive. By setting the jumper to master on the old drive and setting the jumper to slave on the new drive, Russ will accomplish that. Selecting any other setting listed might result in problems booting to the operating system. Another option is to use the cable select jumper setting that will attempt to automatically configure the new drive as a slave. Note that this can be done only if the drive is equipped with that jumper setting. |
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17. Which of the following data rates are supported by PC3-10600 memory?
A. 1333 MT/ s and 1066 MT/ s B. 1066 MT/ s and 800 MT/ s C. 1600 MT/ s and 1333 MT/ s D. 1600 MT/ s and 800 MT/ s |
Answer: A.
If a motherboard supports it at all, the board will support PC3-10600 running at 1,333 megatransfers per second (MT/ s) and at 1066 MT/ s. A PC3-10600 module is DDR3-1333. The default data rate is 1333 MT/ s, but it can be underclocked to 1066 MT/ s. You might see this referred to as 1333 and 1066 MHz, respectively, but that is not accurate. DDR3-1333 actually has an I/ O bus clock rate of 667 MHz; it’s the data rate that is 1333 MT/ s. Most motherboards can underclock a RAM module by at least one step if necessary. For example, if you have a motherboard that can normally only handle DDR3-1066 memory modules, you could still install DDR3-1333 memory modules, but they would be automatically underclocked to 1066. If you were to see this question expressed as the I/ O bus clock rate, then PC3-10600 would run at 667 MHz (the default) and 533 MHz (underclocked). Some RAM modules and motherboards support underclocking even further; for example, in this scenario as low as 400 MHz (800 MT/ s.) Of course, another option (though not recommended) would be to overclock the motherboard to meet the data rate of the new RAM. The key in this question is to know the various data rates of DDR. To sum up: Any particular memory module will usually run at least one step slower than its default rate. |
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18. Which of the following properties of a heat sink has the greatest effect on heat dissipation?
A. Connection type B. Shape C. Surface area D. Proximity to the power supply |
Answer: C.
It’s the surface area of the heat sink that has the greatest effect on heat dispersion. The more solid the bond between the heat sink and CPU cap, the better the transition of heat out of the CPU. To aid in this, thermal compound must be used. |
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22. A PC has the memory configuration listed below. Assuming RAM is the same price per MB, which of the following answers would be the least expensive when upgrading the PC to 12 GB of RAM?
A. A single 6 GB DDR3 PC3-12800 memory module B. A single 8 GB DDR3 PC3-12800 memory module C. A single 10 GB DDR3 PC3-10600 memory module D. Two 6 GB DDR3 PC3-10700 memory modules |
Answers: A and E.
Of the listed answers, continuity and resistance are the settings that should be used when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested, and you want to be sure that there is no electrical flow when doing these tests! Examples of continuity or resistance tests include testing a fuse’s impedance (measured in ohms) and testing a network cable for continuity. In each example, you don’t want any electricity flowing through the device or line. It would give erratic results and could possibly cause damage to your testing equipment, and even you. When testing for watts, volts, and amps, you need to have electricity flowing through the item you want to test. |
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25. You need to set up a server system that will run in a VM. It will have the bulk of the network computers’ resources and will supply much of the resources necessary to the client computers that will connect to it. You are also required to set up the client computers. What two types of systems (server and client) will you be implementing?
A. CAD/ CAM workstation and PCs B. Virtualization workstation and thin clients C. Home server PC and thick clients D. AV workstation and laptops |
Answer: B.
You will be implementing a virtualization workstation and thin clients. The virtualization workstation will run virtual software that will allow you to install the server software to a virtual machine (VM). This server will provide most of the resources for the clients on the network— the thin clients. Thin clients normally have very limited resources of their own and rely on the server (be it a regular or virtual server) for the additional resources they need. A CAD/ CAM workstation is used for computer-aided design and manufacturing. PCs have plenty of their own resources and do not need a server supplying those resources. A home server PC is a possibility in this scenario, if it runs in a virtual environment. However, thick clients don’t meet the requirements of this scenario. Thick clients have plenty of resources and are often used as another name for PCs. An AV workstation is an audio/ video workstation, not a server, and laptops are not thin clients; they also have plenty of internal resources. |
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31. What controls the data transfer between the CPU, RAM, and PCIe devices on motherboards that support Intel Core 2 CPUs?
A. ICH B. MCH C. FSB D. DMI |
Answer: B.
The Memory Controller Hub (MCH) makes the connection between, and controls the data transfer of, the CPU, RAM, and x16 PCIe devices on older Intel motherboards that support Core 2 CPUs. This device is also referred to as the northbridge. On newer Intel systems (such as Core i5 or i7 systems), the northbridge functionality is embedded within the CPU. The ICH (I/ O Controller Hub) makes the connections to secondary systems such as USB and SATA. This device is also referred to as the southbridge. The FSB (front side bus) connects the CPU to the MCH (north-bridge) in motherboards that support Core 2 CPUs. The Direct Media Interface (DMI) makes the connection between the chipset and the CPU on motherboards that support Core i3, i5, and i7 CPUs. It is somewhat of a replacement for the FSB. AMD systems still use the northbridge/ southbridge concept; however, like Intel, any memory controlling functionality is built in to the CPU. Be sure to understand both Intel architectures as well as how AMD fits into the whole scheme of things! |
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33. A laser printer’s primary corona wire does which of the following?
A. Puts a uniform negative charge on the drum B. Puts a uniform positive charge on the drum C. Puts the toner on the drum D. Removes static electricity |
Answer: A.
The primary corona wire places a negative charge on the photosensitive drum. A positive charge is applied to the paper by the transfer corona wire later in the laser printing process. Toner is placed on the drum from the toner hopper. The toner is attracted to the areas that have a lesser negative charge. Static electricity is removed by a static eliminator strip. |
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36. Which of the following can be used to verify settings between the computer and a connected modem?
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Answer: A.
The AT& V modem diagnostic command is used to verify connectivity and display settings between a computer and a connected dial-up modem. Most modem commands begin with AT. IRQ stands for Interrupt ReQuest, a number assigned to a device that allows it to initiate communication with the CPU. The MBR is the master boot record. A boot sector on PCs, it is 512 bytes in size and is within the first sector of the hard drive. It often holds the partition table and/ or bootstrapping information. QPI stands for QuickPath Interconnect, an Intel technology that connects the chipset to the CPU. It is a more powerful version of the Direct Media Interface (DMI). |
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45. What is the data transfer rate of DMI version 2.0?
A. 1000 Mbps B. 20 Gb/ s C. 3.0 Gb/ s D. 5 Gbps |
Answer: B.
The Direct Media Interface (DMI) connection has a data transfer rate of 20 Gb/ s or 2.5 GB/ s. The DMI is the high-speed point-to-point interconnection mechanism between the CPU and the chipset. 1000 Mbps is the data transfer rate of gigabit Ethernet. 3.0 Gb/ s is the data rate of SATA revision 2.0. 5 Gbps is the data rate of USB 3.0. |
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49. You want to test whether IPv4 and IPv6 are working properly on a computer. Which commands should you issue?
A. ipconfig :: 1 and ping :: 1 B. Ping 127.0.0.0 and Ping :1 C. Ping 127.0.0.1 and Ping :: 1 D. ipconfig 127.0.0.1 and Ping 127:: 1 |
Answer: C.
To test IPv4, use the command ping 127.0.0.1. To test IPv6, use the command ping :: 1. You don’t run ipconfig commands to particular IP addresses. There is no Ping :1 or Ping 127:: 1 commands. |
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50. Jim has a Core 2 Quad CPU in his desktop computer. If the base clock of his motherboard is 333MHz, what would the front side bus (FSB) be?
A. 1 GHz B. 333 MHz C. 666 MHz D. 1333 MHz |
Answer: D.
The front side bus (FSB) is usually four times the base core clock of a motherboard that supports Core 2 CPUs. That would be 1333 MHz in this case. Remember that newer Intel motherboards do not use the FSB; it has effectively been supplanted by the DMI (on lesser Intel boards) and QPI (on more powerful Intel boards). |
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57. Which of the following are AMD CPU sockets? (Select the three best answers.)
A. AM3 B. 1155 C. FM1 D. 775 E. G34 |
Answers: A, C, and E.
The AM3, FM1, and G34 are all AMD CPU sockets. The AM3 is used to house Phenom II, Sempron, and Athlon II CPUs. The FM1 is used with the Llano CPU. G34 is a replacement of the F socket and is used with Opteron CPUs. These are all Pin Grid Array (PGA) sockets. The Intel LGA1155 works with Core i3, i5, i7, and Xeon CPUs. The older LGA775 works with Core 2 Duo, Core 2 Quad, and older Xeon CPUs. |
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60. Which technology calculates two independent sets of instructions simultaneously, simulating two CPUs?
A. Hyper-threading B. HyperTransport C. TurboBoost D. Multi-core |
Answer: A.
Hyper-threading (for example, Intel HT) calculates two independent sets of instructions simultaneously, simulating two CPUs. HyperTransport is a high-speed link between various devices such as the CPU and northbridge on AMD systems. TurboBoost is a basic form of overclocking that Intel allows with many of their processors. Multi-core is the technology where a CPU physically contains two or more processor cores. Newer Intel CPU designs combine multi-core technology with hyper-threading to allow for even more processing. |
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61. How is TDP measured?
A. Volts B. Watts C. Ohms D. Amps |
Answer: B.
The thermal design power (TDP) of a CPU is measured in watts. For example, a typical Core i5 CPU might be rated at 95 watts. Older single-core CPUs were rated as high as 215 watts. The less the wattage rating, the less the computer’s cooling system needs to dissipate heat generated by the CPU. |
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63. You think that the power supply in your PC might be failing, causing issues with a SATA drive. You decide to test the SATA drive. What are the standard voltages of a SATA connection on an ATX power supply?
A. 3.3 V, 5 v, 12 V B. -3.3 V, 5 V, –12 V C. -5 V, 5 V, 12 V D. 5 V and 12 V |
Answer: A.
SATA power connections have 3.3, 5, and 12-volt wires. There are no negative voltage wires on SATA power connections. Molex power connections use 5 V and 12 V only, but SATA includes the 3.3 volt line. In this scenario you should test the SATA power connector and the main power connector from the power supply with your trusty PSU tester. (Most PSU testers will have an SATA power port in addition to the main 24-pin power port.) |
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68. You’ve opened a CRT. Before working on the CRT, what should you do?
A. Discharge the monitor B. Clean the monitor C. Degauss the monitor D. Unplug the monitor |
Answer: A.
The CRT holds a lethal charge and needs to be discharged before working on it. Of course, you should have unplugged the monitor before you opened it. In the strange case that you get a question like this, only a person trained on the repair of monitors should be opening them and even they should be discharging them before commencing work. Why would you clean a monitor before working on it? I don’t know, seems something to do after the work is complete. Degaussing CRT monitors eliminates stray magnetic fields; most CRTs come with a built-in onscreen degaussing utility. |
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70. Which of the following is defined as the movement of electric charge
A. Voltage B. Wattage C. Amperage D. Impedance |
Answer: C.
Amperage can be defined as electric current or the movement of electric charge. It is measured in amps (A). You should know your circuits in your office. The more you know, the less chance of overloading them. For example, a standard 15-amp circuit might be able to handle three or four computers and monitors. But a 20-amp circuit can handle a computer or two more. Circuit breakers, electrical cable, and outlets all must comply with a certain amount of amps. If you connect a power strip or surge protector, make sure that it is specified to work with your circuit’s amp rating. Voltage is a representation of potential energy, measured in volts (V). Wattage is electric power, the rate of electric energy in a circuit, measured in watts (W). Impedance is the amount of resistance to electricity, measured in ohms (Ω). |
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74. An administrator cannot connect to a network volume. Which of the following is the best path for the administrator to use?
A. \\ computername\ C $ B. \\ ipaddress\ sharename C. // computername/ C $ D. http:// computername/ C ❍ E. \\ computername\ sharename |
Answer: A.
The universal naming convention (UNC) \\ computername\ C $ or \\ ipaddress\ C $ would be the best option. This allows the administrator to connect to the hidden share for the root of C. If the administrator has issues connecting to a network volume with a particular share name, they should use the hidden share. This can be done by computer name or by IP address. It would not be necessary to connect utilizing HTTP. Also, it is not wise to share the C: drive with a share name called “C.” |
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75. A co-worker at a satellite office reports that a new replacement shared workgroup printer has arrived. It is the same model as the old one. Your co-worker replaced the old printer and connected all the cables to the new printer. What is the easiest way to ensure that all the client computers can connect to the new printer via IPP?
A. Name the new printer with the old printer name B. Allow the printer to acquire a DHCP address C. In DHCP, set a reservation by MAC address D. Have your co-worker print the configuration page |
Answer: C.
In DHCP, set a reservation by MAC address. In this scenario it is most likely that the clients are connecting to the printer by IP address. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) will often be used in this manner. By default, the moment the new printer is connected to the network, it will acquire an IP address from the DHCP server— a new IP address, different from the one used by the old printer. This will cause the clients to fail when attempting to connect, and print, to the new printer. To prevent this, we go to the router (or other DHCP device) and configure a MAC address reservation. The MAC address of the printer (which might be on a label or can be accessed from the onscreen display) can be plugged into the DHCP server and reserved to a specific IP address. Of course, a better option would be to simply configure the printer to use a static IP address. As to the other answers, renaming the printer with the old name won’t help because the client computers are most likely connecting by IP, not by name. Printing the configuration page is great and might help you to figure out what the problem could be, but it doesn’t actually solve the problem! |
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76. A user cannot connect to a printer with the following UNC path: \\ 10.10.1.5\ printer1. Which of the following paths is the best solution?
A. ipp:// 10.10.1.5/ printer1 B. https:// 10.1.1.5/ printer1 C. // 10.10.1.5/ printer1 D. http:\\ 10.10.1.5\ printer1 |
Answer: A.
IPP stands for the Internet Printing Protocol. It is a common standard used for remote printing. IPP paths are similar to HTTP paths, but instead they begin with the letters ipp. IPP supports access control, authentication, and encryption enabling secure printing. Some organizations prefer to use IPP instead of UNC paths. Although answer B could be a possibility, it would be more likely to use IPP instead of HTTPS. However, the IP address in answer B is also incorrect; the second octet is a 1 instead of a 10. Answer C isn’t correct syntax; two slashes should be preceded by some kind of protocol such as IPP or HTTP. Or if this was meant to be a UNC, the slashes should be backslashes; however, a UNC was the original path that failed, so it is incorrect either way. Answer D is showing backslashes in the path instead of the proper slashes. |
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77. Which of the following communications protocols is used to connect to websites over secure communications links?
A. SSH B. SFTP C. HTTPS D. Kerberos |
Answer: C.
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is used to make secure connections to websites. It uses the Secure Socket Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocols to encrypt the connection and make it safe for logins, purchases, and so on. HTTPS relies on port 443. SSH stands for Secure SHell; this is used to make secure remote connections between computers for the purposes of command execution and remote control, and it replaces the deprecated Telnet protocol. It uses port 22. SFTP is the SSH File Transfer Protocol, a more secure version of FTP that is built on SSH. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol used by various systems including Microsoft domains. It uses port 88. |
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78. Which of the following protocols can be used to configure and monitor network printer device status?
A. SMTP B. SNMP C. TCP/ IP D. IPP E. DNS |
Answer: B.
The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) can be used to monitor remote computers and printers. This requires the installation of SNMP on the appropriate hosts. SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which deals with the sending of e-mail. TCP/ IP is the entire suite of protocols that we use when we connect to an IP network. IPP is the Internet Printing Protocol, which allows hosts to print documents to a remote printer without the need for UNC paths. DNS is the Domain Name System, which resolves domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. |
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80. Which of the following are descriptions or examples of unicast IPv6 addresses? (Select the two best answers.)
A. An address assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to all interfaces B. An address assigned to one interface C. An address assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to the first interface only D. A loopback address of :: 1 |
Answers:
B and D. Unicast IPv6 addresses are addresses assigned to one interface on a host. Examples of unicast IPv6 addresses include Global unicast addresses that begin at 2000, link-local addresses that begin at FE80::/ 10, and the loopback address :: 1. Addresses assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to all interfaces are known as multicast addresses. Addresses assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to the first interface only are known as anycast addresses. |
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82. Which of the following custom PC configurations require powerful CPUs? (Select the three best answers.)
A. CAD/ CAM workstation B. Audio/ Video editing workstation C. Virtualization workstation D. Gaming PC E. Home theater PC F. Home server PC |
Answers: A, C, and D.
CAD/ CAM workstations, virtualization workstations, and gaming PCs all require powerful CPUs with multiple cores— as many cores as possible. The other custom PCs are not nearly as reliant on CPUs. Audio/ Video editing workstations rely most on specialized audio and video cards, dual monitors, and fast hard drives. Home theater PCs (HTPCs) require surround sound audio, HDMI output, compact form factors, and possibly TV tuners and video capture cards. Home server PCs rely on RAID arrays and powerful network cards. |
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84. You are building a new PC and want to select a motherboard that will support the Scalable Link Interface (SLI) technology so that you can install two SLI video cards connected by a bridge. Which of the following expansion slots should the motherboard have for your two video cards?
A. Two AGP slots B. Two PCIe slots C. A PCI and PCIe slot D. An AGP and PCIe slot |
Answer: B.
For SLI to work properly, you will need two identical PCIe (PCI Express) slots. Although older SLI cards were available for PCI, the technology cannot span different expansion slots. |
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85. You are building a new PC for a customer. Which of the following is the most valid reason why you would select SATA 3.0 over the original SATA 2.0?
A. You are installing an external SATA drive. B. You are attempting to implement hot-swapping functionality. C. You are trying to optimize the system for audio and video. D. You do not want to use jumpers. |
Answer: C.
SATA Revision 3.0 (maximum transfer rate of 6 Gb/ s or 600 MB/ s) can send and receive twice as much data as SATA Revision 2.0 (maximum transfer rate of 3 Gb/ s or 300 MB/ s). This makes it the better choice for audio and video applications and would be the most valid reason why you would select it for a new computer. When building a new computer, you would most likely start with an internal drive. You might add an external drive later, but regardless, just having an external drive is not a reason to use SATA 3.0 over SATA 2.0. In fact, as of the writing of this book, most eSATA drives are limited to 3.0 Gb/ s data rates. SATA drives are not hot-swappable by default, whether they are internal or external. Special drive enclosures can be purchased to make a SATA drive hot-swappable, however. Neither SATA 2.0 nor SATA 3.0 uses jumpers. IDE drives are the most well-known for their use of jumpers. |
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87. You need to replace RAM in a customer’s PC that currently uses PC3-10600 memory. Unfortunately, you do not have any RAM meeting that exact specification. Which RAM should you install?
A. PC3-6400 B. PC3-8500 C. PC3-12800 D. DDR3-1066 |
Answer: C.
You should install a PC3-12800 memory module. If you don’t have the exact speed RAM, go with a memory module that is one step higher. That RAM should underclock to match the motherboard. However, the best thing to do is to get the closest compatible RAM to the motherboard! Anyways, it’s better to go up one level first. If the PC works without any errors, then all is good. If you install slower RAM such as PC3-8500 (which is DDR3-1066 by the way) or PC3-6400, the customer will end up with a slower computer than they originally started with. |
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88. Which of the following RAID arrays is fault tolerant and allows you to do striping?
A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 |
Answer: C.
RAID 5 is fault tolerant and allows for striping with parity (given you have three disks minimum to dedicate to the array). It’s the parity information that makes it fault tolerant. RAID 0 is simply striping of data. It is not fault tolerant, meaning that it cannot recreate data after a failure or continue to function after a failure. RAID 1 is mirroring; it requires two disks and is fault tolerant. (An advanced version of RAID 1 is called disk duplexing when each hard drive in the mirror is connected to its own hard drive controller.) RAID 10 is a stripe of mirrors. It requires fours disks and is fault tolerant. |
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89. Which of the following are components of dealing with prohibited content? (Select the three best answers.)
A. First response B. Maintaining a positive attitude C. Preserving data D. Creating a chain of custody E. Avoiding distraction |
Answers: A, C, and D.
When dealing with prohibited content, there will always be a first responder who is required to identify the issue, report through proper channels, and preserve data and possibly devices used. This person will be in charge of starting the documentation process which includes a chain of custody, the tracking of evidence and maintaining a chronological log of that evidence. |
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92. If a computer receives the IP address 169.254.127.1, what has failed?
A. DHCP B. DNS C. WINS D. APIPA |
Answer: A.
If a computer is attempting to obtain an IP address automatically and it receives the IP address 169.254.127.1, or any other IP address starting with 169.254, then DHCP has failed either at the client or the server. When this happens, Windows will automatically assign an APIPA address. The computer will be able to communicate only with other computers on the 169.254 network, which is pretty worthless if that is not your main network number. What went wrong? It could be one of several things. Perhaps the DHCP client service on the client computer needs to be restarted. Or maybe the computer is not connected to the right network. Still yet it could be a problem with the server: lack of IP addresses, the DHCP service failed, the DHCP server is down, and so on. DNS deals with resolving domain names to IP addresses; it doesn’t affect DHCP address assignment. The Windows Internet Naming Service is an older Microsoft service that resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses; like DNS, it doesn’t affect DHCP. Both DNS and WINS could fail and a computer could still obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. If APIPA failed, then the computer wouldn’t be able to get an address on the 169.254 network. If DHCP and APIPA were both to fail, the client computer would effectively have an IP address of 0.0.0.0. (or nothing would be listed in the ipconfig screen) placing the computer in the twilight zone. |
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96. In a RAID 5 array of eight hard drives, how many can fail without losing the entire array?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 5 |
Answer: B.
One hard drive can fail in a RAID 5 array, and the array will be able to rebuild that drive’s data from the remaining drives. However, if a second drive fails, the array is toast. That is because the array requires the parity information from all the other disks. Now, if you had a RAID 6 array (which includes another parity stripe), you could lose as many as two disks and still continue to function. |
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98. Which of the following are the Intel and AMD names for CPU virtualization? (Select the two best answers.)
A. VT-x B. AMD-Vi C. VT-d D. AMD-V |
Answers: A and D.
Intel CPU virtualization is named VT-x. AMD CPU virtualization is named AMD-V. AMD-Vi is the name for AMD chipset virtualization. VT-d is the name for Intel chipset virtualization. |
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100. Which of the following video connectors accepts digital and analog video signals only?
A. DVI-D B. DVI-A C. DVI-I D. HDMI Type B |
Answer: C.
DVI-I accepts analog and digital video signals. All DVI ports are video only. DVI-D is digital only as you would guess from the D, and DVI-A is analog only. HDMI can accept video and audio signals. HDMI type B is known as double bandwidth; it supports higher resolutions. |
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6. What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install Windows Vista?
A. 128 MB B. 256 MB C. 512 MB D. 1 GB |
Answer: C.
Windows Vista requires a minimum of 512 MB of RAM for installation. Microsoft recommends 1 GB of RAM. |
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7. What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install Windows 7? (Select the two best answers.)
A. 256 MB B. 512 MB C. 1 GB D. 2 GB |
Answers: C and D.
Windows 7 32-bit requires 1 GB of RAM. Windows 7 64-bit requires 2 GB of RAM. The 32-bit version can run on a 32-bit or 64-bit CPU. The 64-bit version runs on a 64-bit CPU only. |
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9. Which file is the boot loader in Windows XP?
A. Ntdetect.com B. Boot.ini C. ntldr D. Ntoskrnl.exe8 |
Answer: C.
In Windows XP, ntldr is the first file to be loaded from the hard drive when the computer is started and is known as the boot loader. NTdetect.com detects hardware installed on the system. Boot.ini contains a menu of operating systems that can be selected and booted to. Ntoskrln.exe is the core operating system file of Windows XP, Vista, and 7. |
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10. Which file is the boot loader in Windows 7/ Vista?
A. Winload.exe B. BCD C. Setup.exe D. Ntoskrnl.exe |
Answer: A.
Winload.exe is the Windows boot loader program for Windows 7 and Vista. It works in conjunction with the Bootmgr file (Windows Boot Manager) to take the place of ntldr. Bootmgr is the first file to load in Windows 7/ Vista. It reads the BCD and displays an OS menu (if there is more than one OS). The BCD is the Boot Configuration Data store; it is the successor to boot.ini. Setup.exe is the default name of the file that starts installations of Windows and many other programs. Ntoskrnl.exe is the main system file of Windows— without it, the system would crash and the file would have to be replaced or repaired. |
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13. What is the minimum requirement of RAM for Windows XP Professional?
A. 64 MB B. 128 MB C. 256 MB D. 32 MB |
Answer: A.
Windows XP Home and Professional versions need only 64 MB to be installed. Microsoft recommends more, but 64 is the bare minimum needed to run the system. Windows XP Media Center, however, requires 256 MB of RAM. |
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15. Where would you go to start, stop, or restart services?
A. Computer Management B. Task Manager C. Performance Monitor D. MMC |
Answer: A.
You can start, stop, and restart services within Computer Management > Services and Applications > Services. From there, right-click the service in question and configure it as you wish. You can also open Services from Start > All Programs > Administrative Tools or by going to the Run prompt and typing services.msc. The Task Manager is a tool that allows you to see which applications and processes are running and analyze the performance of the CPU, RAM, and the networking connection. Performance Monitor analyzes the computer in much more depth than the Task Manager. The MMC is the Microsoft Management Console, which is the index that can store other console windows such as Computer Management. |
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19. To learn more about the DIR command, what would you enter at the command line? (Select the two best answers.)
A. DIR HELP B. HELP DIR C. DIR /? D. DIR ? |
Answers: B and C.
To learn more about any command, type the command and then /?, or type HELP DIR. DIR HELP would attempt to find the file ‘HELP’ within the current directory. DIR ? would attempt to find information about ?. |
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21. A customer’s computer is using FAT32. Which file system can you upgrade it to when using the convert command?
A. NTFS B. HPFS C. exFAT D. NFS |
Answer: A.
Convert is used to upgrade FAT and FAT32 volumes to NTFS without loss of data. HPFS is the High Performance File System developed by IBM and is not used by Windows. exFAT (FAT64) is especially designed for flash drives. NFS is the Network File System, something you might see in a storage area network. |
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What is Windows 7’ s recovery environment known as? (Select the two best answers.) A. WinRE B. Recovery Console C. Advanced Boot Options D. System Recovery Options |
Answers: A and D.
The Windows 7 (and Vista) recovery environment (WinRE) is also known as System Recovery Options. From here you can restore the system, fix file errors, and work in an unprotected Command Prompt. The Recovery Console is the predecessor of WinRE, available in Windows XP. Advanced Boot Options is the menu that can be accessed by pressing F8, which is available in 7/ Vista/ XP. It is also referred to as ABOM. |
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25. What is the RAM limitation of Windows Vista?
A. 32 GB B. 64 GB C. 128 GB D. 192 GB |
Answer: C.
128 GB is the limit of RAM that Windows Vista can access. This is a software limitation, not a hardware limitation. Even though 64-bit CPUs can address a realistic maximum of 256 terabytes (TB), software is always far more limited. There are some versions of Windows 7 that can access a maximum of 192 GB of RAM. |
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26. A customer’s Device Manager shows an arrow pointing down over one of the devices. What does this tell you?
A. The device’s driver has not been installed. B. The device is not recognized. ❍ C. The device is disabled. D. The device is in queue to be deleted. |
Answer: C.
The arrow pointing down tells you that the device is disabled in Windows 7 and Vista. In Windows XP it is indicated with a red X. In many cases, it can easily be enabled by right-clicking it and selecting Enable. If the driver had not been installed, the device would most likely be sitting in a category called Unknown Devices. If the device is not even recognized by Windows, it will not show up on the list or will show up under Unknown Devices. There is no queue to be deleted. |
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27. Which of the following is not an advantage of NTFS over FAT32?
A. NTFS supports file encryption. B. NTFS supports larger file sizes. C. NTFS supports larger volumes. D. NTFS supports more file formats. |
Answer: D.
NTFS and FAT32 support the same number of file formats. This is the only listed similarity between the two. Otherwise, NTFS has the advantage: it supports file encryption in the form of EFS and BitLocker, supports larger file sizes, and supports much larger volumes. |
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28. Which of the following switches (options) copy all files, folders, and subfolders, including empty subfolders in the TEST folder?
A. xcopy *.* c:\ test /T /S B. xcopy *.* c:\ test /S C. xcopy *.* c:\ test /E D. xcopy *.* c:\ test /S /T |
Answer: C.
/E is needed to copy the files, directories, subdirectories, including empty subdirectories. /S will copy files, directories, and subdirectories, but not empty subdirectories. If you add /T on to the end, you get the directory structure but no files are copied. Be sure to check out the xcopy help file for more on its switches. And remember that *.* means all the files within a particular directory. |
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29. A co-worker just installed a second hard disk in his Windows 7 computer. However, he does not see the disk in Windows Explorer. What did he forget to do? (Select the three best answers.)
A. Format the drive B. Partition the drive C. Run FDISK D. Initialize the drive E. Set up the drive in the BIOS |
Answers: A, B, and D.
For secondary drives, you must go to Disk Management and initialize, partition, and format them. FDISK is an older DOS command. Today’s computers’ BIOS should see the drive automatically with no configuration needed. In special cases a hard disk might require special drivers. |
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36. What can you do to secure your WAP/ router? (Select all that apply.)
A. Change the default SSID name B. Turn off SSID broadcasting C. Enable DHCP D. Disable DHCP |
Answers: A, B, and D.
A multifunction network device that acts as both a wireless access point (WAP) and router comes with a standard, default SSID name (that everyone knows). It is a good idea to change it. After PCs and laptops have been associated with the wireless network, turn off SSID broadcasting so that no one else can find your WAP (with normal means). Disabling DHCP and instead using static IP addresses removes one of the types of packets that are broadcast from the WAP, making it more difficult to hack, but of course less functional and useful! Other ways to secure the wireless access point include changing the password; incorporating strong encryption such as Wi-Fi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2) with Advanced Encryption Standard (AES); and initiating MAC filtering, which only allows the computers with the MAC addresses you specify access to the wireless network. |
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48. Which term refers to when people are manipulated into giving access to network resources?
A. Hacking B. Social engineering C. Phishing D. Cracking |
Answer: B.
Social engineering is when fraudulent individuals try to get information from users through manipulation. Compare this to hacking, which is attempting to break into a system with technology, and cracking, which is breaking passwords with software. Phishing is a type of social engineering; it is implemented via e-mail or over the phone (vishing). |
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53. Which of the following is a common local security policy?
A. Use of RAID B. Password length C. Router passwords D. Use of a password to log in |
Answer: B.
Common local security policies include password length, duration, and complexity. Just the use of a password doesn’t constitute a password policy. An example of a password policy would be when an organization mandates that passwords be 15 characters in length with at least 1 capital letter, 1 number, and 1 special character. |
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55. A co-worker downloads a game that ends up stealing information from the computer system. What is this?
A. Worm B. Spam C. Trojan D. Spyware |
Answer: C.
A Trojan is a disguised program that is used to gain access to a computer and either steal information or take control of the computer. A worm is code that infects a system and self-replicates to other systems. Spam is the abuse of e-mail and the bane of mankind. Spyware is software unwittingly downloaded from the Internet that tracks a user’s actions while surfing the Web. |
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61. Which of the following makes use of the X, Y, and Z axes?
A. Gyroscope B. Lock Rotation C. Accelerometers D. Geotracking |
Answer: C.
Accelerometers are combinations of hardware and software that measure velocity on the X axis (left to right), the Y axis (up and down), and the Z axis (back to front). This aids in screen orientation on mobile devices. The gyroscope adds the measurements of pitch, roll, and yaw, which are necessary for today’s mobile games and other apps. Lock Rotation is a setting (and a switch) on Apple iPad devices that stops the screen from reorienting as you rotate it. Geotracking is the practice of tracking and recording the location of a mobile device. |
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66. What is the second step of the A + troubleshooting methodology?
A. Identify the problem B. Establish a probable cause C. Test the theory D. Document |
Answer: B.
The second step is to establish a theory of probable cause. You are looking for the obvious or most probable cause for the problem. This comes after identifying the problem and before testing your theory. Documentation is last. |
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71. Which of these is part of step five of the CompTIA A + troubleshooting process?
A. Identify the problem B. Document findings C. Establish a new theory D. Implement preventative measures |
71. Answer: D. Implement preventative measures as part of step 5 to ensure that the problem will not happen again. The entire step is “Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventive measures.” It comes just after establishing a plan of action and just before documenting findings.
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78. Joey’s computer was working fine for weeks, and suddenly it cannot connect to the Internet. Joey runs the command ipconfig and sees that the IP address his computer is using is 169.254.50.68. What can he conclude from this?
A. The computer cannot access the DHCP server. B. The computer cannot access the POP3 server. C. The computer cannot access the DNS server. D. The computer cannot access the WINS server. |
Answer: A.
If you get any address that starts with 169.254, it means the computer has self-assigned that address. It is known as an APIPA address (Automatic Private IP Addressing). Normally, DHCP servers will not use this network number. A simple ipconfig/ release and ipconfig/ renew might fix the problem, if a DHCP server is actually available. The POP3 server is for incoming mail, the DNS server is for resolving domain names to IP addresses, and the WINS server is for resolving NETBIOS names to IP addresses. |
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80. A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. However, the laptop appears to be stopping after the POST. Which of the following will aid you while troubleshooting?
A. Turn off the external monitor B. Disconnect the external monitor C. Remove the laptop battery D. Format the external USB hard drive |
Answer: B.
Disconnect the external monitor. You might also choose to disconnect the USB hard drive. External devices and peripherals could cause conflicts in a computer system that stops it from posting properly and booting. Turning off the monitor doesn’t change the fact that it is connected to the laptop’s port. Removing the battery will only tell you if the system will still work on AC power only. Formatting the external USB drive will wipe out all data stored on it and probably won’t fix the problem, unless the laptop’s BIOS was incorrectly set to boot from the external drive instead of the internal drive, and if the external drive had an OS installed to it. |
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83. What could cause a ghosted image on the paper outputted by a laser printer?
A. Transfer corona wire B. Primary corona wire C. Pickup rollers D. Photosensitive drum |
Answer: D.
Ghosted images or blurry marks could be a sign that the drum has some kind of imperfection or is dirty, especially if the image reappears at equal intervals. Replace the drum (or toner cartridge). Another possibility is that the fuser assembly has been damaged and needs to be replaced. |
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86. When you reboot a computer, you get a message stating “No OS present, press any key to reboot.” What is the most likely problem?
A. The hard drive is not jumpered properly. B. The hard drive is not getting power. C. There is no active partition. D. The hard drive driver is not installed. |
Answer: C.
The primary partition must be set to active to boot to the operating system. If there is only one drive, the jumper setting probably won’t matter, and if it is wrong, the drive simply won’t be seen by the BIOS. The same holds true for power; if the drive does not get power, the BIOS will not recognize it. Finally, hard drives do not need drivers to simply be recognized. |
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87. After you install Windows, the computer you are working on displays a blue screen of death (BSOD) when rebooting. Which of the following are possible causes? (Select the two best answers.)
A. BIOS needs to be flashed to the latest version. B. IRQ conflict. C. Virus in the MBR. D. Incompatible hardware device. |
Answers: A and D.
Older PCs might need the BIOS to be upgraded before an installation. Always flash the latest BIOS before performing an upgrade or a fresh install. Always check the hardware on the HCL before performing an install or upgrade. If the CPU or RAM is not compatible or if you have a corrupt driver file, a blue screen could occur. The blue screen is technically referred to as a Stop Error. IRQ conflicts will not cause BSODs, but they will render the affected devices inoperable. Viruses in the MBR could cause the computer to simply not boot. |
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88. Ray’s computer is running Windows. In the Device Manager, you notice that the NIC has a black exclamation point. What does this tell you?
A. The device is disabled. B. The device isn’t on the hardware compatibility list. C. The device is malfunctioning. D. The device is infected with malware. |
Answer: C.
A black exclamation point on a yellow field tells you that the device is in a problem state and is probably malfunctioning. The device might need to be replaced or reseated, or the firmware might need to be upgraded. (This can be displayed as a yellow exclamation point in Windows XP.) If the device was disabled, it would show an arrow pointing down (Windows 7/ Vista) or a red X (Windows XP). The device might not be on the HCL, but the Device Manager doesn’t have an icon to tell you that specifically. Also, the Device Manager won’t tell you if a system is infected with malware. Individual devices generally don’t get infected with malware anyway; normally the operating system does. |
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90. In which troubleshooting step should you perform backups?
A. Identify the problem B. Test the theory to determine cause C. Verify a full system functionality D. Document findings actions and outcomes |
Answer: A.
You should perform backups during the first step: Identify the problem. The idea is that you back up the data before you actually do anything to the computer. Testing theories is step 3. Verifying full functionality is step 5. Documenting findings is step 6. |
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92. What is the fourth step of the CompTIA 6-step troubleshooting process?
A. Identify the problem B. Establish a theory of probable cause C. Establish a plan of action D. Document findings |
Answer: C.
The fourth step of the CompTIA six-step troubleshooting process is: Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Identify the problem is step 1. Establish a theory of probable cause is step 2. Document findings is step 6. |
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93. A newly built computer runs through the POST, but it doesn’t recognize the specific CPU that was just installed. Instead, it recognizes it as a generic CPU. What is the first thing to check?
A. Whether the CPU is seated properly B. The version of the firmware for the motherboard C. Whether it is the correct CPU for the motherboard D. The version of Windows installed |
Answer: B.
You must have the correct firmware to recognize the latest CPUs. If the CPU is not seated properly or if you have an incorrect CPU, the system simply won’t boot. Windows does not affect the POST at all. In some cases, you might purchase a motherboard that says it can support a specific new processor. However, the firmware might not have been written yet to actually work with that processor! |
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98. Which utility enables you to troubleshoot an error with a file such as NTOSKRNL.EXE?
A. Registry B. Event Viewer C. Windows Update D. Recovery Console |
Answer: B.
The Event Viewer logs all errors that occur on a system. Particularly, the System log would contain the information useful in troubleshooting this error. |
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Which of the following is a public IP address?
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B. 62.10.1.1
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Which of the following connector types is only used for Coaxial?
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C. F connector
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A Client wants a technician to install more RAM on their graphics workstation. The client has provided a 4GB SODIMM and had problems installing it. Which of the following is the probably reason for this?
A. Graphics workstation require flash memory B. The memory is incompatible for the workstation C. Graphics workstation require solid state memory D. The workstation has no available memory slots |
B The memory is incompatible for the workstation
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Which of the following are the most important factor to address when a technician is choosing the components for a CAD workstation? (SELECT 3)
A. large drive space allocation B. Powerful sound card C. Multiple network cards D. Multiple large HD monitors E. Powerful video card F. Maximum RAM G. Power processor |
E, F, G
E. Powerful video card F. Maximum RAM G. Power processor |
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Which of the following allows a technician to enable support for a USB 1.1 device?
A. MBR B. HCL C. BIOS D. AGP |
Answer C BIOS
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Which of the following connectors from a power supply should be used with a graphics expansion card?
A. 8-pin 12 volt B. pcie 6-pin C. 20-pin D. SATA |
Answer B PCIe 6-pin
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An end user requires a computer to support computer aided drafting and computer aided modeling. Which of the following component package should a technician recommend to the end user?
A. Powerful processor, high-end graphics card, and maximum RAM B. File streaming, printer sharing, and a RAID array C. Surround sound audio, compact form factor, HDMI output D. Processor and RAM that meets minimum Windows requirements. |
Answer A
Powerful processor, high-end graphics card, and maximum RAM |
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Which of the following are the most important considerations when configurations a PC that will be used for a CAD / CAM workstation (Select 2)
A. Gigabit NIC B. HDMI output C. Maximum RAM D. Powerful processor E. High-end audio output |
Answers C D
C. Maximum RAM D. Powerful processor |
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Which of the following properties of TCP/IP is used to differentiate the network and the host portions of an IP address?
A. DNS address B. Default gateway C. Subnet mask D. DHCP lease |
Answer C Subnet mask
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In which step of the CompTIA A + troubleshooting process would you question the user?
A. Identify the problem B. Establish a theory C. Establish a plan of action D. Document findings |
Answer: A.
You would question the user during step 1 of the CompTIA A + troubleshooting process: Identify the problem. Also during that step you would identify user changes and perform backups. Afterward, you move on to step 2: Establish a theory of probable cause. Next, it’s step 3: Test the theory to determine cause. And after that is step 4: Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Next is step 5: Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. Finally, step 6: Document findings, actions, and outcomes. |
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7. Where is registry hive data stored?
A. \% systemroot%\ Windows B. \% systemroot%\ Windows\ System32\ Config C. \% systemroot%\ System32 D. \% systemroot%\ System32\ Config |
Answer: D.
Remember that %systemroot% is a variable. It takes the place of whatever folder contains the operating system. This will usually be Windows (for Windows 7/ Vista/ XP). For example, if you were to run a default installation of Windows 7, the path to the Registry hives would be C:\ Windows\ System32\ Config. The main hives are SAM, SECURITY, SOFTWARE, SYSTEM, and DEFAULT. These are accessed and configured by opening the Registry Editor (Run > regedit.exe) and opening the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE subtree. Other hive information is stored in the user profile folders. |
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8. You just built a PC, and when it first boots you hear some beep codes. If you don’t have the codes memorized, what are the best devices to examine first? (Select all that apply.)
A. RAM B. CD-ROM C. Video card D. CPU |
Answers: A and C.
It is common to have an unseated RAM stick or video card. These are the most common culprits of beep codes during the POST. If the CPU is not installed properly, you might not even get any beep codes at all. And the CD-ROM’s functionality has little bearing on the POST. |
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9. What is the default initial size of virtual memory in Windows?
A. 1.5 times RAM B. 3 times RAM C. 6 times RAM D. The same as the amount of RAM on the system |
Answer: A.
By default, Windows (when first installed) analyzes the amount of RAM in the computer and sets the hard drive’s initial virtual memory size to 1.5 times that amount. Maximum size is set to 3 times RAM. So, for example, if a user has 1 GB of RAM (1024 MB), the initial virtual memory file (pagefile.sys) is 1.5 GB (1536 MB) and the maximum file size is 3 GB (3072 MB). You can also configure Windows to automatically manage the paging file size. |
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11. How can you restart the Print Spooler service? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Enter net stop spooler and then net start spooler in the command line B. Enter net stop print spooler and then net start print spooler in the command line C. Go to Computer Management > Services and restart the Print Spooler service D. Go to Computer Management > Services and Applications > Services and restart the Print Spooler service |
Answer: A and D.
In the command line, this service is simply known as Spooler. Type net stop spooler and net start spooler to restart the service. In Computer Management, the Print Spooler service is found in Services and Applications > Services. Or you could open the Run prompt and type services.msc. From there you can start, stop, enable, and disable services. |
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12. Clinton needs a more secure partition on his hard drive. Currently, the only partition on the drive (C:) is formatted as FAT32. He cannot lose the data on the drive but must have a higher level of security, so he is asking you to change the drive to NTFS. What is the proper syntax for this procedure?
A. Change C: /FS:NTFS B. Change C: NTFS /FS C. Convert C: /FS:NTFS D. Convert C: NTFS /FS |
Answer: C.
The convert command turns a FAT32 drive into a NTFS drive without data loss, allowing for a higher level of data security. The proper syntax is convert volume /FS:NTFS. |
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16. Tom has a 30 GB hard disk partition (known as C:) on a Windows Vista computer. He has 1.5 GB free space on the partition. How can he defrag the partition?
A. He can run the Disk Defragmenter in Computer Management. B. He can run DEFRAG.EXE –f in the command line. C. He can run DEFRAG.EXE –v in the command line. D. He can run DEFRAG.EXE –A in the command line. |
Answer: B.
Use defrag.exe –f. You need to have 15 percent free space on your partition to defrag it in the Disk Defragmenter GUI-based utility. However, you can force a defrag on a partition even if you don’t have enough free space by using the –f switch in the command line. (-f is not necessary in Windows 7.) The –v switch gives you verbose (or wordy) output. The –a switch gives analysis only and does not perform any defragmentation. |
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17. If you get a Code 1 message about a particular device in the Device Manager, what should you do?
A. Close applications and install RAM B. Disable the device C. Update the driver D. Reinstall the driver |
Answer: C.
A Code 1 message means that a device is not configured correctly. Usually this means that the driver should be updated. Another common code, Code 10, means the device cannot start; again, the solution is usually to update the driver. More information on Device Manager codes can be found at the following link: http:// support.microsoft.com/ kb/ 943104. Closing an application won’t affect the conditions of a device in the Device Manager. Disabling the device is a neat way of sweeping the problem under the rug. One of the keys to a properly running computer is a clean Device Manger, free of all exclamation points, question marks, and down arrows. Reinstalling the same driver will not fix the problem; it will just maintain the status quo, and you’ll be left to troubleshoot further. |
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18. Which of the following settings must be established if you want to make a secure wireless connection? (Select all that apply.)
A. The brand of access point B. The wireless standard used C. The encryption standard used D. The SSID of the access point |
Answer: C and D.
To make a secure connection, you first need to know the service set identifier (SSID) of the AP and then the encryption being used (for example, WEP or WPA). The SSID takes care of the “connection” portion, and the encryption takes care of the “secure” portion. After all computers are connected, consider disabling the SSID for increased security. Knowing the wireless standard being used can help you verify whether your computer is compatible (802.11n or g), but the brand of access point isn’t really helpful. |
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23. The message “The Windows Boot Configuration Data File Is Missing Required Information” appears on the screen. Which command would you type to repair this issue?
A. bootrec /fixboot B. bootrec /fixmbr C. bootrec /rebuildbcd D. boot\ bcd |
Answer: C.
Bootrec /rebuildbcd attempts to rebuild the boot configuration store. Bootrec /fixboot is one of the methods you can try to repair bootmgr.exe in Windows 7/ Vista. Bootrec /fixmbr rewrites the master boot record in 7/ Vista. Boot\ bcd is where the boot configuration store is located. |
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25. Which of the following should be performed during a hard drive replacement to best maintain data privacy?
A. Completely erase the old drive prior to disposal B. Format the new hard drive twice prior to installation C. Only use FAT32 file systems when formatting the new drives D. Install antivirus software on the computer before removing the old hard drive |
Answer: A.
The drive should be completely erased with bit-level erasure software. Formatting is not enough, as data remanence (residue) is left on the drive from which files can be reconstructed by smart people with some smart software. It is a waste of time to install AV software on a drive before removing it. However, AV software should be loaded up when the new drive is installed. |
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28. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is next after determining the cause?
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution D. Question the user and identify user changes |
Answer: C.
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution is the next step after determining the cause, or more specifically: Test the theory to determine cause. It is step four of the six-step CompTIA A + troubleshooting process. Document findings, actions, and outcomes is the sixth and last step. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures is the fifth step. Question the user and identify user changes is part of the first step: Identify the problem. |
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30. What is the minimum processor requirement for Windows Vista?
A. 133 MHz B. 233 MHz C. 800 MHz D. 1 GHz |
Answer: C.
Windows Vista requires a minimum processor frequency of 800 MHz, whereas Windows XP requires 233 MHz, and the unsupported Windows 2000 requires only 133 MHz. 1 GHz is the recommended minimum for Windows Vista but not the bare minimum required. |
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31. What is the minimum processor requirement for Windows 7?
A. 800 MHz B. 1 GHz C. 2 GHz D. 2 GB |
Answer: B.
Windows 7 requires a minimum processor frequency of 1 GHz. Windows Vista requires 800 MHz. 2 GHz is not a valid answer for Windows as of the writing of this book. 2 GB is the minimum RAM requirement for 64-bit versions of Windows 7. |
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33. You create an answer file to aid in installing Windows 7. Which type of installation are you performing? (Select the best answer.)
A. Disk image installation B. USB installation C. Multiboot installation D. Unattended installation |
Answer: D.
An unattended installation of Windows 7 requires an answer file. This file (normally named unattend.xml) can be created by using the Windows System Image Manager (SIM) program. Unattended installations can be done locally or as part of a network installation using Windows Deployment Services (Server 2008) or Remote Installation Services (Server 2003). Disk image installations use third-party programs such as Ghost or work with a System Restore image created within Windows. Local installation from USB is possible if you copy the Windows 7 .iso file to the USB flash drive (if the drive is big enough) and obtain the USB/ DVD download tool from the Microsoft website. A multiboot installation means that more than one operating system are being installed to the same drive. One or both of these could possibly be unattended installations. Remember that with multiboot installs, each OS should inhabit its own primary partition. |
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35. How much free disk space is required to install Windows 7? (Select the two best answers.)
A. 8 GB B. 10 GB C. 16 GB D. 20 GB |
Answers: C and D.
Windows 7 32-bit installations require a minimum of 16 GB free space. 64-bit installations require 20 GB free space. It could get a little confusing, but try to remember: Windows 7 32-bit installs require 16 GB free space, but Windows Vista installs require 15 GB free space. |
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37. Which component of the Windows GUI includes the clock and other programs that run in the background?
A. Quick Launch B. Task bar C. Notification Area D. Desktop |
Answer: C.
The Notification Area (also known as the System Tray or systray) includes the clock and programs that run behind the scenes without user intervention. The Quick Launch area houses shortcuts to files and applications. The Taskbar consists of programs that are currently running (and the Windows 7 application dock), the Start button, the Quick Launch, and the Notification Area. The desktop is the area of the GUI that has a wallpaper or background, although some users refer to the entire display as the desktop. |
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38. How can the Command Prompt be opened as an administrator (known as elevated mode) in Windows 7/ Vista? (Select all that apply.)
A. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories; then right-click Command Prompt and select Run as Administrator. B. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories; then right-click Command Prompt and select Run in elevated mode. C. Click Start and type cmd in the search field, and instead of pressing Enter, press Ctrl + Shift + Enter. D. Click Start and type cmd in Run prompt, and instead of pressing Enter, press Ctrl + Shift + Enter. |
Answers: A and C.
Programs can be run in elevated mode (as an administrator) in Windows 7/ Vista by right-clicking the program and selecting Run as Administrator or by using the search field to run the program and pressing Ctrl + Shift + Enter instead of just Enter. |
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45. In Windows Vista, where can devices like the display and hard drives be configured to turn off after a certain amount of time?
A. Power plans B. Display Properties C. Computer Management D. Power Options Properties window |
Answer: A.
To turn off devices after a specified period of time in Windows 7/ Vista, access Control Panel > Power Options. Then click Change Plan Settings for the appropriate power plan. This can be done in Windows XP from the Power Options Properties window in the Power Schemes tab. Display Properties allows you to modify things such as screen resolution. Computer Management is the most used console window in Windows 7/ Vista; it includes the Event Viewer, Disk Management, and Services. |
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46. How can you find out which type of connection the printer is using?
A. Right-click the printer, select Properties, and click the Sharing tab B. Right-click the printer, select Properties, and click the Advanced tab C. Right-click the printer, select Properties, and click the Separator Page button D. Right-click the printer, select Properties, and click the Ports tab |
Answer: D.
The Ports tab is where you can find how the printer is connected to the computer. This can be an LTP, USB, COM, or TCP/ IP port. The Sharing tab allows you to share a locally connected (or remotely controlled) printer on the network. The Advanced tab has options such as print spooling and printer pooling. The Separator page button allows you to configure a page that is inserted after every print job. |
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47. Your customer is having problems printing from an application. You attempt to send a test page to the printer. Why should a test page be used to troubleshoot the issue?
A. It allows you to see the quality of the printer output. B. The output of the test page allows you to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer. C. It verifies the connectivity and illuminates possible application problems. D. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory. |
Answer: C.
The test page will verify connectivity and give you insight as to possible application problems at the computer that is attempting to print. In this case you aren’t worried about the quality of the printer output; it’s the computer and the application that you are troubleshooting. Test pages are used to make sure the computer can print properly to the printer, not to initiate diagnostic routines. Those would be initiated from the built-in display and menu on the printer. Printing a test page does not clear the print queue or reset printer memory. This would have to be done at the printer and/ or at the computer controlling the printer. |
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52. Which of the following will not secure a functioning computer workstation?
A. Setting a strong password B. Changing default usernames C. Disabling the guest account D. Sanitizing the hard drive |
Answer: D.
Sanitizing the hard drive will not secure a computer workstation. It will, however, prevent anyone from accessing data on the drive, but the computer workstation won’t be functional anymore. Setting strong passwords, changing default usernames, and disabling the guest account are all ways of securing a computer workstation. |
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55. Which file contains ARC paths like the one shown here: default = multi( 0) disk( 0) rdisk( 0) partition( 1)\ WINDOWS?
A. NTLDR B. Boot.ini C. Ntdetect.com D. Ntbootdd.sys |
Answer: B.
In Windows XP, Boot.ini contains all the ARC paths, which contain the path to the operating system through the hardware and the software. NTLDR is the boot loader file in Windows XP. Ntdetect.com searches for basic hardware on the system. Ntbootdd.sys is necessary if Windows XP is to boot off of a SCSI drive. |
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58. Where are restore points stored after they are created?
A. The Recycler folder B. The System32 folder C. The %systemroot% folder D. The System Volume Information folder |
Answer: D.
After a restore point is made, it is stored in the System Volume Information folder. To view this folder, you must log on as an administrator, show hidden files and folders, and then assign permissions to the account that wants to view that folder. |
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64. A month ago, you set up a wireless access point/ router for a small business that is a customer of yours. Now, the customer calls and complains that Internet access is getting slower and slower. As you look at the WAP/ router, you notice that it was reset at some point and is now set for open access. You then guess that neighboring companies are using the service connection. How can you restrict their access to your customer’s wireless connection? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Configure the wireless access point to use WPA B. Configure MS-CHAP on the WAP/ router C. Disable SSID broadcasting D. Move the WAP/ router to another corner of the office |
Answers: A and C.
If the WAP/ router was reset, any security settings that you originally set up are most likely gone. If you backed up the settings previously, you could restore them. Either way, some type of encryption protocol is necessary. The passphrase or network key generated by the WAP/ router needs to be installed on each client before it can be recognized on the network. This passphrase/ key should be kept secret, of course. After all the clients have been associated with the WAP/ router, disable SSID broadcasting so that no one else can “see” the router (without more advanced software). |
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71. You get a message upon booting the system that says “No Hard Disk.” What should you check? (Select the two best answers.)
A. That there is power to the hard drive B. That there is no controller cable connected to the drive C. That the CD-ROM is jumpered correctly D. That the hard drive driver is installed |
Answers: A and B.
If you get a message stating that there is no hard disk, chances are that one of the connections is missing or loose. In the uncommon case, the hard drive might be bad (although it does happen). The CD-ROM should not have any bearing on this; plus, only IDE CD-ROM drives require jumpers, and those are less common than SATA drives. |
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72. Which of the following disk arrays provides for fault tolerance? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Spanned volume B. RAID 0 C. RAID 1 D. RAID 5 |
Answer: C and D.
RAID 1 (mirroring) provides fault tolerance by copying information to two drives. RAID 5 (striping with parity) provides fault tolerance by keeping a compressed copy of the data (in the form of parity) on each of the disks other than where the original data is stored. RAID 0 is striping only, and a spanned volume is one that stores data on two or more drives, but as whole files, not as stripes of data. |
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74. Which command will show you the current network sessions from a PC to the Internet?
A. Ipconfig B. Ping C. Netstat D. Nbtstat |
Answer: C.
Netstat shows the network statistics of a computer. It displays the network connections by name, IP address, and port of the local and remote computers. Ipconfig shows the network card’s configuration. Ping tests if a computer is alive on the network. Nbtstat stands for NetBIOS over TCP/ IP statistics. This displays protocol statistics and name tables. |
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75. Before implementing a solution to a problem, which of the following should be done?
A. Determine what has changed B. Perform a system backup C. Test the solution D. Document the solution |
Answer: B.
Most of the time you should perform a backup of data before making changes to a system or implementing a solution. It’s not always necessary— for example, if a network cable was unplugged or a disc is stuck in the DVD-ROM drive. But if you need to make changes to the OS, you should perform a backup. It is part of step 1 of the six-step troubleshooting process: Identify the problem. Determining what has changed is also part of step 1. Testing the solution is part of step 5: Verify full system functionality. Documenting the solution is part of step 6: Document findings. |
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76. Which power-saving mode enables for the best power savings, while still allowing the session to be reactivated later?
A. Standby B. Suspend C. Hibernate D. Shutdown |
Answer: C.
Hibernate mode saves all the contents of RAM (as hiberfil.sys in the root of C:) and then shuts the system down so that it is using virtually no power. To reactivate the system, you must press the power button. At that point, the entire session is loaded from RAM and you can continue on with the session. Standby and suspend modes turn off the hard drive and display and throttle down the CPU and RAM, but they still use power, and although these power modes use less power than the computer being powered on, altogether they end up using much more power than Hibernate mode does. Shutdown is great for power savings, but the session is lost when the computer is shut down. |
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77. John’s computer has two hard drives, each 300 GB. The first is the system drive and is formatted as NTFS. The second is the data drive and is formatted as FAT32. Which two of the following statements are true? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Files on the system drive can be secured. B. Larger logical drives can be made on the data drive. C. The cluster size is larger, and storage is more efficient on the system drive. D. The cluster size is smaller, and storage is more efficient on the system drive. |
Answers: A and D.
NTFS can use NTFS file-level security, whereas FAT32 cannot. NTFS cluster sizes are smaller than FAT32 clusters. NTFS partitions are therefore more efficient (when installed correctly) than FAT32 partitions. NTFS can create larger partitions (or logical drives) than FAT32 in general. |
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80. A co-worker was installing a new program when the computer suddenly restarted. Now, when the computer starts, it gets partially through the boot process and then reboots. Which of the following is the quickest method to get the computer running without losing any of the user’s data?
A. Reinstall the OS B. Boot using Last Known Good configuration C. Boot into Safe Mode and perform a Windows System Restore D. Perform a factory restore |
Answer: B.
You should boot the system to the Advanced Boot Options Menu (ABOM) and select Last Known Good Configuration. This will revert the system back to the last known good as long as someone has not logged in successfully to the computer. If, however, that didn’t work, you could try booting into Safe Mode (also in the ABOM) and perform a System Restore (or restore from the DVD WinRE). After you have exhausted all possibilities, try a factory restore or reinstall the OS. |
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87. Which troubleshooting command enables you to determine connectivity problems on a Windows XP computer that cannot connect to the Internet?
A. ipconfig /release B. ipconfig /flushdns C. ipconfig /all D. ipconfig /renew |
Answer: C.
ipconfig /all gives the most information about the network connection. Many networking issues can be analyzed and troubleshot from this command. ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew are for releasing and renewing DHCP addresses. ipconfig /flushdns purges the DNS resolver cache. |
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88. You are troubleshooting a co-worker’s computer. When you ping the loopback address, you receive no response. What does this most likely indicate?
A. The LAN is unresponsive. B. The DHCP server is down. C. The Ethernet cable needs to be replaced. D. The TCP/ IP protocol is not functioning. |
Answer: D.
Pinging the loopback address should return results even if you are not physically connected to the network. It deals with the computer internally and doesn’t even need a LAN. You can ping the local computer with the commands ping loopback and ping localhost; however, the best option is to ping the actual loopback IP address by typing ping 127.0.0.1. This removes any possible name resolution that might try to occur in Windows. Pinging the loopback address doesn’t make use of the network, so the LAN, DHCP servers, and the Ethernet cable do not play into the scenario. |
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90. Which of the following provides the lowest level of wireless security protection?
A. Disable the SSID broadcast B. Use RADIUS C. Use WPA2 D. Enable WEP on the wireless access point |
Answer: A.
Disabling the SSID broadcast is a security precaution, but it only keeps out the average user. Any attacker with two bits of knowledge can scan for other things the wireless access point broadcasts. Interestingly, using WEP is considered more secure than not using it and disabling the SSID. RADIUS is an external method of authenticating users; it often requires a Windows Server. WPA2 is very secure; if you had one security option you could enable, make it WPA2. |
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91. A customer uses an unencrypted wireless network. One of the users has shared a folder for access by any computer. The customer complains that files sometimes appear and disappear from the shared folder. What can you do to fix the problem? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Enable encryption on the router and the clients B. Encrypt the disk that has the share using EFS (Encrypting File System) C. Increase the level of security on the NTFS folder by changing the permissions D. Change the share-level permissions on the shared folder |
Answers: A and C.
Use WPA or WPA2 on the router (and clients) to deny wardrivers and other stragglers access to the customer’s network. Increase the level of NTFS security by changing the permissions in the Security tab of the shared folder. EFS isn’t necessary if you set up WPA2 on the wireless access point, but if you are dealing in seriously confidential information, you might consider it as well. Here’s the deal: Share-level permissions are rarely modified. NTFS permissions take precedence and are more configurable, so that is where the bulk of your time configuring permissions will go. |
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Which of the following is the correct sequence to install a keyboard layout in Windows 7?
A. Start > Control Panel > Display ❍ B. Start > Control Panel > Region and Language > Keyboards and Languages > Change Keyboard C. Start > Control Panel > Languages and Region > Personalization D. Start > Control Panel > Region and Language > Change Keyboard |
Answer: B.
Start > Control Panel > Region and Language > Keyboards and Languages > Change Keyboard is the correct sequence. The Display option has no settings for keyboards. It is called Region and Language, not Languages and Region. You click the Change Keyboard button after accessing the Keyboards and Languages tab, a key step. |
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98. Windows 7 was installed on a computer with two hard drives: a C: drive and a D: drive. Windows is installed to C:, and it works normally. The user of this computer complains that his applications are disk intensive and that they slow down the computer. How can you resolve the problem?
A. Move the paging file to the D: drive B. Reinstall Windows on the D: drive rather than on the C: drive C. Defrag the D: drive D. Decrease the paging file size |
Answer: A.
By moving the paging file (or swap file, aka virtual memory) to the D: drive, you are freeing up C: to deal with those disk-intensive programs. Reinstalling Windows is a huge process that you should avoid at all costs, especially when unnecessary, such as in this example. Defragging the C: drive would help if that is where the OS and applications are, but defragging the D: drive will not speed up the applications. Decreasing the page file size never helps. However, increasing the size, moving it, and adding RAM are all ways to make applications run faster. |
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100. You are troubleshooting a computer that is having trouble connecting to the network. Another technician supposedly just connected it to the LAN with a patch cable. Upon inspection of the patch cable, you find that each plug is wired differently. What should you do?
A. Replace the cable with a straight-through cable B. Replace the cable with a cross-over cable C. Replace the cable with a rolled cable D. Replace the cable with a 568B to 568A cable |
Answer: A.
The patch cable should be wired the same on both ends. Normally, a computer will connect to a switch (or to an RJ45 jack) with a straight-through cable. This cable is wired the same way on each end, usually adhering to the 568B standard. Always carry an extra straight-through cable with you! A cross-over cable is wired differently on each end— 568B on one end and 568A on the other. It is used to connect a computer to another computer or a switch to another switch. This could be what the other technician mistakenly installed. You can see this if you look carefully at the plugs on each end, but it would be easier to use a patch cable tester. A rolled cable is one that allows connectivity from a computer’s serial port to the console port of a router. Each of these cables uses RJ45 plugs so they can be somewhat difficult to differentiate between. |
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1. A customer brings in a computer that doesn’t display anything when it is turned on. You verify that the computer and monitor are receiving power and that the monitor is securely connected to the computer’s only video port. Which of the following could possibly cause this problem? (Select all that apply.)
A. Motherboard B. RAM C. Hard drive D. DVD-ROM E. CPU F. Power supply G. Video card H. SATA data cable |
Answers: A, B, E, and G.
If the computer is receiving power, everything is hooked up properly, and there is no display, then you need to consider what I like to call the big four: motherboard, CPU, video card, and RAM. These are the four components of the computer that could cause a no display issue. The most common is the video card; check if that is seated properly into the expansion slot. You should also check if that card works in one of your test systems. Then check if the RAM and then the CPU are properly installed and compatible. Finally, check the motherboard if necessary. Of course, at the beginning of this process, you should inquire with the customer as to when this computer failed and if anything was modified on the system of late. This might help you troubleshoot the problem. You would question the user during step 1 of the CompTIA A + troubleshooting process: Identify the problem. As for the incorrect answers: The hard drive won’t even be accessed if the system’s RAM, motherboard, or CPU fails because the system won’t even POST. There will be little to no activity on the HDD LED. Now, if the video card failed, the system might still boot, but without video, and you would see some HDD LED activity. However, some systems will not boot; lack of video will cause the system to stop at POST. The DVD-ROM drive won’t cause a no display issue because it is a secondary device. The power supply is not the cause of the problem in this case. The scenario said that the computer was receiving power. If the power supply fails, nothing would happen when you press the computer’s power on button. If the SATA data cable is disconnected (and that was the only problem), you would get video; the system would POST (and most likely record a HDD error); and then when the system attempted to boot to the hard drive, you would get a “missing OS” error or similar message. |
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4. Programs that run when Windows starts are stored in which of the following registry hives?
A. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG B. HKEY_USERS C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE D. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT |
Answer: C.
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE is the registry hive that stores information about the programs Windows runs when it starts. The actual hives are stored in \% windir%\ System32\ Config. But it’s okay to call HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE and the other HKEYs hives. Most technicians do it, and you might see them referred to that way on the exam as well. The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE hive is the one you will access the most often. You can configure advanced settings for TCP/ IP, the GUI of the OS, and lots more from here. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG contains data that generated when the system boots; nothing is permanently stored. HKEY_USERS stores the information for each user profile. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT contains information about registered applications and file associations. 5. Answer: A. Internet Explorer (or any other web browser) is normally used to configure a router. It’s sometimes referred to as romming into the router because the configuration program is stored in the ROM chip of the router. You can type the IP address of the router into the Windows Explorer address bar, but that will simply open an IE (or other browser) tab. The Device Manager is where you enable and disable devices and install, update, and roll back drivers for devices. Msconfig is used to modify how the computer boots and to enable/ disable programs and services. |
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9. While troubleshooting a network problem, you discover that one set of LED lights on a switch is blinking rapidly even when all other nodes are disconnected. Which of the following is most likely the cause? (Select the two best answers.)
A. A switch that is not plugged into a server B. A defective hard drive in the computer C. A defective network card in the computer D. An unplugged server E. A defective port on the network switch |
Answers: C and E.
If only one computer is connected to the switch, there shouldn’t be much activity. Rapidly blinking LED lights might lead you to believe that the computer’s network card (NIC) or the port on the switch is faulty. However, it could be that the person is sending a lot of data to himself while you are testing the network, but that would be strange and rare. The server doesn’t have anything to do with this, nor does the hard disk. |
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11. You are called to a school lab to fix a computer. The computer supposedly worked fine the day before, but now it does not power on. The computer is plugged into a power strip with another computer. The other computer works fine. Which of the following could be the problem? (Select the two best answers.)
A. The power cable is unplugged from the computer. B. The power strip is overloaded. C. The monitor is unplugged. D. The voltage switch on the computer is set incorrectly. E. The power strip is unplugged. |
Answers: A and D.
Check the basics first! Make sure the power cable wasn’t disconnected from the computer, and verify that the voltage switch is in the correct position. Kids like to play tricks on lab computers! A standard power strip should not overload with just two computers connected to it, but if it does, press the reset switch on the power strip. The monitor being unplugged could be a separate problem, but it won’t cause the computer to not power on. If the second computer works fine, then that tells you the power strip is plugged in. |
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14. After installing a network application on a computer running Windows, the application does not communicate with the server. Which of the following actions should be taken first?
A. Uninstall the service pack B. Reinstall the latest service pack C. Add the port number and name of the service to the Exceptions list of Windows Firewall D. Add the port number to the network firewall |
Answer: C. Adding the port number and name of service to the Windows Firewall Exceptions list is the correct answer. But I’m going to pontificate more as I usually do. Uninstalling and reinstalling the SP will not help this particular situation. By default, any Windows OS after and including Windows XP SP2 enables the Windows Firewall automatically and won’t allow inbound connections from the server to the network application. Therefore, you need to make an “exception.” You can access this in Windows XP by going to Local Area Connection Properties > Advanced tab. In Windows 7/ Vista, use the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security: Start > All Programs > Administrative Tools. If you decide to add a port, you need to know the port number of the application. For example, RealVNC is normally port 5900 for incoming connections.
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18. When accessing an NTFS shared resource, which of the following is required? (Select the two best answers.)
A. An active certificate B. Correct user permissions C. Local user access D. Correct share permissions |
Answers: B and D.
The share-level permissions must first be set to enable access to the user. Then the NTFS file-level “user” permissions must also be set; these take precedence over share-level, unless the share-level access is set to deny. Certificates are normally used in Internet or VPN sessions. Local user access is somewhat vague but doesn’t apply here because when a user connects to a shared resource, that person does so over the network to a remote computer. |
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24. You just installed Microsoft Windows to a computer with three internal SATA hard drives and one external USB hard drive. SATA hard drive 1 contains the operating system. SATA hard drive 2 contains the user profiles. SATA hard drive 3 and the external USB hard drive are empty. Where should you place the page file for maximize performance?
A. External USB hard drive B. Internal SATA hard drive 1 C. Internal SATA hard drive 2 D. Internal SATA hard drive 3 |
Answer: D. Use
Internal SATA hard drive 3 for the page file. By separating the page file from the operating system and the user profiles, you will maximize performance of the system. If the page file was on either of the other SATA drives, the constant accessing of the page file would slow down the OS performance or would slow down the access of user files. SATA hard drive 3 is a better option than the external USB hard drive for a variety of reasons: it will probably be faster; it will have less latency; and in general, internal drives will perform more efficiently than external drives. |
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27. How does NAT provide additional security for users who are behind a gateway?
A. It sets the hours that users can access the Internet. B. It blocks computers on the Internet from accessing computers on the LAN. C. It limits users from accessing particular websites. D. It blocks computers on the LAN from accessing computers on the Internet. |
Answer: B.
Because each user on the LAN has his own internal private IP address, users are safe from external public IPs. Network Address Translation (NAT) translates all those internal IPs into one external public Internet IP for communication with outside sources. It enables the outside sources to “see” the public IP but not the internal private IPs. |
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31. One of your customers is having difficulty with two network connections in the accounting office. The accounting office is adjacent to the building’s mechanical room. Network cables run from the accounting office, through the drop ceiling of the mechanical room, and into the server room next door. What should you recommend to the customer?
A. UTP B. Plenum-rated cable C. 568B D. Fiber optic |
Answer: D.
Of the listed answers, you should recommend fiber-optic cables. Another option would be shielded twisted pair (STP). Furthermore, you could rerun the cables through a metal conduit or reroute the cables around the mechanical room. Chances are in this scenario that the mechanical room’s contents are causing interference on the network cables. Electromagnetic interference (EMI) can be prevented with STP or fiber-optic cables. UTP is unshielded twisted pair, probably what the customer is using currently as it is the most common. Plenum-rated cable is used in areas where sprinklers cannot get to. It has a coating that makes it burn much more slowly. 568B is the most common network cabling wiring standard. |
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38. Which of the following commands would result in the following output? 192.168.1.100 00-1C-C0-09-08-07
A. Arp -a B. Ping C. Nbtstat -a D. Arp |
Answer: A.
The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) command allows you to see which computers your IP address and corresponding MAC address have connected to recently. It displays these computers formatted as IP, and MAC address. Arp –a does exactly this. Those connections listed are considered to be “dynamic” because they are temporary. In this scenario there was only one computer that the local system has connected to recently, but it could show more. The command also enables you to create a permanent or static connection to another system via MAC address and corresponding IP address. ping tests a connection to another computer’s IP address. Nbtstat –a, along with a computer name or IP address, will show the NetBIOS name table for the local machine or for a remote computer. It displays core services running on a computer such as the workstation and server services. Arp by itself shows the help file for the command. |
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49. When performing a clean installation, which of the following is the default location for the system files of Windows 7?
A. C:\ Windows B. C:\ Windows\ System32\ Config C. C:\ System Files D. C:\ Windows\ System32 |
Answer: D.
The default folder location for Windows 7 system files is C:\ Windows\ System32. That is, if the C: is the drive being installed to. You might also see this referred to as X:\% windir%\ System32 or simply \% windir%\ System32. The X: is a variable meaning whichever drive is installed to. %windir% is a variable referring to the name of the main installation folder (usually Windows). %windir% is also expressed sometimes as %systemroot%. Windows Vista and XP also use this folder for system files. C:\ Windows is the systemroot, where the OS is installed to (though it will also inhabit subfolders). C:\ Windows\ System32\ Config is where the registry hives are stored. There is no C:\ System Files folder, unless you were to create it yourself. |
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59. You are experiencing intermittent connectivity to the website www.davidlprowse.com and want to check the status of the connectivity to that web server over a span of half an hour. Which of the following commands should you use?
A. ping –t B. ipconfig /all C. nslookup D. ping –l |
Answer: A.
ping –t is a continuous ping. It will ping the web server with ICMP echo packets until you manually stop the operation. You can stop the operation by pressing Ctrl + C on the keyboard. When you do so, an average of the ping results will be displayed, as well as the total packets that were sent, received, and lost. ipconfig /all displays the configuration of your network adapter. nslookup enables you to find out a domain’s corresponding IP address, as well as carry out other name server configurations. ping –l is a four-packet ping, but the –l parameter enables you to modify the size of the packet being sent. |
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62. Users are reporting to you that a Windows 7 feature asks them for confirmation before running certain applications or when making system changes. What is the name of this Windows feature, and where should you direct users to turn the functionality off?
A. Security Center; it can be turned off in the services MMC snap in. B. User Account Control; it can be turned off under Security in the Control Panel. C. Windows Firewall; it can be turned off under System Properties. D. User Account Control; it can be turned off under User Accounts in the Control Panel. |
Answer: D.
User Account Control (UAC) is the portion of Windows that asks for confirmation of administrative rights before allowing a user to make system changes or run certain applications. It can be disabled within the User Accounts applet within the Control Panel by clicking the Change User Account Control Settings link. But beware; only users that have administrative rights should even be permitted to turn this off. |
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63. James is a LAN administrator in charge of printers. Which of the following should he check first if a Windows user is trying to print a document and gets the error message “Print sub-system not available”?
A. Correct printer driver is installed. B. Printer has been added. C. Spooler service is running. D. Printer has power from the jack. |
Answer: C.
If a “print sub-system not available” message or similar message appears, it most likely means the spooler has stalled. This can be turned back on within the Services section of Computer Management or by issuing the command net start spooler in the Command Prompt. If the wrong printer driver was installed, either the user would get a message stating that the printer is not available or the document would print but the information would be garbled. If the printer has not been added, the user would not be able to print any documents to any printers, and therefore should not get an error message. If the printer is not getting power, the user would most likely get a message stating that the printer is not available. |
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64. A customer installed a new hard disk on a computer and now cannot boot the machine. You notice that the hard drive LED stays on. What should you do to troubleshoot this problem? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Check the power cable to the hard disk B. Check the power supply for proper voltages C. Check the BIOS settings for the drive controller D. Check the drive cable to make sure it is oriented correctly on both the drive and the board E. Check the drive jumpers for correct master/ slave relationships |
Answers: D and E.
On older IDE connections you need to make sure that the data cable is oriented properly on each drive and the motherboard (or controller card). Also, make sure that the drives are jumpered correctly. The main drive with the OS should be set to master; the other drive (which probably contains data) should be set to slave. If either of these is incorrect, the hard drive LED could stay on constantly indicating a problem. If the LED light is on, you know that the drive is getting power, so nothing in the power subsystem should be troubleshot. Older BIOS systems allowed you to modify master and slave settings, but newer systems rely on the jumper settings; still newer systems rely on newer technologies such as SATA! |
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66. Which of the following commands would be used to fix errors on the system disk?
A. Xcopy B. Tracert /w C. Diskpart D. Chkdsk /F |
Answer: D.
Chkdsk /F allows you to fix errors on a disk. It does not fix all errors, but checks for disk integrity, bad sectors, and similar issues. Xcopy copies files and directory trees; Microsoft recommends using Robocopy on newer Windows operating systems. Tracert /w analyzes the path to another computer with a specific timeout per reply. Diskpart is the command-line tool that enables you to make changes to the operating system’s partition table. |
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70. You are tasked with copying the entire Users folder and subfolders to a new computer. Which command should you use?
A. Xcopy B. Edit C. Copy D. Move |
Answer: A.
Use Xcopy. This is designed to copy entire folders (and all of their subfolders) to a new location. Another option is Robocopy, the successor to Xcopy. Edit is a program in the Command Prompt that allows you to create and modify text files; not all versions of Windows offer this— for example, Windows 7 Ultimate 64-bit. Copy is the original command for copying data from one location to another, but it is not as well-suited to copying large amounts of data as Xcopy or Robocopy are. The move command does just that; it is the equivalent of the cut in cut-and-paste operations. |
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71. You are tasked with disabling services from starting up on a Windows 7 PC. Which command should you run to bring up a window to make these changes?
A. SFC B. Chkdsk C. Msconfig D. GPupate |
Answer: C.
Msconfig is the only option listed where you can disable services. The key in the question is the phrase “bring up a window”. Msconfig runs in a Window, whereas the rest of the answers run as text in the command-line. Msconfig can also be used to modify how the system boots and to enable/ disable applications. SFC is the System File Checker; it scans the integrity of protected system files and repairs problems if necessary, and if possible. Contrast this with Chkdsk, which can locate and repair errors on the disk, but not within system files. GPupdate can update user and computer policy settings on the local computer or on remote computers. |
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74. Which of the following is an executable that checks the integrity of an NTFS volume in Windows?
A. NetBEUI B. Autochk.exe C. Convert D. Regedit.exe |
Answer: B.
Autochk.exe is an executable (and system process) that checks the integrity of an NTFS volume in Windows. It enables a Windows operating system to revert core system settings to their original state. Autochk is similar to chkdsk but autochk runs during system bootup (after a cold boot), whereas chkdsk will run in the command-line or in the Recovery Console. Autochk cannot run within the command-line. Autochk will be initiated if: 1. Chkdsk cannot gain exclusive access to the volume, 2. If you try to run chkdsk on the boot volume, and 3. If the volume to be checked is “dirty”. For example, if a system hangs, and has open files, those files are considered to be dirty, and therefore the volume that houses them is also dirty, and is checked by autochk after a hard reset otherwise known as a cold boot. NetBEUI is a network protocol used by older, deprecated versions of Microsoft operating systems such as Windows 95/ 98, and Windows NT. It stands for NetBIOS Extended User Interface. It uses computer names to identify other computers on the network, does not use IP addresses, and therefore is not routable to other networks. This protocol is outdated and is not often found in networks. The convert command is used to change a FAT partition to NTFS without loss of data. Regedit.exe is the executable in Windows that opens the Registry Editor. |
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75. In Windows 7, which of the following folders might be stored in a hidden partition by default?
A. \Boot B. \Windows C. \Documents and Settings D. \Bootmgr |
Answer: A.
The \Boot folder can be located in a hidden partition (100 MB in size), by default, which is separate from the C drive. The Windows folder is where the operating system is installed to; it is also known by the variable %systemroot% or %WINDIR% and is located in the C: drive by default. \Documents and Settings is also located in C: by default. Bootmgr is the Windows Boot Manager, which is the Windows loader program; it is a file, not a folder. |
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81. Which of the following commands is used to display hidden files?
A. dir /o B. dir /a C. dir /d D. dir /? |
81. Answer: B.
dir /a can be used to display hidden files. Specifically, dir /ah can be used to show hidden files only. dir /o deals with various sort orders of files— for example, alphabetical. dir /d sorts files by column in wide format. dir /? displays the help file for the dir command. |
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86. Two co-workers share the same file inside a folder. User A works on the file, makes changes, and saves the file. User B then works on the file, makes changes, and saves the file as well. The next time User A attempts to open the file, she receives an access denied error. What could cause this error message?
A. The NTFS permissions were changed on the file to allow only execute. B. The file was set with the system and hidden attributes. C. The file was set to read only by the Accounts Receivable administrator. D. The file was moved before being modified and then moved back to the share. |
Answer: D.
Most likely User B moved the file to another location outside of the current partition, made the changes (which is possible since User B is the one who moved it), and then moved it back to the original location. Whenever a file is moved to another partition or volume, the file takes on the permissions of the parent folder. However, if the file had been moved within the volume, the permissions would have been retained. Tricky. Remember this: If the file is moved within the same volume, it retains permissions, so the permissions don’t change. But, if a file is moved to another volume, it takes on the permissions of the folder it is moved into. As for copying, the file’s copy always takes on the permissions of the parent regardless of where that copy is placed. On to the incorrect answers: If NTFS permissions were changed to allow execute, then User A should have been able to open the file. If the file was set with the hidden attribute, then User A should not have been able to see the file. Accounts Receivable might or might not set a file to read-only. However, User A should still be able to open the file, but in read-only mode. |
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89. In Windows Vista, which of the following commands should be used to verify that a previous system shutdown was completed successfully?
A. ipconfig B. chkntfs C. chkdsk D. sfc |
Answer: B.
Chkntfs can check to see if a previous system shutdown completed successfully. Generally, you would check this on the system drive (for example, C:). If the drive is okay and the system did complete the shut down successfully, you’ll get a message such as “C: is not dirty.” Otherwise, you will get a message telling of the error. Chkdsk checks the integrity of the disk. Ipconfig displays the configuration of your network adapters. SFC scans the integrity of all protected system files and can replace them with the correct versions if necessary. |
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91. A customer tells you that a networked printer is not printing documents. You successfully ping the printer’s IP address. What is the problem? (Select the two best answers.)
A. The printer is low on toner. B. The network cable is unplugged. C. The printer is out of paper. D. The gateway address on the printer is incorrect. E. The spooler is not functioning. |
Answers: C and E.
The printer could simply be out of paper. Or, the spooler could be malfunctioning. If the printer is out of paper, fill all trays and suggest that the user check the trays every couple days or so. If the spooler is not functioning, you should restart the spooler service in the Services console window or in the Command Prompt with the net stop spooler and net start spooler commands. If the printer was low on toner, you would get weak print or completely blank pages. If the network cable was unplugged, you wouldn’t be able to ping the printer. Printers don’t always use gateway addresses, but if this one did, it wouldn’t affect your ability to connect to it (as long as it was on the LAN). The gateway address is used so that the printer can communicate with computers beyond the LAN. |
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93. Ray installs a new 802.11n wireless network adapter in a desktop computer. He tries to connect to an access point but doesn’t see any access points in the wireless configuration manager. Why are none of the access points listed? (Select the best answer.)
A. The access points are out of range. B. No IEEE 802.11n access points are available. C. 802.11n is not supported on the network. D. The access points cannot accept any more connections. |
Answer: A.
Most likely the access points are out of range. 802.11n indoor range is 70 meters (230 ft.), and outdoor range is 250 meters (820 ft.). If Ray is outside this range, the computer will not be able to see any access points in the wireless configuration manager. It is unlikely that no 802.11n access points are available. If Ray installed an 802.11n wireless network adapter, then he must know that there is an 802.11n WAP around. It’s a possibility that none exist, but that’s remote. Even if 802.11n wasn’t supported, an 802.11n network adapter can downgrade to 802.11g or even 802.11b, so it should still be able to connect. Regardless, he should still be able to see other slower wireless access points in the wireless configuration manager. Finally, if there were access points, but they couldn’t accept any more connections, he would again at least see them in the wireless configuration manager program. That answer doesn’t explain why he can’t see them. |
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97. Which of the following file systems is suited specifically for USB flash drives?
A. FAT32 B. FAT64 C. NTFS D. FAT16 |
Answer: B.
FAT64 (also known as exFAT) is suited specifically for USB flash drives and many other mobile storage solutions. It is the successor to FAT32 and can format media that is larger than 32 GB with a single partition. Older file systems such as FAT32 and FAT16 are very limited as to the partition size. NTFS can be a good solution for USB flash drives, but exFAT was developed specifically for USB flash drives and is the better solution if you have an operating system that will support it, such as Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, and Windows Vista with SP1. |
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100. You are required to stop the Windows Firewall service. How can you accomplish this? (Select the three best answers.)
A. In Performance Monitor B. With the net stop mpssvc command C. Within Msconfig D. Within the Task Manager E. In System Information F. With Gpedit.exe G. In Services.msc |
Answers: B, D, and G.
You can stop a service in a variety of ways. The easiest and most common is to go to the Services console window. This can be done by typing services.msc at the Run prompt. You can also stop services in the Task Manager by accessing the Services tab and right-clicking the service in question. But in the Task Manager you have to know the executable name of the service. The name of the Windows Firewall service is mpssvc. So, the third way (of the listed answers) is to use the net stop mpssvc command in the Command Prompt. Performance Monitor, System Information, and GPedit do not allow you to stop services. |
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1. Which type of hypervisor runs operating systems on bare metal?
A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Virtual PC D. Windows XP Mode |
Answer: A.
The Type 1 hypervisor is the bare metal, or native hypervisor. It runs directly on the host computer’s hardware. Examples include Microsoft Hyper-V, VMware ESX, and Citrix XenServer. This is required for true virtualization workstations. Type 2 hypervisors run within another operating system. Examples of this include Microsoft Virtual PC, Windows XP Mode (which runs in a Virtual PC window within Windows 7), and VirtualBox. These do not run nearly as fast as type 1 hypervisors and so are used for limited purposes. For example, if a company wanted to run Windows Server 2008 in a virtual environment but have it be an actual server on the network, it should run in a type 1 hypervisor. But if you are learning how to use Windows Vista— for example, in a lab environment— the type 2 hypervisor would probably be fine. |
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3. Which of the following will occur if %temp% is executed from Run?
A. Applications located in the %temp% folder will be executed. B. The operating system’s temporary folder will be open. C. The current user temporary folder will be open. D. Applications will be deleted in the %temp% folder. |
Answer: C.
Typing %temp% in the Run prompt will display a folder with the current user’s temporary files. For example, in Windows 7 this would show the C:\ Users\% username%\ AppData\ Local\ Temp folder. Nothing will be added or changed. Simply the folder will be displayed in a Windows Explorer window. The operating system’s temporary folder is located at C:\ Windows\ Temp. |
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6. Ray used file properties to hide files in his folder and now needs to get the files back. Using a command-line tool, which of the following combination of parameters will make the files viewable once again?
A. Attrib – RV *.* B. Attrib – A + H *.* C. Attrib + A + *.* D. Attrib –H *.* |
Answer: D.
Attrib –H *.* will unhide all of the files in the folder. The attrib command allows you to work with four different file attributes that I like to refer to as RASH. R stands for Read-only, A = Archive, S = System, and H = Hidden. Using a minus sign will remove the attribute, while a plus sign will add the attribute. Since the files were already hidden, we needed to use the minus sign to remove the attribute and be able to view the files. *.* means all the files with all extensions within that particular directory. Check out the attrib command in the Command Prompt for yourself by typing attrib /?. Ray is always doing interesting things in my books. |
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8. Which of the following is the best solution for repairing a hard drive when a computer displays an “NTLDR is missing error” upon booting?
A. Recovery Console with the fixmbr command B. Recovery Console with the fixboot command C. Recovery Console with the chkdsk command D. Recovery Console with the bootcfg /rebuild command |
Answer: B.
The Recovery Console is a system recovery tool used in Windows XP. There are a lot of different commands that can be issued in this mode. If the NTLDR file has been damaged or is missing, it can be rewritten to the hard disk by issuing the fixboot command while in the Recovery Console. NTLDR can also be manually copied from the CD-ROM disc if necessary. The fixmbr command will rewrite the master boot record of the hard drive. The chkdsk command will check the integrity of the disk. Bootcfg /rebuild can be used to scan for the operating system installations and rebuild that information into the boot.ini file. |
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9. A Windows PC is not booting correctly. You need to locate bad sectors and recover information. Which command is best?
A. Chkdsk C: /R B. Chkdsk C: /F C. Chkdsk C: /C D. Chkdsk C: /I |
Answer: A.
Chkdsk /R will locate bad sectors and recover the information from them. /F fixes errors but doesn’t locate bad sectors and recover the information from them. /C and /I skip certain checks of the volume (in this case C:), which ultimately reduces the time it takes to check the volume. |
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10. Where can a user’s Desktop folder be found in Windows Vista by default?
A. C:\ Users\% username%\ desktop B. C:\ Documents and Settings\% username%\ desktop C. C:\ System Volume Information\% username%\ desktop D. C:\ Users\ System32\% username%\ desktop |
Answer: A.
Every user profile gets a Desktop folder by default. This folder will be located within the user profile folder, which is shown in the answer as a variable %username%. In a standard Windows 7/ Vista configuration, the Documents and Settings and System Volume Information folders will be hidden and access will be denied. The System32 folder is inside the Windows folder, not the Users folder. Windows XP used Documents and Settings as the main user folder, but Windows Vista/ 7 changed that by creating a junction from that folder to the Users folder. Now in Vista/ 7 the Documents and Settings folder is protected, but you have limited access to the Users folder. |
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12. A technician is setting up a SOHO and has configured the wireless network adapter on a laptop with WPA2. While the technician configures the WAP, he notices that WPA2 is not listed as an option. What should the technician do next?
A. Install the latest WAP firmware B. Install the latest wireless network adapter drivers C. Install the latest WAP drivers D. Install the latest wireless network adapter firmware |
Answer: A.
The technician should install the latest firmware to the WAP. WAPs don’t require drivers; the firmware has all the code they require. On the other hand, wireless network adapters don’t need firmware (usually) because they use drivers. But the network adapter is fine because it is already configured with WPA2. It’s the WAP we are concerned with; we want it to use the best wireless encryption possible. |
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14. You plug in an external hard drive. A message appears in Windows that says the device can perform faster. What could cause this message?
A. The computer has USB 3.0 ports. B. The external hard drive is using USB 2.0. C. The computer has USB 2.0 ports. D. The external hard drive is using FireWire. |
Answer: C.
This message appears when a device is connected to a USB port; Windows notifies you that the device can run faster than it currently is. It’s possible that the external hard drive is compatible with USB 3.0, but the system is not capable of USB 3.0 speeds (5.0 Gbps). In some cases, Windows can’t run at those speeds without a driver update or other upgrade software-wise. If the external hard drive was a USB 2.0 device, the message wouldn’t appear because everything already runs at USB 2.0 speed. If the drive was FireWire (IEEE 1394), USB wouldn’t even be a concern; they are completely different standards and ports. A drive plugged into a FireWire port wouldn’t get the message listed in the question. |
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15. Your customer tells you that when trying to synchronize a smartphone via Bluetooth to Windows, a “no Bluetooth device” error message appears on the smartphone. The computer has a Bluetooth card installed. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. The 802.11 card is disabled. B. A BIOS setting is incorrect. C. The hard drive is faulty. D. A microwave is interfering with the signal. |
Answer: B.
Chances are that a computer BIOS setting is incorrect. The card either is not being recognized in the BIOS or is not enabled. Of course, it is also possible that the card has an incorrect driver installed in Windows. 802.11 refers to WLAN (Wi-Fi), not Bluetooth. Disabling the WLAN card will not affect this scenario. If the hard drive was faulty, you would see other indications such as lockups or failure to boot, but nothing dealing with Bluetooth devices. Microwaves are usually not located near a person’s computer. Though it is possible for a microwave or other wireless device to interfere with Bluetooth, it is the less likely answer. |
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16. Your organization has an Active Directory domain. One of the users, Bill, should not have read access to a folder named Accounting. The Accounting folder is shared on a network server, on a partition formatted as NTFS. How can you stop Bill from having read access to the folder without impacting any other users on the network?
A. Remove Bill from all domain groups that have access to the Accounting folder B. Deny read access to the Accounting folder for Bill through local access security C. Deny read access to the Accounting folder for any group that Bill is a member of D. Deny read access to the Accounting folder for Bill through shared access security |
Answer: D.
The best option in this scenario would be to deny read access to the Accounting folder for Bill through shared access security. You would not use local access security because the folder is shared from a network server within your Active Directory domain. Also, if you remove Bill from all domain groups that have access to the accounting folder, Bill will probably lose access to other folders as well. If you deny read access to the accounting folder for any group that Bill is a member of, you will probably impact other users on the network negatively. |
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18. A customer tells you that her computer is taking a long time to save large files. She is currently using an IDE hard drive formatted with NTFS. What would improve the performance of the system?
A. Reformat the drive with FAT32 B. Install a PATA drive and format it as FAT32 C. Install a SATA drive and format it as NTFS D. Install a PATA drive and format it as NTFS |
Answer: C.
SATA drives are faster than PATA (IDE) drives, and NTFS is going to be more efficient than FAT32. Plus, if the customer is already using NTFS, you wouldn’t want to downgrade the new drive to FAT32. |
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20. Which of the following is the correct path if you wanted to disable a service in Windows 7?
A. Msconfig > Settings > Services B. System Settings > Tools > Services C. Control Panel > Services D. Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Services |
Answer: D.
The correct path is Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Services. Of course, there are lots of other ways to get to the Services console window, but you should know the Control Panel paths for the exam. In addition, there are lots of ways to shut off services; know as many of them as you can, such as in the Task Manager or in the Command Prompt. The path Msconfig > Settings > Services is not valid because there is no Settings option. System Settings > Tools > Services is also an invalid path. Finally, Services cannot be accessed directly from Control Panel. |
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27. A Windows 7 computer has an Experience Index of 3.8. The technician discovers that the computer has the following: Performance index RAM1GB4.6Video3D3.8CPU2,4GHz4.2. The technician upgrades the memory to 2 GB and gets the following results: Performance index RAM2GB5.0Video3D3.8CPU2,4GHz4.2. But the Windows Experience Index is still at 3.8. Which of the following can the technician do to improve the performance index?
A. Double the RAM again B. Upgrade the CPU to 3 GHz C. Increase the resolution on the screen D. Upgrade the video card |
Answer: D.
Upgrade the video card. The Windows Experience Index is based on the lowest component score. In this case that is the video card. You’ll note that there is a number after each component. After the RAM upgrade those numbers are RAM: 5.0, Video: 3.8, and CPU: 4.2. The video score is the index. So, the lowest common denominator should be upgraded. Increasing the resolution on the screen won’t have an effect, or it will cause the index for video to go down. |
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28. Which of the following commands enables you to copy a file without prompts?
A. Copy /Z B. Xcopy C. Copy /Y D. Copy /A |
Answer: C.
Copy /Y suppresses prompting of overwrite confirmations. Copy /Z copies networked files in restartable mode. Xcopy is used to easily copy entire directories of data to another location. Copy /A allows you to indicate an ASCII text file to copy. |
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31. A computer just had a memory upgrade installed. Upon booting the computer, it does not recognize the new memory, even though it is listed as being compatible on the manufacturer’s website. What should you do to resolve the issue?
A. BIOS update B. Adjust jumper settings C. OS Update D. New CMOS battery |
Answer: A.
You should update the BIOS. If it hasn’t been updated in a while, it probably won’t recognize newer memory modules. Most of today’s motherboards don’t have jumper settings for RAM. In fact, the only jumper you will often find is the BIOS configuration jumper, which only needs to be configured if a person forgot a password. The BIOS will have a problem recognizing the RAM far before the OS starts up; no OS updates are required to make RAM recognizable to the system. If the computer needed a new CMOS battery, you would know because the time in the BIOS would reset to an earlier date. |
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35. You are tasked with mapping a drive within the Command Prompt to a share named AlbaLonga on a server named Romulus. What is the correct syntax?
A. net use // AlbaLonga/ Romulus B. http:// Romulus.com/ AlbaLonga C. net use \\ Romulus\ AlbaLonga D. ipp:// Romulus.com/ AlbaLonga |
Answer: C.
The correct syntax is net use \\ Romulus\ AlbaLonga. Note the backslashes in use here. You would probably want a persistent connection using a drive letter (such as F:), so you might append that to net use (for example, net use F: \\ Romulus\ AlbaLonga or something to that effect). The universal naming convention (UNC) for mapping drives is \\ servername\ sharename. The server name is Romulus; the share name is AlbaLonga. It’s possible to connect to servers and shares with HTTP but not map a drive to them. Also, the server name is Romulus. Romulus.com is a domain name, something that a server name would be part of— for example, server1 would be the server name (or hostname) of the address server1. davidlprowse.com. The IPP protocol is used to make connections to printers and is often used with IP addresses, not server names. |
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36. Which of the following file extensions will start the program installation process in Windows?
A. *. INI B. *. CFG C. *. SYS D. *. EXE |
Answer: D. *.
EXE refers to any file with the .EXE extension. .EXE is short for executable. When you want to run a program, it is usually started with a file that has a .EXE extension. For example, to start Microsoft Word, the winword.exe executable is initiated. And for installing programs, the most common is setup.exe. .INI files are initialization files— for example, Window XP’s boot.ini file which has the list of operating systems that can be booted to. .CFG is short for configuration file. These might list commands and parameters for a program. Often, .INI and .CFG files can be manipulated in Notepad because they are text based (but not text or .txt files). .SYS files are system files— for example, pagefile.sys. The .SYS extension was used extensively back in the days of DOS, but newer versions of Windows tend to have system files with .dll and .exe extensions. |
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37. Memory was added to a workstation. When the computer was booted, it reports memory errors. What is the most likely cause?
A. A different brand of memory was installed into bank two. B. The second memory stick was larger than the first. C. The second memory stick was smaller than the first. D. The new memory was installed in the second bank and runs at a lower speed than bank one. |
Answer: D.
For multiple memory sticks to be compatible, they need to run at the same speed. You might be able to get away with one stick being one step slower, if the motherboard supports it, and as long as it is not dual-channel memory. But it isn’t worth the chance. If the sticks are not compatible, or if the second stick is not compatible with the motherboard, you will probably get memory errors during POST. |
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41. User A is part of the Users Group on a Windows 7 Ultimate computer. User A attempts to access files on a UNC path: \\ server\ fileshare. Fileshare has the following share permissions: Administrators— Full Control Users— Read Only Guests— No Access However, the directory on the hard drive where the share is located has the following permissions: Administrators— Full Control Users— Change Guests— No Access Which level of access will the account User A have?
A. Read Only B. Change C. Full Control D. No Access |
41. Answer: A.
User A will end up having the Read-Only level of access to the share. Generally, a user gets the more restrictive level of access. The only thing that is different between the share’s permissions and the parent directory’s permissions is the level of control for the Users group. Normally, a share will obtain its permissions from the parent folder. That is, unless that option is un-checkmarked in the properties of the folder; then, the folder can be reconfigured for whatever permissions an admin wants to set for it. That must be what happened in the scenario. Administrators get Full Control access to almost everything by default. And Guests get No Access to just about everything by default. So the only possibilities for this question were Change and Read Only. Again, in general, the typical user account will receive the more restrictive level of permissions. |
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42. A customer has installed a PostScript driver for a printer that actually only supports PCL. What is the most likely result?
A. The printer will not print at all. B. The printer will print garbage or unreadable characters. C. The printer will process PostScript in the correct way. D. The printer will print at a decreased resolution (DPI). |
Answer: B.
Most likely, the printer will print garbage or unreadable characters (known as garbled characters). If you install an incorrect driver for a printer, you risk a garbage printout. You would know if this was the case immediately when trying to print a test page. The incorrect driver could be a printer driver for another printer or one that is PostScript when it should be Printer Command Language (PCL). This won’t stop the printer from printing, but you may not like what you see (unless you are into gibberish). The DPI of the printer will not change. A DPI such as 600 cannot be decreased to 300 DPI unless you set that in the printer’s Properties sheet in Windows or on the display on the printer. And it can only be increased in the same manner, and only if the printer supports it. |
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43. A marketing employee commonly sends large print jobs to a printer. The employee tells you that during the jobs the printer spontaneously pauses and resumes several times. What is the most likely cause?
A. The toner cartridge is defective. B. The printer paper tray is not big enough. C. The printer needs updated drivers. D. The printer is overheating. |
Answer: D.
The printer is probably overheating during these long jobs. Perhaps the fuser is nearing replacement time. The fuser can run as hot as 400 ° Fahrenheit (204 ° Celsius), and some printers will pause printing when that temperature threshold is tripped. Once the temperature goes back below the threshold, the printer will begin printing again. If the toner cartridge was defective, you would get blank paper, lighter printing, or paper with lines or smears. As long as there is paper in the tray, the large print job will continue to print (if within operating temperature parameters). Updated drivers are only necessary when the printer will not print the data on the page correctly. Pausing the job in this scenario is not causing any print errors; it’s just taking longer to complete. |
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44. Your boss wants to implement BitLocker on yet a second laptop for traveling purposes. What should you perform before implementing BitLocker?
A. Enable TPM in the BIOS B. Disable UAC C. Defrag the hard drive D. Convert the file system to NTFS |
Answer: A.
Before implementing the BitLocker solution in Windows, you should enable the trusted platform module (TPM) in the BIOS. This is the chip on the motherboard that includes the encryption code. UAC is User Account Control, a separate security option in Windows 7/ Vista that checks if users have administrative permissions before allowing them to carry out administrative tasks. Defragmenting the hard drive is not necessary, but it can’t hurt to at least analyze the drive and see if it needs to be defragged. Defragging a drive that requires it can increase performance. BitLocker works on FAT16, FAT32, NTFS, and exFAT partitions, so no need to convert the file system. |
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46. A computer has a RAID 1 array. SATA Drive 0 failed, and now the computer will not boot. What would most likely fix the problem by allowing the computer to boot again?
A. Replace SATA Drive 1 B. Mark SATA Drive 1 as active C. Replace SATA Drive 0 D. Reboot and select LKG from the ABOM |
Answer: B.
You would mark SATA Drive 1 as active. If you cannot access Disk Management, you would have to do it by booting the system with WinRE (System Recovery Options), accessing the Command Prompt; executing the Diskpart command; and typing the commands select disk 1, select partition 1, and active. A RAID 1 array is a mirroring array with two drives. The second drive keeps an exact copy of the first drive in real-time. If Drive 1 doesn’t take over automatically when Drive 0 fails, you will have to set it to active. Remember that a partition with an operating system must be set to active; otherwise, the computer will not be able to boot to the partition. Replacing Drive 1 is not necessary as it did not fail. Replacing Drive 0 is inevitable if you want to re-create the mirror, but not necessary if you just want to get the system to boot for now. Rebooting to the Last Known Good Configuration will not help; that only reverts system changes back to when the last successful login occurred. It won’t fix the failed drive. |
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47. One of your customers has a defective disk. Which command can be used to extract readable information?
A. Recover B. Replace C. Convert D. REM |
Answer: A.
The Recover command can recover readable information from a bad or defective disk. The disk should be slaved to a working computer to get back the data. The Replace command will replace source and destination files but not recover lost information. Convert changes a file system from FAT to NTFS without losing data. REM records comments in a batch file (. bat) or within config.sys, a root file not typically used in Windows. |
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48. What is an advantage of Xcopy over Copy?
A. The ability to copy files off of a mapped network drive B. The ability to copy NTFS permissions C. The ability to copy files and decrypt them D. The ability to copy entire folder structures |
Answer: B.
Xcopy can copy NTFS permissions. Normally, when a file is copied— for example, in Windows Explorer— the file loses its permissions and takes on the permissions of the new parent folder. That is also the case with the Copy command. Xcopy and Robocopy can be used to transcend this rule. Both Xcopy and Copy can copy files off of a mapped network drive and can copy entire folder structures, but neither can copy files while decrypting them. |
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51. You are happily working in Windows when you stumble across a dialog box with some unfamiliar terms. What can you do to quickly provide more information?
A. Use the Microsoft Support website B. Alternate-click and select “More Information” C. Alternate-click and select “What’s This?” D. Press F1 and search for the term |
Answer: C.
Try alternate-clicking and selecting “What’s This?” Alternate-click means you are using the secondary mouse button; for right-handed folk this would be a right-click. You could also use the Microsoft Support website or press F1 to search for information within Windows, but they would both take longer. There is no “More Information” option when you alternate-click. |
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53. Which one of the following is fault tolerant, mirrors a hard drive, and allows for disk duplexing?
A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 6 |
Answer: B.
RAID 1 is mirroring, but if you were to incorporate a separate hard disk controller for each drive, you would then have disk duplexing as well. RAID 1 is fault tolerant because a copy of all data goes to both disks in the mirror. RAID 0 is data striping and has no fault tolerant mechanism. RAID 5 and 6 are both types of striping with parity which are fault tolerant, but only RAID 1 offers disk mirroring with duplexing. |
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54. In Windows 7, which path would a user with the account name Charlie go to in order to view his pictures?
A. C:\ Documents and Settings\ Charlie\ Pictures B. C:\ Users\ Charlie\ Libraries\ My Pictures C. C:\ Users\ Charlie\ My Pictures D. C:\ Documents and Settings\Charlie\ My Documents\ My Pictures |
Answer: C.
The path C:\ Users\ Charlie\ My Pictures is where the pictures would be stored. Documents and Settings was used by Windows XP, but as of Vista was redirected (via a junction) to the Users folder. It is possible to access Libraries in Windows 7, but it is a bit easier than the answer listed. Go to Windows Explorer, and then go to Libraries > Pictures > My Pictures. |
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56. Your friend is playing the latest first-person game on a PC, but the screen is pausing during game play. Your friend has a high-end graphics card and the maximum memory for the motherboard. What should you do to help the situation?
A. Upgrade the drivers B. Reinstall the OS C. Replace the hard drive D. Reinstall the game |
Answer: A.
If you see video issues such as pausing during game play, upgrade the video drivers. Make sure that you download the latest video driver from the manufacturer’s website. Gamers cannot rely on Microsoft drivers, especially FPS gamers! Sometimes reinstalling a game is necessary but shouldn’t be in this scenario. Replacing the hard drive and reinstalling the OS are drastic and unnecessary measures for this problem. |
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58. You have been asked to move data from one laptop to another, each of which has EFS functioning. Which should you perform first?
A. Give the user of the second laptop administrator privileges B. Export the user’s certificate C. Disable networking D. Convert the partition to FAT32 |
Answer: B.
The first thing you should do is export the user’s certificate from the first laptop to the second laptop. This can be done by clicking Start and typing certmgr.msc in the Search box; then locate and export the correct Personal Certificate. The Certificates console window can also be added to an MMC. The Encrypting File System (EFS) is the standard single-file encryption method for Windows 7/ Vista (if the version supports it). Files encrypted with EFS are then displayed as green in color within Windows Explorer. Networking need not be disabled, and we aren’t sure which user is being referred to in the answers, but if the certificate has been exported, that user should be able to read the files. Partitions can be converted from FAT32 to NTFS but not vice versa. |
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59. A technician you work with just finished installing AV software on a PC. What should the technician do next?
A. Update the AV signatures B. Remove infected files C. Run a full scan D. Quarantine infected files |
Answer: A.
The technician should update the antivirus (AV) software immediately after installing it and set it to automatically check for updates every day. If the PC was infected, and the scenario makes no mention of this, the technician should have already removed the system from the network, ran a full scan, and quarantined infected files— in that order. Any other viruses that eluded quarantine would be researched on the AV manufacturer’s website. |
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60. A Windows 7 Ultimate computer using IP address 192.168.1.5 on the network serves the bulk of the data to the rest of the six computers within a HomeGroup. Suddenly, though, neither your computer nor any of the other systems can access that Windows 7 Ultimate computer. Which command would you use on your local computer to find out if the Server service is running on 192.168.1.5 and which ID number is the Server service?
A. netstat –a and < 00 > B. nbtstat –a and < 00 > C. netstat –A and < 20 > D. nbtstat –A and < 20 > E. netstat –A and < 03 > F. nbtstat –A and < 03 > |
Answer: D.
Use the nbtstat –A command. This allows you to check the name table of the remote computer by connecting to it with an IP address. –a connects by computer name (though an IP address can still work if proper resolution methods are available on your network). Note that the options for nbtstat are case sensitive. < 20 > is the number associated with the server service, the service that allows the Windows 7 Ultimate computer (IP address 192.168.1.5) to serve data to other systems on the network. If it was functioning, you would see it listed along with the Workstation service < 00 > and perhaps the Messenger service < 03 >. However, if the server service was not running, you wouldn’t even be able to connect to the Windows 7 Ultimate computer at all— not with nbtstat, by ping, or any other method, until the problem is repaired. That one might have been considered a “doozie”. |
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63. How can you confirm that a new virus definition is authentic?
A. Check the file owner B. Check the creation date C. Check the file version D. Check the hash key |
Answer: D.
Check the hash key of the virus definition you downloaded against the location that you downloaded from. Other properties of the definition (or signature) file (such as the file owner, creation date, and file version) can all be spoofed. The difference is that the hash key is mathematically contrived and must match the key from the download point. |
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64. No matter how many ipconfig/ release and ipconfig/ renew commands you issue, the computer you are troubleshooting can only obtain an APIPA address. What has most likely failed?
A. DNS B. DHCP C. Network switch D. Patch panel |
Answer: B.
If the computer keeps obtaining an APIPA address (an IP address that starts with 169.254), then the DHCP server has most likely failed. Of course, you should check if the computer’s patch cable is connected and that the network adapter has a link light. If so, then you can rule out the network switch and the patch panel. DNS resolves hostnames to IP address and isn’t part of DHCP. |
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65. This type of malware appears to perform desired functions but is actually performing malicious functions behind the scenes.
A. Virus B. Trojan C. Spyware D. Rootkit |
Answer: B.
A Trojan appears to perform desired functions but is actually performing malicious functions behind the scenes. Trojans are used to access a computer through a backdoor and take control of it. They are the bane of web servers as well. Remote Access Trojans (RATs) are used to take control of Windows clients without the users knowing. A virus is code that runs on a computer without the user’s knowledge, infecting files when it is executed. Spyware is malicious software that is unwittingly downloaded and installed. It is usually employed to track the surfing activities of a user. A rootkit is software that is designed to gain administrator-level control over a system. |
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66. One of your customers has a wireless router installed in a home office. The customer complains of issues with signal strength at the opposite end of the house. What is the best option as far as increasing signal strength?
A. Install a wireless repeater at the far end of the house B. Install a second wired router at the far end of the house C. Install a high gain antenna focused toward the office wall D. Run Cat 5e cable to all of the rooms that have poor signal strength |
Answer: A.
Installing a wireless repeater to increase the distance of the wireless network is the easiest and cheapest solution. Of course, you should first ask if the customer would mind moving the wireless access point to the center of the home, thus giving broader and more uniform coverage. Running cable is time-consuming, is expensive for the customer, and can be difficult in some houses. Though a second wired router would work, it is a more expensive solution (plus the cabling) than a simple wireless repeater. Plus, it would have to be configured properly. High-gain antennae are usually used outdoors (or in outer space) for long-distance transmissions. They have too much power to be placed inside a home and are an excessive solution. |
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67. A client is attempting to connect a laptop to a TV using an HDMI connector. The person tells you that video works fine, but audio does not. What is the most likely cause?
A. The laptop needs an HDMI application installed. B. The HDMI cable is too long. C. The speakers are not compatible with the digital connection. D. The HDMI audio service has not been selected. |
Answer: D.
On the laptop, enable the HDMI audio service to send audio signal along the HDMI cable to the TV. On DVRs, HDMI is set to transmit video and audio by default. However, on some laptops, the audio software might be set to HDMI video only by default, expecting you to be doing presentations or other things where audio is not required. You can usually change this by right-clicking the sound icon in the Notification Area, selecting Playback Devices, and then selecting the HDMI sound device. Drivers might also be necessary. There is no maximum specified length of an HDMI cable, and the question does not tell us the length, but standard cables are either 5 meters or 15 meters long. If the laptop has an HDMI output, you should be able to modify it in Windows. If the HDMI output is part of a USB device, PC Card, or ExpressCard, make sure you have installed the latest drivers for the device. The speakers don’t come into play here. If the TV with the HDMI output has speakers, those speakers should work. |
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68. The Device Management utility lists a disk as “Foreign”. What should you do to make the disk usable?
A. Convert the disk to basic B. Convert the disk to dynamic C. Import the disk D. Set the disk to active |
Answer: C.
Foreign disks that are installed in a computer show up in the Disk Management utility as foreign. They need to be imported by right-clicking them and running through the import procedure. No need to convert them from basic to dynamic unless you decide later that you want to create special arrays of disks or expand/ contract the size of partitions. Set a disk to active if it has an OS and you wish to make it bootable. |
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69. How can you reach the System Restore utility in Windows 7? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Start > right-click Computer > Properties > click the System protection link B. Start > right-click Computer > Advanced C. Run > type systempropertiesprotection.exe D. Start > right-click Computer > Properties > click the Advanced system settings link |
Answers: A and C.
The correct navigational path to the System Restore configuration utility in Windows 7 is Start > right-click Computer > Properties > click the System protection link. That displays the System Properties dialog box System Protection tab. But you gotta love the other method: Run > type systempropertiesprotection.exe. Without touching the mouse, you can bring up the same dialog box: Windows + R > type systempropertiesprotection.exe. Fun! Anyway, Start > right-click Computer > Advanced is not a valid path. Start > right-click Computer > Properties > click the Advanced system settings link is valid, but it brings you to the Advanced tab of the System Properties dialog box. |
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71. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Authentication can be something a user knows such as a smart card. B. Authentication can be something a user is such as a fingerprint. C. Authentication can be something a user does such as a PIN or password. D. Authentication can be something a user has such as signature. |
Answer: B.
Authentication can be carried out by utilizing something a user is, such as a fingerprint; something a user knows, such as a password or PIN; something a user has, such as a smart card or token; and something a user does, such as a signature or speaking words. |
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72. You are tasked with accessing a wireless SOHO. The SSID you require does not appear when you scan for wireless networks. What should you do to access the wireless network?
A. Enter the SSID manually B. Change the SSID on the router C. Change the MAC address on the router D. Reset the wireless card. |
Answer: A.
If you can’t find the SSID by scanning for it, enter it manually in your wireless configuration software. You will also need to know the channel being used and the type of encryption as well as the key. If you were to change the SSID on the router, the rest of the clients wouldn’t be able to connect, and you still wouldn’t be able to scan for it because SSID broadcasting has obviously been turned off as a security precaution in the question’s scenario. MAC addresses are burned into the network adapter of the router; they are usually not modified. Resetting the wireless card is rather vague. You could disable it and re-enable it, but you would be left with the same problem. Know how to manually enter a wireless configuration in Windows! |
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73. This is a type of phishing attack that is directed at the CEO of an organization.
A. Power phishing B. Vishing C. Whaling D. Spear phishing |
Answer: C.
Whaling is when phishing attacks are directed at CEOs and other powerful entities in an organization. It is a type of spear phishing— a directed phishing attack. Whereas most phishing attacks are performed via e-mail, vishing is carried out over the phone. |
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75. You are required to implement an organizational policy that states user passwords can’t be used twice in a row. Which policy will you configure?
A. Minimum password length B. Enforce password history C. Minimum password age D. Complexity requirements |
Answer: B.
You should configure the Enforce password history policy and set it to a number higher than zero. This way, when a user is prompted to change her password every 42 days (which is the default minimum password age), that user will not be able to use the same password. Password policies can be accessed in Windows 7 within the Local Security Policy window > Security Settings > Account Policies > Password Policy. Minimum password length is the policy that states how many characters a password must be at minimum. Eight is a decent setting, but to be full-on secure many organizations require 15 minimum. There are several technical reasons for this, but the A + exam will not go into that kind of depth. Complexity requirements policy, if enabled, forces a user to select a password that meets 3 of the following 5 categories: uppercase characters, lowercase characters, numbers, special characters (such as ! or #), and Unicode characters (not often implemented). |
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76. A customer tells you that the computer runs fine for a few minutes but then freezes. What is the most likely cause?
A. CD-ROM drive is faulty. B. Power supply failed. C. Fans are failing. D. Memory is not seated properly. |
Answer: C.
Most likely a fan is failing somewhere— either the CPU fan or a case fan— causing the computer to overheat and then ironically to “freeze” as the customer put it. What the customer meant is that the computer locked up. The CD-ROM won’t cause the system to lock up, but the CD-ROM driver could cause a stop error if it failed. If the power supply failed, the system would turn off; it wouldn’t lock up. If the memory was not seated properly, the system would probably not get past the POST and you would either hear beep codes or see an onscreen message to that effect. |
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77. You have several computers at your workstation. (Of course you do, you are a master tech!) One of them starts making a loud grinding sound immediately when you power on the computer. However, Windows boots and works fine. The only problem is the grinding that sets your teeth on edge. What is the most likely cause?
A. Bad fan B. Bad HD C. Bad power supply D. Bad CD-ROM |
Answer: A.
A bad fan is the most likely cause. The grinding will most likely come from a dirty/ dusty or failing power supply fan or CPU fan. If the hard drive was grinding that badly, you would definitely have problems in Windows. Note: SCSI drives make a grinding sound all the time; it is normal for them. If the power supply was bad, the system wouldn’t boot. The power supply can run without its fan. If the CD-ROM was bad, you wouldn’t be able to listen to the B-52’ s (in the case that you wanted to). |
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79. A user states that the computer monitor is suddenly displaying garbled images and strange colors and leaving cursor trails. The technician determines that the system is using an onboard graphics controller. What is the most likely cause of the display problem?
A. Resolution was set too high. B. Defective RAM. C. Outdated firmware. D. Defective power supply. E. Fragmented hard drive. |
Answer: B.
Defective RAM is the most likely perpetrator in this case. The key in the question is the shared video memory. That means that the video controller relies on the motherboard’s RAM memory modules. First, try cleaning and reseating the RAM, and if that doesn’t work, make sure they are compatible with the motherboard and with each other (if there is more than one). Then replace the RAM as a last resort. If they fail, video will fail. If the resolution was set too high, the screen would be completely unreadable; you probably wouldn’t even see the cursor. |
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81. Which of the following switches skips the process that compares directory entries to the file record segments corresponding to those entries, when running the Chkdsk command?
A. Chkdsk /V B. Chkdsk /F C. Chkdsk /I D. Chkdsk /R |
Answer: C.
Chkdsk /I performs a less vigorous check of index entries. It can be used only on NTFS partitions. /V (short for verbose) displays the full path and name of every file on the disk. /F fixes errors on the disk. /R locates bad sectors and recovers readable information. |
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82. You are working on a computer in which you just installed a new hard drive. The system already runs Windows 7. The new hard drive does not appear in Windows Explorer. What should you perform next so that the drive will be recognized by the operating system?
A. Reboot the computer B. Initialize and format the hard drive in Disk Management C. Configure the drive in the BIOS D. Assign a drive letter to the hard drive in Disk Management E. Set the drive to active |
Answer: B.
When you add a second drive to a system that already has Windows installed, you will probably have to initialize the drive and format it in the Disk Management utility. Rebooting the computer will not help the system see the drive. You can configure the drive in the BIOS to a certain extent, but that won’t help Windows see the drive. When you format the drive, Disk Management will ask you to assign a drive letter. No need to set the drive to active because this drive does not have an OS to be booted to. |
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84. A customer has a computer running Windows 7 Ultimate. The Windows Firewall appears to be causing communications to fail within a certain gaming application even though you set up an exception for the program. You stop the Windows Firewall, but when the computer reboots, the service starts up again. Of the following, which tool should you use to disable the Windows Firewall service?
A. Task Scheduler B. System Configuration C. System Properties D. Local Security Policy |
Answer: B.
Use the System Configuration tool (Msconfig.exe) to disable the service. Do this in the Services tab. BTW, a cute way to open Msconfig is to Press Start and type sys in the search box. Of course, you can also disable services in the Services console window. If you need to stop and disable a service, the Services console window is your best bet. That is because Msconfig can disable them but not stop them (plus a restart is required for most Msconfig actions). And the Task Manager can stop them, but not disable them. As to the incorrect answers: The Task Scheduler is used to set a time when particular applications and processes will run. System Properties is the dialog box where you can change the name of the computer, configure System Restore, and set up Remote Desktop. Local Security Policy is where password and auditing policies can be configured. |
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86. An attacker is constantly trying to hack into one of your customer’s SOHO networks. What is the easiest, most practical way to protect the network from intrusion?
A. Disable the SSID broadcast B. Install an antivirus server application C. Disconnect the Internet connection D. Install a firewall E. Install an IDS |
Answer: D.
The most practical way to prevent intrusion to the network is to install a firewall. In fact, if this is a SOHO network, chances are the network is controlled by a multifunction network device that already acts as a switch and a router and probably has built-in firewall technology; it just has to be enabled. Usually these are enabled by default, but perhaps someone inadvertently disabled it, and that’s one of the reasons an attacker keeps trying to get into the network. An intrusion-detection system (IDS) is usually more elaborate and costs more money, but it would help to prevent network intrusion. (Some devices combine IDS and firewall technologies, but usually not SOHO multifunction network devices.) Disabling the SSID will help to discourage the average user from accessing the wireless network, but any hacker worth his or her salt will get right past that; plus, the attacker could be trying to connect directly through the Internet connection. Antivirus software, regardless of where it is installed, does not repel attackers; it locates and quarantines malware. Disconnecting the Internet connection would work— the hacker wouldn’t be able to get in, but none of the employees would be able to use the Internet. Not a good compromise. |
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87. A CAD/ CAM workstation running AutoCAD is displaying rotating 3D images very slowly. The customer needs the images to rotate quickly and smoothly. What should you upgrade on the computer? (Select the best answer.)
A. CPU B. RAM C. Video card D. Hard drive |
Answer: C.
The video card should be your first stop on the upgrade express train. Images that do not display properly are usually due to a subpar video card. CAD/ CAM workstations require a powerful video card. The CPU will also play into this, especially when rendering images, so that is the second thing you should check. View the Windows Experience Index details to find out what has the lowest score and go from there. The video card will most likely be the lowest. CAD/ CAM workstations often require video cards that can cost thousands of dollars. Always read the directions carefully and set up massive ESD prevention techniques prior to installing a card this expensive. RAM is not as important to the CAD/ CAM workstation, as long as it has enough to run Windows and the AutoCAD software. The hard drive doesn’t play much of a factor while the CAD software is running. 88. Answer: B. You can’t put a PCI Express (PCIe) card in a PCI slot! That’s all there is to it. A card from one expansion bus cannot be used in another. However, if you had a PCIe x1 video card, you could install that to a x1 slot, x4 slot, or x16 slot. |
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92. One of your customers reports that a computer has no access to the network. You look at the switch and notice that all lights are on and not flashing. The network cables are plugged in, and the computer’s network card is functioning properly. What can you do to solve this problem?
A. Ping 127.0.0.1 B. Replace the switch’s uplink cable C. Reboot the computer D. Power cycle the switch |
Answer: D.
Remember to start with the simple. For PCs, that means check the connections; for networks, that means power cycling the device (and checking connections). If the lights are on and not blinking, it would appear that the switch crashed and needs that reboot! A ping of 127.0.0.1 was probably already done in this scenario. That’s how you know the network card appears to be functioning properly. Nothing has been mentioned about the Internet (or other networks), so there is no reason to think that the switch’s uplink cable needs replacement. Rebooting the computer should not be necessary because we again determined that the network card is functioning properly. |
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93. You have a Windows 7 Ultimate computer that you wish to write a batch file for. You want the batch file to turn off the computer after a certain amount of time. Which main command should you utilize in the batch file?
A. Taskkill B. Down C. Kill D. Shutdown |
Answer: D.
Use the shutdown command! It works in the Command Prompt and also works programmatically within batch files (. bat) or beyond. To set a shutdown to occur after a specific time period, use the /t xxx switch. taskkill ends processes from the Command Prompt. down is not a command in Windows, but it has been used by other operating system manufactures to initiate a shutdown. kill is the older Windows NT predecessor to the taskkill command. |
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94. Which switch of the Robocopy command will copy subdirectories but skip empty ones?
A. /E B. /B C. /S D. /DCOPY:T |
Answer: C.
/S will copy subdirectories but will skip any empty ones. /E copies all subdirectories, including empty ones. /B copies files in backup mode. /DCOPY:T also copies timestamps of files and folders. |
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96. You need to list all the network shares for a local computer within the Command Prompt. Which command will do this for you?
A. Net view B. Net use C. Net share D. Net statistics |
Answer: A.
The net view command will list all of the shares on the computer within the Command Prompt. net use enables you to map network drives to remote shares. net share allows you to create shares within the Command Prompt. net statistics displays information about the server or workstation services. |
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97. You are now a manager of a technical services team. One of your technicians notices that a printer is jamming just above the printer tray. What should the technician do first to resolve the issue?
A. Clean the feeder rollers B. Clean the pickup rollers C. Replace the fuser D. Replace the drum |
Answer: B.
The technician should clean the pickup rollers. If they are dirty or oily, they could cause a paper jam directly behind or above the paper tray. The feeder rollers would cause a jam further in the printer. A fuser issue would cause a jam up toward the end of the printing path. The drum (or toner cartridge) will usually not cause a paper jam, but in the rare case, simply replace the toner cartridge. |
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You need to find out which ports are open in the Windows Firewall on a Windows XP computer. Which of the following will allow you to show the configuration?
A. arp –a B. netsh firewall show logging C. netsh firewall show state D. ipconfig /all |
Answer: C.
netsh firewall show state is a command that can be run in the Command Prompt that will display any currently open ports. The successor to netsh firewall in Windows 7/ Vista is netsh advfirewall firewall. Other commands can also show open ports such as netstat –a. However, arp– a will show a table of hosts that the local computer has connected to in recent history; it displays the IP address and MAC address of those remote computers. netsh firewall show logging will display the location of the firewall log, its maximum file size, and whether any packets were dropped. ipconfig /all displays the configuration of your network adapters. |
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100. You have some DLLs and ActiveX controls that need to be troubleshot. Which command can manipulate these?
A. Regedit B. Regsvr32 C. ODBC32 D. Regedt32 |
Answer: B.
The Regsvr32 command in the Command Prompt is used to manipulate ActiveX controls and DLLs. For example, to register a sample ActiveX control, you would type regsvr32 sample.ocx. Unregistering requires the /u parameter. This leans more toward the programming side of things, but you should know what the command does. Regedit.exe and Regedt32 bring up the Registry Editor application in Windows 7/ Vista. ODBC is short for Open DataBase Connectivity; it is an interface used within the C programming language to access database management systems. ODBC32 is not a command in Windows. |
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What does USB stand for
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Universal Serial Bus
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What is a 15 pin DB connector used for
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VGA for computer monitor
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What are serial ports used for?
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Mice, external modems, peas, cameras, printers, ect
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What the transfer rate of a serial port?
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Transfer rate is 115 Kbps
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What does DVI stand for?
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Digital Visual Interface
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A DVI port is it Digital or Analog
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Analog
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What can SCSI be used for?
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It can be used for hard disks but it can also be used for printers and other devices.
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How many pins does a serial port have?
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It can have either 9 pins or 25 pins
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What kind of Port is DVI-D and how many pins does it have
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Digital with 18 pins
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What does TFT stand for
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Thin Film Transistors
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What is a Dual Link DVI?
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A DVI cable that supports higher resolutions
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How many pins does the Dual Link DVI connector have?
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24 pins
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USB 1.1 (USB 2.0 low speed) has transfer data speeds of?
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1.2 to 12 Mbps
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Hi-Speed USB 2.0 has a transfer rate of?
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Up to 480 Mbps
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What does EPP stand for?
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Enhanced Parallel Port
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USB 3.0 has a transfer rate of?
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5 Gbps
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What is another name for IEEE 1394?
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FireWire
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What is the data transfer speed for SCSI?
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5 to 80 Mbps and up to 320 Mbps (Ultra 320 port)
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How many pins does a SCSI Ultra 320 port have?
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68 pins female
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What is the maximum resolution for a Display port
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2500x1600
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How many pins does a Mini-Firewire have?
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4 pins
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What is the serial 1 address?
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3F8 IRQ 4 (COM1)
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What is the serial port 2 address?
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2F8 IRQ 3 (COM2)
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How many wires does a RJ-45 port have?
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8
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What is a line interactive UPS
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It is a unit that can withstand alternating current sags and surge without power like a offline /standby UPS
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What does the chipset in a MOBO DO?
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it determines the models of the processors it can use and the kind of internal /external hardware it can use.
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What are some of the major chipset brand manufacturers?
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Nvidia, AMD, and Intel
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In newer motherboards what is the purpose of the Northbridge?
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To only communicate with the video card (SLI and the Southbridge since newer CPUs have an integrated memory (ram) controller.
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What does Intel call the Northbridge
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Memory Controller Hub (MCH)
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What does Intel call the Southbridge?
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I/O controller Hub (ICH)
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What does Intel call the Northbridge and Southbridge after they released their x58 express Chipset?
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North- I/O Controller Hub (ICH)
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What does Intel call the Southbridge?
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I/O controller Hub (ICH)
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What is the purpose of the Super I/O chip in a MOBO.
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To replace some of the duties the Southbridge use to handle. Such as floppy drives, serial ports, parallel ports, keyboard, mouse
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What is Intel's P55 Express Chipset?
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It is a Chipset without a memory controller and no video card controller. Both have been incorporated into the processor supported by the P55 Chipset?
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What is the Voltage for a yellow cable on your multimeter.
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12V yellow cable with the use of your red lead. The black lead is attach to your case
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What color wire is your orange cable that is on your power supply.
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When you test the orange cable with the red lead of your multimeter (DC V) you should get 3.3V and the black lead should be place on your case.
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How much voltage will you get from your red power supply cable.
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When you use the red lead from your multimeter you should get 5v and the black lead goes on the case.
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When you check the continuity in three places how should you do it.
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You should drag the black lead to a connector on the red wire, then drag the red lead to the other side of the red cable. You should do the same to the Blue and Green wire.
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What is the order of the printer process. 7 steps process
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1. Processing: Converts page data into point image.
2. Charging: Applies - 600 volts to drum. 3. Exposing: Writes image to drum; is 100 volts. 4. Developing: Toner is transferred to image. 5. Toner transferred to positively charge paper. 6. Fusing: Cleans toner from drum, leaves drum with natural charge. |
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A user is having trouble connecting to the Internet. Which of the following commands should a technician use, from the user's workstation, to ensure that the workstation has a valid IP address?
A. NETSTAT B. PING C. IPCONFIG D. TRACERT |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following commands would a technician use to move one directory above or below the one the technician is currently in?
A. DIR B. RD C. CD D. MD |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician believes a machine loaded with Windows XP Professional has issues with file integrity of the core OS components. Which of the following commands could be used to both check and replace damaged files?
A. SFC /SCANNOW B. CHKDSK /R /F C. FORMAT C: D. DISKPART |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician is tasked with building three systems that are capable of utilizing the new Windows HomeGroup functionality. Which of the following versions of Windows would need to be used?
A. Windows 7 or Windows Vista B. Windows Vista only C. Windows XP Professional x64 Edition D. Windows 7 only |
Correct Answer is D
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Which of the following security threats does NOT use software to extract sensitive information or credentials?
A. Grayware B. Shoulder surfing C. Malware D. Man-in-the-Middle exploits |
Correct Answer is B
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A user is reporting that their screen is flickering at a rapid rate. Which of the following Control Panel paths should a technician use in order to remedy this issue?
A. Display -> Settings -> Advanced -> General -> DPI B. Display -> Settings -> Resolution C. Display -> Settings -> Advanced -> Adapter -> Refresh D. Display -> Appearance -> Effects -> Transition |
The correct answer is C
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A user has a laptop that they need to get ready for an outdoor presentation. The user is concerned that the laptop will turn off the screen or go into standby before their presentation is complete. Which of the following Control Panel paths should the technician use in order to prevent this from occurring?
A. System -> Hardware B. Power Options -> Power Schemes C. System -> Advanced -> Performance D. Power Options -> Hibernate |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following data transfers will retain the current NTFS permissions of a file?
A. Copying the file to a different location on the same volume B. Copying the file to a different location on a different volume C. Moving the file to a different location on a different volume D. Moving the file to a different location on the same volume |
Correct Answer is D
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A user's computer keeps producing a "low virtual memory" alert and the speed of the system degrades afterwards. Which of the following Control Panel locations can provide information to review and correct this issue?
A. System > Remote B. System > Hardware C. System > System Restore D. System > Advanced |
Correct Answer is D
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A user states their workstation will not reach the login screen. Which of the following commands can be used to write a new partition boot sector to the system partition in the Recovery Console?
A. FIXMBR B. BOOTCFG C. FIXBOOT D. DISKPART |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following Control Panel items will allow for easy streaming of pictures, music, and videos to other Windows 7 PCs?
A. Ease of Access Center B. AutoPlay C. Sync Center D. HomeGroup |
Correct Answer is D
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The folder "Documents" is shared. The user can create and delete documents when on the local PC, but can only read documents when accessing them remotely. Which of the following should be adjusted?
A. Read Only Attribute B. Share Permissions C. Firewall Settings D. NTFS Permissions |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following security controls would be an example of the least privilege principle on a home PC?
A. Install antispyware on the PC. B. Create a standard user account for kids. C. Store all financial data in a separate folder. D. Disable the firewall for online gaming. |
Correct Answer is B
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A user is installing Windows 7 on a PC with a RAID card. The user has verified all of the cables are connected correctly, but the installation media does not detect any hard drives. Which of the following should the user do to help detect the hard drives?
A. Press F8 when prompted B. Hit the refresh button to force a re-detect C. Enable PATA in the BIOS D. Select load driver |
Correct Answer is D
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For any given 802.11n wireless Internet signal, which of the following is needed to establish a connection?
A. MAC address filtering B. Windows password C. Proper SSID D. SSL certificate |
Correct Answer is C
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A user reports that a file they shared out on their computer for another network user is not accessible to the third party. The user insists they specifically gave this third party Allow rights for Read and Write access. Which of the following could explain the problem at hand?
A. The parent folder has explicit Allow rights set for this user. B. The parent folder has explicit Deny rights set for this user. C. The user forgot to share the parent folder and only shared the specific file. D. The parent folder likely has the "archive" attribute enabled. |
Correct Answer is B |
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A consultant is looking to consolidate six company servers onto one physical system. Which of the following requirements is MOST important on the new setup to ensure stable functionality of the virtual environment?
A. Client hardware requirements B. Server software security requirements C. Server hardware resources D. Network resources |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following security concepts establishes the notion that a user should only be given sufficient access to the resources they need to perform their job function?
A. Deny all B. Allow all C. Most privilege D. Least privilege |
Correct Answer is D
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A technician is trying to diagnose a laptop that is experiencing heavy artifact corruption and random loss of video during operation. Which of the following are MOST likely causes of this problem? (Select TWO).
A. Integrated system video chip is failing and/ or near death. B. Video drivers were not installed directly from Microsoft update. C. Incompatible or untested video drivers have been installed. D. The BIOS is not set for the proper operation temperature of the video chipset. E. The BIOS is underclocking the video card's operating speed. |
Correct Answer is C
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A user reports that every time they use a search engine and click on a link to go to a website, they instead are taken to a site blocked by their company's content filter. The user is not trying to go to the blocked site and needs to be able to successfully use the search engine to complete their assignment. Which of the following tools would a technician use to BEST resolve this issue?
A. Anti-malware software B. Factory pre-installation C. System restore D. Recovery Console |
Correct Answer is A
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After being infected with a virus, a user's computer does not recognize the user as having local administrator rights to the computer. After troubleshooting the issue, a technician determines the computer needs to be rebuilt and data needs to be restored from the user's backup. Which of the following tools would BEST reset the computer to how it worked when first purchased?
A. Recovery Console B. Factory restore CD C. Anti-malware software D. System Restore |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician installed a second hard drive in a computer. Upon restart, a message appears stating. "primary drive 0 not found. Press F1 to continue." Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A. That NTLDR and boot.ini are not missing B. Proper drive installation (e.g. cables/ jumpers) C. If computer can boot into safe mode D. If the BIOS boot settings are correct |
Correct answer is B
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The shared folder named C $ is an example of which of the following? A. Local share B. Permission propagation C. Inheritance D. Administrative share |
The correct answer is D |
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A pest exterminator tries to gain access to a company's computer lab, but the receptionist does not see an extermination scheduled on the calendar and denies the exterminator access to the lab. Which of the following security threats almost occurred?
A. War driving B. Social engineering C. Shoulder surfing D. Phishing Correct Answer: B |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following is the BEST tool to verify the cable is plugged into the correct port on the patch panel?
A. Cable certifier B. Punch down C. Toner probe D. Cable tester |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following is the BEST tool for a technician to use to make sure the network wires are securely fastened in a wall jack?
A. Crimper B. Small flat screwdriver C. Wire strippers D. Punch down |
Correct Answer is D
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A technician is using the troubleshooting theory to help resolve a problem that is occurring with a client's machine. The technician has verified system functionally. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting theory?
A. Identify the problem B. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem C. Test the theory to determine cause D. Document findings, actions, and outcomes |
Correct Answer is D
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A client reports that their VoIP phone screen displays duplicate IP address. Which of the following is the FIRST action to try to resolve this problem?
A. Change MAC address settings B. Call the vendor C. Try another LAN connection D. Reboot the phone |
Correct Answer is D
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After an installation of a video adapter, the screen on a Windows 7 system cannot be seen. Which of the following Windows 7 functions will resolve this? A. Component Management B. Startup Repair C. Device Manager D. Task Manage |
Correct Answer is B |
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Which of the following resources is MOST important for accessing remote virtual environments on a client machine?
A. Network speed B. CPU speed C. High speed memory D. Drive space |
Correct Answer is A |
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A computer program that functions normally while quietly installing malicious software on a machine is known as a: A. DDoS attack. B. Worm. C. Phishing attack. D. Trojan.
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Correct Answer is D
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A user sent an email requesting that a technician check if a computer is on and connected to the Internet so the user can login from home. Which of the following commands in the command prompt would a technician use to verify if the computer is on and connected without having to go to the computer?
A. NSLOOKUP B. NETSTAT C. PING D. IPCONFIG |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician gets a call from a customer stating that their computer will not boot. They are getting the following error "invalid system disk". Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A. Verify the operating system is installed correctly. B. Verify that all removable drives are empty. C. Verify Boot.ini is on the hard drive. D. Verify the computer will boot into safe mode. Correct Answer: B |
Correct Answer: B
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Since the release of the P55 Express Chipset there is no need for a Northbridge, what is Southbridge called?
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Platform Controller Hub (PCH)
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What does IEC320 connector refer to?
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Power connector for the back of a power supply
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What does AC adapter do?
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It convert AC voltage to DC voltage?
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Turnstiles and other mantraps will prevent which of the following security threats? A. Shoulder surfing B. Tailgating C. Rootkits D. Viruses |
Correct Answer is B
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The practice of following an authorized person through an entrance without using a badge to defeat security is called:
A. tailgating. B. spamming. C. shredding. D. phishing. |
Correct Answer is A
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An IR printer stops working for half of an office while the other half is able to print. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?
A. Proper lighting B. Paper levels C. Physical obstructions D. Printer share name |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of primary partitions that can be created on a hard drive with FAT32?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
Correct Answer is B
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Phishing is:
A. an infection that causes a web browser to go to a different site than the one intended from a search result page. B. a technique used to obtain financial information from a user mimicking a legitimate website. C. an infection that causes a computer to behave erratically by playing music and launching browser windows. D. a technique used to obtain financial information from a user by compiling information from social networks and their friends. |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician recently installed a new video card in a PC. The PC already has integrated video on the motherboard. When the technician turns on the PC, there is no video. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. The motherboard BIOS version is out of date. B. The incorrect video card drivers are installed. C. The power connector for the video card is unplugged. D. The video card is unsupported by the motherboard. |
Correct Answer is C
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A user has just purchased a wireless router for their home. Which of the following should be done to BEST secure the router from unauthorized access? (SelectTWO).
A. Change router default logins B. Change the security settings on their computer C. Set encryption on the router D. Update router firmware E. Change the encryption on the computer's wireless adapter |
Correct Answer is A, C
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A user's CRT display is not displaying colors correctly. Turning the display to the right or left sometimes temporarily corrects the problem. Which of the following should the technician check?
A. The video card display driver B. The CRT power cable C. The video cable D. The CRT On Screen Display (OSD) |
Correct Answer is C
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A laser printer is producing completely blank sheets. Which of the following processes should the technician check FIRST?
A. Fusing B. Paper handling C. Transfer D. Development Correct Answer: D |
Correct Answer is D
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A user is experiencing slow performance with their computer. A technician suspects the computer has a virus and runs antivirus software. A virus is found and removed, but the performance issue is not resolved. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes B. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem C. Re-establish a new theory or escalate D. Implement preventative measures |
Correct Answer is C
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After installing a new multifunctional printer, an administrator realizes the flatbed scanner does not scan any documents. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason of the issue?
A. The scanner lock switch on the device is locked. B. The printer driver was installed incorrectly. C. The multifunction printer's USB cable was plugged into the incorrect port. Which D. The scanner's alignment and calibration was not performed. |
Correct Answer is A
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A customer is not able to connect to any websites. Which of the following commands should a technician run FIRST to identify the issue?
A. NETSTAT B. NET SHOW C. IPCONFIG D. TRACERT |
Correct Answer is C
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A client has a computer that is infected with several viruses and spyware. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST before spyware removal?
A. Run Windows Update B. Disable system restore C. Run the chkdsk /r command D. Disable network cards |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following switches should a technician use with the PING command to resolve an IP address to a hostname?
A. -a B. -f C. -n D. -t |
Correct Answer is A
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Which of the following commands is used to map a network drive?
A. NBTSTAT B. NET USE C. NETMAP D. NETSTAT |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician recently setup a new wired network and wants to ensure only their computers can use it. Which of the following is the MOST secure way to accomplish this?
A. Make sure the computers are using strong passwords. B. Enable an intrusion detection system. C. Assign the computers static IP addresses. D. Disable the extra ports on the router. |
Correct Answer is D
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Which of the following would be the BEST format for optical media? A. FAT32 B. EXT3 C. CDFS D. NTFS Correct |
Correct Answer is C |
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After updating the device drivers for a video adapter, a user reports they are only able to view a portion of the screen and the text is very large. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. Refresh rate set too low B. Refresh rate set too high C. Resolution set too low D. Resolution set too high |
Correct Answer is C
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After connecting a laptop to an external monitor, no display is detected and the monitor goes into sleep mode. Which of the following should be attempted FIRST to correct the problem? (Select TWO).
A. Change the input mode on the monitor B. Reboot the operating system C. Reload the display adapter drivers D. Toggle the display using the keyboard shortcut E. Verify network connectivity |
Correct Answer is A, D
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Which of the following can enable a technician to remove a virus that prevents users from updating their antivirus software?
A. Recovery console B. REGEDIT C. Safe mode D. MSCONFIG |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician notices that a computer is making a loud clicking noise but continues to run. System speed is barely affected, but they cannot access certain drives. These are the symptoms of which of the following?
A. Failing second hard drive B. Failing system hard drive C. Bad CMOS chip D. Bad CPU fan |
Correct Answer is S
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A user's laptop has died but the hard drive is still functioning. Which of the following is the BEST way for the user to still access and edit all of their data?
A. Burn their data to DVDs B. Use a SCSI to USB adaptor C. USB hard drive enclosure D. Copy their data to a USB flash drive |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician is tasked with upgrading a network card on a Windows 7 Professional PC. The technician installs the network card, loads Windows XP drivers that came with the network card, and reboots the PC. Upon rebooting, the computer blue screens and the technician cannot get the computer to boot up properly. Which of the following should the technician perform to resolve this issue without any data loss? (Select TWO).
A. Remove network drivers B. Install Windows XP Service Pack 3 C. Reinstall Windows 7 Professional D. Install Windows 7 Service Pack 1 E. Boot up in safe mode |
Correct Answer is A, E
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In which of the following operating systems does Windows XP mode come as a free download to be used for application compatibility?
A. Windows 7 Starter B. Windows 7 Professional C. Windows Vista Business D. Windows 7 Home Premium |
Correct Answer is B
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An audio visual company has decided that they want to migrate from Windows XP Professional SP2. The company has a domain network. A technician is tasked with selecting an operating system. Which of the following should the technician select?
A. Windows 7 Home Premium B. Windows Vista Home Premium C. Windows 7 Professional D. Windows XP Media Center |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician is installing and configuring a SOHO wireless network for a client. The client only wants five authorized computers to connect to the network with a defined IP range. Which of the following should the technician configure on the router? (Select TWO).
A. DMZ B. DHCP C. ARP D. SSID E. MAC filtering |
Correct Answer is B, E |
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A user calls the helpdesk and states that they are receiving an IP conflict error on their computer. The user is on a company network that uses DHCP. The technician verified the PC is using DHCP to obtain TCP/ IP settings. Which of the following commands should the helpdesk technician use to resolve this issue? (Select TWO).
A. Ipconfig /renew B. Ipconfig /registerdns C. Ipconfig /all D. Ipconfig /flushdns E. Ipconfig /release Correct |
Correct Answer is A, E
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A user calls the helpdesk and states that they suddenly cannot connect to the Internet or any other network resources. The user is on a company network that uses DHCP. The technician runs IPCONFIG from the command prompt and the PC has an IP address of 0.0.0.0. Which of the following steps should the technician perform FIRST to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check the network cable B. Replace network card C. Assign a static IP address D. Reinstall the latest service pack |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician is diagnosing a PC running Windows 7 which has been affected with an "NTLDR is missing" error message. Which of the following command line tools would BEST resolve the problem?
A. Fixboot B. CHKDSK C. Scandisk D. DEFRAG |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician is repairing a workstation that exhibits random reboots at odd times of the day. Which of the following should be performed FIRST when troubleshooting the issue? (Select TWO).
A. Check the PSU integrity B. Check the CMOS battery C. Check the video card integrity D. Check the memory integrity E. Check the optical drive integrity |
Correct Answer is A, D
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A technician is troubleshooting a PC that is not completing POST and merely provides an audible beep code. Which of the following should be the FIRST item checked?
A. The type of IDE cable used for the hard drive B. The CMOS battery charge C. The amount of available power to the hard drive D. The memory configuration |
Correct Answer is D
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A user states that their old notebook loses connectivity to the Internet several times a day at work and at home. The issue started after the wireless card was replaced. Which of the following items is MOST likely causing the issue?
A. The motherboard drivers are not current. B. The drivers for the NIC need to be updated. C. The wireless on/ off switch is not in the on position. D. The keyboard is faulty and turns the wireless NICon and off. Correct Answer: B |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following commands may need to be run after a virus removal if the computer will not boot?
A. SCANDSK B.DXDIAG C.FIXMBR D. MSCONFIG |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician would like to map a network drive. Which of the following indicates the correct path for mapping a network drive?
A. \\ share\ servername B. \\ username\ servername C. \\ password\ share D. \\ servername\ share |
Correct Answer is D
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A wireless network is experiencing intermittent connectivity. Which of the following would BEST resolve this issue?
A. Enable MAC filtering B. Change broadcast channel C. Enable wireless encryption D. Disable SSID broadcasting |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician needs to rebuild a computer that had a virus. Which of the following data destruction methods should be used to ensure the virus has been successfully erased before reinstalling the operating system, programs, and all user data?
A. Standard format B. Low level format C. Shredder D. Degaussing tool |
Correct Answer is A
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A user states when they press certain letters on their laptop's keyboard, a number is displayed on the screen. Which of the following can the technician perform to resolve this issue?
A. Change the character mapping B. Turn off number lock C. Replace the keyboard D. Update the keyboard drivers |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following is the correct path to determine the IP address on an iOS device?
A. General > Settings > Wi-Fi > SSID Name > Network > IP address B. Wi-Fi > SSID Name > Network > IP address C. Settings > General > Network > Wi-Fi > SSID Name > IP address D. Location Services > Settings > Wi-Fi > SSID Name > Network > IP address. |
Correct Answer is C |
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A customer purchases a new 802.11n router for their home. They connect it to their current 801.11g devices, as well as their new laptop. Even though the laptop has a built-in 802.11n antenna, they are not noticing any speed increase. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The laptop is not close enough to the router. B. The router should be set to "G-Only". C. The router is broadcasting in Mixed Mode. D. The laptop needs a dedicated access point. |
Correct Answer is C
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A customer states their laptop screen is very dim. In order to avoid going to the client site, which of the following is the FIRST action the customer should perform?
A. Increase the resolution B. Use function keys C. Reboot the laptop D. Go to the Power Options in Control Panel |
Correct Answer is B
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A customer says they cannot access the network printer. The technician cannot PING the printer from their location. Which of the following should be the NEXT step in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Check the toner cartridge B. Reboot client PC C. Check the link lights on printer NIC D. Reboot the printer |
Correct Answer is C
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From which of the following tools can a technician locate the PID of an application
A. Local Security Policy B. MSCONFIG C. Computer Management D. Task Manager |
Correct Answer is D
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A technician has a computer locked in a cabinet in the office that shares a printer and some files. The computer must remain on. Which of the following Control Panel options would be used to control the users that are able to shut the computer down?
A. Power options B. Security center C. Local security policy D. System |
Correct Answer is C |
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A customer states that another technician just removed some viruses and now they are not able to connect to websites such as Windows Update, but are able to connect to others. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. NIC driver is damaged B. Not all viruses have been fixed C. Internet Explorer cache is full D. Host file has been manipulated |
Correct Answer is D
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A user has setup a SOHO and needs to implement a network configuration that allows for sharing of devices and files across the network without the complexity of a centralized server. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate?
A. PAN B. WorkGroup C. Domain D. WAN |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following supports IP telephony devices without requiring external power?
A.VPN B. PoE C. QoS D. WEP |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following supports IP telephony devices without requiring external power?
A.VPN B. PoE C. QoS D. WEP |
Correct Answer is B
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A customer wants to use VoIP phones without having to plug them into an electrical outlet. Which of the following switch features would a technician recommend?
A. QoS B. Gigabit C. PoE D. Wake-on-LAN |
Correct Answer is C
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A customer reports that after a technician cleaned up a rogue antivirus program, the customer cannot browse the web. Which of the following should the technician check to resolve the situation?
A. Browsing history B. Firewall settings C. User privileges D. Proxy settings |
Correct Answer is D
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A customer reports that after a technician cleaned up a rogue antivirus program, the customer cannot browse the web. Which of the following should the technician check to resolve the situation?
A. Browsing history B. Firewall settings C. User privileges D. Proxy settings |
Correct Answer is D
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Browser redirection is caused by which of the following types of viruses?
A. Hijack B. Trojan C. Worm D. Keylogger |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician receives an error every time a workstation boots up. The technician needs to find out what process is responsible for the error. Which of the following utilities would be used FIRST?
A. System Control Panel B. Task Manager C. Event Viewer D. MSCONFIG |
Correct Answer is C
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be used to connect CAT5e cabling to a patch panel?
A. Punch down B. Wire strippers C. Loopback plugs D. Crimper |
Correct Answer is A
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A user has a perimeter firewall and up-to-date antivirus software. The user is asking what else they can do to improve their security. Which of the following will have the MOST impact on network security? (SelectTWO).
A. Install additional antivirus software B. Disable screen savers C. Conduct a daily security audit D. Assign security rights based on job roles E. Use strong passwords |
Correct Answer is D, E
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A user states that when they power on their computer, they receive a "Non-bootable drive" error. The user works with external storage devices to transport data to their computer. The user stated that the computer worked fine the day before. Which of the following should be checked FIRST to resolve this issue?
A. Jumper settings B. Device boot order C. PXE boot settings D. Hard drive cable |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician is trying to troubleshoot an issue on a Windows 7 computer remotely, but is unable to PING the computer. The technician verified that the computer is turned on, has network connectivity, and can get to the Internet. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. The technician does not have permissions B. Local security policy settings is incorrect C. Wake-on-LAN is disabled D. Windows firewall |
Correct Answer is D
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A technician is tasked with changing the account lockout threshold to 30 minutes in Windows 7. Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this task?
A. User Access Control B. Windows Security Center C. Local Security Policy D. Users and Groups |
Correct Answer is C |
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A technician needs to change the minimum password length to 8 characters to make it more secure. Which of the following system settings should the technician configure?
A. Windows Firewall B. Windows Security Center C. Local Security Policy D. System Configuration |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician is creating an image that will be used to deploy Windows 7 to 100 PCs. Which of the following tools should be used to accomplish this?
A. SYSPREP B. Windows 7 Advisor C. CHKDSK D. DISKPART |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician notices a computer is overheating after 30 minutes of use. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. Clogged temporary file folders B. Internal dust buildup C. Incorrect input voltage setting D. ACPI is disabled |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician is having boot issues with a newly built PC, and notices the following jumper configurations for each PATA device: HARD DRIVE. MASTER. OPTICAL DRIVE. CABLE SELECT Which of the following jumper configurations should be used instead?
A. HDD.Cable Select; Optical DrivE.Master B. HDD.Cable Select; Optical DrivE.Cable Select C. HDD.Slave; Optical DrivE.Slave D. HDD.Master; Optical DrivE.Master |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician troubleshoots a broken PC only to find that a strong burning odor is coming from inside the case. Which of the following parts MOST likely experienced a level of electrical burn?
A. PSU B. Processor C. CMOS battery D. Hard drive |
Correct Answer is A
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A computer is showing the "No boot device found" message even though a technician has verified that the hard drive is set as Device 1 in the BIOS boot order. Which of the following causes is MOST likely at play? A.
A 40-pin cable was used instead of an 80-pin cable to connect the HDD. B. The hard drive is disconnected. C. The hard drive has corrupted sectors and needs a CHKDSK scan. D. Both PATA devices are incorrectly set to the master jumper setting. |
Correct Answer is D
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A technician is troubleshooting a RAID 6 array on a high end CAD/ CAM workstation. Two disk drives have their fault lights on. Which of the following is the BEST action for the technician to perform when fixing this problem?
A. Replace the failed drives and verify the RAID rebuilds completely. B. Reseat the drives, backup the data, and then replace them. C. Reseat the drives and monitor the RAID status over a few days. D. Replace the failed drives and restore the data from a known good backup. |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician is called in to troubleshoot a four disk RAID 10 array on a high end Windows 7 Enterprise workstation. One drive has failed. Which of the following should the technician do to fix the problem?
A. Reseat the drive and verify the RAID array is healthy B. Replace the failed drive and verify the RAID is healthy. C. Replace the failed drive and restore the data. D. Add a fifth drive and make it a spare. |
Correct Answer is B
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A user states their Windows XP desktop PC fails to boot to the Windows logo. Which of the following tools could a technician use to help diagnose if there is a pre-boot failure?
A. Multimeter B. POST card C. Power supply tester D. BIOS flash |
Correct Answer is B |
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A user states their Windows XP desktop PC fails to boot to the Windows logo. Which of the following tools could a technician use to help diagnose if there is a pre-boot failure?
A. Multimeter B. POST card C. Power supply tester D. BIOS flash |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician would like to limit computer access to certain users. Which of the following should be configured?
A. Advanced security B. Boot.ini file C. System configuration D. Local security policy |
Correct Answer is D
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A user's computer will not boot. A technician notices four indicator lights on the backside of the computer. Two of the lights are green, and two are amber. Which of the following documentation should the technician read to determine what the lights are indicating?
A. Network diagram B. Computer manual C. Asset management D. Wiring scheme |
Correct Answer is B
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A user's computer will not boot. A technician notices four indicator lights on the backside of the computer. Two of the lights are green, and two are amber. Which of the following documentation should the technician read to determine what the lights are indicating?
A. Network diagram B. Computer manual C. Asset management D. Wiring scheme |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following options is MOST likely active on a network of three workstations, running Windows 7 Home Edition x64 to enable File and Print sharing?
A. HomeGroup B. Active Directory C. WorkGroup D. Domain Setup |
Correct Answer is A |
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A technician is reconfiguring an email account for off-line mode. Which of the following will describe the expected time of account synchronization with the email server?
A. It will depend on the SMTP settings of the email server. B. It will depend on the time when the account was last synchronized. C. It will depend on the POP settings of the email server. D. There is no off-line mode for email. |
Correct Answer is B |
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An entry level network analyst calls and is not sure which Windows OS features to use to check for users who are currently logged on. Which of the following features would BEST assist this analyst?
A. Task Manager B. MSCONFIG C. Disk Management D. Administrative Tools |
Correct Answer is A
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Which of the following common security threats could be occurring when a user calls and requests his co- worker's password?
A. Shoulder surfing B. Spyware C. Phishing D. Social engineering |
Correct Answer is D
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A technician has a client's laptop that is randomly shutting down. Which of the following is the FIRST step of the troubleshooting theory that the technician will perform to resolve the laptop's issue?
A. Document finding, actions, and outcomes B. Identify the problem C. Establish a theory D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem |
Correct Answer is B
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An alert needs to be sent to the administrator when the CPU stays above 90% for a period of time. Which of the following tools would BEST be used to accomplish this?
A. Performance Monitor B. Task Scheduler C. Task Manager D. System Configuration |
Correct Answer is A
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Which of the following Control Panel utilities would be BEST to use to remove a Windows 7 application?
A. Folder Options B. Add/ Remove Programs C. Programs and Features D. Administrator Tools |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following utilities will display a listing of active IP ports on the computer being tested?
A. NETSTAT B. PING C. IPCONFIG D. TRACERT |
Correct Answer is A
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Which of the following commands may be used on a computer running Windows 7 to stop a single process from the command line?
A. ERASE B. KILL C. SHUTDOWN D. DEL |
Correct Answer is B
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New smart phones have features that allow them to be backed up to a remote location. Of which of the following is this an example?
A. Desktop Manager B. iOS C. iCloud D. App Market |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following is the BEST definition of what an accelerometer does?
A. Prolongs battery life B. Calculates the rotation of a device C. Measures velocity in a given direction D. Makes the device run with more speed |
Correct Answer is C |
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Which of the following are examples of physical security? (Select TWO).
A. Badges B. Anti-virus C. Encryption D. Firewalls E. Locked doors |
Correct Answer is A, E |
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Which of the following scenarios BEST defines phishing?
A. A user receives an email from a friend to download a picture but the file format ends in .exe. B. A user receives a pop-up message about a virus from a company that states that if they buy this product it will remove the virus. C. A user receives a message about unwanted activity from their antivirus asking to remove the suspect file. D. A user receives an email from a person in another country with a story as to why they need help with a financial arrangement. |
Correct Answer is D |
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Which of the following commands would a technician use to map a network share?
A. NET B. NSLOOKUP C. IPCONFIG D. COPY |
Correct Answer is A
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A user is reporting their web browser is not going to the site they are attempting to access. Which of the following would BEST resolve this?
A. Delete all Internet cookies. B. Ensure the user is not utilizing a proxy server. C. Remove all Internet shortcuts. D. Clear all Internet cache and saved passwords. |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician is called onsite to solve a network connection error. Upon arrival, the technician observes a message on the screen stating there is no boot drive found. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?
A. Repair the boot up sequence using recovery console. B. Restart the system, booting from a system recovery disk. C. Restart the system to verify the proper boot sequence. D. Inform the customer the hard drive has crashed and replace the drive. |
Correct Answer is C
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A user has installed a new wireless router and is unable to connect their game console to the manufacturer's service. Which of the following should the technician look for FIRST?
A. Ensure the game system has a static IP address. B. Contact the manufacturer to see if service is available. C. Ensure the game system has updated firmware. D. Ensure the correct ports are open. |
Correct Answer is D |
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A technician needs to use Remote Desktop Connection in order to get access to a remote Windows workstation. However, the Programs menu has been hidden and they only have access to the Run command utility or a command-line prompt. Which of the following is the utility that the technician should use to access Remote Desktop Connection?
A. MSINFO32 B. SERVICES.MSC C. MSCONFIG D. MSTSC |
Correct Answer is D
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A user reports that they cleared a paper jam and now cannot print. The technician reseats the paper and then prints a test page from the printer. A test page sent from the workstation does not print. Which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST?
A. Clear the print queue. B. Check the printer connection. C. Reboot the computer. D. Stop and start the printer. |
Correct Answer is A
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A workstation is making a loud clicking noise that is originating from the hard drive and it is not booting. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Visit the hard disk vendor's site and run a hardware check on the drive. B. Put the hard drive in another system and back up all data from it. C. Run CHKDSK immediately and replace the drive if it is bad. D. Format the drive and restore from a previous image. |
Correct Answer is B
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A user reports that their PC does not work. Which of the following would be the BEST question for the technician to ask the user to get further information?
A. "Can you get to the Internet?" B. "What exactly does not work?" C. "Does the PC turn on?" D. "Are you able to sign on?" |
Correct Answer is B
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QUESTION 205 A technician is working on an issue and has identified the problem and worked out the cause. Which of the following would MOST likely be the NEXT step the technician should make?
A. Document the cause and solution B. Inform the user C. Report to the supervisor D. Establish a plan of action |
Correct Answer is D |
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Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual machine hosted on a PC?
A. Reduces the training required for employees. B. Reduces the amount of physical hardware required. C. Reduces the amount of CPU required on the host PC . D. Reduces the amount of RAM required on the host PC . |
Correct Answer is B
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A user gets a warning from their ISP about illegally downloading copyrighted movies. The user insists that they did not download any movies and calls a technician to implement stronger small office home office (SOHO) security. Which of the following will allow only known workstations to connect to the SOHO router?
A.WPA password B. Static IPs C. MAC filtering D. WEP password |
Correct Answer is C |
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A technician is installing a webcam in a nursery for a user to monitor their baby. The user wants to ensure that the webcam is not broadcasting externally. Which of the following would the technician implement on the SOHO router to prevent the broadcast?
A. Enable MAC filtering B. Enable static IPs C. Block the outbound port D. Change the default SSID |
Correct Answer is C
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QUESTION 220 A user installed a new SOHO router and new wireless NICs to increase their transmission speed from 802.11b to 802.11g with the manufacturer's default settings. The user lives in an apartment building and is still experiencing slowness to the Internet after the installations. Which of the following is the MOST secure option that a technician could implement to resolve this issue?
A. Hide the SSID B. Assign static IP addresses C. Enable MAC filtering D. Disable the WAN port |
Correct Answer is C
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A user wants to prevent access to specific websites to prevent their children from accidently accessing them. Which of the following can be implemented?
A. A switch B. Antivirus software C. Antispyware software D.A firewall |
Correct Answer is D
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A custom configured PC with a powerful processor, high-end video, upgraded audio, and increased cooling would be MOST suited to which of the following applications? A. Thin client
B. Gaming PC C. Virtualization workstation D. Thick client Correct Answer: B |
Computer answer B
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A user will be installing a switch in a public location and will allow the six users in the office to connect to it with CAT6 Ethernet. Which of the following actions would BEST ensure that there is no unauthorized access to the switch?
A. Assign static IP addresses B. Disable new VLANS C. Disable unused ports D. Disable PoE Correct Answer: C Explanation/ Reference: |
Correct Answer is C
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A user will be installing a switch in a public location and will allow the six users in the office to connect to it with CAT6 Ethernet. Which of the following actions would BEST ensure that there is no unauthorized access to the switch?
A. Assign static IP addresses B. Disable new VLANS C. Disable unused ports D. Disable PoE |
Correct Answer is C
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A user will be installing a switch in a public location and will allow the six users in the office to connect to it with CAT6 Ethernet. Which of the following actions would BEST ensure that there is no unauthorized access to the switch?
A. Assign static IP addresses B. Disable new VLANS C. Disable unused ports D. Disable PoE |
Correct Answer is C
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A user would like to run a copy of Windows XP for testing; however, the user is currently using a Windows 7 PC. Which of the following technologies should a technician recommend in order for the user to have access to both systems simultaneously?
A. Purchase a second PC B. KVM switch C. Dual boot D. Virtualization |
Correct Answer is D
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IT suspects that other people are frequently making changes to a computer when a user leaves their desk. Which of the following security policies can be implemented in order to prevent this situation?
A. Auto-lock B. Password complexity C. Change the default username D. Disable the guest account |
Correct Answer is A |
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A client has asked a technician about drive sanitation and wants to know what the difference is between Over-writing a drive and formatting a drive. Which of the following would be the BEST response from the technician?
A. "Overwriting writes 1s and 0s to a hard drive replacing the data, while formatting only clears the reference to the data and only overwrites as space is used." B. "Nothing is different. They both destroy the data so no one can recover it." C. "Overwriting writes 1s and 0s to the drive replacing only the user's data but not the OS data, while formatting destroys the hard drive." D. "Overwriting replaces all the data with a single file that fills the hard drive destroying the data, while formatting erases all the data." |
Correct Answer is A
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Windows Virtual PC is designed to:
A. allow a user to run older programs in a Windows XP environment. B. allow a user to share a printer to any user on the Internet. C. give the user the ability to run multiple operating systems on a tablet. D. give the user the ability to run 64-bit applications in virtual mode. |
Correct Answer is A
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The technician is dispatched to look at a user's laptop. The user reports the system shuts down after 30 minutes of field use. The technician notices the battery is not fully charging. Which of the following should the technician perform to resolve this?
A. Remove the battery and connect it to a commercial battery charger. B. Discharge the battery using a static mat. C. Change the power setting on the laptop to use less power. D. Replace the battery. |
Correct Answer is D
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A new application is installed which adds three new services to a customer's PC. The customer asks for help, because the new application will not start. A technician investigates and finds that one of the services has failed to start. They attempt to manually start the service but it fails. Where should the technician look NEXT for more information? (Select TWO).
A. Task Manager B. System registry C. Log files for the new application D. Event Viewer E. %SystemDir%\ System32\ Drivers |
Correct Answer is C, D |
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A technician is installing a new wired router and needs to disable all the ports currently not in use. The documentation for router mentions the web interface for the router is available by default at 192.168.1.1. In which of the following ways would the technician go about doing this? A. Place labels on top of all the ports that are not to be used.
B. Manually set the IP address to 10.168.1.1, and then access the website at 192.168.1.1. C. Use an Internet browser to access the router configuration at 192.168.1.1. D. Use Windows Explorer and search for a file called192.168.1.1. |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician is changing out a toner cartridge in a high volume printer. As they are removing the empty cyan cartridge, a large amount of blue powder falls out onto rollers in the immediate area. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Immediately leave the scene and sound an emergency to security. B. Use a toner vacuum to remove the spilled toner from the undesired surfaces. C. Use compressed air to remove the spilled toner from the undesired surfaces. D. Use the maintenance kit to remove and replace the affected parts. |
Correct Answer is B
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When setting up a Microsoft Exchange mail account to synchronize with an iPhone, which of the following items can be configured to synchronize besides the mail? (Select TWO). A. Shared calendars
B. Archives C. Global address list D. Calendar E. Address book |
Correct Answer is D, E
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An administrator has taken steps to secure a SOHO wired network, but as a result the users report that they can no longer access the Internet but can still see other computers on the network. Which of the following would have caused this issue?
A. Port 80 has been disabled B. Port 3389 has been enabled C. MAC filtering has been enabled D. LDAP has been disabled Correct |
Correct Answer is A
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Which of the following mobile phone features redirects the screen orientation as the user turns their phone?
A. GPS B. Geotracking C. Locator application D. Gyroscope |
Correct Answer is D
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Which of the following BEST represents a security vulnerability of mobile devices? (Select TWO).
A. Unauthorized downloads B. Viruses C. Improper file permissions D. Phishing E. Theft |
Correct Answer is B, E
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When connecting a Bluetooth device to a mobile device, which of the following BEST describes the purpose of discovery mode?
A. Allows two Bluetooth devices to connect to each other without a mobile device B. Disconnects all devices and connects to the closest powered on device C. Allows a peripheral to be contacted by the mobile device D. Instructs the phone to seek out all nearby devices and connect to them |
Correct Answer is C
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A user launches a software application on their Android tablet device. Once the software has loaded, the user reports that when turning the tablet to work the application in landscape mode, the software does not automatically adjust to landscape mode. Which of the following is the cause of the issue?
A. The auto-adjust setting is not enabled in the operating system. B. The tablet is running low on power and disabled landscape mode. C. The application was not developed to react to changes to the gyroscope. D. The user did not switch the tablet to landscape mode. |
Correct Answer is C
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A user is running a RAID 0 array and has problems with one of the drives. Which of the following actions will the technician take NEXT?
A. Replace the failing drive and let the RAID recover. B. Add an additional drive to the array and let the RAID recover. C. Replace the drive; all the data is lost and cannot be recovered. D. Remap the RAID array to another drive letter to recover the data. |
Correct Answer is C
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A user is reporting that they are clicking on search results and being redirected to the wrong sites. Which of the following should a technician check FIRST?
A. Temporary Internet Files B. Proxy Settings C. Cookies D. Windows Firewall |
Correct Answer is C
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When setting up a new wireless router, which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST in order to secure the network? (Select TWO).
A. Disable unused ports B. Change the SSID C. Position the antennas to prevent outside access D. Enable MAC filtering E. Change the default user name |
Correct Answer is B, E |
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A user reports an issue of intermittent Read / Write errors occurring on their PC. Which of the following actions would a technician MOST likely take?
A. Run FDISK on the drive B. Update definitions and run a virus scan C. Low level format the drive D. Run CHKDSK on the drive |
Correct Answer is D
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A user reports that all print jobs sent to a certain printer that require legal sized paper are not printing. However, standard size paper jobs are printing correctly. A technician checks the paper tray and verifies that it is loaded with legal size paper. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The printer is not designed to print legal sized pages. B. The print queue is holding jobs from printing. C. The paper weight is too heavy for the printer. D. The paper size for the tray is incorrect in the printer setup. |
Correct Answer is D
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Which of the following directory paths is the default profile folder for User1 in Windows 2000?
A. C:\ Users\ User1 B. C:\ User1 C. C:\ Documents and Settings\ Users\ User1 D. C:\ Documents and Settings\ User1 |
Correct Answer is D
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In which of the following locations is the Windows Vista local user settings found? A. A.% userprofile%\ AppData\ Local B. B.% systemdrive%\ Documents and Settings C. C.% systemdrive%\ My Profile D. D.% userprofile%\ Program Files |
Correct Answer is A |
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A user recently purchased an 802.11g-capable laptop, but reports their network connection speed is much slower than expected. The technician notes that while the users wireless signal strength is excellent, they are connected at just 11Mbps. Which of the following BEST describes the cause of the problem?
A. The software drivers for the users wireless network card need to be upgraded. B. The user is located too far away from the nearest wireless access point. C. The user is connected to an 802.11b wireless access point. D. The user has entered an incorrect WPA encryption key. |
Correct Answer is C
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A user reports they cannot access the Internet. The technician has verified the user’s browser settings. The user’s PC has a static IP configuration. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should take?
A. Check the DNS server addresses and verify they are current. B. Make sure the Windows Firewall and ICS is disabled. C. De-select QoS in the TCP/ IP properties page. D. Disable any active antivirus software and see if it resolves the problem. |
Correct Answer is A
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QUESTION 274 Which of the following is true for a 10/ 100 NIC running at full-duplex?
A. Maximum data rate transmission of NIC will have a speed of 10MBps. B. Maximum data rate transmission of NIC will have a speed of 1000BaseT. C. NIC will transmit data in only one direction at a time. D. NIC will simultaneously transmit data in both directions at a time. |
Correct Answer is D |
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A client calls after connecting the keyboard and mouse to a new computer. The client indicates that neither the keyboard nor the mouse works. The technician has determined these devices are connected through the PS/ 2 ports. Which of the following recommendations is BEST?
A. Make sure the PS/ 2 plugs and ports are color matched. B. Purchase devices with USB connectors. C. Return the computer because of a defect. D. Reboot the computer then switch the plugs. |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician is tracing a cable from a desk back toa patch panel in the wiring closet. The cables are not labeled. Which of the following tools would BEST trace the cable?
A. Loop back plugs B. Induction toners C. Wire fish tape D. Cable tester |
Correct Answer is B
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A user is unable to receive FTP antivirus updates from the vendor but has network connectivity. Which of the following settings should be checked? (Select TWO).
A. Port 21 is open B. Port 22 is open C. Port 23 is open D. Port 25 is open E. The proxy setting in the antivirus application |
Correct Answer is A, E
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Two employees share a computer. The computer has a locally attached USB printer. Both users are local administrators of the computer. Both employees login under their own accounts. Employee A can print with no issue; however, employee B cannot. No error messages are reported. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. Employee B is using a faulty USB cable. B. Employee B does not have permission to print to the local printer. C. Employee B needs to update the printer driver. D. Employee B ` s profile is set to use a virtual printer as the default printer |
Correct Answer is D
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A Windows XP system stops booting with the error message ‘NTLDR is missing’. Which of the following is the BEST resolution for this problem?
A. fixmbr B. Perform a clean install of Windows XP. C. fixboot D. Format and restore the system. |
Correct Answer is C
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A user has installed a second hard drive into a computer and receives a message stating ‘Invalid Boot Volume.’ Which of the following should a technician recommend to solve this problem?
A. Set the jumpers on both hard drives to master. B. Set the jumpers on both hard drives to C/ S. C. Set the jumpers on both hard drives to secondary. D. Remove the jumpers from both hard drives. |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following operating systems supports full usage of 8GB DDR3 RAM?
A. Windows 7 Professional x86 B. Windows 7 Home Premium x64 C. Windows XP Professional D. Windows Vista Home Premium x86 |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician believes a machine loaded with WindowsXP Professional has issues with file integrity of the core OS components. Which of the following commands could be used to both check and replace damaged files?
A. SFC /SCANNOW B. CHKDSK /R /F C. FORMAT C: D. DISKPART |
Correct Answer is A
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Which of the following data transfers will retain the current NTFS permissions of a file?
A. Copying the file to a different location on the same volume B. Copying the file to a different location on a different volume C. Moving the file to a different location on a different volume D. Moving the file to a different location on the same volume |
Correct Answer is D
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A user's computer keeps producing a "low virtual memory" alert and the speed of the system degrades afterwards. Which of the following Control Panel locations can provide information to review and correct this issue?
A. System > Remote B. System > Hardware C. System > System Restore D. System > Advanced |
Correct Answer is D
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A user states their workstation will not reach the login screen. Which of the following commands can be used to write a new partition boot sector to the system partition in the Recovery Console?
A. FIXMBR B. BOOTCFG C. FIXBOOT D. DISKPART |
Correct Answer is C
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The folder "Documents" is shared. The user can create and delete documents when on the local PC, but can only read documents when accessing them remotely. Which of the following should be adjusted?
A. Read Only Attribute B. Share Permissions C.Firewall Settings D.NTFS Permissions |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following security controls would be an example of the least privilege principle on a home PC?
A. Install antispyware on the PC. B. Create a standard user account for kids. C. Store all financial data in a separate folder. D. Disable the firewall for online gaming. |
Correct Answer is B |
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For any given 802.11n wireless Internet signal, which of the following is needed to establish a connection?
A. MAC address filtering B. Windows password C. Proper SSID D. SSL certificate |
Correct Answer is C
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A user reports that a file they shared out on their computer for another network user is not accessible to the third party. The user insists they specifically gave this third party Allow rights for Read and Write access. Which of the following could explain the problem at hand?
A. The parent folder has explicit Allow rights set for this user. B. The parent folder has explicit Deny rights set for this user. C. The user forgot to share the parent folder and only shared the specific file. D. The parent folder likely has the "archive" attribute enabled. |
Correct Answer is B
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A consultant is looking to consolidate six company servers onto one physical system. Which of the following requirements is MOST important on the new setup to ensure stable functionality of the virtual environment?
A. Client hardware requirements B. Server software security requirements C. Server hardware resources D. Network resources |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following security concepts establishes the notion that a user should only be given sufficient access to the resources they need to perform their job function?
A. Deny all B. Allow all C. Most privilege D. Least privilege |
Correct Answer is D
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After being infected with a virus, a user's computer does not recognize the user as having local administrator rights to the computer. After troubleshooting the issue, a technician determines the computer needs to be rebuilt and data needs to be restored from the user's backup. Which of the following tools would BEST reset the computer to how it worked when first purchased?
A. Recovery Console B. Factory restore CD C. Anti-malware software D. System Restore |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician installed a second hard drive in a computer. Upon restart, a message appears statinG. "primary drive 0 not found. Press F1 to continue." Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A. That NTLDR and boot.ini are not missing B. Proper drive installation (e.g. cables/ jumpers) C. If computer can boot into safe mode D. If the BIOS boot settings are correct |
Correct Answer is B
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The shared folder named C $ is an example of which of the following? A. Local share B. Permission propagation C. Inheritance D. Administrative share |
Correct Answer is D |
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A technician is using the troubleshooting theory to help resolve a problem that is occurring with a client's machine. The technician has verified system functionally. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting theory?
A. Identify the problem B. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem C. Test the theory to determine cause D. Document findings, actions, and outcomes |
Correct Answer is D
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After an installation of a video adapter, the screen on a Windows 7 system cannot be seen. Which of the following Windows 7 functions will resolve this?
A. Component Management B. Startup Repair C. Device Manager D. Task Manager |
Correct Answer is B
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A user gets an error message that the trust relationship to the domain has been broken. Which of the following can be done to resolve this from the client desktop?
A. Re-join the computer to the domain B. Reboot the PC as the domain will automatically rebuild the relationship C. Update the BIOS using the latest version D. Run CHKDSK |
Correct Answer is A
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Which of the following resources is MOST important for accessing remote virtual environments on a client machine?
A. Network speed B. CPU speed C.High speed memory D.Drive space |
Correct Answer is A
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A user sent an email requesting that a technician check if a computer is on and connected to the Internet so the user can login from home. Which of the following commands in the command prompt would a technician use to verify if the computer is on and connected without having to go to the computer?
A. NSLOOKUP B. NETSTAT C. PING D. IPCONFIG |
Correct Answer is C |
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A technician gets a call from a customer stating that their computer will not boot. They are getting the following error "invalid system disk". Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A. Verify the operating system is installed correctly. B. Verify that all removable drives are empty. C. Verify Boot.ini is on the hard drive. D. Verify the computer will boot into safe mode. |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of primary partitions that can be created on a hard drive with FAT32?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician is configuring a PC that will have confidential information stored on it. To ensure that only authorized users can access this PC, which of the following should the technician do? (Select TWO).
A. Disable the guest account B. Install antivirus applications C. Disable DHCP D. Change the SSID E. Change the default username |
Correct Answer is A, E
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A technician is configuring a PC that will have confidential information stored on it. To ensure that only authorized users can access this PC, which of the following should the technician do? (Select TWO). A. Disable the guest account B. Install antivirus applications C. Disable DHCP D. Change the SSID E. Change the default username |
A technician is configuring a PC that will have confidential information stored on it. To ensure that only authorized users can access this PC, which of the following should the technician do? (Select TWO).
A. Disable the guest account B. Install antivirus applications C. Disable DHCP D. Change the SSID E. Change the default username |
A, E |
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A Windows 7 desktop PC has crashed (i.e. BSOD) several times indicating a possible RAM problem. Which of the following is an OS built-in tool that can be used to test this problem?
A. Windows System Restore B.Windows System File Checker C.MSCONFIG D. Windows Memory Diagnostic |
Correct Answer is D
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A user is experiencing slow performance with their computer. A technician suspects the computer has a virus and runs antivirus software. A virus is found and removed, but the performance issue is not resolved. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?
A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes B. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem C. Re-establish a new theory or escalate D. Implement preventative measures Correct Answer:C |
Correct Answer is C
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A customer is not able to connect to any websites. Which of the following commands should a technician run FIRST to identify the issue?
A.NETSTAT B.NET SHOW C. IPCONFIG D. TRACERT |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following switches should a technician use with the PING command to resolve an IP address to a hostname?
A.-a B.-f C. -n D. -t |
Correct Answer is A
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In a SOHO wireless network, which of the following prevents unauthorized users from accessing confidential data?
A. Reduce broadcast power B. Change SSID name C. Set encryption D. Enable MAC filtering |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following would be the BEST format for optical media?
A. FAT32 B. EXT3 C. CDFS D. NTFS |
Correct Answer is C
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After updating the device drivers for a video adapter, a user reports they are only able to view a portion of the screen and the text is very large. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. Refresh rate set too low B. Refresh rate set too high C. Resolution set too low D. Resolution set too high |
Correct Answer is C
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After connecting a laptop to an external monitor, no display is detected and the monitor goes into sleep mode. Which of the following should be attempted FIRST to correct the problem? (Select TWO).
A. Change the input mode on the monitor B. Reboot the operating system C. Reload the display adapter drivers D. Toggle the display using the keyboard shortcut E. Verify network connectivity |
Correct Answer is A, D
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Which of the following can be achieved with Group Policy to help with workstation security measures?
A. BitLocker password B. Complexity requirements C. BIOS password D. Wake on LAN |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following can enable a technician to remove a virus that prevents users from updating their antivirus software?
A. Recovery console B. REGEDIT C. Safe mode D. MSCONFIG |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician notices that a computer is making a loud clicking noise but continues to run. System speed is barely affected, but they cannot access certain drives. These are the symptoms of which of the following?
A. Failing second hard drive B. Failing system hard drive C. Bad CMOS chip D. Bad CPU fan |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician is tasked with upgrading a network card on a Windows 7 Professional PC. The technician installs the network card, loads Windows XP drivers that came with the network card, and reboots the PC. Upon rebooting, the computer blue screens and the technician cannot get the computer to boot up properly. Which of the following should the technician perform to resolve this issue without any data loss? (Select TWO).
A. Remove network drivers B. Install Windows XP Service Pack 3 C. Reinstall Windows 7 Professional D. Install Windows 7 Service Pack 1 E. Boot up in safe mode |
Correct Answer is A, E
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An audio visual company has decided that they want to migrate from Windows XP Professional SP2. The company has a domain network. A technician is tasked with selecting an operating system. Which of the following should the technician select?
A. Windows 7 Home Premium B. Windows Vista Home Premium C. Windows 7 Professional D. Windows XP Media Center |
Correct Answer is C
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a SOHO wireless network for a client. The client only wants five authorized computers to connect to the network with a defined IP range. Which of the following should the technician configure on the router? (Select TWO).
A. DMZ B. DHCP C. ARP D. SSID E. MAC filtering |
Correct Answer is B, E
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A user calls the helpdesk and states that they are receiving an IP conflict error on their computer. The user is on a company network that uses DHCP. The technician verified the PC is using DHCP to obtain TCP/ IP settings. Which of the following commands should the helpdesk technician use to resolve this issue? (Select TWO).
A. Ipconfig /renew B. Ipconfig /registerdns C. Ipconfig /all D. Ipconfig /flushdns E. Ipconfig /release |
Correct Answer is A,E
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A technician is diagnosing a PC running Windows 7 which has been affected with an "NTLDR is missing" error message. Which of the following command line tools would BEST resolve the problem?
A. Fixboot B. CHKDSK C.Scandisk D.DEFRAG |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician is repairing a workstation that exhibits random reboots at odd times of the day. Which of the following should be performed FIRST when troubleshooting the issue? (Select TWO).
A. Check the PSU integrity B. Check the CMOS battery C. Check the video card integrity D. Check the memory integrity E. Check the optical drive integrity |
Correct Answer is A, D
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Which of the following commands may need to be run after a virus removal if the computer will not boot?
A. SCANDSK B. DXDIAG C. FIXMBR D. MSCONFIG |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following commands may need to be run after a virus removal if the computer will not boot?
A. SCANDSK B. DXDIAG C. FIXMBR D. MSCONFIG |
Correct Answer is C
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When configuring user accounts, which of the following should a technician perform?
A. Make all users local administrators B. Assign the minimum required access to the users C.Make all users standard users D.Assign the maximum required access to the users |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following security threats do shredders help prevent?
A. Dumpster diving B. Malware C. Phishing D. Worms |
Correct Answer is A
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A customer purchases a new 802.11n router for their home. They connect it to their current 801.11g devices, as well as their new laptop. Even though the laptop has a built-in 802.11n antenna, they are not noticing any speed increase. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The laptop is not close enough to the router. B. The router should be set to "G-Only". C. The router is broadcasting in Mixed Mode. D. The laptop needs a dedicated access point. |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following home computer synchronization methods are possible with an iOS device? (Select TWO).
A. Infrared B.USB C.FireWire D. Wi-Fi E. Parallel |
Correct Answer is B, D |
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A customer states their laptop screen is very dim. In order to avoid going to the client site, which of the following is the FIRST action the customer should perform? A. Increase the resolution B. Use function keys C. Reboot the laptop D. Go to the Power Options in Control Panel |
A customer states their laptop screen is very dim. In order to avoid going to the client site, which of the following is the FIRST action the customer should perform?
A. Increase the resolution B. Use function keys C. Reboot the laptop D. Go to the Power Options in Control Panel |
Correct Answer is B |
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A user has a perimeter firewall and up-to-date antivirus software. The user is asking what else they can do to improve their security. Which of the following will have the MOST impact on network security? (Select TWO).
A. Install additional antivirus software B. Disable screen savers C. Conduct a daily security audit D. Assign security rights based on job roles E. Use strong passwords |
Correct Answer is D, E |
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A user states that when they power on their computer, they receive a "Non-bootable drive" error. The user works with external storage devices to transport data to their computer. The user stated that the computer worked fine the day before. Which of the following should be checked FIRST to resolve this issue?
A. Jumper settings B. Device boot order C. PXE boot settings D. Hard drive cable |
Correct Answer is B
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A service technician is installing a second hard drive on a desktop PC running Windows 7. The second hard drive is the same make and model of the first hard drive. The technician would like to provide data redundancy. Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this?
A. Disk Management B. Device Manager C. System Configuration D. Data Sources |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician is trying to troubleshoot an issue on a Windows 7 computer remotely, but is unable to PING the computer. The technician verified that the computer is turned on, has network connectivity, and can get to the Internet. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. The technician does not have permissions B. Local security policy settings is incorrect C. Wake-on-LAN is disabled D. Windows firewall is enabled |
Correct Answer is D
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A technician is working on a workstation that is receiving read/ write failures when trying to access a particular file. Which of the following commands should the technician use to resolve this issue?
A. DISKPART B. FORMAT C. CHKDSK D. FDISK |
Correct Answer is C
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A technician needs to create a new folder from the command line on the root of the C. drive. Which of the following is the correct command to use?
A. CD B. MD C. PUSHD D. RD |
Correct Answer is B
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A technician is having boot issues with a newly built PC, and notices the following jumper configurations for each PATA device: HARD DRIVE. MASTER OPTICAL DRIVE. CABLE SELECT Which of the following jumper configurations should be used instead?
A. HDD.Cable Select; Optical DrivE.Master B. HDD.Cable Select; Optical DrivE.Cable Select C. HDD.Slave; Optical DrivE.Slave D. HDD.Master; Optical DrivE.Master |
Correct Answer is B
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A computer is showing the "No boot device found" message even though a technician has verified that the hard drive is set as Device 1 in the BIOS boot order. Which of the following causes is MOST likely at play?
A. A 40-pin cable was used instead of an 80-pin cable to connect the HDD. B. The hard drive is disconnected. C. The hard drive has corrupted sectors and needs a CHKDSK scan. D. Both PATA devices are incorrectly set to the master jumper setting. |
Correct Answer is D
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A technician is troubleshooting a RAID 6 array on a high end CAD/ CAM workstation. Two disk drives have their fault lights on. Which of the following is the BEST action for the technician to perform when fixing this problem?
A. Replace the failed drives and verify the RAID rebuilds completely. B. Reseat the drives, backup the data, and then replace them. C. Reseat the drives and monitor the RAID status over a few days. D. Replace the failed drives and restore the data from a known good backup. |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician is called in to troubleshoot a four disk RAID 10 array on a high end Windows 7 Enterprise workstation. One drive has failed. Which of the following should the technician do to fix the problem?
A. Reseat the drive and verify the RAID array is healthy B. Replace the failed drive and verify the RAID is healthy. C. Replace the failed drive and restore the data. D. Add a fifth drive and make it a spare. |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following options is MOST likely active on a network of three workstations, running Windows 7 Home Edition x64, to enable File and Print sharing?
A. HomeGroup B. Active Directory C. WorkGroup D. Domain |
Correct Answer is A
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A technician has a client's laptop that is randomly shutting down. Which of the following is the FIRST step of the troubleshooting theory that the technician will perform to resolve the laptop's issue?
A. Document finding, actions, and outcomes B. Identify the problem C.Establish a theory D.Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem |
Correct Answer is B
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An alert needs to be sent to the administrator when the CPU stays above 90% for a period of time. Which of the following tools would BEST be used to accomplish this?
A. Performance Monitor B. Task Scheduler C. Task Manager D. System Configuration |
Correct Answer is A
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A customer calls and states the new plasma display they just received has yellow spots all over the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. Using wrong video connector B. Dead pixels C. Dropped in shipping D. Incorrect installation |
Correct Answer is B
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Which of the following utilities will display a listing of active IP ports on the computer being tested?
A. NETSTAT B. PING C. IPCONFIG D.TRACERT |
Correct Answer is A
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Which of the following is the BEST definition of what an accelerometer does?
A. Prolongs battery life B. Calculates the rotation of a device C. Measures velocity in a given direction D. Makes the device run with more speed Correct Answer:C |
Correct Answer is C
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Which of the following are examples of physical security? (Select TWO).
A. Badges B. Anti-virus C. Encryption D. Firewalls E. Locked doors |
Correct Answer is A, E |
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Which of the following scenarios BEST defines phishing?
A. A user receives an email from a friend to download a picture but the file format ends in .exe. B. A user receives a pop-up message about a virus from a company that states that if they buy this product it will remove the virus. C. A user receives a message about unwanted activity from their antivirus asking to remove the suspect file. D. A user receives an email from a person in another country with a story as to why they need help with a financial arrangement. |
Correct Answer is D
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A technician is called onsite to solve a network connection error. Upon arrival, the technician observes a message on the screen stating there is no boot drive found. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?
A. Repair the boot up sequence using recovery console. B. Restart the system, booting from a system recovery disk. C. Restart the system to verify the proper boot sequence. D. Inform the customer the hard drive has crashed and replace the drive. |
Correct Answer is C
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The technician is dispatched to a user's home to secure a wireless network. The SOHO user has only one system to connect wirelessly, yet wishes to protect their Wi-Fi from unauthorized use. Which of the following will BEST meet the user's requirements?
A. Configure the router to allow access by MAC address. B. Configure the use of DHCP. C. Configure the use of static IP addresses. D. Configure the network to utilize a proxy. |
Correct Answer is A
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A workstation is making a loud clicking noise that is originating from the hard drive and it is not booting. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A.Visit the hard disk vendor's site and run a hardware check on the drive. B. Put the hard drive in another system and back up all data from it. C. Run CHKDSK immediately and replace the drive if it is bad. D. Format the drive and restore from a previous image. |
Correct Answer is B |
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A user reports that their PC boots up to a screen that reads "OS not found". Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of this problem?
A. There are conflicting operating systems. B.Not enough memory is available. C.The system has a BSOD. D. The user has a USB key attached. |
Correct Answer is D
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A user wants to quickly install the most recent security patch released. Which of the following options can be selected from the Windows Update website?
A. Custom settings B. Advanced settings C.Automatic settings D.Express settings |
Correct Answer is D |
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A technician has upgraded an internal WiFi card on a laptop and now the signal power to connect to a WAP is low. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. WIFI card drivers are not installed. B. The laptop's memory is faulty. C. The laptop's battery is dead. D. One of the antenna wires is unplugged. |
Correct Answer is D
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Which of the following is the MOST secure method, short of physical destruction, that would be used to ensure that data on a hard drive cannot be recovered?
A.Use a degaussing tool B.Format the drive C. Use an overwrite program D. Repartition the drive |
Correct Answer is C
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A user will be installing a switch in a public location and will allow the six users in the office to connect to it with CAT6 Ethernet. Which of the following actions would BEST ensure that there is no unauthorized access to the switch?
A. Assign static IP addresses B. Disable new VLANS C. Disable unused ports D. Disable PoE |
Correct Answer is C
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A client has asked a technician about drive sanitation and wants to know what the difference is between overwriting a drive and formatting a drive. Which of the following would be the BEST response from the technician?
A. "Overwriting writes 1s and 0s to a hard drive replacing the data, while formatting only clears the reference to the data and only overwrites as space is used." B. "Nothing is different. They both destroy the data so no one can recover it." C. "Overwriting writes 1s and 0s to the drive replacing only the user's data but not the OS data, while formatting destroys the hard drive." D. "Overwriting replaces all the data with a single file that fills the hard drive destroying the data, while formatting erases all the data." |
Correct Answer is A
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A new application is installed which adds three new services to a customer's PC. The customer asks for help, because the new application will not start. A technician investigates and finds that one of the services has failed to start. They attempt to manually start the service but it fails. Where should the technician look NEXT for more information? (Select TWO).
A. Task Manager B. System registry C. Log files for the new application D. Event Viewer E. %SystemDir%\ System32\ Drivers |
Correct Answer is C, D |
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Which of the following BEST represents a security vulnerability of mobile devices? (Select TWO). A. Unauthorized downloads B.Viruses C. Improper file permissions D. Phishing E. Theft Correct Answer:BE
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Correct Answer is B, E
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A user is running a RAID 0 array and has problems with one of the drives. Which of the following actions will the technician take NEXT?
A. Replace the failing drive and let the RAID recover. B. Add an additional drive to the array and let the RAID recover. C. Replace the drive; all the data is lost and cannot be recovered. D. Remap the RAID array to another drive letter to recover the data. |
Correct Answer is C
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How to convert FAT32 to NTFS
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Start - Run - Convert C: /fs:NTFS
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How to install the recovery console in Windows XP.
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Open Run- and type the following commands E:\i386\winne32.exe /cmdcons
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What is the network typolagies in order? (7) |
7. Application 6. Presentation 5. Sessions 4. Transport 3. Network 2. Data Link 1. Physical |
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