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117 Cards in this Set
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Because the clock speed of a processor cannot be scaled dramatically,
what is the best way to increase the power of your processor? ❍ A. Increase the RAM ❍ B. Use multiple processors or a processor with multiple cores ❍ C. Add a cache chip on the motherboard ❍ D. Put the processor in Turbo mode |
Answer: B. By having multiple processors or multiple core, you can process several items
at the same time. Increasing the RAM (Answer A) would most likely increase the performance of the computer but would not increase the power of the processor. Today, you cannot add a cache chip (Answer C) to your motherboard. Processor cache is part of the processor. Lastly, there is no such thing as Turbo mode (Answer D) on today’s processors. |
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You have an older motherboard that can support dual processors.
You decide to only use one processor. You think that something needs to go into the empty processor socket. What component would that be? ❍ A. A resistor pack ❍ B. A termination pack ❍ C. An inverter ❍ D. Voltage regulator module (VRM) |
Answer: D. A voltage regulator is required on some motherboards to make sure that
the motherboard is electrically balanced if the only one of the two processor sockets is used. While the VRM might include resistors (Answer A), and inverters (Answer C), they are not connected directly into the processor sockets. Answer D is incorrect because the termination pack is usually a resistor pack. Note that some dualprocessor motherboards do not require a VRM. The only way to know is to read the manual that comes with the motherboard. |
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What type of socket is used for an AMD Athlon XP microprocessor?
❍ A. Socket 462 ❍ B. Socket 423 ❍ C. Socket 370 ❍ D. Slot 1 |
Answer: A. The AMD Socket 462/Socket A specification has been used with Athlon,
Duron, Athlon XP, Athlon XP-M, Athlon MP, and Sempron processors. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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What are the two disadvantages of using a liquid cooling system?
(Choose two answers.) ❍ A. Requires a large amount of space within the computer case ❍ B. Condensation can occur ❍ C. Needs more technical knowledge to install ❍ D. Requires a special torque wrench |
Answer: A and C. To work effectively, liquid cooling kits require a large amount of
space within the computer case. In addition, liquid cooling is a relatively new technology that usually requires a higher level of technical knowledge to install. Condensation (Answer B) is not an inherent problem with liquid cooling and does not require a special torque wrench (Answer D). |
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What socket does the AMD Phenom processor use?
❍ A. Socket A ❍ B. Socket B ❍ C. Socket AM2+ ❍ D. Socket 1 |
Answer: C. The AMD Phenom processors with 3 or 4 core use the Socket AM2+, which
has 940 contacts. The Socket A sockets (Answer A) are used for AMD Athlon and Duron processors. The Socket B (Answer B) is used for the Intel Core i7 processor. There is no such thing as a Socket 1 (Answer D). |
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Which type of RAM is used for RAM cache?
❍ A. DRAM ❍ B. VRAM ❍ C. SRAM ❍ D. SDRAM |
Answer: C. SRAM, short for static RAM, is faster than DRAM and doesn’t require
refreshing like DRAM does. Therefore, it is used for RAM cache. VRAM (Answer B) is short for video RAM and allows for simultaneous reading and writing. DRAM (Answer A) is used for memory chips and requires refreshing. SDRAM (Answer D), short for Synchronization Dynamic RAM, is an improved version of the original DRAM. |
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What socket does the Intel Core i7 use?
❍ A. Socket 478 ❍ B. Socket 754 ❍ C. Socket A ❍ D. Socket B |
Answer: D. The Intel Core i7 uses the Socket B, which has 1,366 pins. The Pentium 4
processors use the Socket 478 (Answer A), and the Athlon 64 uses the Socket 754 (Answer B). Athlon and Duron processors use Socket A (Answer C), which has 426 pins. |
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Which of the following RAM modules required 8 ns DRAM chips
and was capable of operating at 125 MHz? ❍ A. PC-66 ❍ B. PC-100 ❍ C. PC-133 ❍ D. PC-800 |
Answer: B. PC-100 Synchronization DRAM (SDRAM) requires 8 ns DRAM chips that
can operate at 125 MHz. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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You are looking at a processor socket that has 426 pins. Which
processors can be inserted into it? ❍ A. Intel Pentium 4 processor ❍ B. AMD Athlon processor ❍ C. AMD Athlon 64 processor ❍ D. Intel Core2 processor |
Answer: D. The 426 socket was used by the Intel Core2 processor. The Pentium 4
processors (Answer A) used a Socket 423, Socket 478, or Socket T. The AMD Athlon processor (Answer B) used a Socket A, which has 426 pins, and the Athlon 64 (Answer C) used a Socket 939 or Socket 940. |
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What advantages does DDR-2 have over DDR-1? (Choose two
answers.) ❍ A. Faster bandwidth ❍ B. Lower latency ❍ C. Cache mode ❍ D. Lower power consumption |
Answer: A and D. DDR-2 has a faster bandwidth. DDR-1 can run up to 3.2 GBps and
DDR-2 can run up to 6.4 GBps. DDR-2 also consumes less power. DDR-2 is faster because of its faster bandwidth, not because of lower latency. |
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What voltages are present on the power supply’s 4-pin Auxiliary
(disk drive) power connector? ❍ A. +5 and +12 VDC ❍ B. +3.3 and +5 VDC ❍ C. +5 VDC and –5 VDC ❍ D. +12 VDC and –12 VDC |
Answer: A, B, D, E, and F. The ATX power supply supplies +/– 5 volts, +/– 12 volts,
and +3.3 volts. It does not supply –3.3 volts (Answer C). |
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DDR-2 offers which of the following data rates?
❍ A. 800 GBps ❍ B. 3.2 GBps ❍ C. 6.4 GBps ❍ D. 12.8 GBps |
Answer: C. DDR-1 can provide up to 3.2 GBps while DDR-2 can provide up to 6.4
GBps. DDR-3 can theoretically go up to 12.8 GBps. |
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How many pins are used to connect an ATX power supply to the
motherboard? (Choose all that apply) ❍ A. 4 ❍ B. 6 ❍ C. 20 ❍ D. 24 ❍ E. 40 |
Answer: C and D. The original form for the ATX power supply included a 20-pin connector.
Later, it was revised and 4 pins were added for a total of 24-pins. Answer A is incorrect because the power cable to power disk drives used four pins (Answer A). The older AT power supplies had two 6-pin (Answer B) connectors known as P8 and P9. Forty pins (Answer E) is the number of pins used for IDE cables. |
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Which DDR-3 uses modules called PC3-12800?
❍ A. DDR3-800 ❍ B. DDR3-1066 ❍ C. DDR3-1333 ❍ D. DDR3-1600 |
Answer: D. DDR3-1600 has a peak transfer rate of 12,800 Mbps (12.8 GBps), which
gives the name PC3-12800. It also uses 200 MHz memory clock and 800 MHz I/O bus clock. Of course, the data rate is 1600 Mbps because it reacts on the rise and fall of the clock cycle, doubling its throughput. |
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What is the transfer speed for the initial release of eSATA?
❍ A. 100 Mbps ❍ B. 200 Mbps ❍ C. 300 Mbps ❍ D. 400 Mbps |
Answer: C. The transfer speed for the initial release of eSATA is 300 Mbps. Therefore,
the other answers are incorrect. |
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PCI-X is directly backward-compatible with which of the following
devices? ❍ A. 3.3 v standard PCI devices ❍ B. 5.0 v standard PCI devices ❍ C. AGP devices ❍ D. PCI-E devices |
Answer: B. PCI-X is a parallel interface that is directly backward-compatible with all
but the oldest (5-volt) standard PCI devices. It is not compatible with 3.3 v standard PCI devices (Answer A), AGP devices (Answer C), and PCI-E devices (Answer D). |
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Which of the following is 64 bits wide? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A. 72-pin SIMM ❍ B. 168-pin DIMM ❍ C. 184-pin DIMM ❍ D. 184-pin RIMM |
Answer: B and C. DIMMs have a 64-bit–wide data paths. SIMMs and RIMMs have 32-
bit–wide data paths. |
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How many lanes can PCI Express support? (Choose all that apply.)
❍ A. 1 ❍ B. 2 ❍ C. 4 ❍ D. 8 ❍ E. 18 |
Answer: A, B, C, and D. PCI Express can support up to 32 lanes (1, 2, 4, 8, 16, and
32). It does not support 18 lanes (Answer E). |
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What is the maximum cable length for eSATA?
❍ A. 1 m ❍ B. 2 m ❍ C. 4 m ❍ D. 8 m |
Answer: A. The maximum cable length for eSATA, short for External SATA, is 1 M.
Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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What is the recommended maximum length of an RS-232 cable?
❍ A. 100 feet (30 meters) ❍ B. 30 feet (9 meters) ❍ C. 10 feet (3 meters) ❍ D. 50 feet (15 meters) |
Answer: D. The recommended maximum length of an RS-232 cable is 50 feet (15
meters). However, some references use 100 feet as the acceptable length of an RS- 232C serial cable. Serial connections are tricky enough without problems generated by the cable being too long. Make the cable as short as possible. |
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You are looking at the ports on your new sound card. Which color
is used to connect speakers or headphones? ❍ A. Pink ❍ B. Light blue ❍ C. Lime green ❍ D. Gold |
Answer: C. Lime green identifies analog line level audio output used for front speakers
or headphones. Answer A is incorrect because pink identifies analog microphone audio input. Answer B is incorrect because light blue identifies analog line level audio input. Answer D is incorrect because gold identifies a game port or MIDI port. |
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What is clock speed of the AGPx8 expansion slot?
❍ A. 66 MHz ❍ B. 133 MHz ❍ C. 266 MHz ❍ D. 533 MHz |
Answer: D. The AGPx8 has a clock speed of 533 MHz and has a transfer rate of
approximately 2.1GBps. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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In a laser printer, a thermal fuse is used to prevent which of the
following? ❍ A. Heat-sink failure ❍ B. A fuser from overheating ❍ C. A high-voltage power supply from overheating ❍ D. A low-voltage power supply from overheating |
Answer: B. A thermal fuse will blow when a component is too hot. In this case, the
thermal fuse makes sure the fuser assembly does not overheat. Without it, there could be severe damage to the printer or a potential fire hazard. Therefore the other answers are incorrect. |
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What is the clock speed for a PCI slot?
❍ A. 33 MHz ❍ B. 66 MHz ❍ C. 133 MHz ❍ D. 533 MHz |
Answer: A. PCI slots are 32-bit and 64-bit slots that operate at 33.33 MHz clock speed.
On a 32-bit bus, they transfer up to 133 Mbps. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Which component of a laser printer transfers toner to the paper?
❍ A. The drum ❍ B. The transfer corona wire ❍ C. The fuser assembly ❍ D. The platen |
Answer: B. The transfer corona wire (transfer roller) is responsible for transferring the
toner from the drum to the paper. The toner is transferred to the paper because of the highly positive charge the transfer corona wire applies to the paper. The drum (Answer A) is the component where an image is drawn out with lasers discharging parts of the drum. The fuser assembly (Answer C) is the component that melts the toner onto the paper. The platen (Answer D) does not exist in laser printers. |
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Which of the following is 64 bits wide? (Select all that apply.)
❍ A. 72-pin SIMM ❍ B. 168-pin DIMM ❍ C. 184-pin DIMM ❍ D. 184-pin RIMM |
Answer: C. A RIMM, short for Rambus Inline Memory Module, has 184-pins and 16-
bit–wide bus. DIMMs (Answer B) come with 168 pins, 184 pins, or 240 pins. SODIMMs (Answer D) have 72, 100, 144, 200, or 204 pins. DIMMs have a 64-bit data path. The 72- and 100-pin SODIMM packages support 32-bit data transfer, while the 144-, 200-, and 204-pin SODIMM packages support 64-bit data transfer. |
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Which is the slowest printer interface?
❍ A. Serial ❍ B. SCSI ❍ C. USB ❍ D. Parallel |
Answer: C. The slowest of the listed printer interfaces is the serial port, which can
communicate at 115,200 bits per second. The IEEE 1284 standard allows for faster throughput and bidirectional data flow with a theoretical maximum throughput of 4 megabits per second (4,000,000 bits per second). USB 2.0 can communicate up to 480 Mbps and SCSI can even go faster than that. |
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Under what circumstances can you install an NLX system board in
a Micro ATX case? ❍ A. None; the two form factors are incompatible with each other. ❍ B. Always; the NLX is backward-compatible with the Micro ATX case. ❍ C. When you install an NLX-to-ATX adapter kit. ❍ D. Only in PC versions that use a universal tower case. |
Answer: D. The new low-profile extended (NLX) form factor became a legitimate standard
for cases, power supplies, and system boards. However, manufacturers have chosen to produce low-profile units based on microATX and miniATX designs. These form factors followed the ATX design specification but reduced the size of the unit (and its associated costs) by limiting the number of expansion slots. Unless you obtain a universal case design specifically to handle both the NLX and MicroATX form factors, you cannot install the NLX system board. |
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Which of the following has 184 pins and is 16 bits wide? (Choose
the best answer.) ❍ A. SIMMs ❍ B. DIMMs ❍ C. RIMMs ❍ D. SODIMMs |
Answer: C. A RIMM, short for Rambus Inline Memory Module, has 184-pins and 16-
bit–wide bus. DIMMs (Answer B) come with 168 pins, 184 pins, or 240 pins. SODIMMs (Answer D) have 72, 100, 144, 200, or 204 pins. DIMMs have a 64-bit data path. The 72- and 100-pin SODIMM packages support 32-bit data transfer, while the 144-, 200-, and 204-pin SODIMM packages support 64-bit data transfer. |
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When you are using Windows, your GUI interface turns into text
mode with a blue background. What is this referred to as? ❍ A. A kernel excursion ❍ B. A stop error ❍ C. An unrecoverable application error ❍ D. A virus warning |
Answer: B. The Blue Screen of Death is known as a stop error displayed by Windows.
It occurs when the kernel or a driver running in kernel mode encounters an error from which it cannot recover. It is caused by poorly written device drivers, malfunctioning hardware, or poorly written DLLs. An unrecoverable application error (Answer C) was produced in earlier versions of Windows, such as Windows 3.0. A kernel excursion relates to a Linux system. A virus warning (Answer D) might cause a wide range of symptoms and messages, and it is possible that a virus can cause a Blue Screen of Death. |
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Which of the following are typical indications of a boot process
fail situation? ❍ A. An automatic reboot ❍ B. Complete lock-up ❍ C. A blank screen ❍ D. A blue error screen ❍ E. All of the above |
Answer: E. Automatic reboot, complete lock/system lock-up, blank screen, and Blue
Screen of Death are all typical indications of boot process failure. |
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Which of the following can you use to start the print spooler from
the command prompt? ❍ A. Start/Spooler ❍ B. Run/Spooler ❍ C. Net start spooler ❍ D. Spooler.com |
Answer: C. You can attempt to restart a stalled print spooler by entering net start
spooler at the command prompt or using the Run option (Click the Start button, select Run, type in the command, and pressing Enter). The other commands will not work. |
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What Windows structure allows multiple files to be loaded to a
printer for printing? ❍ A. Print Manager ❍ B. Print Spooler ❍ C. Print Buffer ❍ D. Print Queue |
Answer: D. The print queue structure allows multiple files to be loaded to a print server
for printing (which might or might not be located with the physical print device). Closing the print window does not interrupt the print queue in Windows. The print jobs in the queue are completed unless they are deleted from the list. The print manager (Answer A) is a software component that allows you to access print jobs and manage them. The print spooler (Answer B) is the software component that queues the print jobs. The print buffer (Answer C) would be a component of the printer to hold and process print jobs. |
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In a network printing environment, what Windows structure controls
printing for everyone on the network? ❍ A. Print Spooler ❍ B. Print Manager ❍ C. Print Buffer ❍ D. Printer Queue |
Answer: A. Windows employs a print spooler processing architecture that controls the
flow of information between the host computer and the physical printer. In a local printing operation, the spooler consists of the logical blocks between the client computer and the print device. These blocks process threads in the background and pass them to the printer when it is ready to receive data. In essence, the application prints to the Windows printer driver, the driver controls the operation of the spooler, and the driver prints to the printer from the spooler. In a network printing operation, the print spooler must run on both the local server and remote client systems. The information passes from the remote client spooler to the print server’s spooler, which manages the local printing for everyone sending print jobs to that printer. The Print Manager (Answer B) provides an interface to manage the print jobs. The print buffer (Answer C) is a component of the printer to hold and process print jobs. Answer D is a storage area for print jobs in Windows. |
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When you purchase a spare battery for your laptop computer,
what should you do with the battery when you don’t need it for long periods of time? ❍ A. Store it fully charged in a refrigerator ❍ B. Store it fully charged at room temperature ❍ C. Fully discharge it in a refrigerator ❍ D. Fully discharge it at room temperature |
Answer: D. If the battery is stored for long periods of time, you should fully discharge
the battery and store it at normal room temperature. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Which of the following is the best way to detect a bad battery in a
Windows Vista–based laptop PC? ❍ A. Check the voltage with a multimeter. ❍ B. Check the battery indicator in the systray portion of the taskbar. ❍ C. Disconnect the AC adapter and measure the time it takes for the system to fail. ❍ D. Check the battery level in the Control Panel’s ACPI applet. |
Answer: C. The system shutting down earlier than normal indicates that either the battery
is bad or that it is having a battery memory problem in which it becomes internally conditioned to run for less time than the designed capacity. You should check the battery with a multimeter (Answer A), but that would not tell you how well it holds the charge. Software (Answers B and D) cannot fully and reliably report if a battery is good or bad. |
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The fan in your system intermittently makes a loud whining noise
and then stops. What should you do? ❍ A. The fan is typically louder when you first turn on the computer, and should not be heard after it starts. ❍ B. Something was blocking the fan, which was finally blown out. ❍ C. The fan is switched on and off automatically as the laptop warms up. ❍ D. The fan has stopped completely and the laptop should be serviced before there is heat damage. |
Answer: D. If a fan makes a loud whining noise it means that it is about to fail. If the
noise stops, it most likely means that the fan has completely failed. Although some systems might have thermal control, a fan should not make loud whining noises when it is turned on. Therefore Answers A and C are incorrect. Something blocking the fan (Answer B) would not typically cause a noise. Of course, your system would most likely be running hotter than normal. |
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How do you configure all Windows XP computers to download
and install updates at the same time each day? ❍ A. Open Automatic Updates from the Control Panel, select the Automatic (Recommended) radio button, and specify the time. ❍ B. Open Windows Updates on the Start menu, select the Automatic (Recommended) radio button, and specify the time. ❍ C. Open Automatic Updates in the Administrative Tools menu, select the Automatic (Recommended) radio button, and specify the time. ❍ D. Open Windows Update Scheduler in System Tools, select the Automatic (Recommended) radio button, and specify the time. |
Answer: A. By configuring Automatic Updates, you can specify the time to install the
updates. Automatic Updates is accessed through the Control Panel. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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You have just installed a 500 GB hard drive in a Windows XP
Professional machine. Unfortunately, when you try to access the drive, it recognizes only 137 GB of drive space. What are the most likely causes of this problem? (Choose all that apply.) ❍ A. The system needs a new HDD driver for Windows XP to handle this size drive. ❍ B. The firmware on the HDD needs to be updated to work with Windows XP Pro. ❍ C. The system needs to have Service Pack 1 (SP1) or higher installed to handle this size drive. ❍ D. The system needs to have the BIOS flashed with a version that can accommodate the new drive. |
Answer: C and D. When you install a new larger hard drive in a system, a BIOS might
not recognize its full capacity. The most common reason for this is that the system’s BIOS version does not support the size of the new drive and reverts to its maximum support capabilities. You might need to flash the BIOS with the latest upgrade version to support the new drive. You might also gain additional support by updating the operating system with the latest patches and service packs. In the case of Windows XP Professional, the move to Service Pack 1 (SP1) increased the capability of Windows to handle larger drives beyond 137 GB. Windows XP does not have to have a new driver to work with larger drives and the firmware should already work with Windows XP (Answer D). |
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82. What product is recommended for manual cleaning of tape drive
R/W heads? ❍ A. Soft cloths ❍ B. Cotton swabs ❍ C. A pencil eraser ❍ D. Foam swabs |
Answer: D. To manually clean read/write heads, use isopropyl alcohol on a foam
swab. Soft cloths (Answer A) and cotton swabs (Answer B) can shed fibers that can contaminate the drive and damage portions of its R/W head. Answer C is incorrect because a pencil eraser could damage the head and would not remove the dirt and grime that needs to be removed. |
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What utilities can you use to back up the Registry? (Select two.)
❍ A. Windows Registry Checker ❍ B. System File Checker ❍ C. System Restore ❍ D. Scan Disk |
Answer: A and C. The Windows Registry contains configuration settings for Windows
and most of the Windows applications. While the Windows Registry Checker can be used to check the Registry for consistency, you can also back it up. You can use the System Restore to create restore points, which would include the Registry. System File Checker (Answer B) is used to check certain Windows system files used with the Windows File Protection feature and not the registry. Scan Disk (Answer D) is used to find and fix disk problems. |
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Which attribute is used to indicate that a file has been backed up
or not? ❍ A. R ❍ B. A ❍ C. D ❍ D. S |
Answer: B. When you back up a program, it usually shuts off the archive (A) attribute
to indicate it has been backed up. When a file is changed or a new file is added, the archive attribute is turned off. The read-only (R) attribute (Answer A) indicates if a file is read-only. The Directory (D) attribute (Answer C) indicates if an entry is a directory or not. The System (S) attribute (Answer D) indicates whether a file is a system file. |
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97. Which type of backup job backs up only the files that have
changed since the last backup job of any kind? ❍ A. Full ❍ B. Differential ❍ C. Incremental ❍ D. Partial |
Answer: C. An incremental backup only backs up the files with the archive attribute
on. Therefore, it backs up only files that are new or changed since the last backup. A full backup (Answer A) backs up all files regardless of whether they have been backed up or not. A differential backup (Answer B) backs up any files that have changed since the last full backup. There is no such thing as partial backup (Answer D). |
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Which backup method requires you to provide the full backup and
a tape for each day you want to go back and restore? ❍ A. Full ❍ B. Incremental ❍ C. Differential ❍ D. Copy |
Answer: B. When you use incremental backups, you perform a full backup, followed
by several incremental backups. The incremental backups only back up the files that have the archive attribute on. When you need to do a restore, you need to restore the full backup followed in order by each incremental backup since the full was last done. When you use only full backups (Answer A), you just need to restore the single full backup. If you use differential backups with full backup (Answer C), you need to restore the full backup and the most recent differential backup. The copy backup (Answer D) backs up all files specified, but it does not change the attributes that would change the backup schemes you already have in place. A copy backup is usually done when you are about to upgrade or change a system. |
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Which backup method requires you to provide the full backup and
a tape and the last smaller backup to restore? ❍ A. Full ❍ B. Incremental ❍ C. Differential ❍ D. Copy |
Answer: C. When you use differential backups, you perform a full backup followed by
differential backups. The differential backups only back up the files with the archive attribute on. In this way it is different from incremental backup because it does not shut off the archive attribute. When you do another differential backup, it will back up those files previously backed up with a differential backup. When you need to do a restore, you need to restore the full backup followed by the most recent differential backup. When you use only full backups (Answer A), you just need to restore the single full backup. When you use incremental backups (Answer B), you perform a full backup, followed by several incremental backups. The incremental backups only back up the files with the archive attribute on. When you need to do a restore, you need to restore the full backup followed in order by each incremental backup since the full backup was last done. The copy backup (Answer D) will back up all files specified, but it does not change the attributes that would change the backup schemes you already have in place. It is usually done when you are about to upgrade or change a system. |
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What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install Windows
XP Professional? ❍ A. 64 MB ❍ B. 128 MB ❍ C. 256 MB ❍ D. 512 MB |
Answer: A. The minimum amount of RAM for Windows XP Home and Professional is
64 MB. Per Microsoft’s website, it is usually recommended that you have 128 MB or more because 64 MB will limit performance and some features. You should go with a minimum of 512 MB and should consider 1 GB or more if you want decent performance. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Which of the following are new features or updates that have been
added to Windows Vista? (Choose all that apply.) ❍ A. Sidebar with gadgets ❍ B. Internet Explorer 7 ❍ C. Media Player 11 ❍ D. Full support for IPv6 |
Answer: A, B, C, and D. Sidebar with gadgets (Answer A), Internet Explorer 7
(Answer B), Media Player 11 (Answer C), and full support for IPv6 (Answer D) have been added to Windows Vista. Internet Explorer 7 is available as a download for Windows XP. Media Player 11 is available as a download for Windows XP. Windows XP had a test environment only for IPv6. The Sidebar with gadgets is introduced in Windows Vista. |
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Which of the following does Windows Vista include to make it
easier for users to quickly find information such as documents and emails? (Choose the best answer.) ❍ A. Windows Search (also known as Instant Search), which searches as you type ❍ B. A new index service that indexes 25% faster then previous versions ❍ C. A new folder structure to help better organize documents and emails ❍ D. All of the provided options are correct |
Answer: A. Vista includes Windows Search (also known as Instant Search or Search
as You Type), which is significantly faster (Answer B) and more thorough than before. In addition, search boxes have been added to the Start menu, Windows Explorer, and several of the applications that are included with Vista. Although in Windows Vista the folders structure (Answer C) is slightly different than Windows XP, these changes will not necessarily help you find files faster and will not help you search through emails. |
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Which of the following describes Windows Aero?
❍ A. A new hardware-based graphical user interface intended to be cleaner and more aesthetically pleasing than those of previous versions of Windows ❍ B. A special theme that is based on the Aerospace industry ❍ C. A background theme that shows the blue skyline ❍ D. A search-oriented desktop interface |
Answer: A. Windows Aero is a new hardware-based graphical user interface intended
to be cleaner and more aesthetically pleasing than those of previous versions of Windows. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Which versions of Windows Vista are eligible to be upgraded to
Windows Vista Enterprise? (Choose two answers.) ❍ A. Vista Home Premium ❍ B. Vista Business ❍ C. Vista Home Basic ❍ D. Vista Ultimate |
Answer: A and B. You can upgrade Windows Vista Starter, Home Basic (Answer B)
and Business Editions (Answer A) to Enterprise. You must do a clean install if you want to move from Home Premium (Answer A) and Ultimate Editions (Answer D) to Enterprise Edition. |
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You are tasked with upgrading computers running Windows XP
Pro to Windows Vista Enterprise Edition. You verify the video cards are Windows Display Driver Model (WDDM) compatible. What else do you need to do to support Aero? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose four.) ❍ A. Set the monitor settings to a refresh rate higher than 10 ❍ B. Press the Windows Logo Key + Tab ❍ C. Set the resolution to 1280 × 1024 or higher ❍ D. Set Color to 32 bit ❍ E. Set the Theme to Windows Vista ❍ F. Set the Color Scheme to Windows Aero |
Answers: A, D, E, and F. To enable Windows Aero, you must have set the monitor
settings to a refresh rate higher than 10, set Color to 32 bit, set the Theme to Windows Vista, and set the Color Scheme to Windows Aero. |
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You have multiple desktop and laptop workstations. What do you
need to enable Windows Aero? (Choose the best answer.) ❍ A. Ensure that the color depth is set to 16 bit ❍ B. Ensure that the color depth is set to 32 bit ❍ C. Ensure that the screen resolution is set to 800 × 600 ❍ D. Ensure that the screen resolution is set to 1280 × 1024 ❍ E. Ensure that the monitor refresh rate is greater than 10 hertz ❍ F. Ensure that the theme is set to Windows Vista |
Answer: B, E, and F. For Windows Aero to function, you must have the color depth
set to 32 bit, the monitor refresh rate greater than 10 hertz, and the theme set to Windows Vista. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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You work as a support technician at Acme.com. On your desktop,
the user interface features of Windows Aero are not being displayed on a system that is running Windows Vista Ultimate edition. You have a 17-inch monitor that supports a refresh rate up to 100 hertz and has a resolution of 1024 × 768. The video card has 32 MB video memory. What do you need to enable the Windows Aero features? (Choose the best answer.) ❍ A. The operating system should be upgraded. ❍ B. The video card should be replaced. ❍ C. The monitor should be replaced. ❍ D. The display theme should be changed. |
Answer: B. Because the video card only has 32 MB of video RAM, you need to
upgrade the card to one that has at least 64 MB. More memory might be needed if you have a high resolution. You don’t have to upgrade Windows Vista (Answer A) because Windows Vista Ultimate already supports Windows Aero. You do not have to replace the monitor (Answer C) because it has a high enough resolution and refresh rate (10 Hertz is the minimum). You might still need to set the theme to Windows Vista (Answer D) and the color scheme to Windows Aero, but you will not be able to do that until you upgrade the video card. |
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In Windows 2000, where would you optimize virtual memory?
❍ A. Control Panel/Computer Management ❍ B. Control Panel/System/Device Manager ❍ C. Control Panel/System/Performance ❍ D. Control Panel/System/Advanced |
Answer: D. You can configure the size and placement of the virtual-memory swap file
in Windows 2000 and Windows XP in the Advanced Tab of the System applet in Control Panel. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Which subtree is used to store information about the type of hardware
that’s installed, drivers, and other system settings? ❍ A. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT ❍ B. HKEY_CURRENT_USER ❍ C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE ❍ D. HKEY_USERS |
Answer: C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINES contains information about the type of hardware
installed, drivers, and other system settings. Information includes the bus type, system memory, device drivers, and startup control data. The data in the subtree remains constant regardless of the user. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key (Answer A) contains the file extension associations and OLE information. HKEY_CURRENT_USER (Answer B) is a copy from HKEY_USERS for a specific user and holds the current settings for the user currently logged on. When the user logs off, the settings are copied back to HKEY_USERS (Answer D). |
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When using the registry editor which of the following keys contains
file extension associations? ❍ A. HKEY_CURRENT_USER ❍ B. HKEY_USERS ❍ C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE ❍ D. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT |
Answer: D. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations and
OLE information. HKEY_CURRENT_USER (Answer A) is a copy from HKEY_USERS for a specific user and holds the current settings for the user currently logged on. When the user logs off, the settings are copied back to HKEY_USERS (Answer B). HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINES (Answer C) contains information about the type of hardware installed, drivers, and other system settings. Information includes the bus type, system memory, device drivers, and startup control data. |
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What key combination opens the Start menu in Windows XP?
❍ A. Ctrl+Esc ❍ B. Alt+Esc ❍ C. Ctrl+Alt+Esc ❍ D. Shift+Esc |
Answer: A. Pressing the Ctrl+Esc key combination pops up the Start menu along with
the taskbar in Windows 2000/XP. Alt+Esc (Answer B) can be used to toggle between programs running in Windows. Ctrl+Alt+Esc (Answer C) and Shift+Esc (Answer D) do not do anything for Windows but might have special meaning to other programs running in Windows. |
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What keys do you press to switch between applications in
Windows Vista? (Choose two answers.) ❍ A. Alt+Tab ❍ B. Alt+Enter ❍ C. Alt+Ctrl ❍ D. Alt+Ctrl+Del ❍ E. Start+Tab |
Answer: A and E. To switch between programs, you can use Alt+Tab, which works in all
versions of Windows. Windows Vista also offers Flip 3D, which can be initiated by pressing the Start+Tab keys. To open the Windows Security Dialog box in Windows XP, you press the Ctrl+Alt+Del keys (Answer D). From the Windows Security Dialog box, you can lock the computer, log off, shut down the computer, change the password, or open the Task Manager. Alt+Enter (Answer B) and Alt+Ctrl (Answer C) do not do anything for Windows but might have special meaning for other programs running in Windows. For example Alt+Ctrl+down arrow can invert your screen with some video drivers. |
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The master boot record holds which of the following?
❍ A. Partition table ❍ B. Volume boot sector ❍ C. File allocation table ❍ D. Root directory |
Answer: A. The Master boot record, always found on the first sector of a hard drive,
tells the system ROM BIOS how the hard drive is divided (master partition table) and which partition to boot from. The volume boot sector (Answer B) holds the boot program. The file allocation table (Answer C) is the index for the FAT/FAT32 file system listing each cluster. The root directory (Answer D) is the first entry in a volume. |
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How many primary partitions without an extended partition can
reside on a basic MBR disk under Windows XP? ❍ A. 1 ❍ B. 3 ❍ C. 4 ❍ D. 128 |
Answer: C. MBR can support up to four primary partitions or three primary partitions
and one extended partition. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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What advantages does NTFS have over FAT32 file system?
(Choose all that apply.) ❍ A. It supports folder and file permissions. ❍ B. It supports larger partition sizes. ❍ C. It can be accessed and modified using many standard DOS disk utilities. ❍ D. It supports compression, encryption, disk quotas, and file ownership. |
Answer: A, B, and D. The NTFS file system comes from the Windows NT family
including Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Vista and is a more sophisticated file system that has a number of enhancements that set it apart from FAT. It supports larger partition sizes than FAT32. It allows for file-level security to protect system resources and supports compression, encryption, disk quotas, and file ownership. NTFS cannot be accessed by DOS disk utilities (Answer C). |
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What is the native file system for Windows 2000 and Windows XP
Professional? ❍ A. NTFS4 ❍ B. FAT32 ❍ C. FAT16 ❍ D. NTFS5 |
Answer: D. The Windows 2000 and XP operating systems support several file management
system formats, including FAT (Answer A), FAT16, FAT32 (Answer B), CDFS (the compact disk file system is used on CD-ROMs —Answer C), and NTFS4, along with its own native NTFS5 format. Windows Vista uses NTFS V6.0. |
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How many logical drives can be created on a FAT drive?
❍ A. 8 ❍ B. 23 ❍ C. 38 ❍ D. 44 |
Answer: B. Under the FAT file system, there is room for one primary partition and the
extended partition on a hard disk drive. The extended partition can be created on any unused disk space after the primary partition has been established and properly configured. The extended partition can be subdivided into 23 logical drives (the letters of the alphabet minus A, B, and C). Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Which of the following does Windows 2000 Professional use to
start Setup? (Select all that apply.) ❍ A. Install ❍ B. Winnt32 ❍ C. Setup ❍ D. Winnt |
Answer: B and D. Windows 2000 has two different executables used to start the setup
program, depending on the OS you are using to start the install. These executables are WINNT.EXE and WINNT32.EXE. Therefore the other answers are incorrect. |
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You want to upgrade to Windows XP Professional, but you’re not
sure that your system can support it. What should you do to make sure that the system will support the upgrade? ❍ A. Run the HCL.EXE utility from the distribution CD ❍ B. Run the ACL.EXE utility from the distribution CD ❍ C. Run the Upgrade.exe utility from the distribution CD ❍ D. Run the Checkupgradeonly utility from the distribution CD |
Answer: D. Before you install Windows XP Professional from the CD, it is recommended
that you run the Windows XP version of Checkupgradeonly. This file checks the system for possible hardware compatibility problems and is located on the installation CD under \i386\winnt32. You can also check the Microsoft Windows XP Hardware Compatibility Lists (HCL) page. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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In Windows XP, where do you configure the virtual memory settings?
❍ A. Open the Control Panel, double-click the System applet, and select the Advanced tab ❍ B. Open the Control Panel, double-click the System applet, and click the Device Manager button ❍ C. Open the Control Panel, double-click the System applet, and select the Performance tab ❍ D. Open the Control Panel and double-click the Paging applet. |
Answer: A. To configure virtual memory in Windows XP, you open the control panel
and double-click the System applet to open the System Properties. Then Select the Advanced tab. Therefore, the other options are incorrect. |
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Windows Vista will not start after you’ve installed some software.
How can you repair Windows Vista? ❍ A. Boot to the Windows Vista DVD and perform a Startup Repair. ❍ B. Boot into the Windows Recovery Console and type Fixmbr. Reboot Windows Vista. ❍ C. Boot into the Windows Recovery Console and type Fixboot. Reboot Windows Vista. ❍ D. Edit the Boot.ini file and add the Advanced RISC Computing (ARC) path that points to the Windows Recovery Console. |
Answer: A. Since it will not start, you can try to do a repair. As you boot from the
Windows Vista DVD, you will be given a Startup repair option. The ARC paths in the BOOT.INI (Answer D) are found with Windows 2000 and XP machines, not Windows Vista. The Windows Recovery Console (Answers B and C) was found in Windows XP and was replaced by several tools located in the System Recovery Options menu. |
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You turn on the computer and it boots to a black screen without
loading an operating system. What could cause Windows not to boot from the C drive or the CD/DVD disk? ❍ A. You have accidentally installed Linux on top of Windows. ❍ B. The network cable is not connected to the network card. ❍ C. The BOOT.INI file was modified. ❍ D. You have a USB thumb drive connected to the computer. |
Answer: D. With many systems, if you turn on a computer while the USB thumb drive
is connected to a computer, the computer will try to boot from the USB thumb drive. As a result, you usually get a black screen. Windows is most likely still available on the C: drive (Answer A) and the boot.ini has not been modified (Answer C). You just need to remove the USB thumb drive and reboot the computer. The network cable (Answer B) is not a factor unless the computer has been configured to boot from the network. |
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You have a TCP/IP network with several subnets. You want to be
able to communicate with all subnets. What do you need to configure to communicate with these subnets? (Select all that apply.) ❍ A. IP address ❍ B. The default gateway ❍ C. The IPX address ❍ D. The subnet mask ❍ E. The DNS server address |
Answer: A, B, and D. You need the IP address and subnet mask to communicate with
hosts within the same subnet. If you wish to communicate with hosts in the other subnets, you will need to configure the default gateway. The DNS Server address (Answer E) is only needed for name resolution. While name resolution is very common, it is not necessary for basic TCP/IP communication. The IPX address (Answer C) is not used with TCP/IP networks. |
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Which of the following must you configure on a computer that
must be connected to the Internet? (Choose two answers.) ❍ A. The host name of the computer ❍ B. The IP address of the DHCP server ❍ C. The IP address of the default gateway ❍ D. The IP address of the e-mail server ❍ E. The IP address of the DNS server |
Answer: C and E. Besides having an IP address and a subnet mask, which is a minimum
to communicate on a TCP/IP network, you must have a default gateway so that it can talk to remote networks and a DNS server to provide name resolution. Host names (Answer A) are configured automatically when you install Windows, so it does not need to be configured. The DHCP server (Answer B) is a server that hands IP addresses to host so that you don’t have to manually configure each host. Configuring the IP address of an email server (Answer D) is only necessary if you are sending and retrieving email. |
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Which protocol works on top of TCP/IP that runs on most
Microsoft networks and is responsible for establishing logical names (computer names) on the network, establishing a logical connection between two computers, and supports reliable data transfer between two computers using the SMB protocol? ❍ A. NetBEUI ❍ B. NetBIOS ❍ C. IPX ❍ D. SPX ❍ E. CIFS |
Answer: B. NetBIOS is short for Network Basic Input/Output System. It is a common
protocol found on most Microsoft networks. While it was originally created for IBM for its early PC networks, it was adopted by Microsoft and has since become a de facto industry standard. It uses NetBIOS/computer names to identify computers and uses SMB to share files and folders. The method of encapsulating NetBIOS in TCP and UDP packets is known as NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NBT). NetBEUI (Answer A) is a legacy network protocol. IPX (Answer C) and SPX (Answer D) are legacy transport protocols usually associated with NetWare. CIFS (Common Internet File System) is Microsoft’s attempt to rename Server Message Block (SMB), which allows you to do file and print sharing with Windows. |
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What ports does FTP use? (Choose two answers.)
❍ A. 20 ❍ B. 21 ❍ C. 80 ❍ D. 443 ❍ E. 110 ❍ F. 25 |
Answer: A and B. FTP, short for File Transfer Protocol, is a standard network protocol
used to exchange and manipulate files over a TCP/IP network. Port 20 is used to transfer data while port 21 is used for control or commands. HTTP uses port 80 (Answer C) and HTTPS uses port 443 (Answer D). POP3 uses port 110 (Answer E) and SMTP uses port 25 (Answer F). |
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What port does POP3 use?
❍ A. 25 ❍ B. 80 ❍ C. 443 ❍ D. 110 |
Answer: D. POP is short for Post Office Protocol. It is an application-layer Internet
Standard protocol used by local email clients to retrieve email from a remote server over a TCP/IP connection. Version 3 (POP3) is the current standard. It uses port 110. SMTP uses port 25 (Answer A) and HTTP uses port 80 (Answer B). HTTPS uses port 443 (Answer C) and Telnet uses port 23 (Answer E). |
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What port does IMAP use?
❍ A. 25 ❍ B. 80 ❍ C. 443 ❍ D. 110 ❍ E. 143 |
Answer: E. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is used to retrieve, organize and
synchronize email messages over a TCP/IP network. It uses port 143. SMTP uses port 25 (Answer A) and HTTP uses port 80 (Answer B). HTTPS uses port 443 (Answer C) and POP3 uses port 110 (Answer D). |
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25. What port does HTTPS use?
❍ A. 25 ❍ B. 80 ❍ C. 443 ❍ D. 110 ❍ E. 143 |
Answer: C. HTTPS is the secure version of HTTP used to display web information. It
uses Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL using port 443. When using your browser, the URL will begin with https instead of http. SMTP uses port 25 (Answer A) and HTTP uses port 80 (Answer B). POP3 uses port 110 (Answer D) and IMAP uses port 143 (Answer E). |
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What port does SMTP use?
❍ A. 25 ❍ B. 80 ❍ C. 443 ❍ D. 110 ❍ E. 143 |
Answer: A. SMTP is short for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). SMTP is used to
send and route email between mail servers. It uses port 25. HTTP uses port 80 (Answer B) and HTTPS uses port 443 (Answer C). POP3 uses port 110 (Answer D) and IMAP uses port 143 (Answer E). |
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What port does Telnet use?
❍ A. 23 ❍ B. 80 ❍ C. 443 ❍ D. 110 ❍ E. 143 |
Answer: A. Telnet, is short for teletype network. It allows you to execute commands
on a remote host. Unfortunately, these commands are broadcast in clear text (unencrypted). Telnet uses port 23. HTTP uses port 80 (Answer B) and HTTPS uses port 443 (Answer C). POP3 uses port 110 (Answer D) and IMAP uses port 143 (Answer E). |
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What device is a multiport repeater?
❍ A. Hub ❍ B. Switch ❍ C. Gateway ❍ D. Router ❍ E. Bridge |
Answer: A. A hub is a device that works at the physical OSI layer. It is a multi-ported
connection point used to connect network devices via a cable segment. Because it is a multiported repeater, whatever signal is sent on one cable is forwarded to all other ports. Today, a hub is considered a legacy device that has been replaced by switches. A switch (Answer B) is a multiport bridge that can only forward traffic from one port to another. A gateway (Answer C) is hardware and/or software that links two different types of networks by repackaging and converting data from one network to another or from one network operating system to another. A router (Answer D) routes packets between networks. A bridge (Answer E) is a device that connects two LANs and makes them appear as one or is used to connect two segments of the same LAN. |
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What device connects two or more LANs and shares status and
routing information with other such devices? ❍ A. Hub ❍ B. Switch ❍ C. Gateway ❍ D. Router ❍ E. Bridge |
Answer: D. A Layer 3 switch is similar to a router but switches packages based on the
logical addresses (Layer 3) such as IP addresses instead of Layer 2 MAC addresses. It is used to configure routing within a LAN but does not provide routing over WAN links. A gateway (Answer A) is hardware and/or software that links two different types of networks by repackaging and converting data from one network to another or from one network operating system to another. A bridge (Answer B) is a device that connects two LANs and makes them appear as one or is used to connect two segments of the same LAN. |
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What type of device or software links two different types of networks
together? ❍ A. Gateway ❍ B. Bridge ❍ C. Brouter ❍ D. Layer 3 switch |
Answer: A. A gateway is hardware or software that links two different types of networks
by repackaging and converting data from one network to another network or from one network operating system to another. A gateway can be used at any layer of the OSI reference model, but is usually identified with the upper layers because they must communicate with an application, establish and manage sessions, translate encoded data, and interpret logical and physical addressing data. A bridge (Answer B) is a device that connects two LANs and makes them appear as one or is used to connect two segments of the same LAN. A brouter (Answer C) acts as a bridge for local traffic and as a router for other packets. A Layer 3 switch (Answer D) switches packages based on the Layer 3 addresses. |
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Which of the following is a Class A IP address? (Choose all that
apply.) ❍ A. 14.74.67.34 ❍ B. 101.34.89.202 ❍ C. 175.243.3.1 ❍ D. 202.23.53.2 |
Answer: A and B. A Class A IP address can be identified by looking at the first octet. It
will be between 1 and 126. A Class B IP address will be between 128 and 191 (Answer C). A Class C IP address will be between 192 and 223 (Answer D). |
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Which of the following is a Class B IP address? (Choose all that
apply.) ❍ A. 14.74.67.34 ❍ B. 101.34.89.202 ❍ C. 175.243.3.1 ❍ D. 202.23.53.2 |
Answer: C. A Class B IP address can be identified by looking at the first octet. It will
be between 128 and 191. A Class A IP address can be identified by looking at the first octet. It will be between 1 and 126 (Answers A and B). It should be noted that 127 addresses are reserved for special uses, including the 127.0.0.1 loopback address. A Class C IP address will be between 192 and 223 (Answer D). |
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Which of the following is a Class C IP address? (Choose all that
apply.) ❍ A. 14.74.67.34 ❍ B. 101.34.89.202 ❍ C. 175.243.3.1 ❍ D. 202.23.53.2 |
Answer: D. A Class C IP address can be identified by looking at the first octet. It will
be between 192 and 223. A Class A IP address can be identified by looking at the first octet. It will be between 1 and 126 (Answers A and B). A Class B will be between 128 and 191 (Answer C). |
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Which of the following are private network addresses that are not
intended to be connected directly to the Internet? (Choose all that apply.) ❍ A. 10.54.43.4 ❍ B. 172.16.34.34 ❍ C. 183.23.3.4 ❍ D. 192.168.4.2 |
Answer: A, B, and D. Because TCP/IP addresses are growing scarce for the Internet, a
series of addresses have been reserved to be used by private networks (networks not connected to the Internet). They are Class A—10.x.x.x, Class B—172.16.x.x to 172.31.x.x, and Class C—192.168.0.x to 192.255.x. If devices need to communicate over the Internet, there needs to be something to translate between private and public network, such as Network Address Translation (NAT). 183.23.3.4 (Answer C) is a public address. |
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Which of the following are examples of IPv6 addresses? (Choose
all that apply.) ❍ A. 130.23.74.24 ❍ B. 255.255.240.0 ❍ C. 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 ❍ D. 2001:db8:85a3:0:0:8a2e:370:7334 ❍ E. 2001:db8:85a3::8a2e:370:7334 |
Answer: C, D, and E. IPv6 addresses are 128-bits long, written in hexadecimal format.
2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 shows the full address. 2001:db8:85a3:0:0:8a2e:370:7334 omits the leading zeros. The 2001:db8:85a3::8a2e:370:7334 includes a number of consecutive groups of 0 value replaced with two colons (::). The 130.23.74.24 (Answer A) is an IPv4 address and the 255.255.240.0 (Answer B) is a subnet mask. |
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Which of the following is a loopback for IPv6? (Choose two
answers.) ❍ A. 127.0.0.1 ❍ B. 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001 ❍ C. ::1 ❍ D. 255.255.0.1 |
Answer: B and C. The loopback address for IPv6 addresses is
0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001, which can be abbreviated with ::1. The 127.0.0.1 (Answer A) is the loopback address for IPv4. 255.255.0.0 (Answer D) is a subnet mask. |
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What is the maximum segment length of a 100BASE-TX cable?
❍ A. 25 meters ❍ B. 75 meters ❍ C. 100 meters ❍ D. 182 meters ❍ E. 550 meters |
Answer: C. 100BASE-TX uses UTP cable with a maximum transmission distance of
100 m. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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The maximum segment length of a CAT5 UTP cable is which of
the following? ❍ A. 246 feet (75 meters) ❍ B. 656 feet (200 meters) ❍ C. 328 feet (100 meters) ❍ D. 164 feet (50 meters) |
Answer: C. Unshielded twisted-pair is rated at 100 meters or 328 feet. Therefore, the
other answers are incorrect. |
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Which connectors does 1000BASE-TX use?
❍ A. MT-RJ ❍ B. RJ-45 ❍ C. RJ-11 ❍ D. ST |
Answer: B. 1000BASE-TX uses UTP cable with RJ-45 connectors. RJ-11 (Answer C)
is used for connecting telephones. MT-RJ (Answer A) and ST (Answer D) connectors are used in fiber optic networks. |
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What is the speed of standard BRI ISDN?
❍ A. 64 Kbps ❍ B. 128 Kbps ❍ C. 256 Kbps ❍ D. 1.544 Mbps |
Answer: A. The basic rate interface (BRI) uses two bearer (or B) channels, each carrying
64 Kbps. To use BRI services, you must subscribe to ISDN service through a local telephone company or provider. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Which of the following would interfere with an IEEE 802.11g wireless
network? (Select all that apply.) ❍ A. Walls ❍ B. Bluetooth devices ❍ C. Microwave ovens ❍ D. IEEE 802.11a devices |
Answer: A and C. Walls interfere with all wireless networks. The more walls you have,
the greater the signal loss. Microwave ovens also use the unlicensed 2.4 GHz radio frequency band and could interfere with an IEEE 802.11g wireless network. Bluetooth devices (Answer B) and 802.11a devices (Answer D) use the 5.0 GHz radio frequencies. |
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Answer: A and C. Walls interfere with all wireless networks. The more walls you have,
the greater the signal loss. Microwave ovens also use the unlicensed 2.4 GHz radio frequency band and could interfere with an IEEE 802.11g wireless network. Bluetooth devices (Answer B) and 802.11a devices (Answer D) use the 5.0 GHz radio frequencies. |
Answer: A. Bluetooth operates at up to 720 Kbps; therefore, the other answers are
incorrect. |
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You can determine the connection speed and signal strength of a
wireless network connection on a Windows XP computer by using which of the following? ❍ A. Wireless access point ❍ B. Wireless network adapter ❍ C. Wireless NIC properties ❍ D. Wireless connection wizard |
Answer: C. When you open the wireless NIC properties, you can view the speed of the
link and the connection strength; therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Which of the following is used primarily to verify the identity of a
person or device, authenticate a service, or encrypt files? ❍ A. Digital envelope ❍ B. Digital signature ❍ C. Digital certificate ❍ D. Certificate authority |
Answer: C. A digital certificate is an electronic attachment that establishes credentials
when doing business or other transactions. It is issued by a certification authority (CA), Answer D. It contains your name, a serial number, expiration dates, a copy of the certificate holder’s public key (used for encrypting messages and digital signatures), and the digital signature of the certificate-issuing authority so that a recipient can verify that the certificate is real. A digital signature (Answer B) is a digital code that can be attached to an electronically transmitted message that identifies the sender. Like a written signature, the purpose of a digital signature is to guarantee that the individual sending the message really is who he or she claims to be. A digital envelope (Answer A) is a type of security that uses two layers of encryption to protect a message. |
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What is the most widely used digital certificate?
❍ A. X.400 ❍ B. X.200 ❍ C. X.509 ❍ D. LDAP |
Answer: C. X.509 is the most widely used digital certificate. It contains information
that identifies the user, as well as information about the organization that issued the certificate, including the serial number, validity period, issuer name, issuer signature, and subject/user name. X.400 (Answer A) is an email standard. X.200 (Answer B) is part of the OSI model. LDAP (Answer D) is short for Lightweight Directory Access Protocol. It is a directory service based on X.500. Active Directory is based on LDAP. |
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What software, hardware device, or system is designed to prevent
unauthorized access to or from a private network or computer? ❍ A. Firewall ❍ B. Certificate server ❍ C. AES ❍ D. EFS |
Answer: A. A firewall is software, hardware device, or system that prevents unauthorized
access to or from a private network or host. All messages or packets entering or leaving through the firewall are examined and the firewall blocks those that do not meet specified security criteria. A certificate server (Answer B) hands out digital certificates. AES (Answer C) is short for Advanced Encryption Standard. It is an encryption standard adopted by the U.S. government and is used by many encryption technologies, including WPA2 wireless encryption. EFS (Answer D) is short for Encrypted File System (EFS). EFS is used to encrypt folders and files on an NTFS volume. |
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Which firewall feature blocks a packet based on previous conversations
or packets? ❍ A. Packet filtering ❍ B. Stateful filtering ❍ C. Stateless filtering ❍ D. Signature blocking |
Answer: B. Stateful filtering creates a table of incoming and outgoing packets so that it
knows what conversations are taking place. If it sees that you opened an outgoing conversation with a web server, it allows that packet from the web server. If another web server tries to communicate through the stateful firewall or if a web server tries to start a new conversation at a later time, it is blocked because it is not part of the current conversation. Packet filtering (Answer A) can block packets based on address or by protocol (based on port number). Stateless filtering (Answer C) technically is packet filtering, but it is not referred to as such. Signature blocking (Answer D) is technology that blocks packets based on prerecorded signatures that identify unwanted packets. |
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You have a computer that is part of the corporate domain. You frequently
work from home and travel. Which of the following are two wireless security policy items that you should implement to safeguard your data? (Select two.) ❍ A. Use an IPSec VPN for remote connectivity ❍ B. Use an HTTPS captive portal ❍ C. Use a personal firewall on this laptop ❍ D. Use a protocol analyzer on this laptop to sniff WLAN traffic for risks ❍ E. Use 802.1X/PEAPv0 to connect to the office network |
nswer: A and C. To connect to the corporate network while at home or traveling, you
should use a VPN connection with IPSec. IPSec encrypts data communicating between the computer and the corporate network. You should also use a personal firewall to protect your computer, especially when you are traveling. Using an HTTPS Captive portal (Answer B) is used to display a special web page that shows before a user can access the Internet. It is usually used for authentication, payment, or to display an acceptable use policy. Unfortunately using an HTTPS Captive portal will not protect your computer. Using a protocol analyzer (Answer D) requires special skills and will only be useful when you are being attacked. 802.1X/PEAP (Answer E) is used for wireless authentication but does not protect you when connecting to other networks. |
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Which of the following attacks are the most common and most
successful when network security is properly implemented and configured? ❍ A. Logical attacks ❍ B. Physical attacks ❍ C. Social engineering attacks ❍ D. Trojan horse attacks |
Answer: C. Social engineering is a term used to describe the process of circumventing
security barriers by persuading authorized users to provide passwords or other sensitive information. So when security is successfully implemented, the best method to circumvent that security is by using social engineering because most other attacks are blocked by the network security. Logical attacks (Answer A), physical attacks (Answer B), and Trojan horse attacks (Answer D) can be prevented, or at least mitigated, when network security is properly implemented and configured. |
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Which of the following is a characteristic of Mandatory Access
Control (MAC)? . A. Uses levels of security to classify users and data . B. Allows owners of documents to determine who has access to specific documents . C. Uses access control lists that specify a list of authorized users . D. Uses access control lists that specify a list of unauthorized users |
Answer: A. MAC is a strict hierarchical mode that is based on classifying data on
importance and categorizing it by department. Users receive specific security clearances to access this data. You can think of it as being similar to the military’s use of secret and top secret documents. The other answers (B, C, and D) are not characteristic of MAC. |
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Which of the following access control methods relies on user
security clearance and data classification? . A. RBAC (Role-Based Access Control) . B. NDAC (Non-Discretionary Access Control) . C. MAC (Mandatory Access Control) . D. DAC (Discretionary Access Control) |
Answer: C. MAC is a strict hierarchical mode that is based on classifying data on
importance and categorizing it by department. Users receive specific security clearances to access this data. You can think of it as being similar to the military’s use of secret and top secret documents. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC—Answer A) is based on being assigned to a role, which has permissions. Discretionary Access Control (DAC—Answer D) is based on owners who control access to their objects. For example, if you create a document, you own it. Because you own the document, you can specify who can access the document. Windows uses DAC. Non-Discretionary Access Control (NDAC) does not exist as an access control method. |
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Windows uses what kind of security model?
. A. RBAC (Role-Based Access Control) . B. NDAC (Non-Discretionary Access Control) . C. MAC (Mandatory Access Control) . D. DAC (Discretionary Access Control) |
Answer: D. Windows permits the owner of an object (such as a process, file, or folder)
to manage access control at their own discretion. MAC (Answer C) is a strict hierarchical mode that is based on classifying data on importance and categorizing it by department. Users receive specific security clearances to access this data. You can think of it as being similar to the military’s use of secret and top secret documents. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC—Answer A) is based on being assigned to a role, which has permissions. Answer B, Non-Discretionary Access Control (NDAC), does not exist as an access control method. |
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What type of program will record system keystrokes in a text file
and email it to the author, and will also delete system logs every five days or whenever a backup is performed? ❍ A. Virus ❍ B. Back door ❍ C. Logic bomb ❍ D. Worm |
Answer: C. A logic bomb is a special kind of virus or Trojan horse that is set to go off
following a preset time interval or following a preset combination of keyboard strokes. Some unethical advertisers use logic bombs to deliver the right pop-up advertisement following a keystroke, and some disgruntled employees set up logic bombs to go off to sabotage their company’s computers if they feel termination is imminent. A virus (Answer A) is a program that spreads from computer to computer without your knowledge or permission and usually does harmful damage. A back door (Answer B) is an opening left behind on a program that allows a user to bypass the normal security. Worms (Answer D) are dangerous because they can enter a system by exploiting a “hole” in an operating system. They don’t need a host or carry file, and they don’t need any user intervention to replicate by themselves. |
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What is the name for a piece of malicious code that has no productive
purpose but can replicate itself and exist only to damage computer systems or create further vulnerabilities? ❍ A. Logic bomb ❍ B. Worm ❍ C. Trojan horse ❍ D. Virus |
Answer: D. A virus is a piece of software designed to infect a computer system. The
virus might do nothing more than reside on the computer. But a virus might also damage the data on your hard disk, destroy your operating system, and possibly spread to other systems. A logic bomb (Answer A) is a special kind of virus or Trojan horse that is set to go off following a preset time interval or following a preset combination of keyboard strokes. Some unethical advertisers use logic bombs to deliver the right pop-up advertisement following a keystroke, and some disgruntled employees set up logic bombs to go off to sabotage their company’s computers if they feel termination is imminent. A virus (Answer D) is a program that spreads from computer to computer without your knowledge or permission and usually does harmful damage. Worms (Answer B) are dangerous because they can enter a system by exploiting a “hole” in an operating system. They don’t need a host or carry file, and they don’t need any user intervention to replicate by themselves. Trojan horses (Answer C) can be included as an attachment or as part of an installation program. The Trojan horse can create a back door or replace a valid program during installation. The Trojan horse then accomplishes its mission under the guise of another program. Trojan Horses can be used to compromise the security of your system, and they can exist on a system for years before they are detected. |
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Which of the following can cause EMI? (Choose all that apply.)
❍ A. Fluorescent lights ❍ B. Space heaters ❍ C. Industrial motors ❍ D. Radio |
Answer: A, B, and C. Electromagnetic interference is an electromagnetic signal
released by an electronic device that might disrupt the operation and performance of another device. EMI can be generated by fluorescent lights, space heaters, industrial motors, and heavy equipment. A radio (Answer D) receives radio waves and typically does not generate radio waves |
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Magnets can cause which of the following? (Choose two
answers.) ❍ A. FDM ❍ B. Current ❍ C. EMI ❍ D. AMI |
Answers: B and C. When you have a current, you have a magnetic field, and when
you have a magnetic field, you have a current. In addition, magnets, such as those found in industrial motors, can generate electromagnetic inference (EMI). Answer A— frequency division multiplexing (FDM)—and Answer D—alternate mark inversion (AMI)—are types of signaling. |
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What are the voltage levels commonly found in a CRT?
❍ A. 250,000V ❍ B. 250V ❍ C. 25,000V ❍ D. 25V |
Answer: C. Extremely high voltage levels (in excess of 25,000V) might be present
inside the CRT housing even up to a year after electrical power has been removed from the unit. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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After you’ve removed the outer case from a CRT display, what precaution
should you take before troubleshooting it? (Choose two answers.) ❍ A. Make sure that it’s discharged ❍ B. Get clearance from your supervisor ❍ C. Put on an antistatic wrist strap ❍ D. Disconnect the monitor from the AC power source |
Answer: A and D. In repair situations, the high-voltage charge associated with video
displays must be discharged. This is accomplished by creating a path from the tube’s high-voltage anode to the chassis. With the monitor unplugged from the commercial power outlet, clip one end of an insulated jumper wire to the chassis ground of the frame. Clip the other end to a long, flat-blade screwdriver that has a well-insulated handle. While touching only the insulated handle of the screwdriver, slide the blade of the screwdriver under the rubber cup of the anode and make contact with its metal connection. This should bleed off the high-voltage charge to ground. Continue the contact for several seconds to ensure that the voltage has been fully discharged. Note: This should only be done by an electronic technician, but if you feel that you need to open a monitor, be extra, extra careful. You should also not wear an antistatic wrist strap (Answer C) because the strap could carry the charge left inside the monitor through you. You should not have to get clearance from your supervisor (Answer B) unless your company requires such things. |
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Which component of a dot matrix printer generates a great deal of
heat and can be a burn hazard when working on these units? ❍ A. Paper tray ❍ B. Platen ❍ C. Ribbon ❍ D. Print head |
Answer: D. To exchange the print head assembly, make sure that the print head
assembly is cool enough to be handled. These units can get hot enough to cause a serious burn. The other components, paper tray (Answer A), platen (Answer B), and ribbon (Answer C) cannot burn you. |
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You are choosing a UPS to make sure that your computer is protected.
What are the two criteria you should choose when selecting the correct UPS? (Choose two answers.) ❍ A. The amount of power a UPS can supply ❍ B. The amount of surge protection it offers ❍ C. The number of plugs or ports ❍ D. The amount of time that a UPS can power a PC when AC power is not available |
Answer: A and D. An uninterruptable power supply (UPS) is a device that provides
emergency power via batteries. When choosing a UPS, you must first make sure that it supplies enough power (wattage and amperage) to the devices it is powering. In addition, a UPS cannot power devices indefinitely. Therefore, you need to choose UPS with enough capacity to power its devices as needed and to be able to perform a proper shutdown when necessary. |
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Which of the following actions can cause a system board to short
out when you change an adapter card? ❍ A. Not wearing an antistatic wrist strap ❍ B. The PnP function not being configured properly ❍ C. Placing the adapter card in the wrong type of expansion slot ❍ D. Not removing the power cord from the AC power source |
Answer: C. System boards are fairly sturdy from an electrical point of view. To create
a short circuit in one of them, you must get a powered trace connected to a ground trace. The only option that actually accomplishes this is plugging an adapter card into the wrong type of expansion slot and then turning on the system. Although some areas of the system board have electrical energy applied to them even when the system is turned off, the expansion slots are not one of those areas. Therefore, not removing the power cord does not cause a short to occur while the system is turned off. Wearing an antistatic wrist strap (Answer A) reduces ESD when you are working on electronic devices. Of course, ESD can damage the electronic components. PnP (Answer B) stands for plug and play, which means it automatically configures. Therefore, it will not cause a component to short out. Although it is recommended for you to unplug the power from a computer before doing maintenance (Answer D), you should not cause a system board to short out. |
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You are talking directly to a customer to try to determine what the
issue is. Unfortunately, you do not understand the issue. What should you do next? . A. Attempt to fix the problem . B. Allow the customer to repeat the problem once more . C. Ask the customer to go somewhere so that they can¡¯t see that you¡¯re unsure . D. Restate the problem to the customer |
Answer: D. Restating the problem to the customer will make sure that both of you
agree on what the problem is. The customer can then give more information or correct you as needed. Of course, you might need to have the customer show you the problem again if the customer doesn’t agree with your statement of the problem (Answer B). You should not attempt to fix the problem until you understand what the problem actually is (Answer A). Because the customer can give you valuable information, you should not send the customer away (Answer C). |
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When taking a call from a customer what is important for the
technician to do? ❍ A. Remain in control of the call and gather relevant information from the customer ❍ B. Keep the customer on the line until the problem is resolved ❍ C. Let the customer explain the problem and write down all information given ❍ D. Let the customer explain while you proxy in to their computer and sort out the problem |
Answer: A. You need to keep control of the call so that you stay on task. You also
need to gather relevant information so that you can figure out the best course of action. You might not necessarily need to keep the customer on the line while you fix the problem, which is often not a quick fix (Answer B). Of course, although you control the call, you should let the customer explain the problem. You don’t necessarily need to write down all information, but it is recommended that you record relevant information if you document your work or service calls (Answer C). The problem might not always be on the customer’s computer; it might be on a server or with some network device. Therefore, you might not need to proxy in to the customer’s computer (Answer D). |
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When brainstorming with a group to come up with ideas to solve a
problem, what describes the ability to express positive and negative ideas and feelings in an open, honest, and direct way? ❍ A. Active listening ❍ B. Concentrating brainstorming ❍ C. Passive communication ❍ D. Assertive communication |
Answer: A. Active listening allows everyone to communicate their ideas and feelings
without fear that they will be persecuted or made fun of. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Your customer has been given a specific timeframe for completion
of work you are doing. As the deadline approaches, you can tell that the work is not going to be completed on time. What should you do first in this situation? . A. Tell the customer the work cannot be done by the deadline and ask the customer for an extension. . B. Call your supervisor to let her know the work will not be done on time. . C. Keep working until the customer checks on your progress. . D. Tell the customer that you can¡¯t get the work done on time and that you will keep working until the job is completed. |
Answer: D. Always notify customers as soon as possible about any appointment
changes, service delays, complications, or setbacks that occur. Apologize for the inconvenience and ask how the customer would like to proceed. These things happen to everyone, and your best defenses against customer dissatisfaction are promptness and good communication. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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One of your customers has given you a request for work that is
prohibited by your company¡¯s written policies. What should you tell the customer? . A. Tell the customer you can¡¯t do it; the request is against your company¡¯s policies. . B. Tell the customer you will see if there is some allowable alternative that you can offer. . C. Tell the customer to contact your supervisor. . D. Perform the requested work on your own time so that you keep your customer happy without breaking the company¡¯s policy. |
Answer: B. Try never to leave customers hanging without a path to get their problems
addressed. If this request cannot be performed under your company’s policies, there might be nothing you can offer. However, you should always check to see whether there is some other option available. Therefore, the other answers are incorrect. |
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Which of the following is the best method of training users to
operate the new equipment you¡¯ve just installed? . A. Reading the equipment¡¯s documentation to the users and having them highlight the parts they will need after you are gone. . B. Give the users a quick version of the most important points of the equipment¡¯s operation, avoiding technical terms whenever possible. . C. Suggest that they purchase an extended training class from your company to ensure that they are fully acquainted with the new device or system. . D. Use their new equipment to show them how it operates. |
Answer: D. The best tool for training users is typically the actual equipment or software
they are expected to use. If you are coaching one or two users, it is best to pull up a chair and get to an equal level with them. This allows you to make the training more personable and less formal. Use the documentation that comes with the hardware or software as part of the training process. Point out and mark key topic areas in the documentation that you know the users will need after you’re gone. However, do not read the manuals to them; this is an instant cure for insomnia and is very ineffective training. Also be careful to use language that the users can relate to. Use proper terminology. Avoid jargon or industry slang when coaching users. |
