Comprehensive Review Flashcards

Front 1

1.How many chromosomes are in the nucleus of atypical diploid cell?

Back 1

46

Front 2

2. Each gamete (ovum or sperm) has how manychromosomes?

Back 2

23 because ½ come from our mothers (0vum) and ½ from ourfathers (sperm

Front 3

3. What is the name for a group of cells, usuallysimilar, which share a particular function?

Back 3

TISSUE: A group of cells, usually similar, which share a particularfunction

Front 4

4 What is an organ made of ?

Back 4

Each ORGAN is made up of one or more tissues.

Front 5

5 What part of the hair follicle is the site of hairgrowth and the location of the melanocytes thatdetermine hair color?

Back 5

Hair matrix

Front 6

6 What are the layers of the epidermis and give abrief description of each

Back 6

Stratum corneum (most superficial layer of epidermis) Stratum lucidum (only in thick skin) Stratum granulosum (cells start to die here) Stratum spinosum Stratum basale (the deepest layer of epidermis; cells arereproducing only here)

Front 7

7 Describe 3 types of most common cancer in theUSA.What is the major risk factor for all three?Which one almost never metastasizes?Which one is the most metastatic?

Back 7

SKIN CANCERThis is the most common cancer in the USA, and its major risk factoris exposure to ultraviolet light.1) BASAL CELL CARCINOMA: Cancer of the blood vessels.Almost never metastasizes or crosses the basementmembraneLooks like shiny nodules2) SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA25% of all cancersWill metastasize if not treated.3) MELANOMA: cancer of the melanocytes of the epidermisHighly metastatic.Asymmetrical, sharp but irregular borders and edgesNot uniform in color.

Front 8

8 Characterize types of burns.Which one is most serious?

Back 8

FIRST DEGREE: Minor burn to the epidermis; sunburnSECOND DEGREE: Dermis separates from epidermis; blisterTHIRD DEGREE: Hypodermis is burned. (most severe type of burn)

Front 9

9 What is the medical term for thick, red, painfulscars?

Back 9

Keloid

Front 10

10 What is an enlargement of the lining of blood vessels,and is treated with lasers?

Back 10

Hemangioma

Front 11

11 What is the rare autosomal dominant disorder ofmelanocyte development, causing a congenitalwhite patch of hair

Back 11

Piebaldism

Front 12

12 What is the shaft of a long bone called?What type of bone does it contain?

Back 12

DiaphysisContains compact bone

Front 13

13 What are the ends of a long bone called?What type of bone do they contain?

Back 13

EpiphysisSpongy (cancellous) bone

Front 14

14 What is the term for rickets caused by lack ofvitamin D?

Back 14

Osteomalacia

Front 15

15 What is the term for dwarfism, the type that haslarger heads and hands than is proportionate?

Back 15

Achondroplasia

Front 16

16 What is the term for cartilage rubbing off underthe patella

Back 16

Chondromalacia

Front 17

17 What type of fracture is when the skin is notbroken?

Back 17

Simple (closed)

Front 18

18 What type of fracture is when the bone breaksthrough the skin?

Back 18

Compound (open)

Front 19

19 How is a fracture described when only one sideof the bone has broken?

Back 19

Incomplete

Front 20

20 How is a fracture described when both sides ofthe bone have broken?

Back 20

Complete

Front 21

21 What is the difference between a displaced andnon-displaced fracture?

Back 21

Describes whether or not the bone fragments are lined up in acomplete fracture

Front 22

22 Name 8 types of fractures.Which type is the most serious? Least serious?Which type is most common in children?What is it called when the hip bone breaks fromosteoporosis, and then the patient falls?

Back 22

TYPES OF FRACTURESCOMMINUTED: The most serious; bone shatters into many smallpieces. Bone graft might be needed.SPIRAL: Bone was twisted.GREENSTICK: most common in childrenCOMPRESSION: bone is crushed, like the vertebrae in osteoporosis.STRESS: least serious, get tiny, almost invisible breaks.COMPOUND FRACTURES: Bone breaks and goes through skin.Increased chance of infections, which can be life-threatening.SIMPLE FRACTURES: Skin is not broken.PATHOLOGICAL FRACTURE: When the bone (especially the hip boneof someone with osteoporosis) breaks first, then the patient falls

Front 23

23 What are the three classifications of joints?Give examples of each

Back 23

1) Fibrous Joints: Fibrous connective tissue (dense regular CT) Example is suture, tooth, ligament2) Cartilaginous Joints: a) Fibrocartilage (vertebral discs, pubic symphysis)b) Hyaline cartilage, no capsule (epiphyseal plate, costal cart)3) Synovial: Hyaline cartilage with a capsule

Front 24

24 What are the three types of joint movement?

Back 24

Synarthrotic immoveable, allows no movement Amphiarthrotic allows only limited movement Diarthrotic freely moveable

Front 25

25 What type of movement does a fibrocartilage(symphysis) joint have?

Back 25

Amphiarthrotic (slightly moveable)

Front 26

26 What type of movement does a hyaline cartilage (synchondrosis) joint have?

Back 26

Synarthrotic (no movement)

Front 27

27 In the knee joint, what are the main ligamentsthat keep the knee from moving medially tolaterally?

Back 27

the collateral ligaments

Front 28

28 What is a sprain?

Back 28

A tear in a ligament

Front 29

29 What is a strain?

Back 29

A tear in a muscle

Front 30

30 SKELETAL MUSCLE For skeletal muscle to contract, whatchemical is released from the neuron? Where is this chemical released onto? What mineral is also needed for musclecontraction? What is the nerve signal called?

Back 30

For skeletal muscle to contract, a neuron must first release achemical called acetylcholine onto the region known as theendplate. Calcium is also needed for muscle contraction. The nerve signal is called an ACTION POTENTIAL.

Front 31

31 What happens to the myosin and actin filamentswhen sacromere contact?

Back 31

The myosin heads of the thick filaments attach like hooks tothe thin actin filaments at both ends of the sacromere andpull the thin filaments toward the center of the sacromere.

Front 32

32 The sites where the myosin heads hook onto theactin are called what?

Back 32

Cross-bridges

Front 33

33 TROPONIN and TROPOMYOSIN cover whichmyofilament when muscle is RELAXED?

Back 33

TROPONIN is a complex of three proteins. TROPOMYOSIN is a single protein. Both troponin and tropomyosin cover the ACTIN filamentwhen the muscle is relaxed.

Front 34

34 What nerve controls the contraction rate of thediaphragm?

Back 34

Phrenic nerve

Front 35

35 What is the storage form of ATP?

Back 35

Creatine phosphate

Front 36

36 What is muscular dystrophy caused by?

Back 36

MUSCULAR DYSTROPHYGenetic lack of the protein DISTROPHIN.The muscle cell won’t contract.

Front 37

37 What glial cell makes myelin sheaths in the CNS?

Back 37

Oligodendrocytes

Front 38

38 What glial cell makes myelin sheaths in the PNS?

Back 38

Schwann cells

Front 39

39 What does myelin do?

Back 39

Speeds up the action potential by jumping from one node of Ranvier(bare area) to another

Front 40

40 What disease is caused by an autoimmunedisease which destroys the myelin sheaths ofnerves?

Back 40

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS is an autoimmune disease where the myelinsheaths are destroyed.

Front 41

41 What is the main sensory nerve of the face?When damaged, what is it called?

Back 41

CN V (Trigeminal nerve)Trigeminal neuralgia

Front 42

42 What is the main motor nerve of the face?

Back 42

CN VII (Facial nerve)

Front 43

43 When it shows intermittent signs of damage,what is it called?

Back 43

Bell’s palsy

Front 44

44 Someone with a damaged facial nerve can noteasily taste sweet, sour, or salty substances hasdamage to which nerve?

Back 44

CN VII (Facial nerve)

Front 45

45 Which cranial nerves carry information from thebaroreceptors in the head and neck to thebrainstem?

Back 45

Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves carry information from thebaroreceptors in the head and neck to the brainstem.

Front 46

46 What is the only cranial nerve to innervatestructures in the thoracic, abdominal and pelviccavities?

Back 46

Vagus nerve

Front 47

47 Which structure develops from an embryonicpouch that grows upward from the ectoderm ofthe pharynx?

Back 47

Adenohypophysis

Front 48

48 What region of the brain contains a precise mapof the different body parts? What is this mapcalled?Why are the hands, tongue, and face region of thehomunculus so large?

Back 48

Pre-central gyrus. This map is called a motor homunculus(Latin: little man)The face region of the homunculus is large so we can have manyfacial expressions. The hands and tongue are large, indicating that wehave many fine motor skills in those areas as well

Front 49

49 What is a collection of axons inside the centralnervous system called?

Back 49

A TRACT is a collection of axons inside the central nervous system

Front 50

50 What does a visceral nerve innervate?What does a somatic nerve innervate?

Back 50

A visceral nerve innervates involuntary effectors (smooth muscles inorgans).A somatic nerve innervates voluntary effectors (skeletal muscle).

Front 51

51 What is hydrocephaly?Meningitis?Encephalitis?

Back 51

HYDROCEPHALYThis is usually congenital, caused by a blockage of the cerebralaqueduct. So the CSF is made but can’t leave, and the brain getsexpanded.MENINGITISThis is when the meninges become infected. Can be caused fromvirus (not that bad) or bacteria (can be fatal). The main symptom isa headache.ENCEPHALITISThis is infection of the brain. It can be caused by mosquito-borneillnesses, or bacteria. Treatment is to remove a piece of the skullbone to allow the swelling.

Front 52

52 What are the two special regions in auditoryassociation area?

Back 52

Broca’s Area and Wernicke’s area

Front 53

53 What region of the brain allows for speech?

What is the condition of not being able to speak?

Back 53

Broca’s Area

Aphasia

Front 54

54 What region of the brain allows understanding ofwords?

Back 54

Wernicke’s area

Front 55

55 Damage to the ulnar nerve results to what?

Back 55

Clawhand

Front 56

56 What is the consequence of a median nerveinjury?

Back 56

Carpel Tunnel Syndrome (Hand of Benediction)

Front 57

57 What is the result of a radial nerve injury?

Back 57

Wrist-drop (waiter’s hand)

Front 58

58 What is sciatica?

Back 58

SCIATICAInflamed sciatic nerve

Front 59

59 What is a neuroma?

Back 59

NEUROMAInflamed nerve in the ball of the footOften caused from wearing high heels

Front 60

60 Damage to which nerve is Carpal TunnelSyndrome?

Back 60

MEDIAN NERVE: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Front 61

61 What is Inflammation of the semi-circular canals,causing dizziness?

Back 61

VERTIGOGives you a sense of motion when you’re not moving = (dizziness)

Front 62

62 Hematocrit is a value describing the ratio of ____to _____

What is the normal hematocrit value?

Back 62

The hematocrit is the ratio of packed red blood cells to total bloodvolume.

Normal is 46% for men and 38% for women.

Front 63

63 Name the blood diseases:The blood’s capacity for carrying oxygen isdiminished

Back 63

BLOOD DISEASESANEMIA is when the blood’s capacity for carrying oxygen isdiminished. It can be caused by blood loss, deficiency in iron, B12, orfolic acid, RBC destruction, or a genetic defect of hemoglobin in theRBCs.

Front 64

64 What is immunotherapy?

Back 64

A form of cancer treatment that takes blood cells from a patient andfuses the blood with an antibody that is specifically designed to seekout and destroy the cancer cell.

Front 65

65 Which heart chamber is responsible forgenerating the largest pressure upon contraction?

Back 65

Left ventricle generates the largest pressure upon contraction.

Front 66

66 What causes the heart to beat?

Back 66

The heart does not need a nerve to stimulate it to contract, rather,specialized heart cells can spontaneously start an action potential thatspreads to depolarize the rest of the cardiac muscle cells.

Front 67

67 What is the term for the period when theventricles are contracting?

Back 67

Systole

Front 68

68 What is the term for the period when theventricles are relaxing?

Back 68

Diastole

Front 69

69 At which stage do the atria contract?

Back 69

Diastole

Front 70

70 Name these heart disease treatments.Surgical procedure to clean out a clogged arteryMedicine that reduces blood clot formationMedicine that dilates coronary arteriesSurgery that takes a blood vessel graft (fromthigh) to go around a blockageFailure of the foramen ovale to close at birth

Back 70

HEART DISORDERS – treatmentAngioplasty is a surgical procedure to clean out a clogged artery.Aspirin reduces blood clot formation.Nitroglycerine dilates the coronary arteries so more blood can getin.Coronary bypass: Take another blood vessel graft (from thigh) andgo around the blockage.Patent Foramen ovale: A ‘blue baby” has low oxygen levels in theblood that may be due to failure of the foramen ovale to close atbirth.

Front 71

71 Which vein is often used to bypass a damagedcoronary artery in coronary bypass surgery. It isthe most likely vein to become varicose anyway?

The “danger triangle” of the face can spreadinfection into the dural sinuses of the brain byway of which vein?

Back 71

SAPHANOUS VEIN is often used to bypass a damaged coronaryartery in coronary bypass surgery. It is the most likely vein tobecome varicose anyway.

FACIAL VEIN: squeezing pimples, and nose piercings in the “dangertriangle” of the face can spread infection through the facial vein intothe dural sinuses of the brain.

Front 72

72Name the lymph disorder1) Cancer of the lymph nodes; manyenlarged lymph nodes that do not feeltender2) Epstein Barr virus attacks B lymphocytesand causes inflammation of lymphvessels.3) Accumulation of excess tissue fluid inloose connective tissue4) Lymph vessel inflammation; usually frominfection5) An infected lymph node that contains alarge number of pathogens that aretrapped in the node but not destroyed

Back 72

DISORDERS OF LYMPH SYSTEMHodgkins disease: Cancer of the lymph nodes; many enlarged lymphnodes that do not feel tenderMononucleosis: Epstein Barr virus attacks B lymphocytes and causesinflammation of lymph vessels.EDEMA is the accumulation of excess tissue fluid in loose connectivetissue.Lymphangitis: lymph vessel inflammation; usually from infection.BUBO is an infected lymph node that contains a large number ofpathogens that are trapped in the node but not destroyed.

Front 73

73 Name respiratory disorder1) Inflamed vocal cords2) In allergic conditions, bronchioles willconstrict, blocking air flow to the lungs.3) The #1 or #2 most deadly form of cancer4) Lack of surfactant in premature babies5) The rubbing together of inflamed pleuralmembranes that produces a stabbingpain in the chest6) Collapsed lung from a hole in the pleura

Back 73

RESPIRATORY DISORDERLARYNGITIS: inflamed vocal cords (↓ sound production).ASTHMA: In allergic conditions, bronchioles will constrict, blockingair flow to the lungs.LUNG CANCER: the #1 or #2 most deadly form of cancer.RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME: lack of surfactant inpremature babiesPLEURISY is the rubbing together of inflamed pleural membranesthat produces a stabbing pain in the chest.PNEUMOTHORAX: collapsed lung from a hole in the pleura

Front 74

74 When you are advised to get flu shots for thisyear’s strain of flu virus, but you do not get theshot and then you get the flu, this flu is actuallywhat?

Back 74

INFLUENZA

Front 75

75 What three features is Mononucleosischaracterized by?

Back 75

1) Inflammation of lymph vessels2) Painful lymph nodes3) Infection of B-lymphocytes with the Epstein-Barr virus

Front 76

76 Inspiration – what muscles produce inspiration?

Back 76

The diaphragm and the external intercostals are the muscle group thatproduces inspiration.

Front 77

77 What is inflammation of the bronchi called?

Back 77

Bronchitis

Front 78

78 What respiratory conditions is loss of elastictissue on the bronchioles and alveoli, whichcollapse now during exhalation

Back 78

Emphysema (a form of COPD)

Front 79

79 What condition is characterized by a person witha large, “barrel” chest?

Back 79

Emphysema (a form of COPD)

Front 80

80 Bacteria eat away at the enamel

Back 80

CAVITY (cary)

Front 81

81 If the cavity extends into the pulp cavity.

Back 81

ROOT CANAL

Front 82

82 Bacteria cause inflammation of the gums

Back 82

GINGIVITIS

Front 83

83 What is the major cause of tooth loss, and howdoes it occur?

Back 83

PERIODONTITIS gingiva pulls away from the tooth and extendsdown to the periodontal ligament.

Front 84

84 Bacterial infection that erodes the stomach lining

Back 84

GASTRIC ULCER

Front 85

85 a small pouch in the large intestine becomesinflamed

Back 85

DIVERTICULITIS

Front 86

86 inflammation of the colon

Back 86

COLITIS

Front 87

87 The #1 most deadly cancer because itmetastasizes with no symptoms. It can bediagnosed by seeing blood in the stoo

Back 87

COLON CANCER

Front 88

88 Used to looks for POLYPS, which are precancerousgrowths

Back 88

COLONOSCOPY

Front 89

89 varicose veins along the rectum

Back 89

HEMORRHOIDS

Front 90

90 Infection of the liverLiver cells die; often from alcoholismThis is not a disease; it is a symptom of liverdisorder. It first shows up as a yellow color in thesclera of the eye because it is white there.

Back 90

HEPATITIS: Infection of the liver = (can be deadly)

CIRRHOSIS: liver cells die; often from alcoholism.

JAUNDICE: This is not a disease; it is a symptom of liver disorder. Itfirst shows up as a yellow color in the sclera of the eye because it iswhite there.

Front 91

91 Which cells in the Stomach secrete hydrochloricacid and digestive enzymes which kill bacteria?

Back 91

PARIETAL CELLS

Front 92

92 Which vitamin requires an Intrinsic Factor inorder to be absorbed?

Back 92

Vitamin B-12

Front 93

93 Lack of B12 causes what disorder?

Back 93

Pernicious (megaloblastic) Anemia

Front 94

94 What do Chief Cells secrete?

Back 94

Chief cells secrete an enzyme called Pepsinogin. When Pepsinogin isexposed to hydrochloric acid, it is cleaved into PEPSIN, it’s activeform. Pepsin digests proteins.