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381 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What type of engines does the Q200 have?
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PW-123D
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What is the shaft horsepower of the Q200 engine?
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1950 at normal T/O power and 2150 with engine uptrim.
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Ho many and what are the major rotating compenents of the Q200 engine?
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6. Low pressure and high pressure compressor and their associated turbine, and two stage axial free power turbine which drives the propellor throught the reduction gear box.
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What is the total oil capacity of an engine?
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5-6 gallons
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How is engine oil cooled?
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Via the air oil heat exchanger located in the rear of the engine intake duct, and the fuel oil heat exchanger located on the upper right portion of the engine.
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What components are located on the accessory gear box?
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F--fuel control unit
O--oil pump D--DC starter generator |
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What items are on the reduction gear box?
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H--Main hydraulic pumps
A--AC generators P--Prop control unit(PCU) P--Prop overspeed gov. (POG) |
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Max ramp weight?
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36500 lbs.
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Max take off weight?
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36300 lbs.
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Max landing weight?
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34500 lbs.
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Max zero fuel weight?
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32400 lbs.
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minimum structural weight
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21400 lbs
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max cargo weight
total aft 1 aft 2 |
1980 total
1980 aft 1 980 aft 2 |
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what is the Q200 wingspan
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85 feet
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What is the length of the Q200
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73 feet
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What is the prop diameter of the Q200
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13 feet
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What is the 180 degree turning radius from the pivot point?
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62 feet
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What components are on the number 1 hydraulic system?
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F--flaps
I--inboard roll spoilers B--brakes normal toe A--anti-skid control valve R--rudder actuator lower P--Power xfer unit (PTU) |
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What components are on the number 2 hydraulic system?
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L--landing gear
O--outboard roll spoilers S--Power steering E--emergency park brake R--rudder actuator upper |
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What is the minimum and maximum fluid qauntities in the #1 hyd. system?
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1.5 min
2.5 max |
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What is the min and max fluid quantities for the #2 hyd system?
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3.0 min
5.5 max |
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What are the two ways in which the PTU will turn on?
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Push the switchlight on or have a number 1 engine fauile and have the gear handle selected up.
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What is the max altitude for gear extension?
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15000
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What is the purpose of the nose gear locking mechanism?
How do you know it is engaged? |
To keep the nose wheel from collapsing on the ground.
It is engaged when out and the chevrons are pointing down. There is an advisory light on the PIC side panel to indicate the nose gear is locked. |
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When is the gear warning horn activated?
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It is tested.
Flaps 15 degrees or more the gear up and the autofeather is not selected on. Horn cannot be silenced. One or both power levers at or near flight idle and the airspeed goes below 130. Horn can be silenced. |
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What direction does the nose and main landing gear retract?
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Nose--forward
Main--AFT |
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What does the landing gear inop caution light mean?
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It signifies a failure of a gear door sequencing valve.
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What is the minimum parking brake pressure to start the engine without taking extra precautions?
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1500psi
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With the steering on how many degrees of rudder and tiller steering is available?
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7 degrees with rudder
60 degrees with tiller |
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Does the SIC have any hydraulically assisted nosewheel steering?
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Yes. Provided the steering switch is on they have 7 degrees through their rudder pedals.
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What does the nose steering caution annunciator mean?
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Either the electronic control unit has failed or the nosewheel has exceeded the 60 degree turning point and has entered into free castor mode.
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With the steering switch off will moving the rudder pedals cause the nose wheel to move?
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No.
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What are the functions of the engine electronic control unit (ECU)?
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Control and refine fuel scheduling from the mechanical fuel control.
Controls fuel flow when Nh is above 30% Controls the handling bleed off valve Conrols NP underspeed governing in the Beta range Provides engine uptrim durning engine failure torque increase of 10% |
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Where does the ECU get its inputs from?
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ECU mode controller
Torque sensor control unit Power lever and condition----------lever position Nh Np Air data computer Pressures and temps |
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When must an engine start be aborted?
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Hot Hung Low Slow
ITT exceeding 840-900 for 12 secs or 900-950 for 5 secs. Nh fails to increase or decreases. Low oil pressure by starter cut off No light off (no ITT) after 10 secs from the time the condition lever is moved to start and feather. |
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What is the highest ambient air temperature we can operate at?
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48.9 or ISA +35 wichever is lower
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What is the lowest temperature operating limit for the airplane?
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-54 C
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What is the max outside air temperature for a bleeds on take off?
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41.9
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What are the ITT limits?
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800-840 for 20 sec.
840-900 for 12 sec. 900-950 for 5 sec. |
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What is the max altitude for an airstart?
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20000
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What is the minimum fuel temp for Jet A?
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-36
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What is the max allowable torque with the condition levers in Start and Feather?
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57%
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What is the minimum reduced takeoff torque setting?
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88.5% for the assumed outside air temperature
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How long is max takeoff power limited to?
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5 minutes and cannot be set by the crew only by an engine uptrim due to an engine failure.
This power setting shall not be reduced until until flaps and gear are retracted and a climb at Vse is established. |
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Transient engine limits are time limited to how long?
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20 seconds.
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What is the normal oil pressure range?
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55-65 psi
40-55 is allowable only when NH is below 75% with the exception of engine spool up during start anything less than 40psi requires engine shutdown. |
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When would an oil pressure of 40-55 psi be acceptable?
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With an Nh below 75%
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Normal oil temperature?
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45-115
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An oil temperature of 115-125 is time limited for how long?
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20 minutes
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What is the minimum oil temp for to having the condition levers out of start and feather and the power levers above flight idol?
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0
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What oil temperture is the minimum required for adequate engine inlet splitter anti-icing?
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45
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What is the minimum oil temperature for engine starting?
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-40
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Give a general description of the propellors.
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Four bladed fully feathering reversing constant speed with autofeather and syncrophase system.
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How many RPM must the props be within for the syncrophase system to work?
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20 RPM
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Which prop is the Slave and which is the Master in the syncrophase system?
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#2 is slave #1 is master
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What RPM does the condition lever control in the governor range?
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900-1200 RPM
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When do the prop ground rage lights come on?
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When the power levers are reduced below the flight idol range
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What does it take for the autofeather system to arm?
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The autofeather switchlight must me selected, both powerlever angles must be greater the 60 degrees and both engines torque must exceed 38%
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When does a prop autofeather?
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When the failing engines torque falls below 28% and the operative engines torque is above 38%
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When does the auxilary feather pump activate during an autofeather?
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Automatically 3 seconds after the autofeather sequence begins.
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Where does the auxillary feather pump get its oil from to drive the props to feather?
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from a small resevoir in the oil system which is located in the reduction gear box, which is in place to ensure feathering even in the event of catastrophic oil loss.
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In order for the alternate feather pump and the feathering seleniod to be activated by the alernate feather switch what conditions must be met?
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The associated power lever must be at the flight idol gate and the associated condition lever must be at or aft of the start and feather position.
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What is in the propellor system to prevent random prop blade angles due to a loss of oil pressure?
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Pitch lock mechanism.
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What does the signal control unit do and what system is it associated with?
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It is part of the autofeather system. It controls the autofeather sequence.
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How does the propellor overspeed governor work in flight?
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If it senses an overspeed condition it will send a signal to dump fine pitch oil
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How does the propellor overspeed gevernor work on the ground?
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It has a pneumatic function that bleeds P3 air away from the MFC which slow engine speed by reducing fuel delivery to the engine
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What is the function of the beta back up system?
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To prevent the props from inadvertantly moving into the ground beta range in flight?
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How would you know that the propellors are moving into the beta, ground range in flight?
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An illumination of the prop ground range lights in flight.
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If in flight the propellors were to continue into the beta range how does the beta back up system help to keep the props out of it?
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The beta back up system signals the feathering solenoid valve to open allowing fine pitch oil to dump.
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How does the prop control unit control propellor blade angle?
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It meters high pressure engine oil to a double acting pitch change mechanism.
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How is the auxiliary feather pump powered?
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28 VDC
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What are the primary functions of the pneumatics and vaccuum system?
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air conditioning pressurization and 18 psi consumers
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When does the pneumatics system utilize the LP bleed air?
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During high power settings
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What stage compressor does the LP bleed air come from?
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The first stage compressor.
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When does the pneumatics system utilize the HP bleed air?
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During low power settings.
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What stage compressor does the HP bleed air come from?
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The second stage compressor.
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What are the primary functions of the pneumatics and vaccuum system?
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air conditioning pressurization and 18 psi consumers
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When does the pneumatics system utilize the LP bleed air?
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On ground, WOW, whenever the HP system is producing more than 65psi as sensed by pressure swith 1.
In flight anytime pressure is above 55psi unless the airframe ice is selected to on then the LP bleed air is in use only if the HP bleed pressure exceeds 65psi. |
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What stage compressor does the LP bleed air come from?
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The first stage compressor.
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When does the pneumatics system utilize the HP bleed air?
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During low power settings.
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What stage compressor does the HP bleed air come from?
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The second stage compressor.
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What are the primary functions of the pneumatics and vaccuum system?
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air conditioning pressurization and 18 psi consumers
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When does the pneumatics system utilize the LP bleed air?
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During high power settings
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What stage compressor does the LP bleed air come from?
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The first stage compressor.
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When does the pneumatics system utilize the HP bleed air?
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During low power settings.
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What stage compressor does the HP bleed air come from?
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The second stage compressor.
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Where is the ACM located?
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In the rear of the airplane aft of the rear pressure bulkhead.
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What is the reason we can only have 1980 lbs. of cargo rather than 2000 lbs?
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Because the engine intake plugs are kept in the aft cargo compartment as well.
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What is the total fuel capacity?
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5678lbs. 2839lbs. per tank
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What type of flaps do we have?
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Single slotted fowler type.
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Can the elevators operate independantly from one another, and if so how?
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Yes, by pulling the pitch disconnect handle.
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The rudder has a fore and aft section. What causes the rudder to move and how much does each section move?
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Two hydraulic actuators. The aft section attached to the fore section and is geometrically geared to move twice the disatance of the fore section.
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How many G's does it take for the inertial seatbelt locks to engage?
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2 G's
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Can the baggage compartment be accessed from the passenger compartment?
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Yes, by folding down the center seat in row 9.
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Where are the emergency exits located?
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1E 4A 4E
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How many pressure pads are on the cargo door?
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10
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If during engine start the recirc fan was left on and it was noticed that it had stoped working what could you do to fix it?
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Turn the recirc fan switch off for 20 secs. and then turn it on.
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Where is the duct temperature guage sensor located?
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Just downstream of the ACM.
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What is the difference between Lower Duct Upper Duct and Auto on the Flight attendant control pannel?
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• When UPPER DUCT is selected on the Flight Attendant’s control panel
an Air Duct Shutoff Valve closes and conditioned air is supplied to the overhead storage bin structures. • When LOWER DUCT is selected on the Flight Attendant’s control panel the Air Duct Shutoff Valve opens and conditioned air is supplied to the overhead storage bin structures and the floor vents in the passenger compartment. • When AUTO is selected the Air Duct Shutoff Valve will automatically operate as follows: • If cool temperature is set on the Flight Attendant’s Control Panel, the Air Duct Shutoff Valve will close and conditioned air is supplied to the overhead stowage bin structures. • If warm temperature is set on the Flight Attendant’s Control Panel, the Air Duct Shutoff Valve will open and conditioned air is supplied to the overhead stowage bin structures and the floor vents. |
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What does a Cabin Duct Hot caution meant? How does the air conditioning system respond?
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There is an overtemperature in the Cabin Duct. The air conditioning system responds by driving the pack valves to a full cold position. Once cooled AC goes back to normal operation
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What does FLT COMP HOT mean and how does the Air conditioning system respond?
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The flight compartment duct temp is hot, the AC system responds by closing the trim valves until cooled then returns to normal operation.
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What does AIR COND HOT caution mean and how does the air conditioning system respond?
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There is an overtemperature situation in the ACM, the AC system responds by shutting down the bleed airflow to the ACM by closing both HP and nacelle shut off valves. Once cooled the AC system will restore the bleed air flow.
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How does ram air enter the aircraft in flight and what would increase ram air flow to improve comfort?
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Ram air can enter the cabin if the ACM is not running by taking bleed air off of the ACM, manually or automatically by a overheated ACM. To improve ram air flow you could open the forward outflow valve.
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Under normal operations what is the primary function of the ram air scoop at the rear of the airplane?
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To cool the heated bleed air in the heat primary and secondary exhcangers.
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What keeps the ram air from entering the airplance under normal operations?
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ACM back pressure keeps a check valve closed.
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Where is the normal outflow valve located?
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On the rear preasure bulkhear at the one o'clock position.
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If the normal outflow valve were to fail how else could pressuriztion control be accomplished?
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Using the forward safety outflow valve.
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Where is the forward saftey outflow valve located?
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On the forward pressure bulkhead.
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How is the normal outflow valve opened and closed?
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It is opened by an electric torque motor which regulates how much vacuume is applied to the valve to pull it open and it is spring loaded closed.
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At what pressure differential causes the pressure releif valves to open and where are these valve located?
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5.8 psid they are located on the normal and safety outflow valves.
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What mode of pressuriztion control utilizes the normal outflow valve?
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Auto
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What mode of pressuriztaion control utilizes the forward outflow valve?
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The manual mode.
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How does the forward outflow valve open and close?
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It is held closed by a spring and opened by vaccuum that is created by slipstream not the engine bleed air system.
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What ways can the forward outflow valve be opened in flight?
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Either by moving the manual pressuriztion control valve dial or opening the safety outflow valve lever on the SICs side panel.
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What are the four modes the pressurization system can be operated in?
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Automatic
Semi-automatic (cab set) Manual Dump |
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What is the only mode of pressurization to utilize the forward outflow valve?
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Manual mode.
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What are the reasons you might use the semi-automatic mode for presurization control?
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If the auto function were to fail or you wish to achieve a desired climb or descent rate or a specific cabin altitude.
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How do you operate the pressurization system in semi-automatic mode?
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Mode select swith to AUTO
Cabin semi-auto switch to cab set Set appropriate cabin altitude for given cruising------altitude use chart on---------overhead console Must reset to feild elv prior----to descent. Barametric pressure set to-------departure airport setting. Use rate control knob for--------desired rate Manual control knob must be------full couterclockwise. |
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What climb rate does setting the rate knob to the index provide?
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Climb 500FPM
Descent 300FPM |
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When you move the mode selector switch for the pressurization control to man what happens to the normal outflow valve?
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The electrical power is removed from it and it closes to its spring loaded closed position.
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When selecting dump on the presurization mode controller what ouflow valve opens and why?
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The normal outflow valve because the switch in dump sends a full open electric signal to the torque motor which applies full vacuume to the ouflow valve.
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What does the illumination of the Cabin Press warning annunciator mean?
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The cabin has exceeded 10000'
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If one flight guidence computer were to fail do you have to manually select the other computer?
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No the AFCS will automatically select the operative computer.
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How do you select between the left or right flight guidence computer?
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By pressing the left or right AFCS master buttons.
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Can the autopilot be engaged without the yaw damp being selected on?
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No
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What are the autopilot limitations?
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D-O-G-C-H-E-S-S-B-E-E-F
D APP or NAV mode may not be----used with a VOR if the DME----is not operative. O Don't overpower G Glideslope 2.5-4 degrees------G/S >3* flaps 15 mandatory C Cat I approaches only H Harness must be worn E No single engine approaches S No severe ice S No severe turbulence B No Backcourse approaches E Engaged after 1000' on T/O E Disengaged atleast 200'AGL F Flaps 35 not authorized |
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What electrical devices always recieve electrical power regardless of battery position?
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Dome and boarding lights
Emergency lights controller Fuel & Hydraulic shutoff vlves PA emrgency power Fire bottle squibs |
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Do the battery switches have to be on for the batteris to accept a charge?
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yes
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With the battery master switch off and both battery switches off what busses get iscolated from the battery power?
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The right main bus and thier respective essential bus. The left main bus is unpowered unless the main bus tie is closed. Remember the Aux bat switch only allows the aux bat to charge from the left main bus.
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What happens when the battery master switch is turned on?
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The main and aux batteries are connected to their associated main and essential busses.
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If the battery master is already on what gets powered when the main and aux bat switches are turned on?
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The Main batt switch being on will power the right main buss and allow if required to start the right engine.
The aux batt swith being on only allows the electrical system to charge the aux batt. THE AUX BATT DOES NOT FEED ANY OTHER BUSS THAN IT'S ESSENTIAL BUS. |
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What is the purpose of the main bus tie?
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To allow power from the main batt. to flow from the right main bus to the left main bus. This is because the Aux batt is only connected the the left main bus for charging. So if you wished to start the #1 engine first you'd have to close the tie.
The main bus tie can also close automaticly as a result of the DC logic system |
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When you push the battery temperature test button what should you see?
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The main and aux temp scales should illuminate up to 70*C and all lights green yellow and red should illuminate. Both the MAIN & AUX BATT HOT warning anunciators should illuminate and the master warning flasher should illuminate.
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What does moving the battery temperature panels test switch to the left or right simulate? What indications are illuminated during this test?
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An electrical short of open circuit in the battery temperature monitor and warning circuits.
You should see the sensor fail lights illuminate and and a single bar on the temperature scale at 60*C area. |
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How is the DC system powered?
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2 24 volt nicad batteries
2 28 volt Starter generators 2 xfrmr rectifier units 28V |
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How is the AC electrical system powered?
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2 AC generaters 115VVAC
3 inverters 115V fixed |
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What is the amperage of the main and aux battery?
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Main batt 40 amps
Aux batt 15 amps |
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Where are the main and aux batteries located?
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In the lower left nose compartment.
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Where are the GCU's located?
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They are on an equipment rack directly behind the SIC's seat.
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What are the functions of the GCU?
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Above 60% Nh tells starter to-----be generator.
Regulates voltage to 28 Fault protection isolates generator from its respective main bus. |
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Where are the TRU's located?
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In the Upper nose compartment. They are round.
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How do the TRU's work?
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The recieve 115VVAC power from the AC generators and convert AC power to DC power.
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Where do the TRU's feed there power to in the DC electrical system?
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To thier respective secondary bus.
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What is the only way a TRU can be turned off by the crew in flight?
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Pulling its respective circuit breaker.
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How are the TRU's cooled?
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They have an internal cooling fan.
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If the DC logic system is operating can you still manually operate the main bus tie switch?
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No.
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When operating on ground power are all Bus ties open or closed?
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Closed
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In flight are the bus ties opened or closed?
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Open each bus is powered by its very own source of DC power unless a failure occurs at which point the DC logic system will close the correct tie to restore power.
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If a 1 DC generator were to fail what does the DC logic do?
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It closes the main bus tie.
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How does the DC logic system respond to a L or R single TRU failure?
|
It closes the secondary bus tie.
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How would the DC logic system respond to a dual gen failure?
What other electrical failures causes this same response? |
It closes both main/secondary bus ties. Dual TRU failure Dual AC gen failure.
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Will the main/secondary bus ties close if there is a dual DC power source failure and a single failure of another source of DC power? example Dual DC gen fail followed by a single TRU failure. How would the DC logic system handle this complex problem?
|
NO.
The DC logic system will only close the secondary bus ties. This will leave the left main bus unpowered and leave each essential bus powered by battery only. |
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How would the DC logic system respond to a Dual TRU failure acompanied with a single DC gen failure?
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It would close the main bus tie and inhibit the main/secondary bus tie from closing. Thus all secondary bus functions would be lost.
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What is the purpose of the Bus Bar Protection Unit also known as the BBPU?
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It monitors the main bus for potential faults.
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How does the BBPU respond to a potential fault?
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First it inhibits to closure of the main bus tie and main/secondary bus ties.
The DC BUS caution light illuminates. After 7-10 sec monitoring period the BBPU tells the respective GCU to take its generator off line. |
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If due to a BBPU operation the battery gets taken off line does that mean it is shut off to its associated essential bus?
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No just shut off to its main bus, main battery only, remember aux battery is only charged by the main bus it only powers its essential bus.
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If the BBPU were to sense a fault on the left main DC bus what annunciators will illuminate?
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DC BUS
#1 DC GEN AUX BATTERY AUX INVERTER |
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What annunciators will illuminate if the BBPU senses a right main bus fault?
|
DC BUS
#2 DC GEN MAIN BAT |
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What is the purpose of the bus fault reset swith?
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It is used to reset the BBPU after it has detected a potential main bus fault.
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How would you know that a bus fault has been resolved?
|
After moving the bus fault reset switch to reset if the DC BUS caution annunciator extinguishes, you can be certain the main bus is operating again normally, and you can conclude that a faulty generator caused the problem.
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How many DC buses are there?
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6
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How can you tell a battery overload on the DC overhead panel?
|
On the battery load meters there would be a flashing + symbol to the left of the number.
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How can you tell a battery discharge situation?
|
By noting a flashing - on the battery load meter located on the DC power monitor panel.
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What are the load limits of the DC Power system?
|
Generators .7 grnd 1.0 flight
TRU's 1.0 |
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What are the AC electrical load limits?
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AC gen's if ambient temp greater than 10 degrees C .33 if less than 10 degrees C 1.0
Inverters 1.0 |
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Where are the AC generators mounted?
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On the aft side of the propreduction gearbox.
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How are the AC gens cooled?
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Prop reduction gearbox oil.
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Where are the AC gens GCU's located?
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In the AC contactor box located in the respective engine nacelle.
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How many 115VVAC buses are there and how do they get power normally?
|
2 they get there power from there respective AC gen.
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After the AC gens power there respective 115VVAC ac buses where does the power flow to?
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The left and right TRU's.
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|
|
What is powered from the 115 VVAC busses?
|
The anti ice system except the pitot and static ports
The Auxiliary fuel pumps. The Standby hyd. pumps. |
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How are the standby hydraulic pumps wired and what is significant to keep in mind with the #2 stndby hyd pump?
|
They are cross wired #2 stndby pump is wired to the #1 115VVAC bus and the #1 stndby pump is wired to the #2 115 VVAC bus.
The #2 stndby hyd pump is also wired to the right 115VVAC bus and if power from the #1 system were to fail the pump would revert to using the right system. |
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What does the illumination of #1 or #2 AC GEN caution annunciator mean?
|
The generator has been taken off line due to a fault or the switch is off.
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How does the AC electrical system respond to an AC generator going off line?
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The AC cross tie closes allowing the operative AC gen to power both 115 VVAC busses and both TRU's.
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What does illumination of #1 or #2 AC GEN HOT caution advisory mean?
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AC gen has developed an overtemperature condition.
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What does illumination of L or R AC BUS caution annunciator mean?
|
A fault has occured on the 115 VVAC bus.
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If you were to notice the illumination of either the L or R AC BUS caution annunciator what other caution annunciator will most likely be on and why?
|
The L or R TRU caution annunciator will be on because they recieve their power from their respective 115 VVAC bus. This will also result in the DC logic system to close the secondary bus tie so the remaining TRU can power both secondary buses.
|
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What annunciators will be illuminated if a dual AC generator were to occur?
|
#1 #2 AC GEN
L R TRU L R AC BUS various other icing caution lights |
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How does the DC logic system react to a dual AC gen failure?
|
It closes the main/secondary bus ties.
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How many inverters are there and where are they located?
|
3 behind the captains seat.
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What voltage and frequency do the inverters produce?
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115 V at 400 hz
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What do inverters do?
|
They convert the 28 VDC power to 115 V AC power.
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Where do the inverters get their power from?
|
The Primary inverter recieves its power from the left essential DC bus.
The auxiliary inverter recieves its power from the left main bus. The secondary inverter recieves its power from the right essential DC bus. |
|
|
What equipment is powered by the inverters?
|
Sensitive equipment such as radios and flight instruments.
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What 115 V bus does each inverter power?
|
The primary powers the left the secondary powers the right and the auxiliary can be switched to either the left or right. it is normally selected to the left or primary side.
|
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Are there any other AC busses besides the 115 VVAC and the 115 V?
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yes 2 26 V AC buses.
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How are the 26 volt AC buses powered?
|
They are powered by the left and right 115 V AC buses which power an auto transformer which steps down the 115 V ac to 26 V AC.
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What uses 26 V AC power and how is it divided?
|
Flight instruments such as RMI's HSI ADI ALT.
The left 26 V AC bus powers the Pilots side and obviously the riht 26 V AC bus powers the FO's side. |
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Is there a way to know immediately that there is a fault of the 26 V AC bus?
|
yes illumination of either the L or R 26 AC caution annunciator.
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Where is the flight compartment O2 bottle located?
|
In the lower righthand nose compartment.
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Where are the O2 bottles in the cabin located?
|
2 in the compartment in front of seath 1E and 1 labled crew only in the over head compartment over 1D.
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How long should the 2 O2 bottles in front of seat 1E last and how many pax could recieve O2?
|
30 min @ 1800psi up to 4 pax 2 per bottle
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How long should the cabin O2 for crew last and what percent concentration is the flow?
|
60 mins 100% at all altitudes.
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What is the primary purpose of the O2 bottle above seat 1D? What is its secondary purpose?
|
Primary for medical treatment. Secondary for the flight attendant in a sudden cabin depressurization.
|
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Where is the FA's emergency flashlight and life vest located?
|
In a pull off panel located under their seat.
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What equipment is located in the emergency equipment closet and where is it located?
|
It is located right infront of seat 1E. Inside it is:
first aide kit passenger service kit emergency medical kit 2 O2 bottles Fire extinguisher PBE |
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Provided the emergency lights switch is in the arm position what will cause the lights to come on?
|
Loss of electrical power to the right secondary bus.
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For the flight attendant to use there emergency lighting switch to turn on the emergency lights what must the flight crew have done?
|
Placed the emergency light switch to arm.
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What emergency equipment is located on the bulkhead of row 9?
|
A hand fire extinguisher and PBE.
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Name the main components of Fire detection and extinguishing, excluding the 3 hand held extinguishers.
|
Fire loops in engine nacelles
Engine fire extinguisghers Cargo bay smoke detectors Lav smoke detector and extngr. |
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|
What is the differece between the A and B fire loops?
|
The A fire loop circulates the entire nacelle. The B loop just covers the intercompressor area of the engine. Note there are two a loops only one operates at a time the other is a flying spare should the other break.
|
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How do the fire loops work?
|
They are filled with a gasous mixture hellium and hydrogen, as heat begins to build the gasses expand, and at a predetermined point the sensors will trigger a fire waring.
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What lights will illuminate if a engine fire is detected?
|
(1) T-handle, (2) Engine fire press to reset, (1)check fire det (1) master warning flasher
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If a fire is succesfully extinguished will the T-handle light extinguish?
|
Yes
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Is there any master warning light assosiated with a yellow loop fault light on the fire protection control panel?
|
Yes, the Warning Flasher and CHECK FIRE DET warning annunciator illuminates.
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How many squibs per extinguisher bottle for engine fire and why?
|
2 one squib for the #1 engine and one squib for the #2 engine.
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How do the fire extinguisher squibs get there power to operate?
|
They are wired directly to the batteries.
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What is the purpose of the RED and Yellow discs just below the left wing root on the fusalage?
|
Red disc missing would indicate a fire bottle discharged due to thermal expansion.
Yellow disc missing indicates crew discharge of a fire bottle. |
|
|
What happens when a T-handle gets pulled?
|
Emergency Fuel shut off valve closed
Emer. Hyd shut off valve closes on engine Arms the correct squib at the fire bottle |
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How do you know that when you pull the T-handle that the emergency fuel valve has closed?
|
Because the fuel valve light will go from the green to the white light.
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What happens if the T-handle gets pulled and either the fwd or aft fire bottle light doesn't illuminate?
|
There may be a problem with the arming of the squib or the bottle may have already been discharged.
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What lights will extinguish if an engine fire is succesfully put out?
|
The (2) engine fire press to reset lights, and the CHECK FIRE DET and T-handle light.
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When pressing the test swith on the fire panel how many lights should light up?
|
7, The standard 5 of a real fire plus Loop A & B of side being tested.
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What should the T-handle test show us?
|
The emergency fuel valve works and that the fire bottle arm and aren't discharged.
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How many smoke detectors and what are thier locations in the cargo compartment?
|
2 one on the ceiling and one on the forward wall
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|
|
If either of the cargo smoke detectors detect smoke what annunciator will illuminate in the cabin?
|
SMOKE and the warning flasher
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Where is the Lav smoke detector located?
|
In the ceiling of the Lav.
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|
What indications occur if the Lav smoke detector detects smoke?
|
an audible alarm and
signal chime emits from PA No visual warning in Flight deck |
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|
Why and where does the lav fire extinguisher discharge?
|
It discharges in the waste disposal bin, due to excessive heat no crew action is required.
|
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|
What extinguishing agent is in the handheld fires and what class of fire are they good for?
|
Halon, A B C
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|
Why are the rudders and spoilers considered powered flight control surfaces?
|
They are hydraulically powered.
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|
How are the elevators moved?
|
By a system of cables pulleys and bell cranks.
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|
What elevator is controlled by the left and right control yoke?
|
They operate together when the pitch disc handle is locked and place. When it is pulled. The left yoke controls the left section of elevator and the right controls the right.
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|
Where are the trim tabs located on the elevators?
|
On the outboard trailing edge of both the left and right elevator.
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How are the airlerons and spoilers actuated?
|
The airlerons are mechanically moved by cables pulleys belcranks.
The spoilers are mechanically controlled but hydraulically actuated. |
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|
If the roll disc handle were pulled who controls the spoilers and who controls the ailerons?
|
Capt. spoilers
FO. ailerons |
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|
How many spring tabs are there?
What is the purpose of the spring tabs? |
4 one on each elevator and one on each aileron.
They serve to reduce control force pressures. |
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|
What is the significance of the right aileron spring tab?
|
It also serves as a trim tab.
|
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|
Above what airspeed are the outboard roll spoilers deactivated?
|
140
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What hydraulic pressure should always be available to the roll spoiler actuators and what pressure should always be possible to shut off?
|
Retract pressure always on
Extend pressure should always be available to shut off. |
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|
What is a terminal clutch release?
|
When a roll spoiler actuator jams the cable force exceeds a predetermined setting and disconects from the actuator. This will render that actuator inop but allow the others to function normally.
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|
What indications in the Flight deck signify a terminal clutch release?
|
Illumination of SPLR 1 or 2 on the powered flight control shut off panel.
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On the powered flight control shutoff panel what roll spoiler actuators are represented by the SPLR 1 or 2?
|
SPLR 1 is the inboard spoilers
SPLR 2 is the outboard spoilrs |
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|
What does pressing SPLR 1 or 2 on the powered flight control shutoff panel do?
|
It removes extend pressure from the associated roll spoilers actuators. This will apply constant retract pressure.
|
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|
If required to push the SPLR 1 or 2 swithlight on the powered flight control shutoff panel, due to either uncommanded roll or terminal clutch release what other caution annunciators should illuminate?
|
The associated Roll spoiler hyd caution, left or right as appropriate.
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|
If a roll control jam occurs and the roll disconect handle is pulled, what does it mean if the Capt. has control, and what would it mean if only the FO had control?
|
If capt, there is a jam of the aileron cables.
If FO there is a jam of the spoiler control cables. |
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|
What caution lights should illuminate if the FO's yoke exceeds 50 degrees of roll why might this happen?
|
SPLR 1 and SPLR 2. This might happen if there is a roll spoiler stuck in an extend position which would cause an excessive amount of roll input depending on airspeed.
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|
What is the full rudder travel of the fore section?
|
16* left 18* right this is to accomadate for the left engine being the critical engine.
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|
How much does the aft section of the rudder move?
|
Twice the distance of the fore section.
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|
Why would the pilot observe rudder travel of only 12* when testing the rudder pedals prior to taxi?
|
The flaps are in the 0 position which restricts full deflection of the rudder.
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|
How do the rudder pedals control the rudder movement?
|
By sending information to a summing mechanism wich provides feedback to the pilot via feeler springs. The summing mechanism then directs the rudder actuators.
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|
What inputs does the rudder summing mechanism use to determine how much hydraulic pressure should be applied to the rudder?
|
Rudder pedals
Rudder trim Yaw dampner |
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|
When both rudder actuators are operative what pressure does the rudder pressure regulator maintain rudder pressure and why?
|
Above 140 pressure is 900psi
Below 140 pressure is 1500psi |
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|
Why is rudder pressure lower abover 140 and higher below 140?
|
The lower the pressure the less sensitve rudder inputs will be made, in other words further pedal deflection would be required for a similar amount of rudder travel if the airspeed was below 140.
Thus if operating below 140 with rud pressure of 1500psi rudder pedal inputs are more sensitive. |
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What does the rudder pressure regulator do if either hyd 1 or hyd 2 pressure were to fail?
|
It applies the full 3000psi of the operative system.
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|
When you mover the rudder trim switch what are you controling on the rudder for trim?
|
The summing mechanism which tells the hydraulic actuators to move the fore section of the rudder the amount desired. There is no trim tab on the rudder.
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|
Does the Gust lock restrict the rudder from traveling?
|
No. There is a rudder damper filled with hydraulic fluid to allow the rudder to move slowly in the wind
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|
Why is it so important to ensure the rudder trim is centered prior to each flight?
|
To ensure the the yaw damp system will have full travel left and right.
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|
If the rudder system looses hydralic pressure what caution announciator should follow?
|
RUD HYD 1 or RUD HYD 2
RUD FULL PRESS RUD PRESS |
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|
If a rudder actuator fails what caution lights will illuminate and why?
|
RUD FULL PRESS because the pres. reg will apply 3000psi to the operative actuator
RUD PRESS because the hyd pressure adjstmnt for the given airspeed will not be maintained due to the 3000psi |
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|
If a mechanical jam occurs on either the lower or upper rudder actuator as sensed b a jam sensor what will allert the flight crew of the rudder jam?
|
Either the RUD 1 or 2 PUSH OFF lights on the powered flight control shut off panel will illuminate.
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If you were to push off the RUD 1 or 2 on the powered flight control shut off panel what caution annunciators will illuminate?
|
RUD FULL PRESS
RUD HYD 1 or 2 RUD PRESS Pressing that switchlight removes all hydraulic pressure from the rudder acutuator. |
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|
When will the stby hydraulic pumps turn on?
|
Whenever the switches are on.
Whenever the the Flap lever is moved. This is automatic Whenver there is a loss of #2 hydraulic pressure below a predetermined amount. |
|
|
What is the PTU?
How does it work? |
It is a power transfer unit.
It is a hydraulically powered motor that takes system 1 pressure and helps to aid the #2 hydraulic system. It's main purpose is to aide in the retraction of the gear in the event of a #2 engine failure after takeoff. |
|
|
When does the PTU automatically engage?
When does it then shut off in the above situation? |
If there is a #2 Oil pressure low condition and the gear handle is placed in the up position.
When the assosiated PSEU sensors sense the gear is up and locked. |
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|
How do the flaps move?
|
By lifting the trigger on the flap handle a solenoid valve on the flap power unit opens for 70 seconds. This allows hyd 1 fluid to flow through and drive the flaps to the selected position. Once at the selected position a travel limiting mechanism will hault the flap movement.
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|
How long is the FPU solenoid valve opened for and what causes it to open?
|
70 secs. it is opened when the crew raises the trigger on the bottom of the flap position selector.
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|
How many flap drive shafts do we have?
|
2 a primary and a secondary
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|
|
What hydraulic system powers the flaps?
|
#1
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|
If the primary flap drive shaft were to break what would happen to the wing flap operation?
|
Nothing provided the secondary flap drive shaft functions correctly.
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|
|
What are the different flap settings available?
|
0 5 15 35
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|
If a wrong flap position is selected what should the crew do?
|
Let the flaps move to the wrongly selected position then return the flap selector to the desired position. This is to prevent damage to the secondary flap drive shaft due to excessive torque loading.
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|
What does the FLAP DRIVE caution mean?
|
A failure of the primary flap drive shaft has occured.
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|
Is there an annunciator to indicate a failure of the secondary flap drive shaft?
|
No
|
|
|
What does the FLAP POWER caution annunciator mean?
|
Loss of hydraulic pressure to the Flap Power Unit. Pressure less than 1500psi.
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|
|
What is the range of the fast slow indicator?
|
1.5 - 1.1 Vso
|
|
|
What are the components fot the stall warning system?
|
Lift computer
Lift transducer Stick shaker Fast slow indicator Caution light |
|
|
Would a failure of the left stall lift computer render the left stick shaker inoperative?
|
No, it is cross wired to the right side lift computer.
|
|
|
If a single stall lift computer were to fail what part(s) of the stall warning system are rendered inoperative?
|
The failed side fast slow indicator will be inop. both stick shakers will work because of cross wiring.
|
|
|
How are the lift transcducers deiced?
|
They have electrically charged heating elements. They heat system uses flap information and PSEU(WOW) info to either send 28 VDC on ground or 115VVAC in flight.
|
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|
When does the L or R Stall Warning annunciator caution light illuminate?
|
The caution lights
illuminate if their respective DC power, lift transducer or lift computer fails. |
|
|
How does the lift computer calculate an iminant stall?
|
It calculates the transducer position(aoa), flap position, and internal accelerometer information.
|
|
|
What warning system is deactivate if a stall warning, stick shaker activation, is occuring?
|
The GPWS system is deactivated, the system realizes you must recover from the stall befores you can avoid the terrain.
|
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|
When does the light on the altimeter illuminate and extinguish?
|
When within 1000 feet of the selected altitude in the altitude allerter, and it extinguishes once withn 250 of that same altitute.
|
|
|
What is Vne?
|
242 to 14000
then decreases to 207 to 25000 |
|
|
What static air source does the cabin pressure controller use?
|
The alternate static source.
|
|
|
If one pilot uses the alternate static source does the other pilots flight instrumentation get effected?
|
No. Either pilot can use the alternate static system while the other uses their normal static source.
|
|
|
There are three holes for static air how are they allocated?
|
Upper capt.
Fwd. FO Aft. Alternate and Cabin controller |
|
|
The flight guidence controller only recieves input from one air data computer at a time. How do you know which air data computer the Flight guidence controller is using?
|
Whichever side the HSI selector is on. To the right #2 to the left #1
|
|
|
When does the rising runway indicator appear on the EADI?
|
At 200 feet.
|
|
|
When does the localizer/azimuth indicator appear on the EADI and what does it ensure?
|
It only appears when a localizer frequency is selected and being used for navigation. It ensurese landing withing 33 feet of centerline.
|
|
|
Where does each EADI recieve its normal information from?
|
Its assosciated AHRS.
|
|
|
When will a white box surround the RA number on the EADI?
|
When within 100 feet of the selected DH.
|
|
|
What would SG1 or SG2 displayed on both EADI's mean?
|
That the crew has elected to use a common signal generator do to a failure of the other signal generator.
|
|
|
What happens if an Attitude Failure occurs?
|
The pitch and roll scales on the effected EADI go away and the screen turns blue with a red ATT FAIL on the screen.
|
|
|
What indicates the failure of the Glideslope, VNAV or Elevation, Expanded Localizer or Azimuth,
Fast/Slow Command, and Rate-of-Turn indications on the EADI? |
The pointer will be removed and a red X will be in its place.
|
|
|
What happens if there is an internal failure of the EADI?
|
The screen goes blank.
|
|
|
What happens if a signal generator fails?
|
A large red X centered on the
displays with the annunciation SG FAIL in red on the EADI and Amber on the EHSI. |
|
|
How many degrees is visible in the ARC mode on the EHSI?
|
90
|
|
|
Where does the standby Attitude Indicator get its power from?
|
From the essential DC bus.
|
|
|
What is the difference between the standby altimeter and the primary ones?
|
It uses only static air source, No electricity required and it has no input from the air data computers.
|
|
|
Where is the standy by compass correction card?
|
Above the FO's head.
|
|
|
Does windshield heat effect the operation of the Standby compass?
|
No.
|
|
|
When does the radio altimeter begin to work and what is the increments of measurement?
|
It starts indicating at 2500 feet and goes in 10 foot incriments between 200 and 2500 feet and five foot incriments between 0 and 200 feet.
|
|
|
What does it mean if there is an amber dash next to the RA symbol on the EHSI?
|
The radar altimeter has failed.
|
|
|
What would cause the rising runway not to appear on the EADI?
|
Failure of the radio altimeter.
|
|
|
What are the two indications of an internal failure on the EADI and EHSI?
|
• failure of the symbol generator will blank both
the EADI and EHSI • failure of the input/output processor of a symbol generator will be indicated by a red ‘X’ centered on both displays a ‘SG FAIL’ annunciation in red on the EADI and amber on the EHSI |
|
|
What are the three sections of the fuel tank?
|
Surge Main and Collector.
|
|
|
How many fuel pumps are located in the collector tank?
|
2 boost ejector pumps and one electric boost pump
|
|
|
How does fuel get from the main tank to the collector tank?
|
Via 3 scavange ejector pumps and 3 swing check check valve
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the surge tank?
|
Serves to vent the fuel tank via two NACA vents on the underside of the wing.
|
|
|
If due to thermal expansion fuel migrates to the surge tank can it flow back to the main tank and if so how?
|
Yes. Once the level of the fuel in the main tank is reduced a float valve will open to allow the surge tank to drain back into the main tank.
|
|
|
If the airplane is overfueled by a malfunction of the refueling transfer valves were would the fuel drain from?
|
From the NACA vents in the surge tank.
|
|
|
If a fuel gauge looses its DC power source how will the gauge indicate?
|
It will go to zero.
|
|
|
How many quantity probes are located in the tank?
|
6 capacitance probes.
|
|
|
What does the fuel gauges do when you press the test button?
|
It drives the gauges to the full indication.
Don't do this when refueling or the refueling will be interupted. |
|
|
What is the acceptable fuel temperature limits for continous engine operation?
|
11-57*C
|
|
|
What is the lowest indication we can see on the fuel tank temperature gauge for Jet-A fuel?
|
-36*C
|
|
|
Can the airplane be refueled by the single point system without ground power?
|
YES by the battery power switch on the refueling defueling pannel.
|
|
|
If there any way to know that the refueling door is open?
|
No.
|
|
|
When would the FUELING ON caution light be illuminated?
|
Whenever the switch on the refueling defueling panel is left in the refuel defuel position.
|
|
|
What is the significance of the FUELING ON light being on in flight?
|
Fuel transfer is not possible.
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the pilot valve(float type) in the main fuel tank?
|
To, in the event of the rim pointer failure on the refueling pannel, prevent overfueling of the tank and prevent spilling fuel out of the NACA vents in the surge tank.
|
|
|
If the wing tank were to be completely full and the refueling rim pointers failed to close the refueling valves and the pilot valve failed to close the refueling valves what will the fuel system do?
|
There is a dump valve located between the main and surge tank and will allow fuel to flow to the surge tank. The surge tank will then continue to fill until fuel drains out of the NACA vents.
|
|
|
By selecting the fuel transfer switch to the right what happens?
|
The left aux pump engergizes and its green light illuminates bothe RDTS valves goes from closed to open and fuel is transfered.
|
|
|
On the ground is there an alternate way to confirm fuel quantity?
|
magna sticks
|
|
|
How do the magnasticks work to determine fuel quantity?
|
the magnastick indicator is in a tube and around that tube is a magnetic material that floats on the top of the fuel. The stick has a magnet on top and as it is lowered it will stop at the level were the magnetic material is.
|
|
|
At what point does the #1 #2 fuel quantity caution illuminate?
|
Less than 130 lbs. or 12 mins of flight time left.
|
|
|
If the pressure delivered to the main engine driven fuel pump falls bellow a predetermined level what indication will the crew get?
|
#1 or #2 ENG FUEL PRESS caution
|
|
|
What is the totatl fuel capacity in pounds and gallons?
|
5678 pounds 835gals
|
|
|
What is the fuel capacity per tank in pounds and gallons?
|
2839 pounds 417.5 gals
|
|
|
How many hydraulic systems?
|
2
although it could be argued that the alternate gear extension system make 3 total hydraulic systems. |
|
|
Where are the hydraulic pumps located?
|
On the rear face of the propellor reduction gear box.
|
|
|
At what pressure does the engine driven hydraulic pumps generate pressure?
|
3000 psi
|
|
|
How are the hydraulic pumps lubricated and cooled?
|
By hydraulic fluid.
|
|
|
What is the back up to the engine driven hydraulic pumps
|
There are two standby hydraulic pumps that are electrically powered via 115 VVAC
|
|
|
Where are the #1 and #2 standby hyd. pumps located?
|
#1 in the aft section of the #1 engine nacelle.
#2 in the empenage aka hell hole. aft of the baggage compartment. |
|
|
Where are the fluid resevoirs located for the #1 and #2 hydraulic system?
|
In their respective engine nacelle.
|
|
|
What is the max and min quatity of the #1 and #2 hydraulic system?
|
#1 2.5 - 1.5
#2 5.5 - 3 |
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What are the components on the #1 hydraulic system?
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F- Flaps
I- Inboard roll spoilers B- Brakes Toe A- Anti skid control valves R- Rudder lower actuator P- PTU(power transfer unit) |
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What are the components of the #2 hydraulic system?
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L- Landing gear
O- Outboard roll spoilers S- Steering E- Emergency brake R- Rudder upper actuator |
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When are the standy hydraulic pumps automatically on?
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Whenever the flap lever trigger is raised both standby hyd pumps energize provided there is 115 VVAC power or if their is a loss of pressure in the #2 system the #2 stand by pump will engergize.
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If you have an engine failure on take off what hydraulic components would you loose?
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Nothing because the standby hyd pumps are manually switched on for every takeoff and landing.
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What is the purpose of the ARPS (alternate rudder power system)?
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To provide hydraulic power to the #2 Rudder Actuator in the event of a
catastrophic failure (major fluid loss) of the #2 Hydraulic System. |
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What rudder actuator is controlled if the ARPS was engaged?
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The upper actuator because it is part of the #2 system.
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What causes the rudder shut off valve to close?
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Major loss of #2 hydraulic fluid and pressure will allow the valve to close by the 18 psi air.
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If the ARPS is engaged what components on the #2 hydraulic system will be opperative?
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Only the upper rudder actuator and the #2 standy by hyd pump. because if the ARPS is engaged a major loss of fluid has occured in the #2 hydraulic system.
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Why is it important for the #2 standby hyd pump to start automatically.
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To prevent the unnecessary closure of the rudder shut off valve.
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Where does the #2 standby hyd pump recieve its power from?
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Normally the #1 115VVAC bus, but if that power source was lost it can also get power from the #2 115VVAC bus. If this were to occure the #2 SPU AUX POWER caution annunciator would illuminate.
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What does it mean if the #2 SPU AUX PWR annunciator illuminates?
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The #2 standby hyd pump lost power from the #1 115 VVAC bus its normal power source.
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What does illumination of the #1 or #2 ENG HYD PUMP mean?
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The failure (pressure loss) of a #1 or #2 Main hydraulic pump.
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If you get a #1 or #2 HYD FLUID HOT annunciator what will the checklist suggest the crew do?
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Move the flight controls to help get the hydraulic fluid circulating.
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What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
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To assist in retracting the
landing gear in case of a #2 engine failure during take-off. |
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What is the PTU and how is it powered?
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The PTU consists of a
hydraulic motor mechanically coupled to a hydraulic pump. The hydraulic motor is powered by the #1 Hydraulic System while the hydraulic pump pressurizes #2 Hydraulic System fluid provided there is any. |
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When does the PTU automatically engage?
When does it stop? |
The PTU will be automatically activated during take-off in the event that the #2
engine fails low oil pressure is sensed and the gear handle is raised to the up position. It stops when the PSEU system senses the gear is up and locked. |
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Besides the automatic operation of the PTU how else can it be activated?
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By manually lifting up on the PTU switch light gaurd cover and depressing the switch light.
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What are the different compnents of the de/anti icing system?
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• Pneumatic airframe deice boot system
• Propeller blade heating system • Pitot head / static port heating system • Stall Warning Transducer heating system • Elevator Horn heating system • Windshield Heating system • Engine Intake Heating system |
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What is the cycle time for the deice boots in slow and fast mode?
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Slow:
6 secs. each boot segment then a 204 sec dwell for a total of 4 min per complete cycle. Fast: 6 secs per boot cycle then a 24 sec dwell for a 1 min complete cycle. it takes 36 secs for all 6 boot segments to cycle at 6 secs each segment. |
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What is the heating sequence of the propellor?
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Left 1 & 3
Right 1 &3 Left 2&4 Right 2 &4 |
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How long are the propellor blades heated for when the prop heat timer is selected to the above -10*C position?
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10 secs
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How long are the propellor blades heated for when the prop heat timer is selected to the below -10*C position?
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20 secs
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How much does each blade pair have to cool for before it can be reheated?
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60 secs.
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By pressing the prop heat test switch you can test the prop heat on the ground, why?
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Because the test swich bypasses the PSEU WOW swith which normally inhibits prop heat on the ground.
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What are the only two ice protection caution lights that will be illuminated if there switch is off?
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PITOT HEAT #1 and #2
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How are the stall warning transducers heated?
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28 VDC on ground 115 VVAC in flight.
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How many deice boot distributer valves are there?
How and when are they heated? |
6
They are heated by 28VDC and only when the switch is on, allways at CommutAir, and the temperature falls bellow 10*C. |
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What is the purpose of the elevator horn heat?
What power source does it use? |
To prevent the accumulation of ice in the gap between the horns and the tips of the horizontal stabilizer. surfaces.
115 VVAC |
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Does the elevator horn heat work on the ground?
When does it work in flight? |
No because of the PSEU-WOW.
It is inhibited in flight at ambient air temps greater than 10*C. |
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What is the power source for the windshield heat?
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115 VVAC
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How long must the windshield heat be in warm up before selecting norm or off?
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30 sec
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Why would the L or R WSHLD HOT or the SIDE WDO HOT caution illuminate?
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If excessive heat is detected on a window panel or there is a loss of power to a window heater element.
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If the windshield heat shuts off due to over heating it won't resume heating once cooled unless the crew does what?
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Places the the windshield heat to warm up to reset and reactivate the heater.
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How is the engine intake heater powered?
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115VVAC
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What are the conditions that have to be met for the Engine inlet heat to turn on?
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Engine intake by-pass doors must be open and engine must be running(oil pressure switch)
Temperature is below 10*C |
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What is the pupose of the engine intake by-pass doors?
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To provide a means of preventing ingested ice
and other solids from accumulating within the engine intake. |
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Which way does the main gear extend and retract?
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Extends.....Forward
Retracts....Aft |
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How many sets of main gear doors are there?
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3
Forward..mechanically attached to main gear. Center Aft |
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How are the center and aft gear doors actuated?
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Hydraulically
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Where are the main gear locking pins located?
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behind the captains seat.
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How many sets of gear doors on the nose wheel?
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2 sets one forward one aft.
Forward set hydraulically actuated Aft set mechanically linked to to nose gear |
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How is the nose gear locked?
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By pulling and rotating the nose gear ground lock door so the cheverons point down.
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How can you be certain that the nose gear ground lock is engaged?
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Visually confirm that the nose gear ground lock has been pulled and the cheverons are pointing down.
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If the nose gear lock light is illuminated does this ensure that the nose gear is locked?
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No, not necessarily, the best way to confirm the nose gear is locked is to visually inspect the actual mechanism outside the aircraft to ensure the nose gear lock door has been pulled and the cheverons are pointing down.
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When do the amber L DOOR N DOOR and R DOOR lights illuminate?
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Whenever the hydraulically actuated doors are in the open position.
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When do the green LEFT NOSE RIGHT lights illuminate?
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When the gear is in its full down and locked position.
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When will the red LEFT NOSE RIGHT gear lights illuminate?
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Whenever the gear isn't either down or up and locked. In other wrods any time the gear is unsafe.
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How are the hydraulically actuated gear doors secured?
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Via hydraulic uplocks and downlocks.
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What does it mean if the landing gear selector-indicator panel is dark?
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The gear is up and locked all gear doors closed.
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What controls the sequence of the landing gear and door movement during extension and retraction?
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Mechanical and solenoid sequencing valves.
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What is the heigth of the Dash?
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24.5 feet
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Name the 18 psi consumers.
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• As the pneumatic supply for the deice boot system
• For the normal operation of the Normal Outflow valve, which is an electropneumatic valve used in the automatic control of cabin pressurization. • To supply air to and maintain an air pressure charge on the main cabin door accumulator. • To purge the Nacelle drains which are located at the rear of each nacelle. • To supply air to and maintain an air pressure charge on the Rudder Shut-off Valve accumulator. • To regulate the Pressure Regulator valve. |
