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428 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
cells responsible for forming the blood brain barrier
astrocytes
prominent glial cell in the white matter
oligodendroglia
cells that are destroyed in MS
oligodendroglia
cells that are destroyed in Guillain-Barre
Schwann cells
which sensory receptors in the skin are responsible for pain and temperature
free nerve endings (via A-delta and C fibers)
sensory receptors found in the skin, ligaments, and joints that mediate vibration and pressure
Pacinian corpuscles
difference in the distribution between Meissners corpuscles and Merkels disks
Meissners corpuscles are found in hairless skin

Merkels disks are found in skin with hair follicles
site of synthesis for NE, dopamine, serotonin, ACh, and GABA
NE- locus ceruleus
dopamine- substantia nigra compacta
serotonin- raphe nucleus
ACh- basal nucleus of Meynert
GABA- nucleus accumbens
what nucleus of the hypothalamus makes ADH
supraoptic
what nucleus of the hypothalamus makes oxytocin
paraventricular
lateral hypothalamus control what
hunger
ventromedial hypothalamus controls what
satiety
anterior hypothalamus controls what
parasympathetics
posterior hypothalamus controls what
sympathetics
the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus controls what
circadian rhythms
thalamic nuclei thats part of the vision pathway
LGN
thalamic nuclei thats part of the hearing pathway
MGN
what thalamic nuclei is part of the facial sensation and taste pathway
VPM
what thalamic nuclei is part of the pain/temperature/proprioception/touch pathways
VPL
the 5 F's of the limbic system
Feeding, Fleeing, Fighting, Feeling, Fucking
the cerebellum receives contralateral cortical input via what peduncle
middle cerebellar peduncle
the cerebellum receives ipsilateral cortical input via what peduncle
inferior cerebellar peduncle
4 nuclei of the cerebellum
dentate, emboliform, globose, and fastigial
what makes up the striatum
putamen and caudate
what makes up the lentiform
putamen and globus pallidus
morphologic feature of Parkinsons
Lewy bodies (made of alpha-synuclein)
region of substantia nigra involved in Parkinsons
pars compacta
4 major symptoms seen in most cases of Parkinsons
tremor (pill-rolling), cogwheel rigidity, akinesia, postural instability (TRAP)
symptom of an STN lesion (usually via lacunar infarct)
hemiballismus
difference between myoclonus and dystonia
myoclonus- sudden, brief muscle contraction (jerks, hiccups)

dystonia- sustained, involuntary muscle contractions (writers cramps)
characterized by hyperorality, hypersexuality, and docility
Kluver-Bucy syndrome (bilateral amygdala lesion)
region of the brain associated with arousal and wakefulness; lesion causes coma
reticular formation
region of the brain damaged in Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome
mammillary bodies
lesion to this region of the cerebellum causes truncal ataxia and dysarthria
vermis
region of the cerebellum associated with eye movements
floculonodular lobe
ONLY laryngeal muscle NOT innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve
cricothyroid
aphasia caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus
conduction aphasia
origin of ACA
internal carotid
branches of the ACA (3)
pericallosal, callosomarginal, and recurrent artery of Heubner
anastamoses between ACA is via what artery
ACOM
origin of posterior cerebral artery
basilar artery
PCOM connects what 2 vessels
internal carotid and posterior cerebral artery
origin of middle cerebral artery
internal carotid
oculomotor nerve exits between what 2 vessels
posterior cerebral and superior cerebellar artery
origin of PICA
vertebral artery
origin of AICA
basilar artery
origin of basilar artery
vertebral artery
aneurysm/infarct of PCOM causes what
painful CN III palsy
aneurysm/infarct of ACOM causes what
bitemporal hemianopsia
arteries (2) associated with medial medullary syndrome
anterior spinal artery and vertebral artery
artery associated with lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenbergs)
PICA
characterized by contralateral hemiparesis of the lower extremities, decreased contralateral proprioception, and ipsilateral paralysis of CN XII
medial medullary syndrome
characterized by contralateral loss of pain/temperature, ipsilateral dysphagia, hoarseness, decreased gag reflex, vertigo, diplopia, nystagmus, vomiting, ipsilateral Horner's, ipsilateral loss of pain/temp in the face, and ipsilateral ataxia
lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenbergs)
artery associated with lateral inferior pontine syndrome
AICA
characterized by ipsilateral facial paralysis, ipsilateral cochlear nucleus damage, nystagmus, ipsilateral loss of pain/temp, and ipsilateral dystaxia
lateral inferior pontine syndrome
artery affected in causing contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing
PCA
most common location for a brain aneurysm
ACOM
infarct in what artery causes locked-in syndrome
basilar
only movements left intact in locked-in syndrome
vertical eye movements
special aneurysms associated with chronic hypertension
Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms
3 major diseases associated with an increased risk for berry aneurysms
adult PKD, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and Marfans syndrome
artery associated with epidural hematomas
middle meningeal artery
origin of middle meningeal artery
maxillary artery
transtentorial herniation and CN III palsy are common occurences in what type of bleed
epidural
vessels associated with subdural hematomas
bridging veins
conditions where subdural hematomas are commonly seen
elderly, alcoholics, trauma, shaken baby syndrome
bleed associated with a yellow (xanthochromic) spinal tap
subarachnoid
most common location for parenchymal bleed
basal ganglia
time frame that needs to pass before irreversible damage occurs during a TIA/stroke
5 minutes
recommended treatment immediately following a stroke
tPA (within 4.5 hours)
amount of CSF made per day
500ml/day
pathway for CSF
choroid plexus -> lateral ventricle -> foramen of monro -> 3rd ventricle -> cerebral aqueduct -> 4th ventricle -> subarachnoid space via 2 foramina of Luschka and 1 foramen of Magendie -> cisterna magna -> arachnoid granulations
clinical triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus
urinary incontinence, dementia, ataxia ("wet, wacky, wobbly")
hydrocephalus ex vacuo is seen in what conditions
Alzheimer's disease, advanced HIV, and Pick's disease
herniations of the spinal cord occurs in what direction
posterolaterally
location of spinal tap
L3-L5
region of the dorsal column that controls the upper body
cuneate
region of the dorsal column that controls the lower body
gracilis
spinal cord tract that controls pain, temp, and crude touch
anterolateral (aka spinothalamic)
where does the dorsal column decussate?
internal arcuate fibers of the caudal medulla
where does the anterolateral (spinothalamic) pathway decussate
anterior white commissure of the spinal cord
where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate
pyramidal decussation in the caudal medulla
signs of UMN lesion
weakness, hyperreflexia, increased tone, positive babinski, spastic paralysis, clasp knife spasticity
signs of LMN lesion
weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, hyporeflexia, decreased tone
what age group is a positive Babinski a normal finding
less than 2 years of age because the tracts haven't completed myelination yet
2 major diseases that affect ONLY LMNs
Poliomyelitis and Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
MS affects what part of the spinal cord
white matter
disease characterized by both UMN and LMN lesions without sensory deficits
ALS
vitamin B12 deficiency, vitamin E deficiency, and Friedreich's ataxia are all associated with degeneration of what part(s) of the spinal cord
dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts (pain/temp spared)
portion of the spinal cord damaged in syringomyelia initially
anterior white commissure
tabes dorsalis (tertiary syphilis) affects what part of the spinal cord
dorsal columns
autosomal-recessive disease known to cause "floppy-baby" syndrome which is fatal before the first year
Werdnig-Hoffman disease
characterized by ipsilateral UMN signs, ipsilateral loss of vibration/proprioception, contralateral pain and temperature loss, and LMN signs at site of lesion
Brown-Sequard syndrome (hemisection of the spinal cord)
only cranial nerve that arises dorsally
trochlear (CN IV)
characterized by paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in the superior colliculi
Parinaud syndrome
innervation of palattoglossus
vagus nerve
innervation of stylohyoid
facial nerve
innervation of parotid gland
CN IX (specifically via lesser petrosal nerve)
afferent and efferent limbs of the corneal reflex
trigeminal (V1) and facial
afferent and efferent limbs of the lacrimation reflex
trigeminal (V1) and facial
branch of the trigeminal that does NOT pass through the cavernous sinus
V3
Right CN XI lesion would cause difficulty turning the head which way
Left
where does the uvula deviate in CN X lesion
away
where does the tongue deviate in CN XII lesion
towards
what organisms is characterized by causing ring-enhancing lesions in the brain
toxoplasma gondii
SE of acetazolamide
hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis and hyperammonemia
MOST common cause of primary amenorrhea in young women
Turner syndrome
3 symptoms of Cushing's triad
HTN, bradycardia, and irregular respiration
what is "triple H" therapy
treatment for the cerebral vasospasms that occur several days after a subarachnoid hemorrhage (consists of inducing HTN, hypervolemia, and hemodilution)
calcium channel blocker given to patients with a subarachnoid hemorrhage
nimodipine
arteries affected in Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms
lenticulostriate
treatment of cryptococcal meningitis
amphotericin B
how do UMN lesions affect the face
contralateral paralysis of lower half of face only
how do LMN lesions affect the face
ipsilateral paralysis of the whole half of the face
Bell's Palsy is seen in complications of what diseases (6)
AIDS, Lyme disease, HSV, sarcoidosis, neoplasms, and diabetes
muscle that opens jaw
lateral pterygoid
type of glaucoma that is caused by obstructed outflow of aqueous humor especially in the canal of Schlemm
open angle (wide)
type of glaucoma that is caused by obstruction of flow between iris and lens
close angle (narrow)
characterized by opacification of the lens
cataracts
retinal detachment refers to the detachment of what 2 layers
neurosensory layer and pigment epithelium
pathologic cause of dry macular degeneration
fat deposits (drusen) in Bruch's membrane
pathologic cause of wet macular degeneration
neovascularization
lesion to central portion of the optic chiasm causes what
bitemporal hemianopia
lesion to the optic tract causes what
contralateral homonymous hemianopia
lesions to both superior/inferior optic radiation tracts unilaterally cause what
contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
infarct of inferior division of MCA causes what eye deficit
contralateral "pie in the sky"
MLF syndrome (aka internuclear ophthalmoplegia) is MOST commonly seen in what disease
MS
patient with R MLF lesion- describe what their eyes would do when looking to the left
L eye abducts normally with slight L nystagmus
R eye can NOT adduct
late onset Alzheimer's disease is caused by mutation of what gene
ApoE4
which lipoprotein is protective against Alzheimer's
ApoE2
treatment for Guillain-Barre
plasmapheresis and IV immunoglobulins
MOST common initiating location for partial seizures
medial temporal lobe
difference in the timing of nystagmus in peripheral versus central vertigo
peripheral causes of nystagmus are delayed; central causes of nystagmus are immediate
treatment of cluster headaches
sumitriptan and oxygen
treatment of migraines
NSAIDs, sumatriptan, propranolol
disease characterized by port-wine stains, leptomeningeal angiomas, and pheochromocytomas
Sturge-Weber syndrome
characterized by retardation, seizures, hamartomas in the skin, cardiac rhabdomyomas, renal angiomyolipomas, astrocytomas, "ash-leaf" spots, "shagreen patches," and "candle-guttering" of the ventricles
Tuberous sclerosis
disease characterized by bilateral renal cell carcinoma, cavernous hemangiomas in the skin/mucosa, and hemangioblastomas in the retina, brain, and cerebellum
VHL
difference in location between adult and childhood primary brain tumors
adults are supratentorial and childrens are infratentorial
what is a "butterfly glioma"
when a glioblastoma multiforme crosses over the corpus callosum
astrocytes stain positive for what
GFAP
from what cells do meningiomas arise from
arachnoid cells
morphologic feature of meningiomas
psammoma bodies
most common location for a schwannoma
cerebellopontine angle
most common form of pituitary adenoma
prolactinoma
MOST common childhood brain tumor overall (up to age 18)
pilocytic astrocytoma

(medulloblastomas are the MOST common brain tumor under the age of 10)
morphologic feature of pilocytic astrocytomas
rosenthal fibers
morphologic features of medulloblastomas
Homer Wright rosettes or pseudo-rosette pattern, desmoplastic variants, and drop metastasis
2 morphologic features of ependymomas
perivascular pseudorosettes and rod-shaped blepharoblasts
morphologic feature of hemangioblastomas
foamy cells
hormone produced by hemangioblastomas
erythropoietin (leads to polycythemia)
artery damaged causing duret hemorrhages seen in uncal herniations
paramedian artery
drug thats contraindicated in closed-angle glaucoma
epinephrine
MOA of alpha agonists in treating glaucoma
decrease aqueous synthesis
MOA of beta blockers in treating glaucoma
decrease aqueous secretions
MOA of cholinomimetics in treating glaucoma
increase outflow of aqueous humor
SE of pilocarpine
miosis, cycloplegia
branches of the internal carotid (5)
ophthalmic, PCOM, anterior choroidal, anterior cerebral, middle cerebral ("OPAAM")
origin of lenticulostriate arteries
middle cerebral artery
branches of the PCA (3)
thalamoperforators, thalamogeniculates, and posterior choroidal arteries
location of lesion causing alien hand syndrome
supplementary motor area
cause of "man in the barrel" syndrome
Watershed infarcts
what makes up the confluence of sinuses
superior sagittal, straight, occipital, and transverse sinuses
most superficial veins drain to one of what 2 locations
cavernous sinus or superior sagittal sinus
most deep veins drain where
great veins of galen
sagittal sinus thrombosis produces what finding on CT/MRI
"empty delta sign"
what is the gait in Parkinson's called
festinating or shuffling gait
conditions including polio, MS, Guillain-Barre, spinal herniation, peroneal muscle atrophy, and peroneal nerve injury are all associated with what type of abnormal gait
high-steppage
which brain herniation is linked to Kernohan's notch and Duret hemorrhages
transtentorial (uncal) herniation
which brain herniation is most likely to compress the posterior cerebral artery leading to CN III palsy
transtentorial (uncal) herniation
which brain herniation has the highest fatality risk
tonsillar herniation
this condition is characterized by a decrease in or total absence of the gyri on the brain; caused by mutations in alpha-dystroglycan
Lissencephaly
condition characterized by incomplete separation of the cerebral hemispheres across midline; seen in fetal alcohol syndrome, trisomy 13 (patau syndrome), and untreated maternal diabetes
holoprosencephaly
this condition presents as a "batwing" deformity on imaging of the brain
agenesis of the corpus callosum
condition characterized by an enlarged posterior fossa; the vermis is absent or present only in rudimentary form
Dandy-Walker malformation
condition characterized by a small posterior fossa leading to the cerebellar tonsils extending into the vertebral canal
Arnold-Chiari type I malformation
condition characterized by a small posterior fossa leading to the vermis extending down through the foramen magnum
Arnold-Chiari type 2 malformation
condition characterized by cape-like loss of pain/temp in the UEs with touch being sparred
syringomyelia
metabolic depletion of energy associated with ischemia to the brain results in the inappropiate release of what amino acid which ultimately contributes to cell damage
glutamate
are watershed infarcts precipitated by HYPER or HYPOtensive episodes
hypotension
MOST common location for Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms
basal ganglia
MOST common site for a berry aneurysm
ACOM
AV malformations are MOST common with what brain vessel
MCA
3 MOST common causes of chronic bacterial meningoencephalitis
Mycobacteria (TB), syphilis, and Lyme disease
gene mutation causing CJD
PRNP
what will gel electrophoresis reveal in a person with MS
oligoclonal IgG bands
this disease is characterized by bilateral optic neuritis and spinal cord demyelination; antibodies are directed against aquaporins
neuromyelitis optica (aka Devic disease)
this syndrome is characterized by acute paralysis, dysarthria, dysphagia, diplopia, and syncope; caused by demyelination of the pons secondary to rapid correction of a hyponatremia metabolic condition in alcoholics
Central pontine myelinosis
what protein makes up the neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer's disease
tau
AB neuritic plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, and hirano bodies are characteristic of what disease
Alzheimer's
disease characterized by dementia, aphasia, changes in personality, language disturbances, and parkinsonisms; caused by lobar atrophy sparring the parietal lobes; the brain takes on a "knife's edge" appearance
Pick's disease
what is the trinucleotide repeat in Huntington's disease
CAG
which DTR is left intact in children with Friedreich's ataxia
extensor plantar reflex
enzyme deficiency in ALS
copper-zinc superoxide dismutase I (SOD1)
morphologic feature of Krabbe's disease
globoid cells
deficiency in Krabbe's disease
B-galactocerebrosidase
autosomal recessive disease characterized by ataxia and dementia due to demyelination and gliosis in the white matter; there is an accumulation of cerebroside sulfates
metachromatic leukodystrophy
enzyme deficiency in metachromatic leukodystrophy
arylsulfatase A
disease characterized by megalencephaly, seizures, and psychomotor retardation; Rosenthal fibers accumulate around blood vessels; caused by mutation in GFAP
Alexander disease
disease characterized by cerebellar ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, pigment retinopathy, and cardiac conduction defects; caused by mitochondrial DNA deletion or rearrangement
Kearn-Sayre syndrome (aka "ophthalmoplegia plus")
toxicity of this compound damages the retina and causes blindness
methanol
DOC for methanol toxicity
ethanol or fomepizole
MOST common brain tumor in adults
glioblastoma multiforme
MAJOR morphologic feature of astrocytomas
psuedopalisading bodies
2 morphologic features of oligodendrogliomas
fried egg cells and chicken-wire capillary pattern
which brain tumor is most likely to exhibit "drop metastasis"
medulloblastoma
what is the MOST common CNS neoplasm in immunocomprimised people
CNS lymphoma (B cell)
asides from retinoblastomas, what other CNS tumor is linked to RB gene mutations
pineoblastomas
which brain tumor commonly expresses progesterone receptors and grows rapidly during pregnancy
meningiomas
what are the 5 common primary sites for tumors that can metastasize to the brain
lung, breast, kidney, GI, skin
why do people with Von Hippel-Lindau have polycythemia
gene mutation causes dysregulation of erythropoietin
is cerebral edema caused by acidosis or alkalosis and what is the initial treatment
respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia cause cerebral edema; initial treatment is to induce respiratory alkalosis by having the patient hyperventilate-- the alkalosis will cause vasoconstriction and decrease the edema
what is pseudotumor cerebri
it refers to idiopathic intracranial hypertension which increases intracranial pressure withOUT any evidence of tumor or obstruction; it's MOST common in young and obese women; treatment is acetazolamide
which artery is compressed in a subfalcine (cingulate) herniation
ACA
MOST common cause of hydrocephalus in newborns
stenosis/obstruction in the aqueduct of sylvius (aka cerebral aqueduct)
chromosomes affected in NF1 and NF2
NF1- chromosome 17
NF2- chromosome 22
condition characterized by temporary loss of vision due to embolic material trapped at the bifurcation of the retinal vessels (usually retinal artery)
amaurosis fugax
Do atherosclerotic strokes demonstrate liquefactive or coagulative necrosis
liquefactive
during a stroke, a patient demonstrates contralateral paresis, sensory loss in the face and upper extremity, and his head/eyes are deviating to the R; what vessels is MOST likely involved
Right MCA
where do MOST emboli that ultimately cause a stroke originate from
Left side of the heart (mural emboli)
what is the BEST test to diagnose a stroke
CT withOUT contrast
what HLA subtype and what type of hypersensitivity is associated with MS
HLA-DR2 and it's a type IV hypersensitivity
MOST common cause of neonatal meningitis
group B strep (S. agalactiae)
prophylaxis for people in close contact with meningitis patient
rifampin or ciprofloxacin
cause of cysticercosis
Taenia solium
treatment for acute and chronic MS
acute stages: high dose methylprednisolone (corticosteroids)

chronic stages: beta-IFN, monoclonal antibodies (natalizumab), and cytotoxic therapy (methotrexate, azathioprine, and cyclophosphamide)
this is an X-linked recessive disease characterized by loss of myelin in the brain and adrenal insufficiency; caused enzyme deficiencies in this B-oxidation of fatty acids within peroxisomes thus leading to the accumulation of long chain fatty acids
adrenoleukodystrophy
what disease is associated with BILATERAL bell's palsy
Lyme disease
4 MOST common drugs associated with causing peripheral neuropathies
isoniazid, vincristine, hydralazine, and phenytoin
MOST common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis
S. aureus
MOST common cause of viral conjunctivitis
adenovirus
difference between a stye and chalazion
stye- infection of the eyelid (S. aureus)

chalazion- lipogranuloma of the eyelid due to obstruction of the sebaceous glands (no organisms involved)
DOC for 1st line treatment of open angle glaucoma
timolol
what makes up the uvea
iris, ciliary body, and choroid
DOC for acute closed angle glaucoma
pilocarpine plus acetazolamide
what membrane is disrupted in macular degeneration
Bruch's membrane
MOST common cause of blindness
macular degeneration
infection characterized by hemorrhagic necrosis of the temporal lobes
HSV1 (viral meningoencephalitis)
does infarction of the internal capsule give rise to ipsilateral or contralateral findings
contralateral
characterized by uncontrollable bouts of laughing and crying along with incontinence
pseudoblubar effect (damage to brainstem nuclei of CN 7,9,10,12)
where does olfactory nerve exit the skull
cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone
characterized by anosmia with ipsilateral optic atrophy and contralateral papilledema; caused by meningiomas in the olfactory sulcus
Foster-Kennedy syndrome
which cranial nerves exit via the superior orbital fissure
CN III, IV, V(1), and VI
which cranial nerve exits via the foramen rotundum
V2
which cranial nerve exits via the foramen ovale
V3
what's the pathway of the pupillary light reflex (do not confuse with visual acuity pathway)
light -> photoreceptors -> bipolar cells -> ganglion cells -> optic nerve -> optic chiasm -> optic tracts -> brachium of superior colliculus -> pretectal area -> Edinger Westphal nucleus -> presynaptic parasympathetic fibers -> posterior commissure -> CN III -> ciliary ganglion -> postsynaptic parasympathetic fibers -> pupillary constrictor and ciliary muscles -> miosis

***visual acuity pathway: after traveling to the optic tracts -> optic radiations (Meyer's loop is inferior optic radiation, and Baum's loop is superior optic radiation) -> primary visual cortex (Broadmann's 17)
compensation for CN IV palsy
head tilts down and away with eyes fixed upward
innervation to supratentorial dura
V1

(C2 innervates posterior portion of dura)
muscles innervated by V3
temporalis, anterior belly of digastric, masseter, mylohyoid, medial and lateral pterygoids, tensor veli palatini, and tensor tympani
ONLY pathway in the body that has primary sensory neurons in the CNS
mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus
which trigeminal nucleus is analogous to the dorsal columns
chief (principal) trigeminal sensory nucleus
which trigeminal nucleus is analogous to the anterolateral pathway
spinal trigeminal nucleus
postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to lacrimal gland come from what ganglion
sphenopalatine (aka pterygopalatine) ganglion (via greater petrosal nerve)
fibers to the sublingual and submandibular glands come from what nerve of CN VII
lingual nerve (via chorda tympani)
taste fibers to anterior 2/3 of the tongue originate in what nucleus in the brainstem
rostral nucleus solitarius
sensory fibers (from CN VII) which innervate the external auditory meatus initially originate from what brainstem nucleus
spinal trigeminal nucleus
motor fibers of the facial nerve originate via what brainstem nucleus
facial nucleus
motor fibers of the facial nerve travel through what foramen (except for those to the stapedius)
stylomastoid foramen
long term complication of Bell's palsy involving the incorrect regeneration of the parasympathetic fibers (lesion must be before the geniculate ganglion)
crocodile tears (people salivate when they want to cry, and tear when they see food)
innervation of the buccinator muscle
facial nerve
innervation of the stapedius (causes hyperacusis)
facial nerve
muscle that regulates movement of the malleus
tensor tympani
origin of the labyrinthe artery
AICA
which labyrinthe contains endolymph, and which labyrinthe contains perilymph
bony labyrinthe contains perilymph and membranous labyrinthe contains endolymph
movement of the hair cells in the inner ear forms excitatory potentials that synapse at what ganglion
spiral ganglion
what detects angular acceleration of the head
semicircular canals
what detects linear acceleration of the head as well as head tilt
utricle (forward tilt) and saccule (backward tilt)
what inner ear structure contains otoliths
maculae
2 types of hearing loss
conductive (reversible) and sensorineural (permanent)
motor fibers of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves originate from what brainstem nucleus
nucleus ambiguus
ONLY muscle innervated by CN IX
stylopharyngeus
postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland come from what ganglion
otic (via lesser petrosal nerve)
preganglionic parasympathetic fibers traveling to CN III come from what ganglion
Edinger-Westphal
preganglionic parasympathetic fibers traveling to CN VII come from what nucleus
superior salivatory nucleus
preganglionic parasympathetic fibers traveling to CN IX come from what nucleus
inferior salivatory nucleus
special CN fibers that innervate the carotid bodies and aortic arch originate from what brainstem nucleus
caudal nucleus solitarius
parasympathetic fibers from the vagus nerve originate in what brainstem nucleus
dorsal motor nucleus
nerve at risk during thyroid surgery or carotid endartectomy
recurrent laryngeal nerve
MAJOR muscle that sticks on the tongue
genioglossus
morphologic feature of rabies
negri bodies
bleed characterized by "lucid intervals"
epidural
bacterial causes of meningitis in the newborn
Listeria, Group B strep, and E.coli
MOST common bacterial cause of meningitis overall
S. pneumoniae
MOST common bacterial cause of meningitis in children
N. meningitidis
bacterial causes (2) of meningitis in the elderly
Listeria and S. pneumoniae
MOST common bacterial cause of meningitis in immunocomprimised patients
Klebsiella
MOST common bacterial cause of meningitis in drug abusers
S. aureus
spinal tap characteristics in bacterial meningitis
increased CSF pressure, increased PMN cells (neutrophils), increased protein, decreased glucose
cause of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome in meningitis patients
N. meningitidis
spinal tap characterstics in viral meningitis
increased CSF pressure, increased lymphocytes, slightly increased protein, normal glucose
spinal tap characteristics in TB/fungal meningitis
increased CSF pressure, increased lymphocytes, increased protein, decreased glucose
cause of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
JC virus
cause of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
measles virus (Rubeola)
MOST common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients
cryptococcus
MOST common cause of Sydenham chorea
S.pyogenes (in girls with rheumatic fever)
neurotransmitters affected in Huntington's
ACh and GABA (both decreased)
trinucleotide repeat in Friedrich's ataxia
GAA
diseases (2) associated with a cherry red spot on the macula
Tay-Sachs and Niemann Pick disease
condition associated with a white eye reflex
retinoblastoma
area of the brain that degenerates in Wilson's disease
lentiform nucleus
brain tumor associated with calcifications
oligodendroglioma
MOST common childhood tumor that occurs SUPRAtentorial
craniopharyngioma
characterized by optic nerve gliomas, Lisch nodules, inguinal/axillary freckling, and cafe-au-lait spots
NF type 1
characterized by bilateral 8th nerve schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, and meningiomas
NF type 2
eye abnormality suggested by light flashes
retinal detachment
eye abnormality suggested by rainbow halos
acute glaucoma
origin of postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the eye
superior cervical ganglion
clinical triad of Horner's
ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis
characterized by a mid-dilated pupil that doesnt react to light; caused by damage to ciliary ganglion
Adie's myotonic pupil
"setting-sun eyes" are associated with what condition
Parinaud syndrome
what's the direct pathway of the basal ganglia
striatum -> GPi and SNr -> thalamus
what's the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia
striatum -> GPe -> STN -> GPi and SNr -> thalamus
2 different pathways of the GPi that synapse with the thalamus
ansa lenticularis and lenticular fasciculus
caused by atrophy of the intermediolateral cell column; symptoms include parkinsonisms and autonomic disturbances
Shy Drager syndrome
symptoms of Gerstmann syndrome
acalculia, finger agnosia, R-L disorientation, and agraphia
location of lesion in Gerstmann syndrome
dominant inferior parietal lobule (angular gyrus)
what's the Papez circuit pathway
it's a cyclical pathway: starting at the hippocampal formation -> fornix -> mamillary nuclei -> mammillothalamic tract -> anterior thalamic nucleus -> cingulate gyrus -> entorhinal cortex -> back to the hippocampal formation
difference between a simple and complex partial seizure
simple maintains consciousness, and complex doesn't
MOST common seizure in children and whats the DOC
absence seizures- DOC is ethosuximide
tonic-clonic seizures in children are aka as what
febrile seizures
acute treatment for status epilepticus
diazepam/lorazepam
prophylaxis for status epilepticus
phenytoin
DOC for status epilepticus in children
phenobarbital
disease caused by increased dopamine
schizophrenia
DOC for OCD
clomipramine
middle meningeal artery travels through what foramen
foramen spinosum
what's Cushing's triad
HTN, bradycardia, and respiratory insuffciency
pathways (2) of drainage for the superficial veins through the cavernous sinus
1.) cavernous sinus -> superior petrosal sinus -> transverse sinus -> sigmoid sinus -> IJV

2.) cavernous sinus -> inferior petrosal sinus -> IJV
food linked to botulism
honey, corn syrup, canned fruit
infectious cause of "floppy baby syndrome"
C. botulinum
MOST potent neurotoxin known to mankind
botulism
initial complication in most cases of N. meningitidis
DIC
genetic deficiency that increases risk for N. meningitidis
C5-C9 complement deficiency
long-term sequelae of meningitis in children
mental retardation, deafness, ischemic necrosis of the extremities (leading to amputation), and arthritis
mechanism of motility in Listeria seen in meningitis
actin rockets, tumbling motility
foods linked to Listeria
unpasteurized dairy products
MOST common cancer of the eye
melanoma of the uvea
characterized by saddle anesthesia, urinary retention, and impotence
cauda equina syndrome
pupils appear to dilate when light is flashed in the affected eye
Marcus-Gunn pupil
these pupils can accomodate but can't react to light
Argyll Robertson pupil
presynaptic disorder of neuromuscular transmission in which ACh release is impaired
Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic syndrome
what side does the head tilt to in trochlear nerve palsy
away
what happens when cold water is injected into the R ear
eyes deviate to the R
what happens when warm water is injected into the R ear
nystagmus to the R
location of lesion in upper altitudinal hemianopia
lingual gyri
location of lesion in lower altitudinal hemainopia
cunei
symptoms of 3rd nerve palsy
eye looks down and out, ptosis, blown pupil
which muscle intorts the eye
superior oblique
part of the brain that regulates homeostasis
hypothalamus
2 major pathways of the amygdala
VAFP (projects to brainstem) and striae terminalis (projects to hypothalamus and septal nucleus)
DOC for myoclonic seizures
valproic acid
SE of phenytoin
gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, diplopia, ataxia, fetal hydantoin syndrome, and megaloblastic anemia
benzodiazepine used in anesthesia
midazolam
new hypnotic used for sleep disorder
zolpidem (ambien)
DOC for malignant hyperthermia
dantrolene
drug combined with L-dopa in Parkinsons treatment
carbidopa (inhibits dopa decarboxylase to increase levels of L-dopa)
rescue therapy drug for on-off phenomenom of Parkinsons
apomorphine
treatment for Alzheimers
tacrine, donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine
treatment for Huntingtons
reserpine, haloperidol, and tetrabenazine
DOC for neuroleptic malignant syndrome
diphenhydramine
treatment for motion sickness
meclizine, cyclizine (1st generation antihistamines)
scopolamine (muscarinic antagonist)
DOC for chemotherapy-induced nausea
ondansetron
vomiting area of the brain
area postrema near 4th ventricle (only paired circumventricular organ)
MOST common artery involved with trigeminal neuralgia
superior cerebellar artery
cranial nerve that exits medially in the interpeduncular fossa/cistern
CN III
what muslce is left intact in a lesion to the R side of the pons causing "one and a half" syndrome
left lateral rectus
Main blood supply to the choroid plexus
posterior choroidal artery
bilateral weakness of the extremities can be explained by an infarct to what region on the brainstem
caudal portion of the pyramidal decussation (cervicomedullary junction)
blood supply to lateral portions of midbrain
quadrigeminal arteries
if the L optic n. is transected, what will happen if light is shown in the R eye, and if light is shown in the L eye
If light is shown in the R eye, both the direct and consensual pupillary response will be normal

If light is shown in the L eye, neither the direct nor consensual reflex will be present
how are prion diseases commonly transmitted
direct inoculation or ingestion (most commonly via corneal transplant)
presenting symptoms that can differentiate Alzheimer's from Pick's disease
Pick's disease will have hyperorality and language dysfunction
DOC for an acute dystonic reaction
benzotropine
serious SE of clozapine
agranulocytosis
there is an increased risk for ruptured aneursysms when taking what illegal drug
cocaine
changes in personality can be attributed to what lobe of the brain
frontal
what is seen on imaging studies in patients with Huntingtons
enlarged lateral ventricles and degeneration of the head of the caudate
DOC for ALS
riluzole
what would a LP in a patient with Guillain-Barre reveal
normal cell count with increased protein
brain waves in stage 1 sleep
theta
brain waves while awake with eyes open
beta
brain waves while awake with eyes closed
alpha
what are the highest frequency, lowest amplitude brain waves
beta
when does the brain produce beta waves
while awake with eyes open, and during REM
what sleep stage has sleep spindles and K complexes
stage 2
what sleep stage does bruxism occur
stage 2
what sleep stage represents the largest portion of sleep
stage 2 (45%)
brain waves during deep sleep
delta waves
sleepwalking, night terrors, and enuresis all occur during which stage of sleep
deep sleep (3,4)
what sleep stage is growth hormone secreted the most in children
deep sleep (3,4)
erection, dreaming, and memory formation occurs during which stage of sleep
REM
what are the physiologic effects that occur during REM
decreased muscle tone, increased pulse, increased metabolism, and increase oxygen use by the brain
what substances decrease REM
anticholinergics, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and alcohol
brain receives what percent of the cardiac output
15%
what effects does depression have on various sleep stages
decreased deep sleep, decreased REM latency, increased total REM, increased nighttime awakenings, more frequent early morning awakenings
DOC for enuresis
imipramine
DOC for sleepwalking and night terrors
diazepam
DOC for narcolepsy
amphetamines or modafinil
treatment for neurogenic and anaphylactic shock
sympathomimetics
treatment for hypovolemic shock
blood/plasma replacement
test to confirm vertigo
Dix-Hallpike
patients complains of R contralateral hemianopia with macular sparring- what vessel is MOST likely involved
PCA
what are the paired cranial bones
parietal, temporal, lacrimal, nasal, palatine, inferior turbinate, maxillary, and zygomatic bones
portion of the skull fractured leading to epidural bleed via laceration of the middle meningeal artery
pterion (portion of temporal bone)
what does the falx cerebri separate, and what sinuses (2) does it contain
separates the cerebral hemispheres and contains the inferior/superior sagittal sinuses
what does the tentorium cerebelli separate, and what sinuses (2) does it enclose
separates the occipital lobe from the cerebellum, and encloses the transverse sinus and superior petrosal sinus
forms the roof of the sella turcica
diaphragma sellae
blood supply to dura mater
middle meningeal artery
viral causes of meningitis
mumps, echoviruses, coxsackievirus, EBV, HSV
what are the muscles of mastication
temporalis, masseter, lateral/medial pterygoids
branches of the external carotid (6)
superior thyroid, lingual, facial, occipital, maxillary, and superficial temporal arteries
branches of the maxillary artery (2)
middle meningeal and inferior alveolar artery
origin on the pontine (aka striate) arteries
basilar artery
origin of anterior/posterior spinal arteries
vertebral arteries
what veins form an anastomosis between superficial veins and the dural venous sinuses
emissary veins
what sinus drains directly into the IJV
sigmoid sinus
hyperacusis is a symptoms of what cranial nerve lesion
facial nerve
Kiesselbach's plexus involves anastomoses between what 2 vessels
sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries
damaged muscles that cause ptosis
superior tarsal (Muller's muscle) and levator palpebrae
innervation to the inner surface of the tympanic membrane
CN IX
3 nerves that innervate the external surface of the tympanic membrane
CN V,VII,X
what is the "danger zone" of the scalp
loose areolar tissue (contains emissary veins)
prostate cancer can spread to the brain via what venous plexus
Batson's plexus
where does aqueous fluid first drain to
posterior chamber
ONLY duct that drains into the inferior meatus of the nose
nasolacrimal duct
what vein is the MOST common route for spread of infection into the cavernous sinus
ophthalmic vein
MOST common location for metastasis to the brain
gray-white junction
3 anti-seizure drugs that can cause Steven-Johnson syndrome
Carbamazepine
Ethosuximide
Lamotrigine