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421 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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urinary tract pathogen linked to struvite stones
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proteus
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urinary tract pathogen that expresses a blue-green pigment (pyocyanin) in the urine and gives off a fruity, grape-like odor
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pseudomonas
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2 most common causative agents of otitis media in children
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H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae
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Most common cause of atypical pneumonia and treatment
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mycoplasma- treat with erythromycin
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common cause of endocarditis on normal or prosthetic valves
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Staph. epidermidis
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cell walls and cell membranes are characteristic of which group of bacteria
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gram positive
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outer membranes are characteristic of which group of bacteria
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gram negative
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major compenent of the outer membrane
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LPS
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major compenent of the cell wall / cell membranes
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teichoic acid
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bacterial structure that confers resistance to antibiotics
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plasmid
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bacteria that have neither gram positive nor gram negative characteristics (no cell wall)
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mycoplasma
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what do treponema, rickettsia, mycobacteria, mycoplasma, legionella, and chlamydia all have in common
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they do NOT show up on gram stains
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requires an acid fast stain
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mycobacteria and nocardia
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requires darkfield microscopy or fluorescent antibody staining to visualize
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treponema
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specific stain for acid fast organisms
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Ziehl-Neelsen
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only bacteria to stain with a silver stain (normally for fungi)
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legionella
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special agar used for E.coli
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MacConkey's agar
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special media used to visualize N. gonorrhea
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thayer-martin
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special agar used for H. influenzae
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chocolate agar
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the main obligate aerobes (4)
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nocardia, bacillus, pseudomonas, mycobacteria
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the main obligate anaerobes (3)
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clostridium, bacteroides, actinomyces
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the main obligate intracellular organisms (2)
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rickettsia and chlamydia
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which bacteria have a positive quellung reaction (3)
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encapsulated bacteria- S. pneumoniae, H. influenza, and Neisseria (SHiN)
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which bacteria are urease positive (4)
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H. pylori, ureaplasma, proteus, klebsiella
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bacteria that produces yellow sulfur granules
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actinomyces
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2 bacteria that have superantigens
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S. aureus (toxic shock syndrome) and S. pyogenes (scarlet fever)
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which bacteria have ADP ribosylating AB toxins (4)
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C. diphtheriae, V. cholerae, E. coli, and B. pertussis
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causative organism of gas gangrene, and what enzyme does this organism express
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clostridium perfringens-- enzyme is alpha-lecithinase
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causative organism of lockjaw
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clostridium tetani
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streptolysin O is a toxin of what bacteria
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S. pyogenes
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characterized by voluminous rice water diarrhea
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V. cholerae
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taxonomy difference between Staph and Strep
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Staph species are catalase +
Strep species are catalase - |
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taxonomy difference between Staph species
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S. aureus is coagulase +
S. epidermidis is coagulase - S. saprophyticus is coagulase - |
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taxonomy difference between S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus
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S. epidermidis is novobiocin sensitive
S. saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant |
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what are the alpha hemolytic streptococci
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S. pneumoniae and S. viridans
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what are the beta hemolytic streptococci
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S. pyogenes (group A) and S. agalactiae (group B)
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taxonomy difference between S. pneumoniae and S. viridans
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S. pneumoniae is optochin sensitive
S. viridans is optochin resistant |
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taxonomy difference between S. pyogenes and S. agalactiae
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S. pyogenes is bacitracin sensitive
S. agalactiae is bacitracin resistant |
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diseases caused by S. pyogenes
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pharyngitis ("strep throat"), cellulitis, impetigo, scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis
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group of the population usually affected by S. agalactiae
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neonates (<6 months)
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which bacteria are characterized as group D strep
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enterococci and S. bovis
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organism characterized by forming gray pseudomembranes in the pharynx
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C. diphtheria
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what are the spore forming gram positive bacteria (2)
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bacillus and clostridium
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what is the ONLY bacteria that contains a polypeptide capsule (polyD-glutamate)
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bacillus anthracis
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branching gram positive organism that is part of the normal flora of the mouth
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actinomyces israelii
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morphologic characteristic of primary TB
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ghon focus / complex
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morphologic characteristic of secondary TB
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cavitation and caseating granulomas
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next course of action after testing positive on a PPD test
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chest xray to check for cavitation (i.e. secondary TB)
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symptoms of this bacterial infection include fever, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis
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TB
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patient presents with "leonine facies" which includes loss of eyebrows, nasal collapse, and lumpy earlobes; what's the causative organism, what's the disease, and what's the DOC?
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causative organism is mycobacterium leprae
disease is leprosy (Hansen's disease) DOC is dapsone |
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reservoir for leprosy in the US
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armadillos
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gram negative, oxidase positive, comma shaped bacteria that grows in 42 degrees celsius
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C. jejuni
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taxonomy difference between N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhea
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N. meningitidis ferments maltose
N. gonorrhea doesnt ferment maltose |
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causative organism of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
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N. meningitidis
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causative organism of epiglottitis
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H. influenzae
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cause of pontiac fever
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legionella
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DOC for legionaires disease
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erythromycin
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this organism is linked to wound/burn infections, pneumonia in CF patients, swimmer's ear, UTIs, drug abuse, diabetic osteomyelitis, malignant otitis externa in diabetics, and "hot-tub" folliculitis
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pseudomonas
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which form of E.coli produces a heat labile and heat stable toxin, and causes traveler's diarrhea
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ETEC
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which form of E.coli has no toxins and affects mainly children
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EPEC
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which form of E.coli is the MOST common type; it produces a shiga-like toxin and can cause HUS; it doesnt ferment sorbitol like the others
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EHEC (O157:H7)
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bacteria associated with red current jelly sputum
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klebsiella
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bacterial structure that protects against phagocytosis
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capsule
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bacteria whose structure contains mycolic acid
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mycobacteria
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cryptococcus requires what special stain
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india ink, LATEX AGGLUTINATION most specific
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4 organisms that require a giemsa stain
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borrelia, plasmodium, trypanosomes, chlamydia
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special culture used to grow bordetella
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bordet-gengou
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special cultures (2) used to grow C. diphtheria
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loffler's media or a tellurite plate
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A lowenstein-jensen agar is used to grow what bacteria
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mycobacteria
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eaton's agar is used to grow what bacteria
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mycoplasma
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sabouraud's agar is used to grow which group of organisms
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fungi
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bacteria that produces a red pigment
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serratia
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virulence factor of S. pyogenes
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M protein
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which bacteria produce IgA protease
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the encapsulated bacteria: S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and Neisseria (SHiN)
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do gram positive bacteria produce an exotoxin or endotoxin, and which toxin has a high fatality rate
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gram positive bacteria produce exotoxins (gram negative bacteria produce endotoxins)
exotoxins have a high fatality rate (endotoxins have a low fatality rate) |
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infant presents with with multiple coughs per breath followed by a deep inspiratory breath; whats the causative organism?
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bordetella pertussis ("whooping cough")
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which bacteria (2) inactivates EF2
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C. diptheriae and pseudomonas
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C. tetani blocks the release of which neurotransmitters
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GABA and glycine
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C. botulinum blocks the release of which neurotransmitter
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ACh
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which bacteria has a toxin that expresses edema factor
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bacillus anthracis
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which bacteria will have a positive CAMP test
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S. agalactiae
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what are the gram positive branching bacteria
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nocardia (acid fast) and actinomyces (not acid fast)
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associated with rust-colored sputum
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S. pneumoniae
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cause of dental carries
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S. mutans
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prophylaxis against S. agalactiae in pregnant women
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penicillin
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which bacteria grow in 6.5% NaCl and bile
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enterococci (group D strep)
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bacteria that has metachromatic red/blue granules
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C. diptheriae
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cause of pseudomembranous colitis and what the treatment
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C. difficile-- treat with metronidazole
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antibiotic associated with pseudomembranous colitis
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clindamycin
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characterized by black eschars, hemoptysis, mediastinitis, and shock
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anthrax
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motility mechanism utilized by listeria
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actin rockets, tumbling motility
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gram negative rod that's oxidase positive but does not ferment lactose
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pseudomonas
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gram negative comma shaped bacteria that grows in an alkaline media
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vibrio cholera
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DOC for most gram negative bacilli
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ampicillin
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prophylaxis for N. menigitidis
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rifampin
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DOC for most causes of bacterial meningitis
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ceftriaxone
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DOC for S. aureus
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naficillin
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DOC for pseudomonas
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piperacillin
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causative organisms of bloody diarrhea
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SSYC (shigella, salmonella, yersinia, campylobacter) plus EHEC, EIEC, C. difficile, and E. histolytica
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gram negative bacteria that produces H2S
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salmonella
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bacterial infection characterized by fever, progressively worse diarrhea, headache, nosebleeds, delirium, and rose spots on the abdomen
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typhoid fever (salmonella typhi)
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common infections (2) that precede Guillain-Barre syndrome
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C. jejuni and mycoplasma
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causative organism of mesenteric adenitis (mimics appendicitis) and diarrhea; common in day care centers
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yersinia enterocolitica
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1st and 2nd line treatments for H. pylori
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1st line treatment: metronidazole + bismuth + tetracycline + amoxicillin
2nd line treatment (more expensive): metronidazole + omeprazole + clarithromycin |
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what are the 3 main spirochetes
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borrelia, leptospira, treponema
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question marked shaped bacteria found in animal urine; most common in the tropics around the water
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leptospira interrogans
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bacterial infection characterized by severe jaundice, azotemia, fever, hemorrhage, and anemia; transmitted to humans by contact with animal urine; more common in tropical areas closer to waters
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Weil's disease (leptospirosis)
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infection characterized by bilateral bell's palsy, arthritis, cardiac block, neurodegeneration, and erythema migrans (bull's eye rash); transmitted by deer ticks
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Lyme disease
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characteristic of primary syphilis
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painless chancre on genitals
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DOC for syphilis
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benzathine penicillin G
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characteristics of secondary syphilis
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maculopapular rash on the palms and soles and condylomata lata
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characteristics of tertiary syphilis
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gummas, aortitis, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis), argyll robertson pupils
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characterized by saber shins, saddle nose, deafness, Hutchinson teeth, and mulberry molars
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congenital syphilis
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MOST common cause of atypical walking pneumonia
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mycoplasma
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what is the only bacteria whose outer membrane contains cholesterol
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mycoplasma
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what viruses make up the herpesvirus family
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HSV, VZV, EBV, CMV, HHV6, HHV7, HHV8
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cause of roseola
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HHV6
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cause of retinitis in immunocompromised people
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CMV
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cause of shingles
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VZV
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cause of pharyngoconjunctivitis
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adenovirus
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viral cause of erythema infectiosum (aka "5th disease" or "slapped cheek disease") as well as aplastic crisis in Sickle cell
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B19 virus
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cause of multifocal leukoencephalopathy
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JC virus
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MOST common cause of sporadic encephalitis in the US
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HSV-1
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cause of infectious mononucleosis
|
EBV
(CMV can cause mononucleosis-like infection) |
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virus linked to Burkitt's lymphoma and several subtypes of Hodgkin's lymphoma
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EBV
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cause of Kaposi sarcoma
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HHV-8
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test to differentiate between HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV
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Tzanck test
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MOST common lymph nodes affected in mononucleosis
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posterior cervical nodes
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MOST common cause of fatal diarrhea in children
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rotavirus
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cause of Colorado tick fever
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reovirus
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cause(s) of the "common cold"
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rhinovirus (major) and coranovirus (minor)
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cause of myocarditis
|
coxsackievirus
|
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common causative agent of VIRAL gastroenteritis on cruise ships
|
norwalk virus
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viral cause of T cell leukemia
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HTLV
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unique characteristic of retroviruses
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reverse transcriptase
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cause of croup
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parainfluenza virus
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cause of bronchiolitis in babies
|
RSV
|
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This is an acute viral hemorrhagic disease characterized by very high fever, black vomitus, jaundice, muscle aches, and possible death; it's transmitted by mosquitos common in South America and Africa
|
yellow fever
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which virus contains hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
|
influenza virus
|
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cause of German measles
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rubella
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characterized by koplik spots in the mouth with a rash on the hands and feet
|
rubeola (measles)
|
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difference in the rash between rubella (german measles) and rubeola (regular measles)
|
rubella has a truncal rash and rubeola has rash on the extremities
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viral infection characterized by parotitis, orchitis (with possible sterility), and aseptic meningitis
|
mumps
|
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morphologic feature of rabies
|
Negri bodies (in the Purkinje cells)
|
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glycoprotein that mediates attachment of the HIV virus to the host T cell
|
gp120
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glycoprotein that mediates fusion and entry of the HIV virus
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gp41
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HIV binds to what receptors on the host's cells
|
CXCR4 and CD4
|
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what test is used to diagnose HIV and what test confirms the diagnosis
|
ELISA makes a presumptive diagnosis
Western blots confirm the diagnosis If Western blot is NOT conclusive, then use PCR |
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causative organism of pneumonia in someone with AIDS
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Pneumocystis jiroveci Tx TMP-SMX
Proph when CD4>200, Silver stain |
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diseases associated with a CD4 count <50
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CMV retinitis/esophagitis, M. avium-intracellulare, cryptococcal meningoencephalitis
|
|
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neoplasms involved with HIV
|
Kaposi's sarcoma, invasive cervical carcinoma, CNS lymphoma, and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
|
|
|
geographical distribution for histoplasmosis, blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, and paracoccidioidomycosis
|
histoplasmosis: Mississippi and Ohio River
Blastomycosis: East coast and central america Coccidioidomycosis: SW US and west coast Paracoccidioidomycosis: South America |
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fungus that hides within macrophages, smaller than RBC
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histoplasmosis
|
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fungus characterized by pseudohyphae
|
candida albicans
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causative organisms of thrush, vulvovaginitis, diaper rash, and endocarditis
|
candida albicans
|
|
|
treatment for candida infections
|
nystatin/fluconazole (superficial infection) or amphotericin B (systemic infection)
|
|
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cause organism of "soap bubble" lesions in the brain
|
cryptococcus neoformans
|
|
|
the septate hyphae of this fungus branch at a 45 degree angle
|
aspergillus
|
|
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fungus which mainly infects diabetics and leukemic patients, facial pain, black eschar, H/A
|
Mucor species
Tx Amphoterecin |
|
|
cause of rose gardener's disease
|
Sporothrix schenckii
|
|
|
this protozoa causes foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea and is associated with hiking/camping
|
giardia lamblia
|
|
|
DOC for giardiasis
|
metronidazole
|
|
|
protozoa causing bloody diarrhea, liver abscesses, and flask shaped ulcers in the colon, RUQ pain
|
entamoeba histolytica
|
|
|
causes SEVERE diarrhea in AIDS and mild watery diarrhea in the non-immunocompromised, prevention is #1 in water sources filtering
|
cryptosporidium
|
|
|
protozoa that stains with an acid-fast stain
|
cryptosporidium
|
|
|
treatment for Entamoeba histolytica
|
metronidazole plus iodoquinol
|
|
|
characterized by the classic triad of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications
Crosses placenta Tx- sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine |
CONGENITAL toxoplasmosis
|
|
|
protozoa found in cat feces
|
toxoplasma gondii
|
|
|
treatment for toxoplasmosis
|
sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
|
|
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protozoa that causes RAPIDLY FATAL meningoencephalitis commonly found in freshwater, cribiform plate to brain, amphotericin B for survivors. See amoeba in CSF
|
Naegleria fowleri
|
|
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vector for African sleeping sickness
|
tsetse fly (bite is painful)
|
|
|
vector for Chagas disease
|
reduviid bug (bite is PAINLESS)
|
|
|
This organism causes rapidly fatal cardiomyopathy along with megacolon and megaesophagus
defecates and scratch feces into blood |
trypanosoma cruzi (chagas disease)
|
|
|
DOC for leishmaniasis
|
sodium stibogluconate on skin
Amphotericin B for systemic |
|
|
vector for leishmaniasis
|
sandfly
Macrophages containing amastigotes |
|
|
vector for malaria
|
anopheles mosquito
|
|
|
DOC for P. vivax/ovale
|
primaquine
|
|
|
DOC for sensitive plasmodium species
|
chloroquine
all but falciparum also require primaquine for the liver |
|
|
DOC for chloroquine-resistant plasmodium species
|
mefloquine
|
|
|
malaria characterized by daily cyclical fevers
|
P. falciparum
|
|
|
required to differentiate between plasmodium and babesia
|
thin films
|
|
|
unique distinguishing feature of Babesia
|
maltese crosses
|
|
|
DOC for babesiosis
|
quinine plus clindamycin
|
|
|
causes foul-smelling green discharge from the vagina
|
trichomonas vaginalis
|
|
|
causes a vaginal discharge with a fishy odor
|
Gardnerella vaginalis
|
|
|
causes a cottage-cheese like vaginal discharge
|
candida albicans
|
|
|
MOST common cause of duodenal ulcers
|
H. pylori
|
|
|
what test is used to screen for syphilis and what tests confirms the diagnosis
|
screen with VDRL
confirm with FTA-ABS |
|
|
antibiotics that react with what substance can cause a VDRL false positive
|
cardiolipin
|
|
|
cause of cat-scratch fever
|
bartonella
|
|
|
cause of tularemia
|
francisella tularensis
|
|
|
cause of the plague
|
yersinia pestis
|
|
|
morphologic feature of gardnerella vaginalis
|
clue cells
|
|
|
DOC for gardnerella vaginalis
|
metronidazole
|
|
|
cause of Q fever
|
coxiella burnetii
|
|
|
antibodies against rickettsia can be tested for with what test
|
weil-felix test
(will be negative in Q fever) |
|
|
In a weil-felix reaction, the ricketssial antibodies cross-react with antigens from what bacteria
|
proteus
|
|
|
what is the rash pattern seen in RMSF
|
rash starts on distal extremities and migrates to the trunk
|
|
|
chlamydia serotypes L1-L3 cause what disease
|
lymphogranuloma venereum
|
|
|
treatment of chlamydia
|
azithromycin or doxycycline
|
|
|
cause of granuloma inguinale (aka donovanosis)
|
klebsiella granulomatosis
|
|
|
bacterial infection characterized by a high titer of cold agglutinins (IgM) which can agglutinate or lyse RBCs
|
mycoplasma
|
|
|
fungus found in bird/pigeon/bat droppings
|
histoplasma
|
|
|
fungus whose structure contains spherules and endospores larger than RBC, San Joaquin Valley fever, Dust storms, MOM pleomorphic unlike all the others
|
coccidioidomycosis
|
|
|
fungus which exhibits broad-based budding, sine and BONE dissemination, granulomatous nodules
|
blastomycosis
|
|
|
cause of tinea versicolor
|
malassezia furfur
Tx- Selenoum Sulfide, topical miconazole |
|
|
forms "fungus balls" in pulmonary infection, aflatoxin causes hepatocellular carcinoma
|
aspergillus
|
|
|
which cells are involved in the pathogenesis of toxoplasmosis
|
TH1 cells
|
|
|
DOC for African sleeping sickness
|
suramin
|
|
|
DOC for chagas disease
|
nifurtimox
|
|
|
cause of kala-azar
|
leishmania donovani
|
|
|
where in the cell do DNA and RNA viruses replicate
|
DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus
RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm |
|
|
ONLY family of SS DNA viruses
|
parvovirus family (B19)
|
|
|
viral structure of the herpesvirus family
|
enveloped, DS, linear DNA virus
|
|
|
HSV-1 lies dormant in what ganglion
|
trigeminal
|
|
|
antibodies in mononucleosis
|
heterophile
|
|
|
morphologic feature of herpes infections
|
intranuclear inclusions-- "cowdry bodies"
|
|
|
ONLY DS-RNA virus family
|
reovirus family (includes reovirus and rotavirus)
|
|
|
HCV, yellow fever, dengue, St. Louis encephalitis, and west nile viruses ALL belong to what viral family
|
flaviviruses
|
|
|
parainfluenza, RSV, rubeola, and mumps viruses ALL belong to what viral family
|
paramyxoviruses
|
|
|
polio, echovirus, rhinovirus, coxsackievirus, and HAV viruses ALL belong to wha viral family
|
picornaviruses
|
|
|
characterized by a seal-like barking cough
|
croup (parainfluenza virus)
|
|
|
characterized by fever, malaise, agitation, photophobia, and hydrophobia which progress to paralysis, coma, and death
|
rabies
|
|
|
animals that carry rabies virus
|
bats (most common of the 4), raccoons, skunks, and dogs (least common of the 4)
|
|
|
cause of smallpox
|
variola virus
|
|
|
what is the ALT/AST ratio in alcoholic hepatitis
|
ALT/AST ratio is < 1
(AST will be higher) |
|
|
what is the ALT/AST ratio in viral hepatitis
|
ALT/AST ratio is > 1
(ALT will be higher) |
|
|
only hepatitis virus that has a DNA genome
|
hepatitis B
|
|
|
MAIN mode of transmission of HAV
|
fecal-oral
|
|
|
MAIN modes (3) of transmission of HBV
|
parenteral, sexual, congenital
|
|
|
MAIN modes (2) of transmission of HCV
|
drug abuse and transfusions
|
|
|
HDV has to coexist with what other hepatitis virus
|
HBV
|
|
|
HEV is most common and most serious in what people
|
pregnant women
|
|
|
which hepatitis viruses predispose you to chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular carcinoma
|
HBV and HCV
|
|
|
antibodies associated with acute hepatitis
|
IgM HBcAb plus HBsAg and HBeAg
|
|
|
Major antibody associated with the window period of hepatitis infection
|
Anti-HBcAb
|
|
|
Major antibody associated with chronic active hepatitis
|
HBeAg
|
|
|
Major antibody associated with chronic asymptomatic hepatitis
|
IgG HBeAb
|
|
|
Major antibody associated with successful immunization against hepatitis
|
IgG HBsAb
|
|
|
acquired prion disease from eating human flesh/brains
|
kuru
|
|
|
MOST common prion disease
|
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
|
|
|
morphologic feature of prion disease
|
spongiform degeneration
|
|
|
parasite causing anal puritis; diagnose via scotch tape test
|
Enterobius vermicularis (pin worm)
|
|
|
cause of river blindness; characterized by black skin and black sight
|
onchocerca volvulus
|
|
|
you can see this helminth crawling if your conjunctiva if infected
|
loa loa
|
|
|
cause of elephantiasis
|
wuchereria bancrofti
|
|
|
cause of neurocysticercosis
|
taenia solium
|
|
|
morphologic feature of the brain in neurocysticercosis
|
swiss cheese appearance
|
|
|
vitamin deficiency caused by the "fish tapeworm" (D. latum)
|
B12
|
|
|
helminth found in dog feces; causes liver cysts; must inject ethanol before surgical removal in order to kill the offspring
|
Echinococcus granulosus
|
|
|
helminth that increases risk for bladder cancer
|
Schistosoma haematobium
|
|
|
helminth that increases risk for cholangiocarcinoma
|
Clonorchis sinesis
|
|
|
helminth found in undercooked crab meat that causes hemoptysis
|
Paragonimus westermani
|
|
|
cause of epidemic typhus
|
Rickettsia prowazekii
|
|
|
cause of endemic typhus
|
Rickettsia typhi
|
|
|
cause of scrub typhus
|
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
|
|
|
organism that causes food poisoning after ingesting re-heated rice
|
bacillus cereus
|
|
|
organism found in canned fruits and honey
|
C.botulinum
|
|
|
causes of pneumonia in the neonate
|
group B strep and E.coli
|
|
|
cause of hospital acquired pneumonia
|
S. aureus and enteric gram negative rods
|
|
|
incidence of this causative agent of meningitis has greatly decreased with recent discovery of a vaccine
|
H. influenzae
|
|
|
MOST common cause of osteomyelitis
|
S. aureus
|
|
|
cause of vertebral osteomyelitis
|
M. tuberculosis
|
|
|
cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients
|
salmonella
|
|
|
cause of osteomyelitis in diabetics and drug addicts
|
pseudomonas
|
|
|
enzyme tested for in suspected UTI
|
leukocyte esterase
|
|
|
name of test to check for suspected UTI
|
nitrite test
|
|
|
MOST common cause of UTI
|
E.coli
|
|
|
organisms that cause UTIs
|
E.coli, S. saprophyticus, klebsiella, serratia, enterobacter cloacae, proteus, and pseudomonas
|
|
|
what does the pneumonic "ToRCH3eS-List" stand for
|
microbes that are passed from mother to fetus causing congenital infection:
To- Toxoplasmosis R- Rubella C- CMV H- HIV H- HSV H- HBV E- E.coli S- syphilis List- Listeria |
|
|
characterized by vesicular rash on palms of the hand and soles of the feet with ulcers in the oral mucosa; caused by Coxsackievirus A
|
Hand-foot-mouth disease
|
|
|
characterized by a "slapped cheek" rash starting on the face and spreading through the body in a "lace-like" pattern; can cause hydrops fetalis in pregnant women; causative agent is B19 virus
|
erythema infectiousum (aka fifth disease)
|
|
|
characterized by an erythematous, "sandpaper-like" rash with fever and sore throat; often associated with "strep throat"
|
scarlet fever (S. pyogenes)
|
|
|
symptoms of this STD include urethritis, cervicitis, conjunctivitis, Reiter's syndrome, and PID
|
chlamydia
|
|
|
symptoms of this STD include urethritis, cervicitis, PID, prostatitis, epididymitis, reactive arthritis
|
gonorrhea
|
|
|
cause of chancroid
|
haemophilus ducreyi
|
|
|
PID can increase risk for this liver condition characterized by adhesions to the parietal peritoneum of the liver
|
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
|
|
|
Tropheryma whippelii stains positive for what
|
PAS
|
|
|
class of drugs that block cell wall synthesis by inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking
|
penicillins
|
|
|
MOA of these 2 drugs involves blocking peptidoglycan synthesis
|
bacitracin and vancomycin
|
|
|
organisms treated with penicillin
|
most gram positive bacteria including syphilis
|
|
|
these drugs are often added to penicillin antibiotics to protect the antibiotic from destruction by B-lactamase
|
clavulanic acid, sulbactam, tazobactam (CAST)
|
|
|
this class of drugs have the same MOA as penicillins but are less susceptible to penicillinases
|
cephalosporins
|
|
|
this drug is synergistic with aminoglycosides, and is used to treat gram-negative rods in people with penicillin allergies (no cross-reaction with penicillins like most beta-lactams)
|
aztreonam
|
|
|
SE of vancomycin
|
nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, thrombophlebitis, "red-man" syndrome (pretreat with antihistamines)
|
|
|
antibiotic given as prophylaxis before bowel surgery
|
neomycin
|
|
|
this class of drugs is used to treat Lyme disease, H. pylori, mycoplasma, rickettsia, and chlamydia
|
tetracyclines
|
|
|
this class of drugs is used to treat atypical pneumonias, STDs, neisseria, and URIs
|
macrolides
|
|
|
macrolides increase the serum concentrations of what drugs
|
theophylline and anticoagulants
|
|
|
SE of chloramphenicol
|
anemia and gray baby syndrome
|
|
|
DOC for anaerobic infections and bacterial abscesses
|
clindamycin
|
|
|
SE of sulfonamides
|
hypersensitivity reactions, hemolysis in G6PD deficient patients, nephrotoxicity, photosensitivity, kernicterus
|
|
|
sulfonamides inhibit what enzyme
|
dihydropteroate synthetase
|
|
|
trimethoprim inhibits what enzyme
|
dihydrofolate reductase
|
|
|
DOC for recurrent UTIs and P. jiroveci
|
TMP-SMZ
|
|
|
which drugs carry sulfa allergies
|
sulfonamides, sulfonylureas, thiazides, acetazolamides, furosemide, celecoxib, probenecid
|
|
|
SE of metronidazole
|
disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol and metallic taste
|
|
|
active ingredients in neosporin
|
bacitracin, neomycin, and polymyxin B
|
|
|
treatment for TB
|
rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
|
|
|
prophylaxis for TB
|
isoniazid
|
|
|
prophylaxis for M. avium-intracellulare
|
azithromycin
|
|
|
SE of ethambutol
|
red-green color blindness
|
|
|
TB drug that causes lupus-like reaction
|
isoniazid
|
|
|
MOA of isoniazid
|
decrease synthesis of mycolic acid
|
|
|
MOA of rifampin
|
inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
|
|
|
SE of rifampin
|
orange urine, thrombocytopenia, cholestasis
|
|
|
DOC for RMSF
|
chloramphenicol
|
|
|
DOC for invasive aspergillosis
|
caspofungin
|
|
|
MOA of caspofungin
|
inhibits cell wall synthesis by inhibiting synthesis of B-glucan
|
|
|
DOC for onychomycosis ("river blindness")
|
terbinafine
|
|
|
this drug can be used as prophylaxis for influenza A and can also treat Parkinsons
|
Amantadine
|
|
|
MOA of amantadine
|
blocks uncoating of M2 proteins
|
|
|
MOA of oseltamivir and zanamivir
|
inhibit neuraminidase
|
|
|
DOC for RSV and hepatitis C
|
ribavirin
|
|
|
anti-hepatitis drug that acts as a severe teratogen
|
ribavirin
|
|
|
MOA of ribavirin
|
inhibits IMP dehydrogenase
|
|
|
DOC for HSV, VZV, and EBV
|
acyclovir
|
|
|
mechanism of resistance to acyclovir
|
lack of viral thymidine kinase
|
|
|
DOC for CMV
|
ganciclovir
|
|
|
DOC for ganciclovir-resistant or acyclovir-resistant strains
|
foscarnet
|
|
|
what are the 2 accepted combinations for HAART (general)
|
2 NRTIs and 1 protease inhibitor
or 2 NRTIs and 1 NNRTI |
|
|
nevirapine, efavirenz, and declaviridine are all members of this class of drugs
|
NNRTIs
|
|
|
zidovudine, lamivudine, and didanosine are members of what class of drugs
|
NRTIs
|
|
|
ritonavir and indinavir are members of what class of drugs
|
protease inhibitors
|
|
|
antiviral drug given as general prophylaxis during pregnancy to reduce the risk of fetal transmission of HIV
|
zidovudine
|
|
|
SE of didanosine
|
pancreatitis
|
|
|
SE of zidovudine
|
bone marrow suppression and megaloblastic anemia
|
|
|
drug that can treat chronic hepatitis B,C and Kaposi's sarcoma
|
IFN-a
|
|
|
treatment of NADPH oxidase deficiency
|
IFN-y
|
|
|
Antibiotics you must avoid during pregnancy
|
sulfonamides (kernicterus)
aminoglycosides (ototoxicity) fluoroquinolones (cartilage damage) erythromycin (hepatitis in mom) clarithromycin (embryotoxic) metronidazole (mutagensis) tetracyclines (discolored teeth) ribavirin (teratogenic) griseofulvin (teratogenic) chloramphenicol (gray baby) |
|
|
MOA of tazobactam, sulbactam, and clavulanic acid
|
inhibition of penicillinases
|
|
|
do penicillins cross the BBB?
|
yes, but only when the meninges are inflamed
|
|
|
do cephalosporins cross the BBB?
|
only 3rd generations (minus cefipime)
|
|
|
this group of drugs has a 5-10% risk of cross-reactivity with penicillins
|
cephalosporins
|
|
|
DOC for klebsiella
|
aztreonam
|
|
|
what drug is imipenem usally combined with and why
|
cilastin-- this is because imipenem is normally rapidly inactivated by renal dehydropeptidase and cilastin inhibits this enzyme, thus increasing the concentration of imipenem
|
|
|
DOC for vancomycin-resistant strains
|
daptomycin
|
|
|
Major 1st generation cephalosporins (2)
|
cephalexin and cephazolin
|
|
|
Major 2nd generation cephalosporins (3)
|
cefotetan, cefoxitin, and cefuroxime
|
|
|
Major 3rd generation cephalosporins (4)
|
ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftazidime, cefepime
|
|
|
Main 4th generation cephalosporin
|
cefipime
|
|
|
MAJOR SE of the carbapenems
|
seizures
|
|
|
what are differences between the conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia and the conjunctivitis caused by adenovirus
|
adenovirus: resolves spontaneously after a short time period; no morphologic features; discharge is watery
chlamydia: does NOT resolve spontaneously; increased risk for blindness; forms basophilic inclusion bodies within the conjunctiva; treat with doxycycline or erythromycin; discharge is purulent |
|
|
ONLY form of hepatitis that can affects neonates/infants
|
hepatitis B
|
|
|
DOC for loa loa, wuchereria bancrofti, toxocara canis
|
diethylcarbamazine
|
|
|
DOC for most cestodes (tapeworms) including taenia solium, D. latum, schistosoma, and clonorchis
|
praziquantel
|
|
|
normal flora of the vagina
|
lactobacillus, GBS, and E.coli
|
|
|
normal flora of the colon
|
bacteroides and E.coli
|
|
|
organism responsible for food poisoning after ingesting contaminated seafood
|
vibrio parahaemolyticus
|
|
|
symptoms of congenital rubella infection
|
PDA, cataracts, deafness, and "blueberry muffin" rash
|
|
|
symptoms of congenital toxoplasmosis infection
|
chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications
|
|
|
symptoms of congenital CMV infection
|
hearing loss, seizures, petechial rash
|
|
|
causes vaginitis with a strawberry cervix; corkscrew motility is seen on wet mount, Tx metronidazole, increase pH
|
trichomonas vaginalis
|
|
|
asplenic patients are at risk for what 3 main organisms (hint: encapsulated)
|
S. pneumonia, H. influenzae, and N. meningitidis ("SHiN")
|
|
|
ampicillin/amoxicillin are effective against what organisms
|
HELPS:
H. influenza E.coli Listeria Proteus Salmonella |
|
|
1st generation cephalosporins are effective against what organisms
|
PEcK
Proteus E.coli Klebsiella |
|
|
2nd generation cephalosporins are effective against what organisms
|
HEN PeCKS
H. influenzae Enterobacter Neisseria Proteus E.coli Klebsiella Serratia |
|
|
toxicity of aminoglycosides
|
ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, teratogen
|
|
|
tetracycline used in SIADH
|
demeclocycline
|
|
|
why are fluoroquinolones contraindicated in pregnancy and children
|
damage to cartilage in children; tendon rupture in adults
|
|
|
DOC for H. ducreyi
|
ceftriaxone
|
|
|
ONLY species of plasmodium that causes cerebral malaria
|
P. falciparum
|
|
|
which virus increases the risk for neoplasm by inactivating p53 and Rb by binding to E6 and E7, respectively
|
HPV
|
|
|
bacteria that is urease, catalase, and oxidase positive
|
H. pylori
|
|
|
bacteria associated with undercooked meat
|
E.coli
|
|
|
causes of watery diarrhea
|
ETEC, EPEC, cholera, C. perfringens, giardiasis, cryptosporidium, rotavirus, adenovirus, and norwalk virus
|
|
|
causes of meningitis in the newborn (<6 months)
|
S. agalactiae (group B strep), E. coli, and Listeria
|
|
|
causes of meningitis in children (older that 6 months)
|
S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, H. influenzae, enteroviruses
|
|
|
causes of meningitis in adults
|
S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, enteroviruses, and HSV-1
|
|
|
causes of meningitis in the elderly
|
S. pneumoniae, Listeria
|
|
|
MOST common cause of meningitis overall
|
S. pneumoniae
|
|
|
MOST common cause of meningitis in college students
|
N. meningitidis
|
|
|
complication of N. meningitidis seen at onset of symptoms
|
DIC
|
|
|
viral causes of meningitis
|
enteroviruses (echoviruses and coxsackievirus), HSV-1, HIV, West Nile virus, VZV, and mumps
|
|
|
clinical signs suggesting bacterial meningitis
|
Kernig and Brudzinski signs
|
|
|
characteristics of a lumbar puncture in bacterial meningitis
|
increased CSF opening pressure
increased PMN cells (neutrophils) increased protein decreased glucose |
|
|
characteristics of a lumbar puncture in viral meningitis
|
normal-slightly increased CSF opening pressure
increased lymphocytes normal-slightly increased protein normal glucose |
|
|
characteristics of fungal/TB meningitis
|
increased CSF opening pressure
increased lymphocytes increased protein decreased glucose |
|
|
what time of the year is bacterial meningitis MOST common, and what time of the year is viral meningitis MOST common
|
bacterial meningitis is common in the winter
viral meningitis is common in the summer |
|
|
aka roundworm
|
ascaris lumbricoides
|
|
|
helminth found in undercooked pork; infects mainly the muscle (forms cysts); also causes periorbital edema
|
trichinella spiralis
|
|
|
helminth that causes portal HTN
|
schistosoma mansoni
|
|
|
treatment for intestinal helminths
|
albendazole/mebendazole
|
|
|
cause of condylomata acuminata
|
HPV 6,11
|
|
|
cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign) along with purulent discharge and abdominal pain suggests what condition
|
PID
|
|
|
PID and salpingitis (mainly via chlamydia and gonorrhea) increase the risk for what condition in women
|
ectopic pregnancy
|
|
|
nosocomial infection linked to urinary catheterization
|
E.coli and proteus
|
|
|
nosocomial infection linked to renal dialysis
|
HBV
|
|
|
P. jiroveci infection FIRST becomes a concern at what CD4 level
|
<200
|
|
|
organism linked to dog/cat bites
|
Pasteurella multocida
|
|
|
disease associated with S. aureus
|
toxic-shock syndrome, scalded skin syndrome, food poisoning, MRSA, nosocomial/community-acquired infection, acute endocarditis, osteomyelitis, empyemas, atopic dermatitis, and lung abscesses
|
|
|
which class of antibiotics block protein synthesis at the 30S ribosomal subunit
|
aminoglycosides and tetracyclines
|
|
|
SE of ampicillin
|
rash
|
|
|
drug that binds to D-ala D-ala terminus of the cell wall
|
vancomycin
|
|
|
class of antibiotics that inhibits the formation of the initiation complex
|
aminoglycosides
|
|
|
class of antibiotics that prevents attachment of the aminoacyl-tRNA
|
tetracyclines
|
|
|
SE of macrolides
|
prolonged QT, GI distress, acute cholestatic hepatitis, eosinophilia, and skin rashes
|
|
|
MOA of fluoroquinolones
|
inhibits DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)
|
|
|
must supplement this vitamin to people taking isoniazid
|
B6
|
|
|
MOA of amphotericin B and nystatin
|
binds to ergosterol tearing holes in the fungal membrane
|
|
|
MOA of ketoconazole/fluconazole
|
inhibits P450 enzymes that convert lanosterol to ergosterol
|
|
|
MOA of flucytosine
|
inhibits DNA synthesis by conversion to 5-fluorouracil
|
|
|
MOA of terbinafine
|
inhibits squalene epoxidase
|
|
|
MOA of griseofulvin
|
interferes with microtubule function and disrupts mitosis
|
|
|
DOC for most dermatophytes (excluding onychomycosis)
|
griseofulvin
|
|
|
MOA of chloroquine
|
blocks heme polymerase in he plasmodium
|
|
|
MOA of pyrimethamine
|
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase in the plasmodium
|
|
|
DOC for influenza
|
oseltamivir
|
|
|
MOA of acyclovir and ganciclovir
|
inhibits viral DNA polymerase
|
|
|
DOC for VZV (shingles)
|
famciclovir
|
|
|
morphologic feature of EBV
|
Downey cells
|
|
|
prophylaxis DOC before surgery for cholecystitis
|
3rd generation cephalosporin
|
|
|
MOA of the TSST superantigen toxin of S. aureus
|
Binds MHC-II and T-cell receptor simultaneously activating a large numbers of T cells to release IFN-γ and IL-2
|
|
|
what glycoprotein do you check for when doing an ELISA for HIV
|
gp24
|
|
|
Cryptococcal Tx
|
Amphotericin with Flucytosine
|
|
|
Mycosis Tx
|
Localized- Itraconazole or fluconazole
Systemic Amphoteracin B |
|
|
paracoccidioidomycosis
|
Captains wheel, Latin america
|
|
|
Ring worm Tx
|
Skin: topical terbinafine or -azole
scalp or hair- ORAL terbinafine or -azole Tinea unguium- oral terbinafinem Itraconazole, griseofulvin(loves keratin) |
|
|
Trypanosoma brucei
|
African Sleeping sickness
enlarged LN reoccurring fever somnolence, coma, death (brucei rhodesiense and brucei gambiense Tsetse Fly |
|
|
Plasmodium
|
"diamond ring"
P vivax and Ovale are dormant in the liver P falciparum is most severe and banana shaped gametocyte "cyclic fever" from RBC bursting Anopheles |
|
|
Babesia vector and Tx
|
Ixodes like Lyme Dz
Atovaquone and azithromycin |
