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94 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What three things does hemostasis depend on?
1. Activation of clotting cascade
2. Vasoconstriction
3. Formation of platelet plug
Intrinsic tissue damage is?
contact between blood and exposed endothelial cell surfaces
Extrinsic tissue damage is?
vascular injury exposing tissue factor (thromboplastin or factor III) - subendothelial cell-surface glycoprotein
What is the lifespan of a platelet?
8-12 days
What is a normal platelet count?
150-400K per ml
What is the best test for platelet function?
bleeding time
Adhesion of platelets occurs how?
damage to endothelium releases vWF which then anchors itself to the exposed subendothelial collagen
Activation of platelets occurs how?
platelets have a receptor that attaches itself to the exposed end of vWF attached to the subendothelial collagen AND thrombin attaches to the thrombin receptor on the platelet= change shape and release TxA2 and ADP
What promotes platelet aggregation?
TxA2 and ADP
TxA2 and ADP uncover __________ receptors on the platelet.
fibrinogen
What interconnects platelets?
fibrinogen
What is produced that cross links the platelets and forms a platelet plug?
fibrin
What clotting factors are involved in the intrinsic pathway?
8,9,11,12
What lab tests assess the intrinsic pathway?
PTT and ACT
What drug interferes with the intrinsic pathway?
heparin
What does heparin allow?
antithrombin III to more effectively bind IIa and factor Xa thus not allowing the final fibrin cross linking to occur
What is required to complete the intrinsic pathway?
calcium
What clotting factors are involved in the extrinsic pathway?
3 & 7
Factor 3 is also known as?
thromboplastin
What is the primary initiator of coagulation?
thromboplastin
What lab tests assess the extrinsic pathway?
PT and INR
If a patient is on a continuous heparin infusion and has a low ACT what should you do?
give FFP, contains antithrombin III and all clotting factors but not platelets
What drug interferes with the extrinsic and final common pathway?
coumadin
What does coumadin do?
binds to vitamin K receptors in the liver causing competitive inhibition of vitamin K
What are the dependant clotting factors for vitamin K?
2, 7, 9, 10
What starts the final common pathway?
factor X is activated by completion of intrinsic and extrinsic pathway and complexes on the surface of the platelet with activated factor V and calcium
What are the clotting factors in the final common pathway?
1, 2, 5, 10, 13
What is the sequence of steps in the final common pathway?
factor Xa converts prothrombin (II) to thrombin (IIa) which then converts fibrinogen (I) to fibrin (Ia)- cross linking occurs with the addition of factor VIIIa forming a platelet plug
What is a normal fibrinogen level?
200-400 mg/dl
What is the lab test that measures the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin?
thrombin time (TT)
What is the most common inherited coagulation defect?
von Willebrand's Disease
A pt with von Willebrand's has an increased _______ ______.
bleeding time
What is the treatment for vWF?
1. DDAVP
2. Cryo
3. Factor VIII concentrates
What factors do cryo contain?
VIII, VIII:vWF, I, and XIII
What is the second most common inherited disease?
Hemophilia A
What is Hemophilia A?
Factor VIII:C deficiency
What is the treatment for Hemophilia A?
1. FFP
2. Cryo
3. Factor VIII concentrate
Hemophilia B (Christmas Disease) is?
a factor IX deficiency
What is the treatment for Hemophilia B?
1. FFP
2. Factor IX concentrates
A patient with Hemophilia B you want to avoid what?
IM injections, invasive monitoring, trauma (excessive instrumentation of the airway)
What is afibrinogenemia?
congenital absence of fibrinogen
What lab tests are abnormal for a patient with afibrinogenemia?
PT, PTT, TT all prolonged
What is the treatment for a patient with afibrinogenemia?
1. fibrinogen concentrates
2. cyroprecipitate
Normally ATIII binds factors ____ and ____ greatly and ___, ___, ___, to a lesser degree.
IIa and Xa
IX, XI, XII
What results from a antithrombin III deficiency?
hypercoagulable state (increased incidence of thromboembolic disease
What is the most common cause of resistance to heparin?
antithrombin III deficiency
How does antithrombin III deficiency result?
DIC, nephritic syndrome, chronic liver disease, prolonged heparin administration, and increased protein catabolism
What is treatment for antithrombin III deficiency?
chronic-oral anticoagulants
acute- FFP, ATIII concentrates, heparin
Vitamin K is necessary for the production of what factors?
2, 7, 9, 10
what abnormal lab tests are included in a diagnosis for vitamin K deficiency?
prolonged PT, and normal PTT
What is the treatment for drug induced hemorrhage?
protamine- highly positively charged protein that electrostatically binds to highly negatively charged heparin
-dose 1-1.5mg/100U of heparin
What is the most common cause of bleeding following massive blood replacement?
dilutional thrombocytopenia (platelets become dysfunctional after 1-2 days in stored blood
Plavix
ADP receptor anatgonist
-irreverisble modification
-max efficiency days 3-7
-40-60% platelet inhibition
-5 days for normal lab resumption
DIC is?
uncontrolled activation of the coagulation system with consumption of platelets and procoagulants
In DIC what is deposited in microcirculation?
fibrin
In DIC, what would you expect coagulation tests to look like?
1. PTT, PT, and TT elevated
2. Fibriongen level normal-decreased
3. Low platelet count
4. Increased Fibrin Degradation Products
What is the treatment for DIC?
First-correct etiology then increase fibrinogen and platelet levels, possibly heparin or amicar
What does ASA do?
irreversible acetylates cyclo-oxygenase for life of platelet
What converts arachodonic acid to TxA2?
cyclo-oxygenase
What does ASA ultimately impair?
aggregation of platelets
What is the treatment for someone who is on ASA needing surgery?
pooled platelets
What may ASA also do?
displace highly protein bound drugs
What is idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
decreased platelets due to autoimmune destruction by antiplatelet immunoglobulin (IgG)
What is the hallmark signs of ITP?
petechiae and mucosal bleeding
Who is ITP seen most in?
children and young adult females
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia?
is a immune mediated drug reaction
Which type of HIT is less severe and has only a modest decrease in platelets and is reversible?
type I
HIT type II?
severe decrease in platelets, immune related, activates platelets (associated wiht thromboembolism), occurs 4-6 days after administration
What is the treatment for ITP? 5
1. Corticosteroids
2. IV IgG
3. D/c heparin
4. Splenectomy
5. Platelets
What are four precipitating factors for a sickling crisis?
1. Hypoxia
2. Hypothermia
3. Acidosis
4. Dehydration
Sickle cell anemia is typically found in?
African Americans
What is the patho of sickle cell anemia?
1. Glutamate replaces valine in 6th position of the beta chain of hemoglobin (Hb S) allowing Hb S to predominate over normal Hb A, when exposed to undesirable situations, Hb S aggregates into long stacks called tactoids
In sickle cell anemia, there is a decreased _____ and lower ____ ____ ____.
Hct (18-30%)
RBC life span (10-15 days compared to 120 days)
What may provide some protection against sickling?
increased Hb F, prevents tactoid formation
-disappears after first year of life
What induces Hb F production?
Hydroxyurea
Risk factors for sickling?
1. Low PaO2- 50 mmHg, pronounced at 20 mm Hg
2. Greater in veins vs. arteries
3. Acidosis- regardless of PaO2
4. Hypothermia
5. Dehydration
6 Local factors- stasis of blood causes hypoxemia which then promotes more sickling
What is the diagnosis of sickle cell anemia?
hemaglobin electrophoresis - placed with oxygen consuming reagant (metabisulfite) or a hypertonic ionic solution (solubility test)
Hb SS
sickle cell anemia- homozygous- received gene from both parents
Hb AS
sickle cell trait - variable amounts of Hb A (55-60%) vs Hb S (35-40%)- heterozygous - received gene from one parent
Which variant of sickle cell disease has more complications?
Hb SS
In Hb SS, what are cardiac manifestations? 4
1. LVH
2. Cardiomegaly
3. Increased CO and Diastolic flow murmurs
4. Decreased right ventricular filling
In Hb SS, what are renal manifestations? 3
1. Renal medulla prone to infarction and necrosis
2. Decreased GFR
3. Nephrotic syndrome- proteinuria, hematuria, inability to concentrate urine
In Hb SS, what are hepatic manifestations?
1. cholelithiasis- pigmented stones
2. Increased bilirubin due to chronic hemolysis
3. Hepatic infarcts
In Hb SS, what are neurologic manifestations?
Stroke or intracranial hemorrhage
What are musculoskeletal manifestations?
1. Vasoocclusive sickling infarcts the artery to the femur causing necrosis of the femoral head- 10% of patients may require THA
2. Excruciating musculoskeletal pain
In Hb SS, what are hematologic manifestations?
1. Hgb baseline 6-8 g/dL
2. Right shift of the OHDC
Describe the infarctive crisis
1. Infection or trauma
2. Acute abdominal, chest, back of joint pain
3. Due to micro-infarcts in various tissues
Describe the Aplastic crisis
1. profound anemia Hgb 2-3 g/dL
2. Due to bone marrow suppression or exhaustion
3. Caused in part by viral infections and folate deficiency
Describe Splenic Sequestration Crisis
1. Infants and young children
2. Sudden pooling of blood in spleen
3. Hypotension- life threatening
4. Due to partial or complete blockage of venous drainage from the spleen
What is the treatment for a sickle cell crisis?
1. Hydration prevents hypovolemia
2. Na bicarb to counteract acidosis
3. Pain control
4. Exchange transfusions
5. Hydroxyurea
What is a exchange transfusion?
Increase total Hb to 10-12 g/dL, decrease Hb S to less than 40% of total
-usually only for surgery of chest, abdomen, or resection of tonsils and/or adenoids
In someone with sickel cell disease what should you avoid?
preop sedation, TQ, hypotension
What may you expect to see with pulse oximetry value?
low- decreaesd oxygen carrying ability of Hb S
What type of anesthetic is preferred in a patient with sickle cell disease?
regional - maintains pulmonary function, decreases blood loss, decreased incidence of thromboembolic events