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251 Cards in this Set
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If a sound intensity is increased from 20dB to 40dB then the sound pressure has increased by a factor of:
A: 20 B: 2 C: 10 D: 100 |
C: 10
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Loss of BAEP's during drilling of the internal auditory canal is most likely due to:
A: Compression of the brainstem B: Disruption of the blood supply C: Excessive noise D: Transection of the auditory nerve |
C: Excessive Noise
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Of the following, the most appropriate filter, timebase, and sensitivity for monitoring of cortical ischemia during a carotid surgery are:
A: 0.3-70Hz, 15 mm/sec, 3uV/MM B: 1-70Hz, 15 mm/sec, 30uV/mm C: 0.3-35Hz, 60mm/sec, 3uV/mm D: 0.3-70Hz, 30mm/sec, 30uV/mm |
A: 0.3-70Hz, 15mm/sec, 3uV/mm
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In ABR stimulation, the stimulus type which causes a negative pressure resulting in a slightly earlier latency is:
A: Alternating B: Condensation C: Triggered D: Rarefaction |
D: Rarefaction
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The most appropriate ABR interstimulus interval is:
A: 50mS B: 20mS C: 5mS D: 0.02mS |
B: 20mS
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The input impedance of a differential amplifier should be:
A: at least 80dB B: Less than 5000 ohms C: At least 10,000,000 ohms D: At least 10,000 ohms |
C: At least 10,000,000 ohms
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ABR condensation clicks from the transducer cause:
A: Movement of the tympanic membrane toward the cochlea B: Movement of the tympanic membrane away from the cochlea C: Movement toward and away from the cochlea D: A pure tone to be produced |
A: Movement of the tympanic membrane toward the cochlea
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What is the most common reason for loss of BAEP's during retromastoid microvascular decompression?
A: Cut the cochlear nerve B: Injury to the facial nerve C: Opening of the dura D: Compromise vascular supply |
D: Compromise vascular supply
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What is an appropriate filter for a short latency SSEP cortical response?
A: 1-100 Hz B: 10-3000Hz C: 100-1000Hz D: 0.1-250Hz |
B: 10-3000 Hz
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What is the most common result of anterior spinal artery occlusion?
A: Loss of Erb's point response B: Loss of N13 C: Motor deficits D: Loss of proprioception |
C: Motor deficits
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What is the most important means of preventing the spread of infection?
A: Wearing gloves B: Handwashing C: Using a condom D: Wearing a mask |
B: Handwashing
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Why is platinum used in epidural electrodes?
A: Other metals become toxic when they contact the spinal cord B: Platinum is cost effective C: Other metals become toxic when current is applied to them due to the ionic dissolution D: All of the above. |
C: Other metals become toxic when current is applied to them due to the ionic dissolution
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When can the BAEP no longer be successfully performed? After resection of:
A: Tympanic membrane B: Ossicles C: Acoustic Nerve D: Vestibular nerve |
C: Acoustic nerve
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CNS depressants cause:
A: Minimal effects in ABRs B: Prolonged I-V latencies C: Prolonged III-V latencies D: Increased absolute latencies with no change in interpeaks |
A: Minimal effects in ABRs
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Which time constant would be most effective for cutting low frequency noise from your signal?
A: 10mS B: 100mS C: 1s D: 10s |
A: 10mS
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From left to right pre-auricular points is measured 30cm. The C3 electrode is located:
A: 9cm medial to the left pre-auricular point B: 6cm medial to the left pre-auricular point C: 18cm medial to the right pre-auricular point D: 9cm to the right pre-auricular point |
A: 9 cm medial to the left pre-auricular point
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What is the required horizontal resolution of an evoked potential system?
A: At least 8 bits per data point B: 20uS per data point or less C: At least 20uS per data point D: At least twice the Nyquist frequency |
B: 20uS per data point or less
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During a posterior fossa resection of acoustic neuroma surgery, you observe the loss of wave II of the BAER. What should you do?
A: Inform the surgeon. This indicates significant damage to the VIIIth nerve B: Check the contralateral BAER to confirm a lesion in the Pons C: Continue to monitor without alarm D: Check anesthetic levels |
C: Continue to monitor without alarm
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What will most likely affect SSEPs
A: Spinal cord tumor B: Degenerative motor condition C: Anterior spinal hypoperfusion D: Scoliosis |
A: Spinal cord tumor
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Excessive cerumen may cause
A: Absence of BAER B: Increased I-V interpeak C: Increased I-III interpeak D: Absence of wave V |
A: Absence of BAER
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Compound muscle action potentials to transcranial electric stimulation are susceptible to:
A: Isoflurane B: Pavulon C: Propofol D: All of the above |
D: All of the above
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When no phase reversal is present in an anterior-posterior cortical grid recording:
A: The grid is over the Pre-central gyrus B: The maximum amplitude response is closest to the central sulcus C: The grid is over the post-central gyrus D: The grid should be turned 90 degrees in order to find the phase reversal |
B: The maximum amplitude response is closest to the central sulcus
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A match must be made between the size of the recorded signal and the range of the A/D converter:
A: To prevent aliasing of the signal B: To accurately represent the amplitude of the signal C: To prevent unnecessary artifact rejection D: To accurately measure the latency of a peak |
B: To accurately represent the amplitude of the signal
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The D-Wave is recored from:
A: Peripheral nerve B: Peripheral limb muscle C: Spinal cord D: Cerebral cortex |
C: Spinal cord
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The Trigeminal nerve EMG response has a latency of approximately:
A: 1-2 sec B: 3-5 sec C: 6-8 sec D: 9-11 sec |
B: 3-5 sec
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What drugs would you use for language mapping?
A: Sevoflurane B: Pavulon C: Thiopental D: Fentanyl |
D: Fentanyl
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Why do we use electrodes with the same metals?
A: To ensure high impedance B: To ensure low impedance C: To prevent electrode polarization D: To get electrode polarization |
C. To prevent electrode polarization
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Which montage would you use to confirm a change in the Cz'-Fz cortical response to PTN stim?
A: Cpc-Cpi B: Popliteal Fossa C: Erb's Point D: Cs5-Fz |
A: Cpc-Cpi
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Your initial signal amplitude is 0.5uV inside a background noise of 2uV, what will the signal to noise ratio be after 400 averages?
A: 0.25 B: 1 C: 5 D: 100 |
C: 5
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Opiods are used primarly for:
A: Analgesia B: Neuromuscular Blockade C: Amnesia D: Anesthesia |
A: Analgesia
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What might be monitored for a jugular bulb tumor surgery?
A: Flash VEP B: CN III-VI C: CN VII-XII D: BAER only |
D: BAER only
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Horizontal dipole:
A: EP B: N13 C: N18 D: N34 |
B: N13
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Cranial nerve X can be monitored using electrodes inserted into the:
A: vocalis muscle B: Trapezius muscle C: Tongue D: Soft palate |
A: Vocalis muscle
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You want your vertical resolution to:
A: Be 10% of your input B: Match the amplitude of your input to maximize the signal C: Match the horizontal resolution to maximize the signal D: Be 1% of your input |
B: Match the amplitude of your input to maximize the signal
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Which of the following drugs has an appreciable effect of peripheral nerve APs?
A: Sufentanil B: Vecuronium C: Desflurane D: None of the above |
D: None of the above
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If the OR is very cold, what component of your median SSEPs would you most likely expect to see changes in latency?
A: N20 B: N13 C: N9 D: All waveforms |
D: All waveforms
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Which of the following is a barbituate?
A: Remyfentanyl B: Methohexital C: Curare D: Nitrous Oxide |
B: Methohexital
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Desflurane has a more rapid onset and recovery than Isoflurane because:
A: Desflurane has a lower blood solubility than Isoflurane B: Desflurane has a higher blood solubility than Isoflurane C: Desflurane is injected directly into the blood stream. D: A MAC of Desflurane is several times that of Isoflurane |
A: Desflurane has a LOWER blood solubility than Isoflurane
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What would you monitor for a microvascular decompression of the Vth nerve?
A: Sternocleidomastoid B: Masseter C: Superior oblique D: Medial rectus |
B: Masseter
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Cranial nerve IV can be monitored using electrodes inserted into the:
A: Lateral rectus B: Inferior oblique C: Superior oblique D: Trochlea |
C: Superior Oblique
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What is not an advantage of epidural recording?
A: Reproducible morphology B: Absence of significant artifact C: Resistant to anesthesia D: Stability of responses |
B: Absence of significant artifact
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A decrease in the power spectral edge indicates:
A: Nothing B: Insufficient brain perfusion C: Increased anesthesia D: A greater proportion of EEG power at the lower frequencies |
D: A greater proportion of EEG power at the lower frequencies
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Why are SSEP and MEP used simultaneously?
A: Spinal cord damage can occur in only one tract causing loss of MEP but not SSEP B: Because MEPs indicate spinothalamic tract function C: Because SSEP monitoring alone is not very sensitive to changes in spinal cord function D: All of the above |
A: Spinal cord damage can occur in only one tract causing loss of MEP but not SSEP
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Stimulating PTN contracts:
A: Toe Flexors B: Toe extensors C: Gastrocnemius D: Tibialis anterior |
A: Toe flexors
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When you stimulate PTN, where do you want to record your TO4?
A: Gastrocneimus B: Abductor Hallucis Brevis C: Extensor Hallucis Brevis D: Tibialis Anterior |
B: Abductor Hallucis Brevis
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When doing a C5 decompression involving the axillary nerve which muscle should you record from?
A: Trapezius B: Biceps C: Deltoid D: Triceps |
C: Deltoid
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The integrity of the facial nerve in acoustic neuroma surgery is determined by:
A: spontaneous EMG B: Proximal CMAP C: Distal CMAP D: Stagnara Wake up test |
B: Proximal CMAP
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The watershed area lies between:
A: Anterior cerebral artery & middle cerebral artery B: Posterior cerebral artery & middle cerebral artery C: Anterior cerebral artery & anterior communicating artery D: Posterior cerebral artery & posterior communicating artery |
A: Anterior cerebral artery & middle cerebral artery
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You record spinal potential to:
A: Proof of stimulation B: Monitor for positional limb problems C: Assess temperature effects D: Establish an AP |
D: Establish an AP
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The P31 response to PTN stimulation:
A: Reflects post-synaptic activity in the spinal cord B: Is generated by the thalamus C: Is recordable over a generalized region of scalp D: Is best recorded by an electrode placed at Cs5 |
C: Is recordable over a generalized region of scalp
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Processed EEG: Spectral Edge is a function of:
A: Beta and alpha vs. time B: Amplitude and latency vs. time C: Power and frequency vs. time D: Radiographic interpretation |
C: Power and frequency vs. time
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What ontage will help you discern wave IV and V in a BAEP?
A: Ipsi ear - Fz B: Cz - Fz C: Cz - Contra ear D: Ipsi ear - Contra ear |
C: Cz - Contra ear
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EEG will most likely disappear at what body temperature?
A: 36 degrees C B: 28 degrees C C: 16 degrees C D: 23 degrees C |
C: 16 degrees C
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In the A1-Fpz montage, the peak marked "1" probably represents:
A: Thalamic response B: Stationary cervical cord response C: Caudal medial lemniscus activity D: Far-field brachial plexus activity |
C: Caudal medial lemniscus activity
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A patient with a body temperature of 30 degrees C will have:
A: Increased latencies B: Increased latencies, decreased amplitudes C: Decreased latencies D: Decreased latencies, decreased amplitudes |
A: Increased latencies
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Brown-sequard:
A: peripheral nerve B: spinal cord C: brainstem D: cortex |
B: spinal cord
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An EPSP will cause what to happen?
A: Depolarization of the post-synaptic membrane B: Hyperpolarization of the post-synaptic membrane C: Propogation of an action potential D: Inhibition of all action potentials |
A: Depolarization of the post-synaptic membrane
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According to the Guidelines, what is the optimal filter settings for recording ABRs?
A: 10-30 to 2500-3000 B: 100-300 to 3000-5000 C: 100-500 D: 50-100 to 5000-10,000 |
A: 10-30 to 2500-3000
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The sodium-potassium pump:
A: Pumps Na into the cell and K out of the cell B: Pumps both Na and K out of the cell C: Pumps K into the cell and Na out of the cell D: Pumps both Na and K into the cell |
C: Pumps K into the cell and Na out of the cell
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Cardiac activity appears on the CSA/DSA display as:
A: Delta Activity B: Alpha Activity C: Beta Activity D: Burst suppression |
A: Delta activity
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If you cannot evaluate motor twitch you:
A: Increase intensity until the peripheral response no longer increases B: Increase pulse duration C: Leave intensity at 20mA D: Increase intensity until any discernable response is present |
A: Increase intensity until the peripheral response no longer increases
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During a median nerve preoperative study, a patient has discomfort at the wrist. Stimulation electrodes are 10mm gold disk, stim intensity is 20mA, and the stim duration is 100 uS. Which of the following would most likely reduce the patients discomfort while maintaining adequate stimulation?
A: Increase stim duration B: Decrease number of repititions C: Use smaller stimulating electrodes D: Decrease stimulus intensity below motor threshold |
B: Decrease number of repetitions
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In an epidural response what is the advantage of the bipolar response?
A: Presence of myogenic activity B: Improved in-phase cancellation of noise components C: Needles are far apart D: Large cardiac artifact |
B: Improved in-phase cancellation of noise components
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What cranial nerves monitoring will be ideal for CPA tumor?
A: V & VII B: VII & VIII C: VIII & IX D: VII, VIII, XII |
B: VII & VIII
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In posterior fossa craniotomy surgery for a large tumor with unilateral hearing loss, the appropriate modalities to monitor would be:
A: Contralateral BAEP, median nerve SSEP, and Facial nerve B: Ipsilateral BAEP and facial nerve C: Facial nerve and contralateral median nerve D: Ipsilateral BAEP |
A: Contralateral BAEP, median nerve SSEP, and Facial nerve
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Of those patients who demonstrate significant EEG changes following cross clamping of the carotid, the majority of changes will occur within:
A: 20 seconds B: 1 minute C: 2 minutes D: 5 minutes |
A: 20 seconds
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What muscle would you monitor for EMG activity for cranial nerve XII?
A: Tongue B: Trapezius C: Masseter D: Frontalis |
A: Tongue
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What would be the effect of fluid in the external auditory canal?
A: Increase of absolute latencies B: Increased wave amplitudes C: Increased I-V latency D: Decreased wave V amplitude |
A: Increase of absolute latencies
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The intraoperative BAEP is most likely to be obscured by:
A: Patient position B: Eye movement C: Muscle artifact D: Excessive Isoflurane |
C: Muscle artifact
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Contralateral ear masking should be done at:
A: 40 dB SPL B: 60 dB SPL C: 40 dB SL D: 60 dB peSPL |
D: 60 dB peSPL
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You are most likely to see changes during EXPOSURE of a spine surgery due to:
A: Anesthesia induced hypotension B: Use of electrocautery C: Altered recording parameters D: Spinal cord compression |
A: Anesthesia induced hypotension
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Of the following, the peak equivalent SPL of a click should be calibrated at:
A: 500Hz B: 1000Hz C: 5000Hz D: 10000Hz |
B: 1000Hz
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The most diagnostic part of the BAEP is:
A: Wave I latency B: Wave V amplitude C: Wave V latency D: I-V interpeak |
D: I-V interpeak
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Which of the following are acceptable filter settings for recording BAEPs:
A: 1-1000 Hz B: 250-2500 Hz C: 500-5000 Hz D: 10-2500 Hz |
D: 10-2500 Hz
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Sensation level (SL) is defined by:
A: a measure of the ambient pressure B: The average hearing threshold of a normal population C: The absolute sound pressure relative to atmospheric pressure D: An individuals hearing threshold |
D: An individuals hearing threshold
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Ipsilateral cranial nerve deficits combined with contralateral motor deficits indicate what site of lesion?
A: cortex B: brainstem C: spinal cord D: Cauda Equina |
A: cortex
B: brainstem |
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During middle or posterior fossa surgery, what structure is most at risk?
A: cerebellum B: brainstem C: optic nerve D: spinal cord |
B: brainstem
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A patient would undergo a microvascular decompression of the facial nerve for:
A: Hemifacial spasm B: Carotid stenosis C: Acoustic neuroma D: Tic Douloureaux |
A: Hemifacial spasm
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The most important consideration for mapping of near field high voltage gradient signals is:
A: Closely spaced electrodes B: A quiet reference electrode position C: Comparison to scalp recorded signals D: Contralateral to lateral chain setup |
A: Closely spaced electrodes
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What is the best montage to use to evaluate dorsal column activity?
A: Cs5-EPc B: Cpc-Ep1 C: Cpi-Epc D: EPi-EPc |
A: Cs5-EPc
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What is the effect of SSEPs of 50ug/kg fentanyl?
A: Increased latency, decreased amplitude B: No change C: Decreased latency, increased amplitude D: Slightly increased latency, no change in amplitude |
D: Slightly increased latency, no change in amplitude
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Prolonged MN responses including Erbs point is most likely due to?
A: Dorsal column injury B: Pinched peripheral vessel C: Thalamic lesion D: Carotid stenosis |
B: Pinched peripheral vessel
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Bipolar electrodes are used for localization of:
A: Phase changes in instrument B: Decreased common mode rejection C: Far field signals D: Signals via phase reversal |
D: Signals via phase reversal
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Epidural electrodes should be placed:
A: Above the dura B: Between the dura and spinal cord C: Inside the spinal cord D: Above the lamina |
A: Above the dura
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What would you monitor for a microvascular decompression of the Vth nerve?
A: Lateral Rectus B: Masseter C: Trapezius D: Quadriceps |
B: Masseter
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Which of the following can cause generalized seizure activity?
A: Enflurane B: Isoflurane C: Halothane D: Nitrous oxide |
A: Enflurane
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Which is the best anesthetic protocol to use for median nerve SSEP monitoring?
A: Fentanyl bolus injections B: Midazolam bolus injections C: Fentanyl infusion D: Midozolam infusion |
D: Fentanyl infusion
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The use of ER insert earphones results in:
A: Lack of stimulating artifact B: Separating wave I from the stimulus artifact C: Increased wave I amplitude D: Shorter I-V interval |
B: Separating wave I from the stimulus artifact
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What electrode should be used for facial nerve CMAP recording?
A: Subdermal needle B: Corkscrew C: Hook wire D: Surface |
D: Surface
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A 60 Hz artifact will most likely be caused by:
A: Pneumatic drill B: Suction C: Microscope D: Ultrasonic aspirator |
C: Microscope
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What montage will help you discern waves IV and V in a BAEP?
A: Ipsi-ear - contra-ear B: Cz - Contra ear C: Ipsi ear - Fz D: Cz-Fz |
B: Cz - Contra ear
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If a 10uV signal inside 50uV of noise is averaged for 100 traces, the final signal to noise ratio will be:
A: 1:5 B: 5:1 C: 2:1 D: 1:1 |
C: 2:1
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The CENTRAL conduction time for PTN SSEPs is:
A: Popliteal fossa - LP B: LP - P37 C: LP - N47 D: P37 - N47 |
B: LP - P37
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Loss of BAEPs following drilling of the interal auditory canal is most likely due to:
A: Disruption of the cochlear blood supply B: Compression of the brainstem C: Transection of the auditory nerve D: Ipsilateral masking effect |
A: Disruption of the cochlear blood supply
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The patient presenting prior to surgery for removal of an acoustic neuroma would likely have symptoms including:
A: muscle weakness and gait disturbance B: slurred speech, aphasia, and focal weakness C: nystagmus and decreased visual acuity D: hearing loss, headaches and unsteady gait |
D: hearing loss, headaches and unsteady gait
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For the interoperative recording of EEG, the impedance of a scalp electrode should range from:
A: 250 to 500 ohms B: 500 to 1000 ohms C: 1000 to 5000 ohms D: 5000 to 10000 ohms |
C: 1000 to 5000 ohms
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A term used to describe very low currents that may be lethal to patients with indwelling electrodes or catheters is:
A: macroshock B: ground loop C: short circuit D: microshock |
D: microshock
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The sound stimulus intensity at the tympanic membrane depends on the:
A: acoustic coupling between the sound stimulus generator and the ear B: relation between SPL (dB) and the inverse peak equivalent SPL (dB) C: relation between SPL (dB) and the peak equivalent SPL (dB) D: patients hearing threshold (dB) |
A: acoustic coupling between the sound stimulus generator and the ear
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Generally speaking, rate increases above 30 per second in BAEP studies:
A: will increase the amplitude of wave V B: will decrease wave V amplitude and incraese wave I amplitude C: will increase the latency and decrease the amplitude of the BAEP D: have little or no effect on BAEP responses |
C: will increase the latency and decrease the amplitude of the BAEP
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For stimulation in motor evoked potential (MEP) studies, the anode should be placed:
A: rostral to the cathode B: caudal to the cathode C: medial to the cathode D: lateral to the cathode |
A: rostral to the cathode
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In order to record cortical SSEPs during intraoperative monitoring of the thoracolumbar spinal cord, an electrode should be placed:
A: 2 cm posterior to Pz B: 2 cm anterior to Cz C: 2 cm posterior to Cz D: 2 cm posteror to C3 & C4 |
C: 2 cm posterior to Cz
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When using bipolar montage during EEG recording, the localizing sign is:
A: a phase reversal between adjacent channels having a common electrode B: the maximum amplitude activity is replicated in all channels displayed C: the highest amplitude in the electrode referred to a common reference D: at the end of the chain of electrode selections |
A: a phase reversal between adjacent channels having a common electrode
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Raw (unprocessed) EEG should always be available for review when monitoring quantitative EEG in order to:
A: Assist in identifying asymmetries or focal abnormalities B: localize the source of all artifacts C: alert the technologist when cautery is in use D: check for eye opening and closing |
A: Assist in identifying asymmetries or focal abnormalities
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The vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) appears:
A: in the groove between the pons and medulla oblongta B: between the cerebellum and C3 C: at the base of the brain near the optic nerves D:from the floor of the third ventricle |
A: in the groove between the pons and medulla oblongta
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Well-maintained documentation is imperative throughout a surgical case in order to:
A: provide details of events associated with a functional loss B: require the technologist to focus on the operative procedure C: justify billing for the monitoring service D: All the above |
A: provide details of events associated with a functional loss
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Using a montage consisting of C5 spine to Fpz, with lower extremity stim, the expected response is generated at the:
A: caudal medial lemniscus and is a far-field response B: caudal medial lemniscus and is a stationary potential C: cervical spine and is a near-field potential D: cervical spine and is a stationary potential |
A: caudal medial lemniscus and is a far-field response
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In the OR, the stim intensity for activating a SENSORY nerve:
A: should be set at double the sensory threshold B: should be set for two to three times the motor threshold C: does not have an established boundary D: is set slightly above the motor threshold |
C: does not have an established boundary
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In a patient with a hematocrit below 10%, the SSEP waveforms will:
A: have greater interpeak variability B: increase in amplitude and increase in latency C: increase in latency and decrease in amplitude D: cease to be recordable |
C: increase in latency and decrease in amplitude
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Spinal cord ischemia during aortic surgery is best detected by changes in the:
A: median nerve SSEP B: tibial nerve compound action potential C: lumbar N20 spinal cord potential D: Posterior tibial nerve somatosensory evoked potential |
D: Posterior tibial nerve somatosensory evoked potential
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A grounding device must be available so that, under normal conditions, no voltage greater than________ is measured across an impedance of 1000 ohms.
A: 60mV rms at 50 Hz B: 20mV rms at 60 Hz C: 50mV rms at 60 Hz D: 10mV rms at 50 Hz |
B: 20mV rms at 60 Hz
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All of the following are true of magnetic stimulation except:
A: an electrical stimulator is required to pace the stimulus B: The stimulation is not perceived as painful C: Pulses of current are delivered through a coil of wire D: The magnetic field created causes movement in cortical neurons |
A: an electrical stimulator is required to pace the stimulus
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The term 'broadband click' refers to a:
A: peak acoustic power of 2-4 kHz B: short peak acoustic power of 1-2 kHz C: broad peak acoustic power of 1-5 kHz D: a peak acoustic power of 500Hz to 2 kHz |
A: peak acoustic power of 2-4 kHz
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The sensitivity setting on an amplifier set to produce a vertical deflection of 1 cm with an input of 10mV is:
A: 1mV/mm B: 1mV/cm C: 10mV/mm D: 20mV/cm |
A: 1mV/mm
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Brain activity recorded directly from the cortex (ECoG) is very high in amplitude and usually requires sensitivities in the range of:
A: 10 to 50 uV/mm B: 40 to 100uV/mm C: 100 to 150uV/mm D: 200 to 300 uV/mm |
B: 40 to 100uV/mm
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Given an electrical circuit with a resistance of 1000 ohms and a voltage of 10 Volts, the current flow will be:
A: .01 A B: .10 ohms C: 10 A D: 100 Volts |
A: .01 A
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IF you have a signal to noise ratio of 1:2, averaging 64 responses will:
A: reduce the noise by 50% B: not change the ratio C: improve the ratio to 8:1 D: improve the ratio to 4:1 |
D: improve the ratio to 4:1
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A condensation click:
A: delivers the loudest sounds to the tympanic membrane B: causes the tympanic membrane to move outward C: causes the headphone diaphragm to displace toward the tympanic membrane D: causes the headphone diaphragm to move away from the tympanic membrane |
C: causes the headphone diaphragm to displace toward the tympanic membrane
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With a sampling rate of 10kHz the shortest sine wave resolved would be:
A: 2mS B: .2mS C: .4 mS D: .02 mS |
B: .2mS
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Which of the following can INHIBIT the postsynaptic neuron?
A: gama amino butyric acid B: acetylcholine C: para amino butyric acid D: glutamate |
A: gama amino butyric acid
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An unstable blood pressure during SSEP monitoring in the OR affects cortical EPs resulting in:
A: fluctuating latencies B: fluctuating amplitudes C: fluctuating amplitudes and latencies D: minimal changes if the body temperature is maintained above 32 degrees C |
B: fluctuating amplitudes
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In order to monitor cranial nerve X, the recording electrodes are placed in the:
A: trapezius muscle B: soft palate C: tongue D: false vocal cords |
D: false vocal cords
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A goal of IONM of the sensory pathway is to:
A: diagnose pre-existing abnormalities B: detect global systemic changes C: differentiate between local surgical manipulations versus anesthetic affects D: detect abnormalities (electrophysiologic changes) that develop as the recordings are taken |
D: detect abnormalities (electrophysiologic changes) that develop as the recordings are taken
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A major disadvantage of monitoring only PTN SSEP during scoliosis surgery is the inability to:
A: measure the effects of distraction on the spinal cord B: measure the effects of translation on the spinal cord C: detect ischemic injury to the anterior spinal cord D: monitor highly variable responses to physiological factors such as heart rate and blood pressure |
C: detect ischemic injury to the anterior spinal cord
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A stimulus pulse width that would tend to excite a large population of motor fibers than sensory fibers is:
A: 0.05 ms B: .2 ms C: 0.5 ms D: 1ms |
A: 0.05 ms
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At the stage of surgical anesthesia, propofol affects the BAEP by:
A: increasing the latencies of waves I, III, and V without changing their amplitudes B: decreasing the amplitude in all waveforms C: causing very minimal changes D: abolishing all waveforms |
A: increasing the latencies of waves I, III, and V without changing their amplitudes
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Vascular malformations of the posterior fossa associated with hemifacial spasm and facial paresis may cause:
A: a loss of wave I on the BAEP B: BAEP latency abnormalities C: increased amplitudes if tubal inserts are used for stimulation D: BAEP abnormalities if the auditory cortex is involved |
B: BAEP latency abnormalities
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The amplitude of the cortical response to PTN SEP stimulation is at least 80% attenuated by:
A: stimulation rates of 15 per second or higher B: large doses of muscle relaxant C: a HLF of 5000 Hz D: a stimulation duration greater than 150 uS |
A: stimulation rates of 15 per second or higher
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A patient in a state of surgical anesthesia using N20 is likely to have a drop in SSEP amplitudes of:
A: 50% B: 75% C: 30% D: 99% |
B: 75%
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The surgical procedure that would have the greatest risk for changes in cardiovascular and respiratory efforts would:
A: involve the posterior fossa B: be the removal of an occipital tumor C: be temporal lobectomy D: be in the are of the posterior spinal segments |
A: involve the posterior fossa
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Spinal instrumentation includes all of the following except:
A:Cotrel-Dubousset (CD instrumentation) B: Schneider Instrumentation C: Texas Scottish Rite Hospital (TSRH Instrumentation) D: Luque L-rod with sublaminar wires |
B: Schneider Instrumentation
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Wave III of the BAEP is generated by the:
A: Cochlear nucleus B: Inferior colliculus C: lateral lemniscus D: medial geniculate |
A: Cochlear nucleus
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EEG burst suppression may result from which of the following:
A: N20 50% B: MAP 70 C: Isoflurane 1.7% D: Temperature 35.3 degree C |
C: Isoflurane 1.7%
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To accurately represent the amplitude of an EP waveform, a match must be made between the:
A: signal size and the and the vertical capacity of the digitizer B: high-frequency noise and smoothing operation of the instrument C: dwell time and sampling rate D: horizontal resolution and signal size |
A: signal size and the and the vertical capacity of the digitizer
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An agent that should be excluded before electrocortigraphy for interictal discharges is:
A: N20 B: succinylcholine cloride C: phenytoin D: Isoflurane |
C: phenytoin
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Diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan), and clonazepam (Clonopin) are:
A: psychostimulants B: analgesics C: antidepressants D: benzodiazepines |
D: benzodiazepines
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When placing stimulating electrodes over a peripheral nerve to elicit a muscle response:
A: the positive electrode should be toward the peripheral portion of the nerve to be stimulated B: the negative electrode should be toward the peripheral portion of the nerve to be stimulated C: neuromuscular blockade must be in effect during stimulation D: the positive electrode must be directly over the nerved whereas the negative electrode needn't be |
B: the negative electrode should be toward the peripheral portion of the nerve to be stimulated
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Trigeminal nerve stimulation will elicit a CMAP from which of the following:
A: mentalis B: tongue C: trigeminalis D: Temporalis |
D: Temporalis
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The X cranial nerve can be monitored with electrodes inserted into the:
A: lateral rectus muscle B: vocalis muscle C: trapezius muscle D: tongue |
B: vocalis muscle
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The XI cranial nerve can be monitored with electrodes inserted into the:
A: lateral rectus muscle B: vocalis muscle C: trapezius muscle D: tongue |
C: trapezius muscle
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Random spike discharges can be heard from a speaker during facial nerve dissection in all of the following except:
A: irrigation B: heating effects C: variations in anesthetics D: during electrocautery |
D: during electrocautery
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Stimulation of the motor pathway at the spinal cord can be achieved with little movement in the surgical field by:
A: decreasing muscle relaxant B: slowing the stim rate C: increasing the stim rate enough to produce muscle tetany D: increasing the stim duration |
C: increasing the stim rate enough to produce muscle tetany
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The assumption that responses of excessive amplitude are likely to contain artifact forms the basis for:
A: digital filtering B: dwell time C: artifact rejection D: digital averaging |
C: artifact rejection
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For patients showing clamp-related EEG changes during carotid endarterectomy, 80% of the changes appear within the:
A: first 10 sec B: first 60 sec C: frontal leads only D: alpha frequency only |
B: first 60 sec
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Which of the following will affect the muscle motor evoked response (CMAP) to spinal cord stimulation the LEAST?
A: shunting of current by irrigation fluid B: muscle relaxants C: insertion of hardware D: anesthetic agents |
D: anesthetic agents
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In monopolar facial nerve stimulation, positive charge flows:
A: from cathode to ground B: from cathode to anode C: from anode to cathode D: muscle to ground |
C: from anode to cathode
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The facial nerve EMG response to intracranial stimulation has a latency of approximately:
A: 3 msec B: 5 msec C: 7 msec D: 10 msec |
C: 7 msec
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Spectral analysis of raw EEG data displays power as an upward deflection and:
A: wave morphology in a compressed design B: frequency as a linear display across the epoch line C: time horizontally on the graph D: time as a spectral edge |
B: frequency as a linear display across the epoch line
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A patient who does not have collateral blood supply during an endarterectomy can suffer a post operative deficit if the lack of blood flow is not resolved in less than:
A: 10 min B: 30 min C: 45 min D: 55 min |
A: 10 min
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Movement artifact on the EEG is most likely to produce:
A: slow EEG wave activity B: fast EEG wave activity C: asymmetrical activity at 60Hz D: burst-suppression |
A: slow EEG wave activity
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All of the following include decussations except:
A: auditory pathways B: the auditory radiations C: somatosensory pathways D: the corpus callosum |
B: the auditory radiations
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You are running TcMEP by stimulation via the C3 and C4 electrode sites. At an unknown polarity, stimulation activates muscle responses on the right side of the patients upper and lower body. Which of the following is the most likely location of the CATHODE?
A: C3 B: C4 C: Cz D: unable to determine based on information |
B: C4
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In the 10-20 system of electrode placement, the point 20% (of the nasion-inion distance) anterior to Cz is called:
A: Pz B: Fz C: Fpz D: C1 |
B: Fz
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One function of the circuitry in an isolated input board is to protect the patient from electrical shock by limiting the current flow to ___ at the patient leads when 120Vrms is applied to the inputs:
A: 100 uA B: 20 uA C: 60 uA D: 1 uA |
B: 20 uA
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The layer of the brain cells believed to be responsible for the EEG is:
A: the pons B: the occipital layer C: layer III pyramidal cells of the cerebrum D: cortical layers of the cerebellum |
C: layer III pyramidal cells of the cerebrum
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A Babinski's sign in an adult:
A: indicates an upper motor neuron lesion B: is normal C: is elicited the same way an Oppenheim's sign is elicited D: is abnormal if the toes plantarflex |
A: indicates an upper motor neuron lesion
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P14 is a far-field, subcortically generated response which probably reflects:
A: activity from the precentral gyrus B: caudal medial lemniscal activity C: passage of the afferent volley D: a stationary cervical potential |
B: caudal medial lemniscal activity
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The motor cervical spine C5 nerve root produces:
A: arm abduction B: elbow extension C: wrist extension D: wrist flexion |
A: arm abduction
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Electrical hazards that exist for patients attached to medical equipment include all the following except:
A: ground faults B: leakage currents C: needle sticks D: indwelling electrodes |
C: needle sticks
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Methods used to monitor brain perfusion during carotid endarterectomy include all of the following except:
A: measurement of residual "stump" pressure B: intraoperative angiography C: intraoperative Doppler D: ABR |
D: ABR
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The main advantage of asynchronous bilateral stimulation is?
A: Faster data acquisition B: Differentiation of local vs. systemic effects C: Reduction of stim artifact D: Less patient movement |
B: Differentiation of local vs. systemic effects
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If you have high frequency noise in BAEP:
A: Change HFF from 3000 to 1500 Hz B: Change HFF to 200 Hz C: Change LFF to 150 Hz D: Change LFF to 30 Hz |
A: Change HFF from 3000 to 1500 Hz
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Increasing the BAEP rep rate from 3.4 to 31.1:
A: increased latency, decreased amplitude B: decreased latency, increased amplitude C: increased latency, increased amplitude D: decreased latency, decreased amplitude |
A: increased latency, decreased amplitude
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Monitoring of aneurysms involving anterior cerebral artery should include:
A: median nerve SEP B: tibial nerve SEP C: ABR D: VEP |
B: tibial nerve SEP
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A stim rate that is suitable for ABR monitoring is:
A: 4.1 B: 31.1 C: 20.0 D: 81.1 |
B: 31.1
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Stimulating electrodes during SEP:
A: should be made of zinc to eliminated electrolysis B: should produce about 1/2 the current needed to cause a twitch C: should produce about 1/3 the current needed to cause a twitch D: should not be placed near catheters leading into the heart or the great vessels |
D: should not be placed near catheters leading into the heart or the great vessels
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Transcranial magnetic and electrical motor evoked potentials:
A: primarily involve the medial corticospinal tracts B: primarily involve the lateral corticospinal tracts C: primarily involve the dorsal corticospinal tracts D: primarily involve the anterior corticospinal tracts |
B: primarily involve the lateral corticospinal tracts
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The recommended filter settings for the facial nerve CMAP are:
A: 1-1.5 kHz B: 1-15 kHz C: 10-1.5 kHz D: 10-15 kHz |
A: 1-1.5 kHz
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The SEP reaches adult form and latency by:
A: birth B: 6 months C: 18 months D: 8 years |
D: 8 years
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"Hearing Level" (HL) is defined as:
A: average threshold intensity of normally hearing young adults B: intensity of a long duration sound that has the same amplitude as the peak SPL of a short duration sound C: lowest intensity that an average ear drum can hear D: inverse of the sound pressure level |
A: average threshold intensity of normally hearing young adults
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Electrode lead wires used in the operating room suite must be converted to safety connectors (female electrodes) by:
A: June 1999 B: May 2000 C: January 1997 D: January 2005 |
B: May 2000
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What is the minimum required bandpass for an EP system?
A: 0.1-5000 Hz B: 30-1500 Hz C: 1 Hz-20 kHz D: 1-1000 Hz |
A: 0.1-5000 Hz
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Changing from stand headphones to insert transducers connected by plastic tubing will change the latency of wave I by about:
A: -0.5msec B: +0.5msec C: +0.9msec D: +2 msec |
C: +0.9msec
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Spondylosis is:
A: Forward movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae on the vertebra below it, or upon the sacrum B: degeneration of the spine C: neurofibromatosis D: deterioration of the spinal cord gray matter which is replaced by a large cyst |
B: degeneration of the spine
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The monitoring modality most likely to be affected by a large bolus of muscle relaxant is the:
A: cortical SSEP B: BAEP C: myogenic evoked potential D: NMEP |
C: myogenic evoked potential
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Which describes a semi-critical infectious device?
A: requires no disinfection after each use B: requires low level disinfection after each use C: requires high to intermediate disinfection after each use D: requires sterilization after each use |
C: requires high to intermediate disinfection after each use
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The type of pathology that would change the ABR interpeak latencies the greatest is:
A: pathology in the middle ear B: pathology in the cochlea C: pathology of the XII cranial nerve D: pathology of the VIII cranial nerve |
D: pathology of the VIII cranial nerve
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Preoperative baseline, sensory evoked potential values are essential to intraoperative neurophysiological monitoring because:
A: latencies and amplitudes are highly variable B: it is necessary to compare intraoperative values with lab normative data C: absolute bounderies for EPs obtained intraoperatively are not available D: they help to establish the appropriate level of anesthesia |
C: absolute bounderies for EPs obtained intraoperatively are not available
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If not specified, most reports on ABR are displayed:
A: vertex positive up B: vertex positive down C: negativity up D: using "N" plus a number to designate a wave |
A: vertex positive up
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The gain of an amplifier, set to give an output signal of 1 volt for an input signal of 10uV, is :
A: 100 B: 1,000 C: 10,000 D: 100,000 |
D: 100,000
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Hoffmanns sign is:
A: plantar extension of the hallus when the sole of the foot is stroked B: loss of deep pain sensation as evidenced by diminished sensation to the application of pressure to the ulnar nerve C: loss of deep pain sensation as evidenced by diminished sensation to the application of pressure to the testicle D: palmar flexion of the thumb then the distal phalanx of the middle finger of the same hand is rapidly stroked |
D: palmar flexion of the thumb then the distal phalanx of the middle finger of the same hand is rapidly stroked
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The horizontal resolution of an evoked potential system:
A: should be 20 microseconds per data point or less B: has no effect on the aliasing properties of the instrument C: should be greater than 30 milliseconds per data point D: is one half the Nyquist frequency |
A: should be 20 microseconds per data point or less
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The most productive electrode placement for electrococleography is:
A: at the promontory of the cochlea B: at the ear canal C: at the earlobe D: at Fpz |
A: at the promontory of the cochlea
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On the SSEP, the electode at ___ records a spinal cord response:
A: T12 B: CPz C: the iliac crest D: the popliteal fossa |
A: T12
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An average individual sheds skin at the rate of approximately:
A: 10-40 cells per minute B: 40-400 cells per minute C: 400-4000 cells per minute D: 4000-10000 cells per minute |
D: 4000-10000 cells per minute
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Which of the following is NOT true?
A: agents that sterilize are alos injurious to the living tissues of the skin B: boiling water can be used to sterilize surgical instruments C: formaldehyde is highly germicidal and sporicidal in a strong concentration D: sodium hypochlorite (bleach) is effective in the deactivation of HIV and hepatitis B virus |
C: formaldehyde is highly germicidal and sporicidal in a strong concentration
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Which of the following is least likely to cause electrical interference in the operating room?
A: the operating microscope B: the operating table C: a pneumatic drill D: blood warmers |
C: a pneumatic drill
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Meckles Cave:
A: Foramen from which the facial nerve exits the skull to innervate the face B: Depression in the medial middle fossa where the trigeminal nerve ganglion sits C: Spinal tract by which the posterior tibial nerve pathway runs D: Cranial depression directly above the fourth ventricle |
B: Depression in the medial middle fossa where the trigeminal nerve ganglion sits
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The first synaptic junction of the VIII cranial nerve as it enters the brainstem is:
A: the cochlear nucleus B: the superior olivary complex C: the inferior colliculus D: the medial geniculate bodies |
A: the cochlear nucleus
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Vasospasm of AICA will result in:
A: complete loss of all ABR waves with exception of cochlear microphonic B: Increased interpeak waves III-V ABR latencies C: Increased interpeak waves III-V ABR latencies D: Loss of waves III-V |
A: complete loss of all ABR waves with exception of cochlear microphonic
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Universal precautions:
A: The assumption every patient has AIDS B: Use of PPD's with every patient C: Handwashing after every meal D: Strategy for preventing disease protection |
B: Use of PPD's with every patient
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A train of four following PTN stim can be recorded from:
A: Gastrocnemius B: Tibialis Anterior C: Extensor hallucis brevis D: Abductor digiti quinti pedi |
D: Abductor digiti quinti pedi
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Which of the following disorders are most associated with myelomenigeocele?
A: spondylolisthesis B: Bell's Palsy C: Tethered spinal cord D: Cerebral Palsy |
C: Tethered spinal cord
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A 100mS epoc is recorded with a 10mS post-stimulus triggering. Which of the following best describes the resulting sweep?
A: A 110mS B: A 90mS sweep starting 10mS after the stimulus C: A 100mS sweep starting 10mS prior to the stimulus D: A 100mS sweep starting 10mS after the stimulus |
C: A 100mS sweep starting 10mS prior to the stimulus
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Which of the following best describes the value of the collecting pre-operative baseline SSEPs?
A: pre-operative SSEPs have no value B: The SSEPs immediately following the critical events of the surgery can be compared to the pre-operative baseline C: Pre-operative data are useful for ruling out the effects of anesthesia D: Pre-operative data are useful for establishing the integrity of the somatosensory pathways prior to the onset of anesthesia |
D: Pre-operative data are useful for establishing the integrity of the somatosensory pathways prior to the onset of anesthesia
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Which of the following is an example of an SSEP far-field subcortical potential?
A: N20 B: N34 C: Erbs point D: Popliteal Fossa |
B: N34
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Which of the following electrode materials has little electrode potential drift and a long time constant?
A: Tin B: Gold C: Silver D: Stainless steel |
B: Gold
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Where should epidural electrodes be placed?
A: on the dura B: In the spinal cord C: Within the dural membrane D: Between the dura and spinal cord |
A: on the dura
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With referential recording, maximal amplitude cortical evoked potentials following stimulation of the left posterior tibial nerve usually would be found between
A: C3 and Cz B: C4 and P4 C: Fz and Cz D: C4 and Cz |
A: C3 and Cz
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An increase in stim intensity causes a linear increase of which of the following SEEP components?
A: N20 B: N45 C: P31 D: P37 |
C: P31
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Which of the following would enhance wave I of the BAEP?
A: Increase the rate B: Increase the intensity C: Decrease the analysis time D: Decrease the number of repetitions |
B: Increase the intensity
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What is the interstimulus interval of a 50Hz click stimulus?
A: 0.02 msec B: 0.20 msec C: 0.50 msec D: 20.00 msec |
D: 20.00 msec
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Identification of wave V of the BAEP may require
A: tympanic electrodes B: Bilateral stimulation C: Decreasing stimulus intensity D: Use of a noncephalic reference |
C: Decreasing stimulus intensity
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Which of the following peaks in tibial nerve SSEPs is most analogous to P14 of median nerve SSEPs?
A: N20 B: N34 C: P31 D: P37 |
C: P31
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During posterior fossa surgery, when BAEPs are used for monitoring brainstem function, it is most important to:
A: record cranial nerve VIII action potentials B: Monitor cranial nerve V function ipsilaterally C: Stimulate and record from the operative side only D: Stimulate and record from the contralateral side |
D: Stimulate and record from the contralateral side
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According to the ACNS guidelines, system bandpass settings for monitoring facial nerve spontaneous muscle activity should be:
A: 1-250 to 1500 Hz B: 10-30 to 2500-3000 Hz C: 10-30 to 16000 Hz D: 100-200 to 1000-3000 Hz |
C: 10-30 to 16000 Hz
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What is the recommended bandpass setting for facial nerve compound muscle action potential recording?
A: 1-250 to 1500 Hz B: 10-30 to 2500-3000 Hz C: 10-30 to 16000 Hz D: 100-200 to 1000-3000 Hz |
A: 1-250 to 1500 Hz
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D waves are recorded from which of the following electrodes?
A: epidural electrodes over the spinal cord B: subdural electrodes over the motor strip C: surface electrodes over peripheral nerves D: needle electrodes in distal extremity muscles |
A: epidural electrodes over the spinal cord
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Which of the following anesthetic agents will obliterate the transcranial electric motor evoked potentials?
A: propofol B: desflurane C: fentanyl D: nitrous oxide |
B: desflurane
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Which of the following is a common complication of microvascular decompression of CN VII?
A: visual loss B: hearing loss C: lower extremity weakness D: upper extremity weakness |
B: hearing loss
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Which of the following best describes a false negative case?
A: EPs disappear but reappear within 15 minutes B: EPs have a greater than 50% decrease of amplitude with no neurological deficit C: EPs remain relatively stable, but postoperative neurologic deficits occur D: EPs disappear during surgery and patient has no postoperative deficit |
C: EPs remain relatively stable, but postoperative neurologic deficits occur
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When monitoring BAEPs intraoperatively, it is recommended to warn the surgeon when an increase of which of the following occurs?
A: The latency of wave V of less than 1.0 millisecond B: The latency of wave I of 1 millisecond C: The latency of wave V of 1.0 or greater D: The interpeak latency of I-V of 1.0 or less |
C: The latency of wave V of 1.0 or greater
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Upon sudden loss of ipsilateral posterior tibial cortical and subcortical data, which of the following should be performed?
A: Calibration B: Stagnara Test C: Train of Four D: Tetanic Stimulation |
B: Stagnara Test
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Which of the following is a source of intraoperative physiologic artifacts?
A: cell saver B: blood warmer C: electrocardiogram D: electrooculogram |
C: electrocardiogram
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The pneumatic drill has which of the following effects on BAEPs?
A: None B: Prolongs wave V C: Increases I-III interpeak latency D: Increases III-V interpeak latency |
B: Prolongs wave V
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Which of the following would most affect the ability to record BAEPs?
A: Drill B: Retractor C: Coagulator D: Anesthetic agent |
C: Coagulator
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Which of the following most often causes a temporary threshold shift on the BAEP during CPA surgery?
A: Drilling B: Bipolar cautery C: Warm irrigation D: CUSA |
A: Drilling
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What is the maximum allowable leakage of EP instrument chassis current?
A: 100 microamperes B: 200 microamperes C: 300 microamperes D: 500 microamperes |
A: 100 microamperes
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Limb length directly influences:
A: amplitude ratio B: response amplitude C: absolute peak latencies D: interpeak latencies |
C: absolute peak latencies
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To identify 60 Hz artifact on a 250 msec screen, how many cycles must be present?
A: 2.4 B: 4.8 C: 6 D: 15 |
D: 15
250mS=.25 S .25 S x 60 cycles/sec = 15 |
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During endolymphatic sac surgery, monitoring of which of the following waveform measures would be most helpful?
A: wave V/I amplitude ratio B: wave I-III interpeak interval C: wave III-V interpeak interval D: summating potential/AP amplitude ratio |
D: summating potential/AP amplitude ratio
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Which should be checked first when an Erbs potential is lost while monitoring median nerve SSEPs?
A: anesthesia B: arm position C: blood pressure D: body temperature |
B: arm position
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Artifact rejection:
A: substitutes for common mode rejection B: eliminates all artifacts regardless of amplitude C: is needed only for intraoperative recordings D: excludes trials with artifacts exceeding set amplitude values |
D: excludes trials with artifacts exceeding set amplitude values
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N34:
A: Cortical potential B: far-field potential C: near-field potential D: cervical potential |
B: far-field potential
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After median nerve stimulation, the N13 potential is generated at the:
A: cuneate nucleus B: medial lemniscus C: dorsal root entry zone D: post synaptic cervical cord |
D: post synaptic cervical cord
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If you need 100 trials to get a SNR of 2:1, how many trials are needed for a SNR of 20:1?
A: 1000 B: 2000 C: 10,000 D: 20,000 |
C: 10,000 (answer sheet)
Lauren and I believe it is 1,000 |
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In SSEP monitoring during spinal cord surgery, an epidural electrode placed caudal to the surgical site is used to:
A: Measure neuromuscular blockade B: Evaluate anesthetic levels C: Reflect motor action potential D: Verify adequate stimulation |
D: Verify adequate stimulation
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Which best describes multiple asynchronous EMG responses caused by traction on neural tissue?
A: Train B: Burst C: Drill D: Pulsed |
A: Train
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Which of the following causes 60Hz contamination of EPs in the OR?
A: twitch monitor B: pneumatic drill C: fluorescent lights D: bipolar cautery |
C: fluorescent lights
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Unbalanced electrode impedances:
A: reduce stim artifact B: reduce 60 hz artifact C: cause electrode polarization D: degrade common mode rejection |
D: degrade common mode rejection
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Median nerve SSEP P14 (active scalp, inactive reference):
A: far field B: near field C: Propogated D: resting membrane potential |
A: far field
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If the internal auditory canal is occluded, what will be the result?
A: prolongation of all waves B: decrease in I-V interpeak interval C: decrease of wave V amplitude D: change in III-V interpeak interval |
C: decrease of wave V amplitude
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Which EP is a combination of near field and far field?
A: P300 B: electroretinogram C: SSEP D: pattern reversal VEP |
C: SSEP
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For phase reversal, which response is pre-central and which is post-central?
A: N20-P22 B: N20-P25 C: P22-N20 D: P25-N20 |
C: P22-N20
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A pneumatic drill would introduce what kind of artifact?
A: 3000 Hz B: 500 Hz C: 60 Hz D: 1 Hz |
B: 500 Hz
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Horizontal dipole?
A: Erbs point B: N18 C: P14 D: N34 |
C: P14
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If you were recording MN SSEPs in the OR and it was very cold, what would you expect to see?
A: no effect on the waveforms B: a later onset of the peripheral response but no change in central conduction time C: an elongation of the central conduction time with a later onset of peripheral response D: elongation of central conduction with no change in peripheral response latency |
B: a later onset of the peripheral response but no change in central conduction time
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What is the most acceptable interperiod sample to resolve ABR waveforms?
A: 0.02 mS B: 0.5 mS C: 2.0 mS D: 10mS |
A: 0.02 mS
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A lab calibrated their 30dB intensity to 0dB HL. If they stimulated a patient at 90dB from their machines, what would be the stim intensity?
A: 60HL B: 60SL C: 90HL D: 90SL |
A: 60HL
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What muscle would you want to monitor if the surgeon was working around the axillary nerve?
A: abductor pollicis brevis B: Triceps C: Biceps D: Deltoid |
D: Deltoid
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Anterior spinal artery occlusion:
A: Sensory loss B: Motor loss C: Hearing loss D: Visual loss |
B: Motor loss
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A salt bridge would have which of the following effects?
A: increased amplitude in cortical SSEPs B: Attenuation of cortical SSEPs C: Decreased latency peripheral response D: Increased stim artifact |
B: Attenuation of cortical SSEPs
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Which of the following will best record the P37 peak following left PTN stimulation?
A: Cp3 B: Cp4 C: Fpz D: Cs5 |
A: Cp3
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What is the most common type change observed during CEA?
A: ipsilateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to ipsilateral stim B: contralateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to contralateral stim C: ipsilateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to contralateral stim D: bilateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to bilateral stim |
C: ipsilateral EEG slowing, reduced cortical SSEP to contralateral stim
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The stimulation rate is determined by the:
A: analysis time B: number of stimulations C: stimulus intensity D: nerve conduction velocity |
A: analysis time
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The most appropriate ABR interstimulus interval is:
A: 50mS B: 20mS C: 5mS D: 0.02mS |
B: 20mS
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What is the most common reason for loss of BAEPs during retromastoid microvascular decompression?
A: cut the cochlear nerve B: injury to the facial nerve C: opening the dura D: compromise vascular supply |
D: compromise vascular supply
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What is the most common result of anterior spinal artery occlusion?
A: loss of Erbs point response B: Loss of N13 C: Motor deficits D: Loss of proprioception |
C: Motor deficits
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Lumbar potential is generated from:
A: Pre-synaptic responses B: Post-synaptic responses C: spinal ganglion D: sciatic nerve |
B: Post-synaptic responses
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Fentanyl infusion will:
A: Have no affect on aplitude or latency B: Decrease amplitude only C: Increase amp and increase latency D: Increase latency and decrease amplitude |
D: Increase latency and decrease amplitude
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What drugs would you use for language mapping?
A: Sevoflurane B: Pavulon C: Thiopental D: Fentanyl |
D: Fentanyl
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You want to have matching impedances so that:
A: vertical resolution will be optimized B: horizontal resolution will be optimized C: you can maximize your common mode rejection D: you can minimize your common mode rejection |
C: you can maximize your common mode rejection
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