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20 Cards in this Set

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Pain originating from the root of a nerve is referred to as
A reticular
B radicular
C articular
D lenticular
B radicular
From the latin word meaning "radish"
Decreased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure may occur as a result of
A hemorrhage in the brain
B blocked spinal canal
C swelling in the brain
D meningitis
B blocked spinal canal
Increased CSF pressure may occur as a result of swelling or bleeding in the brain, infection (such as meningitis), stroke, or other circulatory problems. Decreased pressure may indicate a blocked spinal canal.
Laboratory values include a total cholesterol of 157, HDL 77, triglycerides 287, AST 25, ALT 34, and CPK 134. Given these values, the assessment could include
A hypocholesterolemia
B liver disease
C hypercholesterolemia
D hypertriglyceridemia
D hypertriglyceridemia
Triglyceride values above 250 are considered elevated. Normal reference range for cholesterol is 150-200, ruling out hyper- or hypocholesterolemia. AST and ALT are within the normal range (less than 35) therefore do not indicate the presence of liver disease.
A benign encapsulated tumor of the nerve sheath is a
A neuroblastoma
B neurocytoma
C neurosarcoma
D neurilemoma
D neurilemoma
A neurilemoma is a benign encapsulated tumor of the nerve sheath. Neurilemomas, like neurofibromas, are a type of schwannoma. A neurosarcoma is a malignant tumour originating from the sheath of peripheral nerves. Neuroblastoma is the most common extracranial childhood cancer and is malignant. A neurocytoma is a rare, benign tumor, typically occurring in a lateral ventricle in the region of the foramen of Monro.
Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
A Dr. Smith will give a lecture on Cardiology in the auditorium today.
B We will wait for the Pathology report.
C She works in Microbiology.
D The patient will be referred to Dr. Jones, an Orthopedist.
C She works in Microbiology.
As per The AAMT Book of Style, 2nd Edition, page 47, capitalize department names when referred to as an entity. Use lowercase for common nouns designating a department name. Medical specialties are also not capitalized (see page 250).
An infectious disease specialist would order serological studies to
A determine antibiotic sensitivity of the infectious agent.
B culture bacteria in the patient's blood.
C determine the presence of antigens or antibodies in the patient's blood.
D monitor peak and trough antibiotic levels.
C determine the presence of antigens or antibodies in the patient's blood.
Serology is the study of antigens and antibodies in the serum. Antigens (proteins associated with an infectious agent) or antibodies (proteins made by the body directed against specific infectious agents) appear in the blood in the course of an infection and give the physician information about the infecting agent and how the body is responding to that infection. Some antibiotics, such as gentamicin, must be monitored carefully to maintain safe and therapeutic concentrations in the blood, and these antibiotic levels are referred to as peak (the highest concentration) and trough (the lowest concentration).
A stage 4 pressure sore is one that exhibits
A involvement of bone or joint.
B blister or break in the skin.
C subcutaneous destruction into muscle.
D persistent reddening after relief of pressure.
A involvement of bone or joint.
Pressure sore staging (Barczak) is described as: (1) skin intact but reddened for greater than 1 hour after relief of pressure, (2) blister or other break in dermis with or without infection, (3) subcutaneous destruction into muscle with or without infection, (4) involvement of bone or joint with or without infection. Stages 1 and 2 are treated conservatively. In general, stage 3 and 4 pressure sores require flap reconstruction. A decubitus ulcer is a pressure sore over a bony prominence that results from the patient lying in the recumbent position (from decumbere, "to lie down"), i.e., affecting the sacrum, heel, and occiput. Technically, pressure sores that result from the seated position are not decubitus ulcers.
Adrenal insufficiency is confirmed by which group of laboratory tests?
A BUN, creatinine, and serum aldosterone
B fasting glucose, CSF analysis, and electrolytes
C serum cortisol, serum ACTH and plasma renin activity
D CBC, electrolytes, and brain natriuretic peptide
C serum cortisol, serum ACTH and plasma renin activity
Routine lab studies for suspicion of adrenal insufficiency include electrolytes, fasting blood sugar, serum ACTH, plasma renin activity, serum cortisol, and serum aldosterone. The diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency is confirmed by a serum cortisol concentration less than 18 mcg/dL in the presence of an elevated serum ACTH concentration and plasma renin activity, or a concentration lower than that level obtained 60 minutes following cosyntropin administration.
In Guillain-Barré syndrome, the presenting symptom is usually
A numbness or tingling in the fingers
B muscular atrophy
C difficulty breathing
D difficulty swallowing
A numbness or tingling in the fingers
In Guillain-Barré syndrome, symptoms usually start with numbness or tingling in the fingers and toes, followed by muscle weakness in the legs, arms, and other muscles that develops over a period of days to weeks and can progress to complete paralysis. Difficulties in breathing and swallowing can also develop but are not the presenting symptoms.
An x-ray study using contrast material to visualize the urinary bladder, ureters and urethra while actually passing urine is called a (an)
A ultrasound study.
B KUB
C VCUG
D renal angiograph
C VCUG
VCUG (voiding cystourethrogram) is a study of the urinary system using x-rays and contrast material to detect blockages or constriction of urine flow. A KUB also uses x-rays to visualize the kidney, ureters and bladder, but not while the patient is voiding. Renal angiography studies the vascular system in and around the kidneys to detect problems with blood flow. Ultrasonography uses sound waves as opposed to x-rays.
Which of the following is a digestive enzyme?
A lipase
B bile
C albumin
D creatine
A lipase
Lipase is a digestive enzyme which digests fat. The term is derived from lipos meaning fat and the suffix -ase, denoting an enzyme. Enzymes often have the suffix -ase, which is appended to the name of the substrate (the molecule) that the enzyme acts upon. Other digestive enzymes include amylase (digests starch) and protease (digests protein). Enzymes that were named before the -ase convention was established use the suffix -in (e.g. pepsin, trypsin).
"Her affect is anxious. She admits that she does perseverate about her family's problems and is having difficulty sleeping." In this context, perseverate means
A she separates herself from her family's problems.
B she is oblivious to her family's problems.
C she blames herself for her family's problems.
D she has persistent thoughts about her family's problems
D she has persistent thoughts about her family's problems
Perseverate comes from the Latin term persevero meaning to persevere, persist. Perseveration can be a symptom of anxiety and/or depression. The patient experiences the same thought over and over, which interferes with activities of daily living and/or sleep.
Coccidioidomycosis is sometimes referred to as
A catscratch disease
B Legionnaires disease
C San Joaquin Valley fever
D tularemia
C San Joaquin Valley fever
Coccidioidomycosis is caused by Coccidioides immitis, a dimorphic soil fungus native to the San Joaquin Valley of California, southern portions of Arizona, northern portions of Mexico, and scattered areas in Central America and South America. It is sometimes referred to as San Joaquin Valley fever. Legionnaires disease is caused by the Legionella pneumophila organism. Catscratch disease is a benign adenopathy usually caused by Bartonella henselae. Tularemia is a tick-borne disease originating in Tulare, also in the San Joaquin Valley, caused by Francisella tularensis.
The suffix -azole is indicative of which class of pharmaceuticals?
A antihypertensives
B antifungals
C NSAIDs
D statins
B antifungals
Common antifungals from the -azole class include ketoconazole (Nizoral), itraconazole (Sporanox), and fluconazole (Diflucan). All of these agents block the production of ergosterol, a crucial component of fungal cell walls. Human cells do not require ergosterol, so the antifungal specifically targets the fungal cells and not the patient's.
In ophthalmology, ductions are eye movements that are
A conjugate
B disconjugate
C monocular
D binocular
C monocular
Ductions are monocular eye movements. Movement of the eye nasally is adduction; temporal movement is abduction. Elevation and depression of the eye are termed sursumduction (supraduction) and deorsumduction (infraduction), respectively. Incycloduction (intorsion) is nasal rotation of the vertical meridian; excycloduction (extorsion) is temporal rotation of the vertical meridian.
Which of the following is considered a manifestation of the same disease process as major depressive disorder?
A dysthymia
B hypersomnia
C anxiety disorder
D bipolar illness
A dysthymia
Major depressive disorder, dysthymia, double depression, and some apparently transient dysphorias all are manifestations of the same disease process. Dysthymia is a chronic mood disorder, with a duration of at least 2 years in adults and 1 year in adolescents and children, manifested as depression for most of the day, occurring more days than not, and accompanied by poor appetite or overeating, insomnia or hypersomnia, low energy or fatigue, low self-esteem, poor concentration, difficulty making decisions, and/or feelings of hopelessness.
The percentage of healthy adults in the U.S. experiencing symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) each month is
A 40 to 50
B 25 to 40
C 7 to 10
D 10 to 25
B 25 to 40
GERD occurs when the amount of gastric juice that refluxes into the esophagus exceeds the normal limit, causing symptoms with or without associated esophagitis. A recent study estimated that 25% to 40% of healthy adult Americans experience symptomatic GERD, most commonly manifested clinically by pyrosis (heartburn), at least once a month. Approximately 7% to 10% of the adult population in the United States experiences such symptoms on a daily basis.
Placenta previa is best diagnosed by
A ultrasound
B X-ray
C MRI
D CT scan
A ultrasound
Ultrasound is 95% accurate and is the test of choice for diagnosing placenta previa, a condition in which the placental tissue lies abnormally close to the internal cervical os and can result in placental detachment, maternal hemorrhage, and possibly fetal hemorrhage. MRI has been shown to be as accurate as ultrasound, but there are concerns about the long-term effects of exposure to a static magnetic field and rapidly shifting gradients on fetal development. Plain radiography and CT scan are of no value in diagnosis of placenta previa.
"The patient still complains of a painful sprained ankle. To evaluate for ischemic heart disease, a ___________ nuclear stress test will be done using adenosine."
Which of the following would complete the above sentence?
A dobutamine
B exercise
C pharmacological
D treadmill
C pharmacological
A pharmacologic agent (adenosine) will be used to stress the cardiac muscle to simulate exercise, since the patient is unable to walk a treadmill or ride a stationary bike on a sprained ankle. Dobutamine is also used to pharmacologically stress the heart, but it would not be used at the same time as adenosine.
Bacteriuria means
A bacteria in the urine
B urine with a high pH
C urine with a high specific gravity
D bacteria in the blood
A bacteria in the urine
Bacteriuria can be broken down into the prefix bacteri- meaning bacteria plus the suffix -uria denoting urine. Bacteria in the blood would be called bacteremia. Urine with a high specific gravity is called baruria (from baro- meaning weight, heavy) and urine with a high (alkaline) pH is alkaluria.