• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/461

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

461 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
What is the pinna AKA auricle?
visible part of the ear
LPM = short/lateral process of malleus
HM = handle of malleus
UM = umbo
FR = annulus fibrosus
PF = pars flaccida
PT = pars tensa
LR = light reflex
Lp = short (lateral) process of malleus
Hm = handle of malleus (manubrium)
Um = umbo
Lpi = long process of incus
An = annulus fibrosus
At = pars flaccida
Lr = light reflex
Where does cerumen come from?
secreted by sebaceous glands in outer third of external auditory canal
What is the function of cerumen?
lubrication and protection of external auditory canal
How do you distinguish the tympanic membrane of the right ear from the TM of the left ear?
remember that the short process of the malleus is anterior to the umbo
Is this the tympanic membrane of the left ear or right ear?
left ear
What is the function of the cochlea of the inner ear?
hearing
What is the function of the vestibule of the inner ear?
balance
Describe the physiology of hearing.
sound waves travel through external ear → causing TM to vibrate → vibrations travel through middle ear causing ossicles to vibrate → causing vibrations to pass into inner ear via oval window → vibrations travel via endolymph of cochlea to round window → vibrations cause hair cells of organ of corti to strike membrane of corti → causing vestibulocochlear nerve to transmit info to temporal lobe
Mosbys p319
Describe an ear exam.
1. whisper test - icecream, baseball
2. inspect auricle - landmarks, size, shape, symmetry, color, lesions, deformities, discharge
2. palpate auricle (should be firm and mobile) - tenderness, swelling, nodules
3. perform otoscope exam (should be minimal cerumen, uniformly pink)
-inspect ear canal for foreign bodies, cerumen, discharge, erythema, swelling, scaling, lesions
-inspect TM for landmarks, contour (bulging, retraction), color, perforation
Mosbys p329
Darwin's tubercle
(normal variant)
preauricular pit (normal variant)
cauliflower ear
What is the etiology of cauliflower ear?
blunt trauma → necrosis of underlying cartilage
Mosbys p329
sebaceous cyst
tophi → gout
Head trauma + bloody/serous otorrhea may indicate?
skull fracture
Mosbys p329
What is the ddx for purulent foul-smelling otorrhea?
foreign body
otitis
Mosbys p329
Pain when pulling on lobule of ear may indicate?
inflammation of external auditory canal
Mosbys p331
Tenderness and swelling in mastoid area may indicate?
mastoiditis
Mosbys p331
mastoid process of temporal bone
Define otorrhea.
ear discharge
What are the 2 types of cerumen?
wet - dark, sticky
dry - light brown to gray, flaky, sparse
Mosbys p331
What patient populations are wet and dry cerumen most commonly seen?
wet → whites and blacks
dry → asians and native americans
Mosbys p331
What type of cerumen is this?
dry; seen primarily in Asians and Native Americans
What is the management for cerumen impaction?
removal via curette or warm water irrigation
What are the contraindications for removing cerumen impaction via warm water irrigation?
otitis externa
perforated TM
myringotomy or tympanotomy tubes
mastoid cavity
Mosbys p332
What are myringotomy tubes?
ear tubes; incision created in TM to place tubes in order to relieve pressure and drain fluid; treatment for otitis media
What is the umbo?
end of handle of malleus; center of tympanic membrane
Describe a normal tympanic membrane.
pearly gray, translucent, slightly convex
Bulging tympanic membrane may indicate?
increased middle ear pressure or fluid in middle ear
exostoses
What is another name for serous otitis media?
glue ear
normal tympanic membrane
erythema + retraction → serous otitis media
What are 3 broad reasons for abnormal color of tympanic membrane?
1. thickening of TM
2. increase in blood vessels of TM
3. fluid in middle ear (blood, pus)
Define hemotympanum.
presence of blood in tympanic cavity of middle ear
tympanic membrane perforation
tympanosclerosis
otitis externa
What is tympanosclerosis?
deposition of calcium into tympanic membrane due to trauma or infection
hemotympanum
Describe a bulging tympanic membrane.
more convex, loss of bony landmarks, distorted light reflex
Mosbys p332
Describe a retracted tympanic membrane.
more concave, accentuated bony landmarks, distorted light reflex
Mosbys p332
What are tophi of the ear?
small white uric acid crystals along peripheral margins of auricle
What is the purpose of pneumoscopy?
to determine if the tympanic membrane is mobile or not
Mosbys p333
What is the ddx if the tympanic membrane does not move upon pneumoscopy?
no mobility → TM perforation or myringtomy/tympanotomy tubes present
bulging + no mobility → fluid in middle ear
retraction + no mobility → obstruction of eustachian tube w/ or w/out effusion
mobility only with negative pressure → obstruction of eustachian tube w/ or w/out effusion

*improper pneumoscopy technique may produce misleading results
Mosbys p333
What is the ddx for excess mobility in small areas of the tympanic membrane upon pneumoscopy?
atrophic tympanic membrane
healed perforation
Mosbys p333
A yellow or amber colored tympanic membrane indicates?
serous fluid in middle ear → serous otitis media
Mosbys p333
A deep red or blue colored tympanic membrane indicates?
blood in middle ear → hemotympanum
Mosbys p333
Air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane indicate?
serous fluid in middle ear → resolving middle ear effusion
Mosbys p333
A white or red colored tympanic membrane indicates?
infection in middle ear → acute otitis media
Mosbys p333
A dull tympanic membrane indicates?
fibrosis
Mosbys p333
White flecks or plaques on the tympanic membrane indicate?
healed inflammation
Mosbys p333
How do you perform the weber test?
-hold base of tuning fork and tap tines
-place vibrating tuning fork on midline of patient's head
-ask patient if sound is heard
-ask patient if it is heard equally in both ears or better in one ear
-sound should be heard equally in both ears
-if conductive hearing loss, sound will lateralize to affected ear
-if sensorineural hearing loss, sound will lateralize to non-affected ear
How do you perform the rinne test?
1. hold base of tuning fork and tap tines
2. place vibrating tuning fork on mastoid bone
3. ask patient if sound is heard
4. ask patient to tell you when it stops
5. when it stops, move vibrating tuning fork in front of ear
6. ask patient if sound is heard
7. if no, stop test
8. if yes, ask patient to tell you when it stops
9. normally air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction (2:1 ratio)
-conductive hearing loss if BC heard longer than AC
-sensorineural hearing loss if AC heard longer than BC but air <2:1 ratio
What tuning fork is used to perform the weber test and rinne test?
512hz
What is the ddx for clear, watery otorrhea?
CSF leakage
What is the ddx for bloody otorrhea?
trauma
chronic bacterial otitis externa
small white or black conidiophores on white hyphae → Aspergillus (fungal) associated otitis externa
Explain the results of this audiogram.
normal bone conduction + diminished air conduction → conductive hearing loss in left ear
Explain the results of this audiogram.
normal hearing
Explain the results of this audiogram.
equally diminished air conduction and bone conduction → sensorineural hearing loss in left ear
Explain the results of this audiogram.
diminished bone conduction + even more diminished air conduction → mixed hearing loss in left ear
What is conductive hearing loss?
dysfunction of external ear, middle ear, or tympanic membrane; impairing passage of sound vibrations to inner ear
What is the etiology of conductive hearing loss?
1. obstruction → foreign body, cerumen impaction, exostosis
2. inflammation/infection → otitis externa, otitis media, serous otitis media, mastoiditis
3. stiffness → otosclerosis
4. discontinuity → ossicular disruption
What is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss?
cerumen impaction
What is sensorineural hearing loss?
dysfunction of inner ear (most often caused by cochlea deterioration due to loss of hair cells in organ of corti), vestibulocochlear nerve, or auditory parts of brain; impairing passage of nerve impulses to brain
What is the ddx for sensorineural hearing loss?
presbyacusis
noise trauma
head trauma
infection
tumor
vascular ischemia
ototoxic drugs
meniere's disease
What is otosclerosis?
abnormal bone growth in middle ear; may cause conductive hearing loss
What is exostosis commonly known as?
surfer's ear
What patient population is most affected by exostosis?
surfers
What is presbyacusis?
age-related sensorineural hearing loss
List 6 disorders of the external auditory canal.
1. foreign body
2. cerumen impaction
3. pruritus
4. otitis externa
5. malignant otitis externa
6. exostoses
List 8 disorders of the middle ear.
1. perforated tympanic membrane
2. hemotympanum
3. acute otitis media
4. chronic otitis media
5. serous otitis media
6. cholesteatoma
7. otosclerosis
8. mastoiditis
What physical exam should you do for a hearing complaint?
1. whisper test
2. weber test
3. rinne test
4. inspect auricle and neck
5. palpate auricle and neck
6. otoscopy - inspect external auditory canal and tympanic membrane
When should you order audiometry evaluation?
when hearing loss not easily remedied
*cerumen impaction and otitis media easily remedied
Define otalgia.
ear pain
Define tinnitus.
ringing in ears
Define vertigo.
imaginary sense of motion (spinning, tilting, falling) while still or exagerrated sense of motion while moving
What is the common name for otitis externa?
swimmer's ear
What is otitis externa?
infection of external auditory canal
What is the etiology of otitis externa?
when trauma or moist environment favors bacterial or fungal growth
Define dizziness.
lightheadedness or faintness
What is a common cause of referred otalgia?
TMJ dysfunction
What are the characteristics of presbyacusis?
age-related sensorineural hearing loss (predominantly high frequency), manifests as reduced ability to perceive or discriminate sounds (people sound like they are mumbling), bilateral, progressive
Current p186
What is the epidemiology of presbyacusis?
present in 25% of 65-75y/o
present in 50% of >75y/o
What is the management for presbyacusis?
1. hearing aids
2. telephone amplifiers
3. advise family and friends on measures to improve communication - minimize background noise, face person, talk clearly
Sounds of what decibel are potentially injurious?
>85 dB
Current p186
What is etiology of noise trauma?
industrial machinery, discharged weapons, loud music
What is the patient education for noise trauma?
1. wear earplugs when exposed to moderately loud noises
2. wear specially designed ear muffs when exposed to explosive noises
Current p187
What types of head trauma may cause hearing loss?
concussion
skull fracture
air bag deployment
Current p187
List ototoxic drugs.
1. salicylates → aspirin at high doses (>12 325mg tablets daily)
2. antibiotics → aminoglycosides (neomycin, gentamicin, streptomycin, tobramycin, kenamycin), vancomycin
3. antimalarials → quinine
4. loop diuretics → furosemide, ethacrynic acid
5. chemotherapeutic drugs containing platinum → cisplatin, carboplatin
6. ear drops → neomycin, gentamicin
http://tiny.cc/ototoxicdrugs
In what patient populations are ototoxic drugs contraindicated?
pregnancy
elderly
pre-existing hearing loss
renal insufficiency
ototoxic ears drops + tympanic membrane perforation
Current p187
What measures should be taken to reduce risk of ototoxicity when prescribing ototoxic drugs?
1. before treatment, evaluate hearing
2. during treatment, prescribe lowest effective dose, monitor drugs levels (serum peak and trough), and monitor hearing (serial audiometry)
Current p187
It is possible for topical agents that enter middle ear to be absorbed into inner ear via round window, true or false?
true
*avoid prescribing ototoxic ear drops if tympanic membrane perforated
Current p187
What are the 2 most common causes of sensorineural hearing loss?
1. presbyacusis
2. noise trauma
What is the treatment for sudden sensorineural hearing loss?
1. order audiometry immediately
2. prescribe corticosteroids to prevent permanent hearing loss (prednisone 80mg PO daily, tapered over 10 days)
*hearing loss may be permanent if not treated within 6 weeks
Current 187
Vertigo is often accompanied by what sign?
nystagmus
What is the cardinal symptom of vestibular disease?
vertigo
Current p188
Describe the characteristics of vestibular dysfunction originating in ear.
sudden onset vertigo, nausea, vomting, tinnitus, hearing loss, horizontal nystagmus
Current p188
Define nystagmus.
involuntary eye movements
Stedmans
What is the dix-hallpike test?
diagnostic maneuver used to identify benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Describe the characteristics of vestibular dysfunction originating in CNS.
gradual onset vertigo, +/- vertical nystagmus without delay and not inhibited by visual fixation
What is the ddx for vertigo?
1. peripheral vestibulopathy - acute vertigo
-benign paroxysmal positioning vertigo - minutes
-labrynthitis - days to week
-meniere's disease
2. central vestibulopathy - gradual vertigo
3. systemic disorders
4. drugs → alcohol, analgesics, hypnotics, tranquilizers, antibiotics, anticonvulsants
Current p189
What is electronystagmography (ENG)?
group of eye movement tests that measure nystagmus if suspected vestibular or neurological disorder
What is labyrinthitis?
inflammation of the inner ear
What is the etiology of labryinthitis?
ear infection
upper respiratory tract infection
allergy
cholesteatoma
ototoxic drugs
Current p189
What are the characteristics of labyrinthitis?
severe vertigo that continuously lasts for days to weeks, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, unilateral hearing loss
Current p189
What are the complications of labrynthitis?
permanent hearing loss (rare)
spread of inflammation (rare)
Current p189
What is the treatment for labyrinthitis?
1. antibiotics if associated with fever or symptoms of bacterial infection
2. supportive care
-antihistamines
-relief for nausea, vomiting, dizziness - diazepam, meclizine
What is the patient education for vertigo-related disorders?
1. when symptoms occur, remain still and rest, do not read
2. avoid bright lights
3. avoid sudden position changes
4. avoid hazardous activities like driving or operating machinery until 1 week after symptoms have cleared
5. resume activity gradually
What are the indications for prescribing meclizine?
nausea, vomiting, and dizziness related to motion sickness
What is the trade name for diazepam?
valium
Describe the characteristics of benign paroxysmal positioning vertigo.
vertigo associated with changes in head position, 10-15sec delayed onset, 10-60sec duration, recurrent over days, positive dix-hallpike test
Current p189
What is the treatment for benign paroxysmal positioning vertigo?
epley maneuver
Current p189
What is the procedure for the dix-hallpike test?
1. patient sits upright with legs extended
2. turn patients head 45 degrees
3. help patient lay down quickly with head extended 20 degrees (i.e. head hanging off end of table)
4. observe eyes for nystagmus
5. have patient sit up and observe eyes for nystagmus reversal
What are the indications for a positive dix-hallpike test?
Nystagmus characterized by:
1. 10-15sec delayed onset
2. rotational
3. fatiguable (repetition of test will result in less nystagmus)
4. reversal (direction of nystagmus reverses upon sitting up)
What is the etiology of Meniere's disease?
idiopathic, but related to distension of endolymphatic compartment of inner ear
Current p189
What are the characteristics of Meniere's disease?
episodic vertigo, 20 minutes to several hours in duration, fluctuating low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus (low-tone, blowing), aural fullness, symptoms wax and wane
Current p189
What is the management for Meniere's disease?
1. low salt diet (1-2 grams per day)
2. diuretic (acetazolamide)
3. avoid caffeine, alcohol, tobacco
Current p189
Describe the steps of the ear exam.
1. ask about use of hearing devices
2. inspect auricle and mastoid
3. palpate auricle
4. pull helix and lobule
5. switch ears
6. perform gross whisper test
7. perform otoscopy (use finger strut) → external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, bony landmarks
8. perform insufflation
What is the eustachian tube?
cartilaginous and bony passageway between middle ear and nasopharnyx
What are the functions of the eustachian tube?
1. equalize middle ear pressure with atmospheric pressure, allowing TM to vibrate freely
2. clear small amount of mucus produced by middle ear
What are the functions of the nose and nasopharynx?
1. smell
2. air passage
3. warmth, humidification, and filtration of inspired air
4. resonance of laryngeal sound
Mosbys p319
What bones form the nasal bridge?
frontal bone, nasal bone, and frontal process of maxillary bone
What forms the floor of the nose?
hard and soft palate
Where are the adenoids (pharyngeal tonsils) located?
posterior wall of nasopharnyx
What is the function of the superior, middle, and inferior turbinates?
warm, humidify, and filter inspired air
Mosbys p321
Describe the nose exam.
1. inspect nose - landmarks, size, shape, color, flaring/narrowing, discharge (unilateral, bilateral, amount, color, watery, mucoid, purulent, bloody, crusting)
2. palpate nose - tenderness, masses, displaced cartilage/bone
3. assess patency of nares
4. perform nasoscopy
-keep head level to view inferior turbinate
-tilt head back to view middle turbinate
-angle speculum toward midline to view septum
-inspect nasal mucosa (should be deep pink, glistening) - color, swelling, lesions, masses, discharge
-inspect nasal septum (should be midline, straight, thicker anteriorly) - alignment, perforation, bleeding, crusting
Mosbys p334
Bilateral watery rhinorrhea + nasal congestion + sneezing is indicative of?
allergic rhinitis
Mosbys p335
Define rhinorrhea.
nasal discharge
Unilateral watery rhinorrhea + head trauma is indicative of?
CSF → cribiform plate fracture
Mosbys p335
What are the characteristics of rhinorrhea in presence of foreign body?
unilateral, thick, greenish, purulent, malodorous
Mosbys p335
What is the ddx for mucoid rhinorrhea?
rhinitis
Mosbys p335
What is the ddx for purulent rhinorrhea?
1. if unilateral → foreign body
2. if bilateral → upper respiratory tract infection
Mosbys p335
Nasal flaring is indicative of?
respiratory distress
Mosbys p335
Which turbinates are visible upon nasoscopy examination?
middle and inferior
What are the characteristics of turbinates indicative of allergies?
pale pink or bluish gray, swollen boggy constistency
Mosbys p335
nasal polyp → allergic rhinitis or chronic nasal obstruction
What are the characteristics of a nasal polyp?
pale, gelatenous, edematous, mucosally-covered masses
Mosbys p335
allergic salute → transverse nasal crease → chronic allergic rhinitis
What are the physical exam findings for sinusitis?
1. dull or opaque sinus transillumination
2. purulent, colored rhinorrhea
3. maxillary toothache
4. poor response to decongestants
Mosbys p355
What are signs of chronic cocaine insufflation?
1. scabs on nasal mucosa
2. perforation of nasal septa where chronic irritation results in ischemic necrosis of septal cartilage
3. ↓ smell and taste
Mosbys p355
Define hyperemia.
increased blood flow to an area
What are signs of recent cocaine insufflation?
1. rhinorrhea
2. hyperemia and edema of nasal mucosa
3. white powder residue
Mosbys p355
What are common symptoms of cocaine insufflation?
nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, recurrent epistaxis, sinus problems
Mosbys p355
Pain on palpation or percussion of the frontal or maxillary sinus indicates?
sinusitis
How do you perform transillumination of the maxillary sinus?
1. dim lights
2. place lighted otoscope on infraorbital rim
3. ask patient to open mouth
4. look for light in mouth
5. if transillumination → normal sinus
6. if no transillumination → sinusitus
transillumination → normal maxillary sinus
What is septal deviation?
displacement of nasal septum
What is ddx for septal deviation?
congenital
trauma
deviated septum
What is the most frequently fractured bone in the body?
nasal bone
What are the physical exam findings of nasal bone fracture?
pain, soft tissue hematoma (black eye), epistaxis, crepitance, palpable mobile bony segments
Current p199
What is important to R/O with nasal fracture?
1. septal hematoma
2. additional fractures/trauma
Current p199
What is closed reduction?
restoration of dislocation or fracture to correct alignment without surgical exposure of the fragments
What is the treatment for nasal bone fracture?
1. if marked nasal swelling, wait 3-5 days to perform reduction
2. prescribe pain medication
3. counsel patient to rest, maintain head elevation, apply ice, and return within 3-5 days for reduction
4. perform closed reduction using topical 4% cocaine and locally injected 1% lidocaine
2. refer to otorhinolaryngologist 3-5 days following reduction
Current p199
http://tiny.cc/aafp-nasalfracture
What is a septal hematoma?
blood filled cavity between septum and perichondrium
What are the complications of an untreated septal hematoma?
loss of nasal cartilage → saddle nose deformity
Current p199
What organism commonly causes infection of a septal hematoma?
S. aureus
Current 199
nasal bone fracture
bilateral septal hematoma
Which is more common, anterior or posterior epistaxis?
anterior
Define epistaxis.
nosebleed
What are the signs of anterior epistaxis?
nosebleed
What are possible signs of posterior epistaxis?
asymptomatic, nausea, hemoptysis, hematemesis, melena, anemia, or sudden massive nosebleed
Define epistaxis digitorum.
nose picking
What is the ddx for epistaxis?
Local:
foreign body
epistaxis digitorum
forceful nose blowing
trauma
septal deviation
septal perforation
rhinitis
chronic sinusitus
nasal polyps
intranasal neoplasm
vascular malformation
medications - topical corticosteroid
alcohol
cocaine or other drug use
low humidity → drying of nasal mucosa
environmental irritants

Systemic:
HTN (think posterior epistaxis)
athersclerotic disease (think posterior epistaxis)
liver disease
hemophilia
thrombocytopenia
platelet dysfunction
leukemia
medications - NSAIDs, aspirin, anticoagulants
http://tiny.cc/aafp-epistaxis
What 5 arteries supply the nasal septum?
superior labial a.
greater palatine a.
anterior ethmoid a.
posterior ethmoid a.
sphenopalatine a.
http://tiny.cc/aafp-epistaxis
If nasal polyps are unilateral, what do you need to R/O?
cancer
foreign body (plastic toy wheel)
What is Kiesselbach's plexus?
region in anterior septum where superior labial, anterior ethmoid, sphenopalatine, and greater palatine arteries anastomose to form a vascular plexus
anterior epistaxis
Kiesselbach's plexus → normal nasal septum
What is the management of epistaxis?
1. perform Trotter's method
-manually compress nostrils for 5-20 minutes
-sit upright to reduce BP
-tilt head forward to prevent blood from pooling in posterior pharnyx, avoiding nausea and airway obstruction
2. during manual compression, assess airway and blood loss
3. if bleeding stops, discharge
4. if bleeding continues, locate source
5. apply anaesthetic + vasoconstrictor via spray or swab
-leave for 10 minutes
6. locate source
6. perform chemical or electrocautery
-if chemical cautery, apply silver nitrate stick to source in decreasing concentric circles
http://tiny.cc/bmj-epistaxis
http://tiny.cc/aafp-epistaxis
robin egg blue necrosis → narcotic abuse
perforated septum
What is the ddx for nasal septum perforation?
nasal trauma/surgery
autoimmune disease
topical nasal decogestants
chronic nasal steroids
cocaine
Why is a septal hematoma concerning?
septal cartilage has no blood supply, but receives all its nutrients from the perichondrium; if untreated, the septal cartilage can die within 24 hours and result in a saddle nose deformity
mild saddle nose deformity due to septal hematoma
Trotter's method → manual compression of nasal septum for epistaxis
What is a neti pot?
device used for irrigating the nasal passages
What are the indications for use of a neti pot?
allergies
common cold
minor sinus infections
How do you use a neti pot?
1. make saline solution (16 ounces water, 1 tsp salt)
2. fill neti pot
3. tilt head at 45 degree angle over sink
4. place spout in top nostril and pour
5. repeat for other nostril
6. use daily when symptomatic and 3x per week when asymptomatic
7. side effects may include nasal irritation or rarely epistaxis
8. combat side effects by adjusting water temperature, reducing salt, or reducing frequency
http://tiny.cc/webmd-netipot
What is Samter's triad (AKA triad asthma)?
condition consisting of asthma, nasal polyposis, and aspirin sensitivity where aspirin may cause severe bronchospasm
What are the effects of aspirin on a patient with asthma and nasal polyposis?
aspirin (and other NSAIDS) may induce severe brochospasm (asthma attack), anaphylaxis, and uticaria

*other NSAIDS includes ibuprofen but not acetominophen
What is the management for Samter's triad?
1. avoid aspirin and other NSAIDS, replace with acetominophen
2. if aspirin necessary, undergo aspirin desensitization
3. indications for desensitization include significant corticosteroid side effects, refractory to treatment, severe polyposis, CHD, RA, OA
http://tiny.cc/wao-samterstriad
What is the etiology of septal hematoma?
trauma - soft tissue injury or nasal fracture
What is the management of a septal hematoma?
1. anesthesia, incision using hemostat, drainage, insertion of gauze packing
2. send for culture
3. prescribe antibiotics for S. aureus
http://tiny.cc/aafp-nasalfracture
What are the physical exam findings of a septal hematoma?
nasal congestion
widening of anterior septum
What is hay fever?
allergic rhinitis due to outdoor triggers like pollen
What is allergic rhinitis?
inflammation of the nasal passages due to allergens
What is the etiology of allergic rhinitis?
sensitivity + allergen (dust, pet dander, mites, mold, pollen, ragweed, air pollution, and other inhaled allergens) → antibody production → antibodies bind to mast cells → mast cells release histamine → inflammation, rash, mucous production, pruritus
What is the clinical presentation of allergic rhinitis?
1. eyes - pruritus, red, watery
2. nose - sneezing, pruritus, nasal congestion, clear watery rhinorrhea
3. throat - pruritus, postnasal drip, cough, sore throat
What is the diagnostic workup for allergic rhinitis?
If symptoms are extemely bothersome, determine offending allergen with either:
1. serum RAST → allergen specific IgE antibody
2. skin testing
Current p197
What is the management of allergic rhinitis?
1. antihistamines
2. intranasal corticosteroids
3. irrigate nasal passages with neti pot
4. avoid/reduce allergen exposure
90% of epistaxis cases originate at what site?
Kiesselbach's plexus
What are 3 broad categories of rhinitis?
1. vasomotor rhinitis
2. allergic rhinitis - seasonal, perennial
3. infective rhinitis
What is hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)?
genetic disorder characterized by abnormal blood vessel formation
What are the diagnostic criteria for hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia?
1. spontaneous recurrent epistaxis
2. multiple telangiectasias
3. arteriovenous malformations
4. first-degree family member with HHT
*possible HHT if 2 of the above, while definite HHT if 3 of the above
What is the patient education for epistaxis?
1. lubricate septum with petroleum jelly to prevent drying
2. use a humidifier at night to prevent drying
3. avoid nose rubbing, blowing, and picking
4. avoid hot/spicy food and tobacoo to prevent nasal vasodilation
5. avoid straining and vigorous exercise
Current p199
http://www.aafp.org/afp/2005/0115/p312.html
What percentage of Americans are affected by allergic rhinitis?
14-40%
Current p196
What is the etiolgy of vasomotor rhinitis?
increased sensitivity of the vidian nerve (AKA nerve of pterygoid canal)
Define xerostomia.
dry mouth
When should you prescribe nasal spray antihistamines for allergic rhinitis?
when patients complain of side effects (sedation, xerostomia) with oral antihistamines
Current p196
List high-sedating (1st generation) antihistamines.
diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
hydroxyzine (Allegra)
chlorpheneramine (Chlor-Trimetron)
List low-sedating (2nd generation) antihistamines, whether Rx or OTC, and dosing?
cetirizine (Zyrtec) → OTC, 10mg PO daily
loratadine (Claritin) → OTC, 10mg PO daily
desloratadine (Clarinex) → Rx, 5mg PO daily
fexofenadine (Allegra) → Rx, 60mg PO 2x daily or 120mg PO daily
Current p196
Which are more effective for treatment of allergic rhinitis, non-sedating antihistamines or intranasal corticosteroids?
intranasal corticosteroids
Current p196
What is the patient education for use of intranasal corticosteroids for allergic rhinitis?
1. ≥ 2 week delay in onset of relief
2. tilt head forward, hold bottle straight up, spray toward ipsilateral ear to deliver to middle meatus
3. side effects include epistaxis possibly due to incorrect delivery
Current p197
What are indications for prescribing intranasal corticosteroids for allergic rhinitis?
recurrent acute bacterial rhinosinusitis
chronic rhinosinusitus
Current p196
What is nasal vestibulitis?
bacterial infection of nasal vestibule
Current p195
What is the etiology of nasal vestibulitis?
nasal manipulation (excessive nose blowing, nose picking, hair trimming) → S. aureus folliculitis
Current p195
What are the complications of nasal vestibulitis?
furuncles
cellulitis
cavernous sinus thrombosis
http://tiny.cc/merck-nasalvestibulitis
What is the clinical presentation of nasal vestibulitis?
nasal vestibule inflammation
crusting
bleeding when crusts slough
What is the management of nasal vestibulitis?
1. prescribe systemic antibiotic for S. aureus → dicloxacillin 250mg PO 4x daily x 7-10 days
2. apply topical bacitracin or mupirocin 2-3x daily
3. if recurrent, prescribe rifampin 10mg/kg PO 2x daily for last 4 days of treatment
Current p195
unilateral nasal vestibulitis
Nasal polyps in children might indicate?
cystic fibrosis
Current p199
What is the etiology of nasal polyps?
allergic rhinitis
chronic nasal obstruction
What is the management for nasal polyps?
1. if small → topical nasal corticosteroids x 1-3 months
2. oral corticosteroids → prednisone, prescribe 21-5mg tablets, take 30mg on day 1, taper 5mg each day for 6 days
3. if large or refractory → surgical removal
4. continue intranasal corticosteroids following removal to prevent recurrence
5. determine offending allergen to prevent recurrence
Current p199
What organism causes nasal vestibulitis?
S. aureus
What is a upper respiratory tract infection (URTI)?
acute infection involving the upper respiratory tract: sinuses, nose, larynx, pharnyx
What are examples of URTIs?
common cold (viral rhinitis), influenza, sinusitus, tonsillitis, pharyngitis, laryngitis, epiglottitis
What is viral rhinitis?
common cold
Current p192
What is the etiology of viral rhinitis?
rhinoviruses (30-50%)
coronaviruses (10-15%)
influenza
human parainfluenza viruses
human respiratory syncytial virus
adenoviruses
enteroviruses
metapneumovirus
What is the presentation of viral rhinitis?
malaise, headache, hyposmia, sneezing, nasal congestion, WATERY rhinorrhea, throat discomfort, cough, erythematous edematous nasal mucosa
Current p192
What is the management for viral rhinitis?
supportive measures:
1. rest
2. fluids
3. decongestants → pseudoepedrine 30-60mg every 4-6 hours or 120mg 2x daily
Current p192
What is the patient education for viral rhinitis?
antibiotics are not helpful!!!
What are the complications of viral rhinitis?
eustachian tube dysfunction
transient middle ear effusion
2° bacterial rhinosinusitis
Current p192
What are the indications that viral rhinitis has been complicated by bacterial rhinosinusitis?
persistence of symptoms beyond 1 week + unilateral facial or tooth pain + purulent yellow/green rhinorrhea
Current p192
Define hyposmia.
↓ sense of smell
How many viruses cause the common cold?
>200
What is the prevention for viral rhinitis?
1. support immune system → get enough sleep, drink water, avoid secondhand smoke, avoid unecessary antibiotics
2. avoid germs → sanitize/wash hands, disinfect surfaces
What is rhinitis medicamentosa?
rebound nasal congestion caused by extended use of topical decogestants
What is the management of rhinitis medicamentosa?
1. cessation of topical decongestants
2. supportive care during withdrawal with topical intranasal corticosteroids or oral prednisone
What is the etiology of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (sinusitis)?
impaired mucociliary clearance → obstruction of sinus pore → accumulation of mucus in sinus cavity → 2° bacterial infection (S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, S. aureus, M. catarrhalis)
Current p193
What is the presentation of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
persistence of symptoms >10 days or worsening symptoms within 10 days after initial improvement, facial pain over sinus, purulent yellow/green rhinorrhea, malaise, fever, headache, hyposmia, halitosis, cough
Current p193
What is the most commonly affected sinus in acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
maxillary
Current p193
What is the treatment for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
1. NSAIDs
2. nasal decongestants → oxymetazoline 0.05% or xylometazoline 0.05-0.1% 1-2 sprays in each nostril every 6-8 hours for ≤3 days
2. oral decongestants → pseudoephedrine 30-120mg PO per dose up to 240mg per day
3. antibiotics if symptoms last ≥10-14 days or symptoms severe (fever, facial swelling)
-amoxicillin (first line agent if not allergic to penicillin) x 10 days
-macrolide (first-line agent if allergic to penicillin)
Current p193
What are the complications of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
Local:
orbital cellulitis → vision change
facial cellulitis → facial erythema/edema
cavernous sinus thrombosis → ophthalmoplegia, chemosis, vision loss
intracranial extension → mental status change
osteomyelitis

*any changes in ocular examination warrants immediate CT
What is osteomyelitis?
bone infection
What is cavernosus sinus thrombosis?
blood clot in cavernous sinus
What is the etiology of cavernosus sinus thrombosis?
complication of bacterial infection, usually of paranasal sinuses, usually S. aureus
What is the presentation of cavernosus sinus thrombosis?
ophthalmoplegia
chemosis
visual loss
Define chemosis.
conjuctival edema
Define ophthalmoplegia.
paralysis of one or more extraocular muscles
What is the diagnostic workup for suspected cavernosus sinus thrombosis?
MRI
What is the management for cavernosus sinus thrombosis?
IV antibiotics
chemosis
What is rhinocerebral mucormycosis?
invasive fungal sinusitis
What is the etiology of rhinocerebral mucormycosis?
immunocompromise (DM, renal failure, AIDs, long-term corticosteroid therapy, therapy for hematologic malignancies) + fungal infection (Mucor, Absidia, Rhizopus) → spread of fungus through vascular channels
What is the presentation of rhinocerebral mucormycosis?
symptoms initially similar to bacterial rhinosinusitus, but more severe facial pain, clear/straw rhinorrhea, visual symptoms, black eschar on middle turbinate
What is pathognomic for rhinocerebral mucormycosis?
black eschar on middle turbinate
not universal
may not be apparent if infection deep/high within nasal bones
What is the diagnostic workup of rhinocerebral mucormycosis?
nasal biopsy with silver stains → broad nonseptate hyphae within tissues + necrosis with vascular occlusion
What is the treatment for rhinocerebral mucormycosis?
medical and surgical emergency
1. wide surgical debridement
2. amphotericin B via IV
What are the complications for rhinocerebral mucormycosis?
often loss of at least one eye
20% mortality if DM
50% mortality if renal failure
nearly 100% mortality if AIDs or hematologic malignancy
When is diagnostic imaging of the paranasal sinuses appropriate?
uncertain or recurrent cases
order Water view xray
Describe the steps of the nose exam.
1. inspect nose
2. palpate nose
3. assess nostril patency
4. perform nasoscopy → vestibule, inferior and middle turbinates, septum
orbital cellulitis
What is leukoplakia?
white patch found on buccal mucosa or tongue; non-removable; premalignant

*occasionally found on female external genitals
What is the etiology of oral leukoplakia?
chronic irritation resulting in hyperkeratosis (thickening of stratum corneum)

*irritation may be caused by dental problems, alcohol, tobacco
Current p201
oral candadiasis
What is the clinical presentation of oral leukoplakia?
white patch on buccal mucosa or tongue; thick, slightly raised, indurated, non-removable; premalignant
What is the diagnostic work-up of oral leukoplakia?
if leukoplakia is enlarging → incisional biopsy or exfoliative cytology
What is the common name for oral candadiasis?
thrush
What is the management of oral leukoplakia?
1. remove source of irritation → treat dental problems, stop drinking alcohol, stop smoking (should disappear within few weeks or months)
2. surgical removal
Current p201
What is the diagnostic work-up of erythroplakia?
if cannot be attributed to trauma, inflammation, or vascular cause → incisional biospy or exfoliative cytology
Current p201
cheilitis
tonsillolithiasis
oral candidiasis
angular cheilitis
actinic cheilitis
What are the functions of the mouth and oropharnyx?
1. breathing
2. vocalization
3. taste
4. initial digestion by mastication and salivary enzymes
5. passage of food
Mosbys 322
bluish-gray macules → peutz-jeghers syndrome
angioedema
What is Stenson's duct?
parotid duct; drains saliva from from parotid gland to oropharynx; found in buccal mucosa adjacent to maxillary 2nd molar
What is Wharton's duct?
submandibular duct; drains saliva from submandibular gland to sublingual caruncle; found at sublingual fold adjacent to both sides lingual frenulum
What is sialolithiasis?
salivary duct stones
oral cancer → squamous cell carcinoma on lower lip
Where does Stenson's duct exit in the oropharnyx?
buccal mucosa adjacent to maxillary 2nd molar
Where does Wharton's duct exit in the oropharynx?
sublingual fold adjacent to lingual frenulum
sialolithiasis of Stenson's duct
enlarged tonsils
sialolithiasis of Wharton's duct
List the salivary glands.
parotid
submandibular
sublingual
Where do the sublingual glands drain into the oropharynx?
multiple ducts along sublingual fold
List the number and type of teeth found in each jaw.
4 incisors
2 canines
4 premolars
6 molars (including wisdom teeth)
32 teeth total
Mosbys p322
What is another name for the palatotonsillar arch?
anterior tonsillar pillar
What is another name for the palatopharyngeal arch?
posterior tonsillar pillar
What are the risk factors for oral cancer?
>40y/o
male> female 2:1
black
ill-fitting dentures
iron deficiency anemia, pernicious anemia, lichen planus, HPV, HIV
oral lesions → leukoplakia, erythroplakia, oral lichen planus
history of malignancy
alcohol
tobacco
textile or leather manufacturing
Mosbys p327
What equipment is needed for the oral exam?
gloves
penlight
tongue blade
gauze
Describe the oral exam.
1. inspect and palpate lips (should be smooth, symmetrical, pink) → symmetry, color, edema, lesions
2. inspect buccal mucosa (should be smooth, moist, pinkish red) → color, edema, lesions
-stenson's duct (should appear as yellow or whitish pink protrusion) → swelling, exudate, stones (milk duct if swelling present)
3. inspect gingiva (should appear stippled, pink, clear margins at tooth) → inflammation, swelling, bleeding
4. palpate gums → thickening, induration, lesions, masses, tenderness
5. inspect teeth → number, missing teeth, wear, notches, caries
6. palpate teeth → loose teeth
7. ask patient to stick out tongue (should not be atrophied, should be midline) → testing hypoglossal nerve, deviation, tremor, limitation of movement
inspect dorsum of tongue (should be dull red, moist, glistening, papillae) → size, color, coating, swelling, ulcerations, atrophy
8. ask patient to touch tip of tongue to roof of mouth
inspect ventral surface of tongue (should be smooth, pink, with large veins between frenulum and fimbriated folds, wharton's ducts) → swelling, varicosities
9. wrap tongue with gauze and inspect lateral sides of tongue, wipe tongue with gauze
10. palpate tongue and floor of mouth → nodules, masses, ulcerations
11. inspect uvula, tonsillar pillars, tonsils, and posterior wall of oropharynx →
-tonsils should be pink and within confines of tonsillar pillars
-posterior wall should be smooth, glistening, pink
12. ask patient to say ah → testing hypoglossal nerve
13. elicit gag reflex → testing glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves
Define cheilitis.
dry cracked lips
What is the ddx for cheilitis?
Dehydration via:
excessive lip licking
wind chapping
braces
dentures
Mosbys p336
Define angular cheilitis AKA cheilosis.
red unilateral or bilateral fissures at labial commissures
Mosbys p336, p342
What is the ddx for angular cheilitis?
overclosure of mouth allowing saliva to macerate tissue
iron deficiency anemia
riboflavin (vitamin B2) deficiency
niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency
sprue
HIV
Mosbys p336
angioedema
What is actinic cheilitis?
whitish discoloration at vermillion border; premalignant; caused by chronic sun exposure
Lip pallor indicates?
anemia
Circumoral pallor indicates?
scarlet fever
Bluish purple lips indicate?
cyanosis
Cherry red lips may indicate?
acidosis
carbon monoxide poisoning (though cherry red discoloration is thought to be of little use because "cherry red means dead")
Describe the lips/buccal mucosa in peutz-jeghers syndrome.
blue-gray macules
circumoral pallor → scarlet fever
cyanosis
What are fordyce spots?
ectopic sebaceous glands on lips and buccal mucosa characterized by small white-yellow raised lesions; normal variation
Mosbys p339
What is parotitis?
inflammation of the parotid gland(s)
What is the most common viral cause of parotitis?
mumps virus
What is oral hairy leukoplakia?
irregular white lesions with "hairy" projections located on lateral tongue
Mosbys p342
oral leukoplakia
What is gingivitis?
inflammation of the gums
Deeply pigmented buccal mucosa may indicate?
endocrine condition
Mosbys p339
Whitish or pinkish scars on buccal mucosa may indicate?
trauma from poor tooth alignment
Mosbys p339
What is the ddx for gingival hypertrophy?
puberty
pregnancy
leukemia
phenytoin (Dilantin) therapy
Mosbys p339
Blue-black line along gum margin may indicate?
chronic lead or bismuth poisoning
Mosbys p339
What is aphthous stomatitis?
canker sore
Mosbys p339
gingivitis
dental caries
blue-black line along gum margin → chronic lead or bismuth poisoning
aphthous stomatitis
glossitis
What is the clinical presentation of carbon monoxide poisoning?
fatigue, headache, nausea, loss of consciousness, rapid pulse
What is the etiology of glossitis?
2° to:
dehydration
irritant → hot foods, spicy foods, alcohol, tobacco
trauma → teeth, dental applicances, burns
allergy → mouthwash, toothpaste, mints
nutritional deficiency → iron, riboflavin (B2), niacin (B2), cobalamin (B12), vitamin E
infection
autoimmune disease
drug reaction
Mosbys p340
Current p202
What is the ddx for hairy tongue?
reduced flow of saliva
soft diet
mouth breathing
poor dental hygiene
coffee or tea
alcohol
tobacco
oxidizing mouthwashes
bismuth-containing antidiarrheals → Peptol-Bismol
broad-spectrum antibiotics
radiation to head and neck
What is hairy tongue?
abnormally elongated filiform papillae on dorsum of tongue causing hairy appearance and discoloration; usually black, but may be any color depending on source causing discoloration (bacterial overgrowth, food, product, medication)
Mosbys p340
How do you differentiate white hairy tongue and oral hairy leukoplakia?
mucosal bunch biospy with immunostaining for presence of EBV

if positive for EBV → oral hairy leukoplakia
black hairy tongue
geographic tongue (normal variant)
Define stomatitis.
inflammation of oral mucosa; may involve lips, buccal mucosa, gums, tongue, or roof/floor of mouth
Define gingivostomatitis.
gingivitis + stomatitis (inflammation of the gums + inflammation of the oral mucosa)
What is torus palatinus?
bony protuberance in midline of hard palate; normal variant but may cause denture fitting problems
Mosbys p342
torus palatinus (normal variant)
What is torus mandibularis?
bony protuberance on lingual surface of mandible; normal variant but may cause denture fitting problems
torus mandibularis (normal variant)
cleft uvula

*benign
*subclinical manifestation of cleft palate
What does saying "ah" test for?
1. movement of soft palate → observe soft palate rise symmetrically with uvula remaining in midline
2. glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
3. vagus nerve (CN X)
Mosbys p343
Failure of soft palate to rise bilaterally while saying "ah" may indicate?
vagus nerve paralysis

*uvula will deviate to unaffected side
Mosbys p343
What is Kaposi's sarcoma?
tumor caused by HHV8; can affect skin, oral cavity (usually hard palate or gingiva), respiratory tract, or GI tract
Describe the appearance of infected tonsils?
enlarged, erythematous, covered in exudate
pharyngitis
tonsillitis
palatal petichiae → GABHS pharyngitis
What may a red bulge adjacent to tonsil and extending beyond midline indicate?
peritonsillar abscess
Mosbys p343
Yellowish mucoid film in pharnyx indictes?
postnasal drip
Mosbys p343
peritonsillar abscess

*displacing uvula, anterior pillar, and palatine tonsil medially
What is the presentation of tonsillitis?
fatigue, fever, referred ear pain, sore throat, dysphagia, fetid breath, enlarged erythematous tonsils, tonsillar exudates, cervical lymphadenopathy
Mosbys p356
What is a peritonsillar abscess?
infection of tissue between tonsillar pillar and tonsil; complication of tonsillitis
Mosbys p356
What is the presentation of a peritonsillar abscess?
fatigue, fever, referred ear pain, sore throat, dysphagia, drooling, muffled voice, enlarge and erythematous tonsil/tonsillar pillar/adjacent soft palate, possible displacement of uvula/tonsil, cervical lymphadenopathy
Mosbys p356
What is the clinical presentation of oral cancer?
white or red patch (leukoplakia, erythroplakia); non-healing ulceration; induration or mass in buccal mucosa; bleeding; commonly located on vermillion border of lower lip, tongue, or floor of mouth; painless initially but more painful with tissue erosion; cervical lymphadenopathy
Mosbys p357
Define xerostomia.
dry mouth
Mosbys p359
What is the ddx for xerostomia?
RA
scleroderma
polymyositis
Sjogren syndrome
smoking
anticholinergic or antidepressant drugs
radiation therapy
Mosbys p359
Describe the steps of the oral exam.
1. ask about use of dental prostheses
2. inspect lips
3. inspect oral cavity with penlight and tongue blade
-inspect buccal mucosa, stenson's duct
-inspect gingiva and teeth
-inspect palate
-inspect tonsillar pillars, tonsils, and posterior wall of pharynx
-inspect tongue
4. palpate sublingual area while grasping tongue with gauze → wharton's duct
5. note breath odor
What is sialadenitis?
inflammation of a salivary gland
What is the etiology of aphthous stomatitis?
unknown; possible association with HHV6
Current p203
What is the clinical presentation of aphthous stomatitis?
small round ulceration with yellow-gray fibroid center surrounded by red halo; single or multiple; found on labial or buccal mucosa; painful; recurrent
Current p203
What is the management of aphthous stomatitis?
for symptomatic relief, prescribe topical corticosteroids, either triamcinolone acetonide or fluocinonide
Current p203
What are other names for aphthous stomatitis?
aphthous ulcer
ulcerative stomatitis
canker sore
Current p203
How long does pain last and how long does healing take for aphthous stomatitis?
painful for 7-10 days, healing takes 1-3 weeks
Current p203
What is the ddx for aphthous stomatitis?
if large or persistent, consider:
erythema multiforme
drug allergies
herpes simplex
pemphigus
pemphigoid
epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
bullous lichen planus
Behcet disease
inflammatory bowel disease
squamous cell carcinoma
Current p203
What is glossodynia?
burning and pain of the tongue +/- glossitis
Current p202
Name oral lesions considered to be premalignant.
actinic cheilitis
leukoplakia
erythroplakia
oral lichen planus
erythroplakia
peritonsillar abscess
What type of cancer accounts for 90% of oral cancer?
squamous cell carcinoma
Current p201
2-6% of cases of leukoplakia and 90% of cases of erythroplakia are either ... or .... ?
dysplasia
carcinoma
Current p201
What are the major risk factors for oral leukoplakia and erythroplakia?
alcohol
tobacco (especially pipes and chewing tobacco)
Current p201
erythroplakia
What is the clinical presentation of erythroplakia?
red patch on buccal mucosa, tongue, or palate; soft, velvety; premalignant
What is the treatment for erythroplakia?
1. if indicated by biopsy → surgical excision
2. long-term monitoring since recurrence common
What is erythroplakia?
red patch on buccal mucosa, tongue, or palate that can't be attributed to any other pathology; premalignant
What is the etiology of erythroplakia?
unknown; possibly similar to squamous cell carcinoma
white, lacy, reticular pattern on buccal mucosa → oral lichen planus
What is the clinical presentation of oral lichen planus?
1. white, lacy reticular lesions on buccal mucosa (may mimic candidiaisis, leukoplakia)
2. erosive lesions (may mimic SCC)
What is oral lichen planus?
chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease
What is the management of oral hairy leukoplakia?
zidovudine or acyclovir
Current p202
What is the management for suspected oral cancer?
1. if unclassifiable white or red lesion that persists >2 weeks → refer to ENT for evaluation, biopsy, and treatment
2. treatment dependent on staging
3. if small → surgical excision
4. if large → surgical excision, neck dissection, radiation
Current p202
What is the cause for 75% of oral cancer?
alcohol
tobacco
oral cancer → squamous cell carcinoma on ventrolateral tongue
oral cancer → squamous cell carcinoma on floor of mouth
oral cancer → squamous cell carcinoma on ventrolateral tongue
What are filiform papillae?
1 of 4 types of lingual papillae; small white prominences on surface of tongue; v-shaped cones with filamentous processes; abrasive coating; do not contain taste buds
What sign occurs with defective desquamation of filiform papillae?
hairy tongue →
white hairy tongue (papillae naturally white)
black hairy tongue (papillae discolored by overgrowth of bacteria or food/product/medication)
What is the clinical presentation of glossitis?
inflammation of the tongue with loss of filiform papillae resulting in smooth tongue; rarely painful
Current p202
What is the management of glossitis?
1. treat primary cause
2. if primary cause not found → consider empiric nutritional therapy
Current p202
What is "burning mouth syndrome"?
glossodynia in absence of any clinical findings; most common in postmenopausal women; no associated risk factors; benign; may be treated with alpha-lipoic acid or clonazepam
Current p203
What is the etiology of glossodynia?
associated with:
causes of glossitis
xerostomia
candidiasis
DM
drugs → diuretics
tobacco
Current p203
What is the management of glossodynia?
1. treat primary cause
2. choose alternative medications
3. encourage smoking cessation
4. reassure patient that glossodynia is benign
Current p203
What are other names for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
vincent's infection
trench mouth
Current p203
What is the etiology of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
stress (common in young adults at examination time) or predisposing factors (systemic diseases) → bacterial infection characterized by fusiform bacilli (gram-pos) and spirochetes (gram-neg)
Current p203
What is the clinical presentation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
acute gingival inflammation and necrosis; painful; possible fever, halitosis, bleeding, cervical lymphadenopathy
Current p203
What is the management of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
1. penicillin 250mg PO 3x daily x 10 days
2. warm half-strength peroxide rinses
Current p203
What is herpetic stomatitis?
viral infection of the mouth
What is the etiology of herpetic stomatitis?
HSV
What is the clinical presentation of herpetic stomatitis?
initial burning
small vesicles → rupture → scab
usually on gingiva or mucocutaneous border of lip
sometimes on soft palate, buccal mucosa or tongue
What is the management for herpetic stomatitis?
1. if immunocompetent → mild, short-lived (10 days)
2. if immunocompromised → prescribe acyclovir 200-800mg 5x daily x 7-14 days
What is the prevention for herpetic stomatitis?
1. avoid contact with infected people (cold sores or herpetic stomatitis)
2. avoid sharing food, drinks, utensils
What % of the population carries HSV?
~90%
herpetic stomatitis
What is the management of hairy tongue?
1. benign and self-limited
2. brush tongue daily
3. improve oral hygiene
3. refrain from drinking tea, coffee, or alcohol; refrain from smoking; change mouthwash
What are the types of gingivitis?
1. plaque-associated gingivitis
2. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
3. hormone-induced gingival hyperplasia → puberty, pregnancy
4. drug-induced gingival hyperplasia → dilantin, cyclosporin, procardia
5. bacterial, viral, or fungal infection → herpetic stomatitis, oral candidiasis
6. mucocutaenous diseases → oral lichen planus, pemphigus vulgaris
7. blood disorders → acute leukemia
What is herpangina?
viral infection of the mouth
What is the etiology of herpangina?
caused by coxsackieviruses; spread via respiratory droplets or fecal-oral; usually affects infants and young children in summer
What is the clinical presentation of herpangina?
high fever; sore throat, dysphagia, and loss of appetite; red macules → vesicles → ulcerations with white-grey base and red border, located on soft palate or tonsillar pillars
What is the management and patient eduction for herpangina?
1. self-limiting → usually resoves in 1 week
2. take acetominophen or ibuprofen for fever and discomfort (avoid aspirin)
3. increase fluids
4. eat cold non-irritating diet → milk, icecream, popsicles
5. avoid citrus, fried, spicy, and hot food
What is the prevention for herpangina?
handwashing
herpangina
In children <12y/o with a viral illness, what medication should not be used?
aspirin
What is hand, foot, and mouth disease?
viral infection of the hands, feet, and mouth
What is the etiology of hand, foot, and mouth disease?
caused by coxsackievirus; transmitted via rhinorrhea, saliva, sputum, stool, blister fluid; commonly occurs in young children during summer and early fall
What is the clinical presentation of hand, foot, and mouth disease?
fatigue; fever; sore throat; non-pruritic blistering rash on hands, feet, and buttocks; ulcers in mouth
What is the management and patient education of hand, foot, and mouth disease?
1. self-limiting → resolves in 7-10 days
2. take acetominophen or ibuprofen for fever and pain
3. rinse with salt water → 1/2 tsp salt, 1 glass of warm water
4. increase fluids to prevent dehydration
What is the prevention of hand, foot, and mouth disease?
avoid contact with infected people; handwashing; cleaning objects
What is cellulitis?
diffuse inflammation of connective tissue of skin (dermis and hypodermis)
What is the etiology of bacterial sialadenitis?
usually caused by S. aureus; associated with ductal obstruction, dehydration, chronic illness, sjogren's syndrome

*viral parotitis usually caused by mumps virus
Current p206
What is the clinical presentation of bacterial sialadenitis?
acute swelling of parotid or submandibular gland; increased pain and swelling with meals; tenderness, erythema, and pus at ductal opening

*viral sialadenitis is non-painful
Current p206
What is the management of sialadenitis?
1. IV antibiotics → nafcillin 1g IV q4-6hr
2. increase salivary flow → hydration, sialogogues (lemon drops), warm compresses, massage of gland
3. rinse mouth with salt water → 1 tsp salt + 1 cup water
3. practice good oral hygiene
Current p206
sialadenitis → parotitis
What is the etiology of sialolithiasis?
crystallization of saliva → blockage of duct; associated with stricture or infection
What is the clinical presentation of sialolithiasis?
local pain and swelling
What is the management of sialolithiasis?
remove stone manually or surgically
Which is more common, sialolithiasis of Stenson's duct or Wharton's duct?
Wharton's duct
Current p206
What is the etiology of GABHS pharyngitis?
group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
What is the presentation of GABHS pharyngitis?
Centor Criteria:
sore throat +
1. fever >100.4°F
2. pharyngotonsillar exudates
3. anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
4. no cough

*if 1 criteria present → unlikely
*if 2 criteria present → possible
*if 3 criteria present → likely
*if 4 criteria present → treat regardless of rapid strep

odynophagia, scarlatiniform rash; no rhinorrhea or hoarseness
What is the diagnostic work-up of GABHS pharyngitis?
rapid strep; throat culture if negative
What is the etiology of mononucleosis?
epstein barr virus (EBV); transmitted via saliva or genital secretions; common in young adults
Current p204
What is the presentation of mononucleosis?
fatigue, fever, sore throat, myalgia; cervical lymphadenopathy; hepatosplenomegaly; possible palatal petichiae, tonsillar exudates, or maculopapular rash

*1/3 of mono also presents with GABHS
Current p204
What is the diagnostic work-up of mononucleosis?
CBCDP → lymphocytosis (>35%)
blood smear → atypical large lymphocytes
monospot
EBV titers if monospot negative
Current p204
What is the presentation of viral pharyngitis?
sore throat, rhinorrhea, no pharyngotonsillar exudate
Current p204
What are the indications for tonsillectomy?
1. airway obstruction → sleep apnea, cor pulmonale
2. recurrent streptococcal tonsillitis
3. recurrent peritonsillar abscess
4. chronic tonsillitis
5. if persistent tonsillar asymmetry → excisional biopsy to R/O lymphoma
Current p207
What are the cons of tonsillectomy?
1. pain, especially if adult
2. protracted fever and emesis
3. post-operative bleeding, may lead to laryngospasm or airway obstruction
Current p207
What are the complications of GABHS pharyngitis?
scarlet fever
rheumatic fever
glomerulonephritis
local abscess formation
Current p205
What is the treatment for GABHS pharyngitis?
1. prescribe antibiotics to prevent sequelae
What is the diagnostic work-up of viral pharyngitis?
rapid strep to R/O GABHS
What is the management of viral pharyngitis?
1. self-limiting → resolves within 7-10 days
2. acetominophen for fever
3. salt water gargle → 1tsp salt, 1 cup water several times per day
4. NO ANTIBIOTICS!!!
What are the complications of viral pharyngitis?
complications rare
How long before a person infected with mononucleosis would test positive with a monospot?
4 weeks after onset
Current p1243
Interpret the results of an EBV titer for mononucleosis.
1. if VCA-IgM positive → current infection
2. if VCA-IgG positive → recent or past infection
3. if VCA-IgM negative but others positive → past infection
4. if VCA-IgG negative → susceptible to infection
What is the management of mononucleosis?
1. acetominophen or ibuprofen for pain and fever
2. warm salt water gargle 3-4x daily for sore throat
3. increase fluids
4. rest
5. avoid contact sports >4 weeks
6. if GABHS → penicillin or erythromycin
7. if impending airway obstruction, hemolytic anemia, or severe thrombocytopenia → corticosteroids
Define trismus.
inability to open mouth fully
bilateral submandibular lymphadenopathy
submental lymphadenopathy
What is ludwig's angina?
cellulitis of the sublingual and submaxillary spaces; ENT emergency due to potential airway obstruction
Current p206
What is the etiology of ludwig's angina?
polymicrobial infection caused by staphylococci, streptococci, and bacteroides
usually dental infection → infected or recently extracted lower molar
tongue piercing
foreign body or laceration in floor of mouth
oral infection
mandible fracture
oral malignancy
What is the clinical presentation of ludwig's angina?
dental pain or recent dental procedure; dysphonia, hot potato voice, dysphagia, odynophagia, sore throat, neck swelling, restricted neck movement; erythema and edema of submandibular area; often erythema and edema of floor of mouth; possible displacement of tongue superior and posterior
Current p206
What is the management of ludwig's angina?
1. determine state of airway → tracheotomy, intubation
2. prescribe empiric antibiotics → penicillin + clindamycin or metronidazole
3. order C&S to refine antibiotic treatment
4. if refractory to treatment → surgical drainage
Define dysphagia.
difficulty swallowing
Define odynophagia.
painful swallowing
Define dysphonia.
difficulty speaking
List conditions characterized by "hot potato voice."
peritonsillar abscess
ludwig's angina
What is the clinical presentation of cerumen impaction?
hearing loss

pruritus
pain
tinnitus
cough