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464 Cards in this Set

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What are the 4 quadrants of the abdomen?
1. RUQ (right upper quadrant)
2. RLQ (right lower quadrant)
3. LUQ (left upper quadrant)
4. LLQ (left lower quadrant)
What is the equipment needed for the abdominal exam?
stethoscope
ruler
measuring tape
pen
gloves, lubricating gel for rectal
Mosbys p532
What are 3 surface landmarks of the abdomen?
1. umbilicus
2. anterior superior iliac spine
3. inguinal ligament
What structures are found in the RUQ?
liver
gallbladder
head of pancreas
pylorus of stomach
duodenum
hepatic flexure of colon
portion of ascending and transverse colon
RT adrenal gland
upper portion of RT kidney
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the RLQ?
cecum
appendix
portion of ascending colon
lower portion of RT kidney
RT ureter
RT spermatic cord
RT fallopian tube and ovary
bladder if distended
uterus if distended
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the LUQ?
left lobe of liver
spleen
body of pancreas
fundus and body of stomach
splenic flexure of colon
portion of transverse and descending colon
LT adrenal gland
upper portion of LT kidney
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the LLQ?
portion of descending colon
sigmoid colon
lower portion of LT kidney
LT ureter
LT spermatic cord
LT fallopian tube and ovary
bladder if distended
uterus if distended
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the RT hypochondriac region?
portion of liver
gallbaldder
portion of duodenum
hepatic flexure of colon
RT adrenal gland
portion of RT kidney
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the epigastric region?
portion of liver
head and body of pancreas
portion of duodenum
pylorus of stomach
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the LT hypochondriac region?
portion of liver
spleen
tail of pancreas
fundus and body of stomach
splenic flexure of colon
LT adrenal gland
portion of LT kidney
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the RT lumbar region?
portion of duodenum and jejunum
ascending colon
portion of RT kidney
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the umbilical region?
portion of duodenum, jejunum and ileum
omentum
mesentary
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the LT lumbar region?
portion of jejunum and ileum
desending colon
portion of LT kidney
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the RT inguinal region?
portion of ileum
cecum
appendix
LT ureter
LT spermatic cord
LT fallopian tube and ovary
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the hypogastric region?
portion of ileum
bladder
uterus (in pregnancy)
Mosbys p534
What structures are found in the LT inguinal region?
sigmoid colon
LT ureter
LT spermatic cord
LT fallopian tube and ovary
Mosbys p534
What is diastasis recti and what causes it?
separation of rectus abdominis muscles; often caused by obesity or pregnancy (but of little clinical significance)
Mosbys p536
How long must you listen to bowel sounds to determine their absence?
5 min
Mosbys p536
Is bright red stool indicative of an upper or lower GI bleed?
usually lower GI bleed
(though can also occur in massive upper GI bleed)
Is black tarry stool indicative of an upper or lower GI bleed?
upper GI bleed
What are the most common causes of hematochezia in adults?
hemorrhoids
diverticulitis
colon cancer
If you give a patient a narcotic for abdominal pain, will it obscure the correct diagnosis or delay appropriate treatment?
NO!
Cope p5
What is an intussusception?
medical condition where one part of the intestine invaginates into another part of the intestine; can result in obstruction
What is dyspepsia?
acute, chronic, or recurrent discomfort or pain in upper abdomen
epigastric pain or burning
Current p502
Where does upper GI become lower GI?
ligament of Treitz
located at duodeno-jejunal junction
connects duodenum to diaphragm
http://tiny.cc/ligamentoftreitz
Define transaminitis.
elevated transaminases:
1. ALT (alanine transaminase)
2. AST (aspartate transaminase)
What do elevated ALT and AST indicate?
possible liver damage
What AST and ALT levels indicate alcoholic liver disease?
AST levels that are 2-3x ALT levels
What AST and ALT levels indicate ischemic hepatitis?
>1000
What are the risk factors for colorectal cancer?
1. >50y/o
2. poor diet (high in red meat, low in fiber)
3. lack of exercise
4. smoking
5. alcohol
6. obesity
7. PMH of colorectal cancer, intestinal polyps, chronic inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis), Gardner syndrome, breast cancer, endometrial cancer, ovarian cancer
8. FH of colon cancer, familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), familial hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC), Gardner syndrome
9. Ashkenazi Jewish descent
Mosbys p531
What is Cullen's sign and what may it indicate?
periumbilical ecchymosis; may indicate acute pancreatitis or hemoperitoneum (2° to blunt abdominal trauma, ruptured AAA or ruptured ectopic pregnancy)
Mosbys p557
Pain the RUQ may indicate?
hepatomegaly
hepatitis
cholecystitis
duodenal ulcer
pneumonia
Mosbys p551
Pain in the RLQ may indicate?
Meckel's diverticulitis
regional ileitis
perforated cecum
appendicitis
ovarian cyst
salpingitis
ruptured ectopic pregnancy
renal/ureteral stone
strangulated hernia
Mosbys p551
What is Meckel's diverticulum?
congenital bulge in distal ileum
Pain in the LUQ may indicate?
gastric ulcer
splenomegaly
ruptured spleen
perforated colon
aortic aneurysm
pneumonia
Mosbys 551
Pain in the LLQ may indicate?
regional ileitis
sigmoid diverticulitis
ulcerative colitis
perforated colon
renal/ureteral stone
ovarian cyst
salpingintis
ruptured ectopic pregnancy
strangulated hernia
Mosbys 551
Periumbilical pain may indicate?
acute pancreatitis
early appendicitis
diverticulitis
intestinal obstruction
aortic aneurysm
mesenteric thrombosis
Mosbys p551
What sounds are expected when percussing the abdomen?
tympany over stomach and intestines
dullness over organs
Mosbys p537
What is Grey Turner's sign and what may it indicate?
flank ecchymosis; may indicate acute pancreatitis or hemoperitoneum (2° to blunt abdominal trauma, ruptured AAA, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, or coagulopathy)
Mosbys p557
Where is McBurney's point located?
two-thirds the distance from the umbilicus to the ASIS
What is McBurney's sign and what may it indicate?
reboud tenderness and sharp pain when McBurney's point palpated; may indicate appendicitis
Mosbys p557
What is Murphy's sign and what may it indicate?
abrupt cessation of inspiration on palpation of gallbladder; may indicate cholecystitis
Mosbys p557
What is the ddx for generalized abdominal distension?
obesity
enlarged organs
gas
fluid
Mosbys
What is the ddx for abdominal distension in RLQ/LLQ?
distended bladder
pregnancy
ovarian tumor
uterine fibroids (benign tumors)
Mosbys
What is the ddx for abdominal distension in RUQ/LUQ?
gastric dilation
pancreatic cyst
carcinoma
Mosbys
What is the ddx for assymetric abdominal distension?
enlarged organ
bowel obstruction
hernia
cyst
tumor
Mosbys
What is the difference between a reducable and non-reducable hernia?
contents can be pushed back in if reducible
contents can't be pushed back in if non-reducable
Mosbys
What is the definition of a strangulated hernia?
non-reducible hernia + blood supply to contents obstructed
Mosbys
Limited abdominal movement may indicate?
peritonitis
Mosbys
When evaluating abdominal movement, visible peristalis may indicate?
bowel obstruction
Mosbys
When evaluating abdominal movement, marked pulsation may indicate?
AAA
Mosbys
What is borborygmi?
stomach growling
What are the characteristics of normal bowel sounds?
generalized irregular clicks and gurgles
5-35 per minute
Mosbys
Increased bowel sounds may indicate?
borborygmi
gastroenteritis
early abdominal obstruction
Mosbys
Decreased bowel sounds may indicate?
peritonitis
paralytic ileus
Mosbys
High-pitched, tinkling abdominal sounds may indicate?
intestinal air or fluid under pressure (ex: early abdominal obstruction)
Mosbys
What are evaluating during abdominal inspection?
color (bruising, jaundice)
venous pattern
lesions/masses (striae, scarring)
contour (flat, rounded, scaphoid)
symmetry (distension, bulges)
surface movement
Mosbys
What is normal liver span?
6-12 cm
if >12 cm, may indicate hepatomegaly
if <6 cm, may indicate liver atrophy
Mosbys
When might liver span be overestimated?
upper border obscured by pleural effusion or consolidation
Mosbys
Where is lower liver border normally?
at/slighly below costal margin
Mosbys
Where is upper liver border normally?
between 5th and 7th ICS
Mosbys
What is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?
h. pylori
What is a hiatal hernia?
herniation of upper part of stomach into thorax through weakness or tear in diaphragm
What is SAAG and when would you order it?
serum ascites albumin gradient; to determine if ascites is transudate (portal HTN) or exudate
Current
How is SAAG calculated?
SAAG = serum ALB - ascitic fluid ALB
How is SAAG interpreted?
portal HTN if >1.1 g/dL
condition unrelated to portal HTN if <1.1 g/dL
Where does bile drain?
gallbladder for storage or duodenum
Interpreting Laboratory Data p236
What foods should be eaten for diarrhea?
bananas
What foods prevent or treat constipation?
increase fluids (water, fruit juice)
increase fiber (fruit, prunes, apricots, vegetables, beans)
increase bran (bran cereals, bran muffins, shredded wheat, whole wheat bread)
decrease milk, bananas, cheese and yogurt
How does hepatic dysfunction affect lab results?
reduced clotting factor production
increased PT
increased PTT
Interpreting Laboratory Data p11
What drugs are hepatotoxic?
rifampin
isoniazid
Interpreting Laboratory Data p39
How do hepatotoxic drugs affect lab results?
↑ ALT
↑ AST
Interpreting Laboratory Data p39
What is pyloric stenosis?
postnatal muscular hypertrophy of the pyloris causing stenosis
PYLORIC STENOSIS:
ETIOLOGY:
postnatal muscular hypertrophy of the pylorus with progressive gastric outlet obstruction
cause unknown
1-8:1000 births, 4:1 male predominance, 13% positive FH

CLINICAL PRESENTATION:
postprandial projectile non-bilious blood-streaked vomiting, usually starts between 2-4 weeks (but may start at birth to 12 weeks)
increased hunger, avid nursing
fretfulness, constipation, weight loss, dehydration, apathy
postprandial abdominal distention
visible gastric peristalsis from left to right
palpable RUQ oval mass 5-15 mm, especially after vomiting
hypochloremic alkalosis
upper GI contrast radiograph or abdominal US

MANAGEMENT:
1. correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
2. Ramstedt pyloromyotomy → incision down to mucosa along pyloric length

COMPLICATIONS:
none

PREVENTION:
none
What is intussusception?
invagination of intestine into another part of intestine causing obstruction
INTUSSUSCEPTION:
ETIOLOGY:
most common cause of intestinal obstruction in children <2y/o
3:1 female predominance
85% idiopathic
other causes include small bowel polyp, Meckel diverticulum, omphalomesenteric remnant, duplication, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, lymphoma, lipoma, parasites, foreign bodies, viral enteritis with hypertrophy of Peyer patches, celiac disease, CF
lymphoma most common cause if >6y/o
usually occurs at ileocecal valve

CLINICAL PRESENTATION:
recurrent paroxysms of abdominal pain with screaming and drawing up of knees
vomiting, diarrhea
bloody mucoid stool within 12 hours
lethargic between paroxysms
+/- fever
abdominal distention and tenderness
sausage-shaped mass in epigastric region
symptoms can persist for days if incomplete obstruction or spontaneous resolution

MANAGEMENT:
barium enema (contraindicated if signs of strangulated bowel, perforation, toxicity) or air enema for diagnosis and reduction
surgery if extremely ill, perforation, or enema reduction unsuccessful

COMPLICATIONS:
incarceration, necrosis
intestinal perforation, peritonitis, hemorrhage

PREVENTION:
Define melena.
black tarry stools due to presence of blood exposed to gastric acid
Define hematochezia.
bright red stools due to presence of blood
Define hematemesis.
vomiting blood
Define singultus.
hiccups
Define eructation.
belching
Define tenesmus.
feeling of incomplete defecation
*Define icterus.
AKA jaundice → yellow pigmentation of skin and mucous membranes due to accumulation of bilirubin in tissues
Define aerophagia.
air swallowing
Define odynophagia.
painful swallowing
Define dysphagia.
difficulty or painful swallowing
Define flatulence.
gas
Define heartburn.
substernal burning often radiating to neck
What disorder is characterized by heartburn?
GERD
List types of dysphagia.
oropharyngeal
esophageal
What is the generic name for Advil?
ibuprofen
Describe the biliary system.
What is the approach to the patient with dysphagia?
1. distinguish between oral, pharyngeal, or esophageal dysphagia
2. upper endoscopy
3.

ORAL DYSPHAGIA:
1. difficulty in transferring food from oropharnyx to upper esophagus
2. symptoms include drooling, spillage from mouth, inability to chew or initiate swallowing, dry mouth

PHARYNGEAL DYSPHAGIA:
1. difficulty in transferring food to upper esophagus
2. symptoms include immediate sense of bolus catching in neck, need to swallow repeatedly to clear bolus, coughin or choking during meals, neurological symptoms (dysphonia, dysarthria)

ESOPHAGEAL DYSPHAGIA:
1. impaired transport of bolus through esophagus
2. may be caused by obstruction of esophagus or impaired motility
3. if obstruction → usually occurs with solids, predictable, recurrent
4. if motility disorder → occurs with solids and liquids, unpredictable, episodic
Define dysarthria.
impaired ability to articulate words
manifests as slurred speech
Define dysphonia.
impaired ability to produce vocal sounds
What is the ddx for dysphagia?
OROPHARYNGEAL:
Neurologic disorders
Brainstem cerebrovascular accident, mass lesion
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, multiple sclerosis, pseudobulbar palsy, post-polio syndrome, Guillain-Barré syndrome
Parkinson disease, Huntington disease, dementia
Tardive dyskinesia
Muscular and rheumatologic disorders
Myopathies, polymyositis
Oculopharyngeal dystrophy
Sjögren syndrome
Metabolic disorders
Thyrotoxicosis, amyloidosis, Cushing disease, Wilson disease
Medication side effects: anticholinergics, phenothiazines
Infectious disease
Polio, diphtheria, botulism, Lyme disease, syphilis, mucositis (Candida, herpes)
Structural disorders
Zenker diverticulum
Cervical osteophytes, cricopharyngeal bar, proximal esophageal webs
Oropharyngeal tumors
Postsurgical or radiation changes
Pill-induced injury
Motility disorders
Upper esophageal sphincter dysfunction


ESOPHAGEAL:
1. Mechanical obstruction Mechanical obstruction Solid foods worse than liquids
Schatzki ring Intermittent dysphagia; not progressive
Peptic stricture Chronic heartburn; progressive dysphagia
Esophageal cancer Progressive dysphagia; age over 50 years
Eosinophilic esophagitis Young adults; small-caliber lumen, proximal stricture, corrugated rings, or white papules
Motility disorder Solid and liquid foods
Achalasia Progressive dysphagia
Diffuse esophageal spasm Intermittent; not progressive; may have chest pain
Scleroderma Chronic heartburn; Raynaud phenomenon
What is upper endoscopy?
endoscope inserted into mouth and extended to esophagus, stomach, and duodenum
allows for visualization, foreign object removal, stricture dilation, bleeding cauterization, biopsy
What are the indications for upper endoscopy?
GERD
peristent nausea and vomiting
unexplained upper abdominal pain
foreign body removal
dysphagia
monitor disease progession or treatment
unclear findings on abdominal x-ray, CT, or MRI
upper GI bleed
What and where is virchow's node?
lymph node in left supraclavicular fossa
takes supply from abdominal cavity
enlargment is strong indicator of abdominal cancer
What is the difference between dyspepsia and heartburn?
dyspepsia → epigastric pain or burning
heartburn → retrosternal burning often radiating to neck
What is another name for heartburn?
pyrosis
What is GERD?
esophageal disorder characterized by reflux of stomach contents into esophagus
What is the etiology of GERD?
impaired lower esophageal sphincter function

worsened by hiatial hernia, diminished peristalsis (scleroderma), diminished salivation (sjogren's, anticholinergics, oral radiation), impaired gastric emptying

affects 20% of adults
What is the clinical presentation of GERD?
heartburn → substernal burning, 30-60 minutes following meals or upon bending/reclining, relief with antacids or baking soda
regurgitation
dysphagia
atypical manifestations include sore throat, chronic cough, non-cardiac chest pain, asthma, chronic laryngitis

physical exam normal!!!
What are the complications of GERD?
reflux esophagitis (1/3 of patients)
Barrett's esophagus
What is Barrett's esophagus?
complication of GERD where squamous epithelium of esophagus is replaced by metaplastic columnar epithelium containing columnar and goblet cells
What is the etiology of Barrett's esophagus?
chronic GERD (occurs in <10% of GERD patients)
What is the diagnostic workup of Barrett's esophagus?
endoscopy → orange gastric type epithelium that extends from stomach to distal esophagus in tongue-like or circumferential fashion
biopsy
What is the clinical presentation of Barrett's esophagus?
chronic GERD → heartburn, regurgitation
What is the management of Barrett's esophagus?
1. long-term PPI → 1-2x daily
2. monitor with endoscopy every 3 years
What are the complications and prognosis of Barrett's esophagus?
esophageal adenocarcinoma
though number of patients who progress to adenocarcinoma is small if treat with PPIs and surveillance
What is Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?
mucosal tear at gastro-esophageal junction
What is the etiology of Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?
sudden increase in trans-abdominal pressure → lifting, stretching, vomiting, retching, straining
What is the clinical presentation of Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?
history of vomiting, retching, straining
self-limited hematemesis
+/- melena
What is the diagnostic workup of Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?
upper endoscopy → 0.5-4cm linear mucosal tear in gastroesophageal junction or in gastric mucosa
What is the management of Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?
1. bleeding often self-limiting and no therapy required
2. if bleeding continues → endoscopic hemostatic therapy → can inject epinephrine, compress artery with endoclip, or cauterize
3. if endoscopic therapy fails → angiographic arterial embolization or surgery
4. fluid replacement and blood transfusions as needed
What are the risk factors for Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?
alcoholism
What are the complications of Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?
35% complicated with peptic ulcer disease, erosive gastritis, AV malformations, esophageal varices

higher risk of continued bleeding if portal HTN
What are esophageal varices?
dilated submucosal veins in the esophagus
What is the etiology of esophageal varices?
secondary to portal HTN

causes of portal HTN include cirrhosis
What are the risk factors of esophageal varices?
alcoholism
What is the clinical presentation of esophageal varices?
upper GI bleed (33%)
hypovolemia (manifests with postural vital signs or shock)

*varices do not cause dysphagia or dyspepsia
What is the diagnostic workup of esophageal varices?
upper endoscopy
What is the management of esophageal varices?
HOSPITALIZATION:
1. bleeding often self-limited (50%) but can be life-threatening
2. rapid fluid replacement and blood transfusions
3. if platelet count <50,000/mcL or INR >2.0 → platelets or FFP
4. prophylactic antibiotics
5. vasoactive drugs to reduce portal HTN
6. if abnormal PT → subcutaneous vitamin K
7. endoscopy
-active bleeding requires intubation
-banding or sclerotherapy
-banding is first-line
-banding must be repeated every 1-3 weeks until obliterated
-sclerotherapy often done when active bleeding present, then banding done after
8. if bleeding not controlled by above → consider balloon tube tamponade, portal decompression, shunt
9. prevention of rebleeding → B-blocker, liver transplant
What is the prognosis of esophageal varices?
if no treatment → 60% chance of recurrent bleeding within 6 weeks

risk of bleeding increases if:
-large size (>5cm)
-endoscopy reveals red whale markings
-severe liver disease
-active alcoholism

advanced liver disease has poor outcome
What are the complications of esophageal varices?
rebleeding
What is the most common cause of portal HTN?
cirrhosis
What is the prevention of esophageal varices?
if cirrhosis → endoscopy → B-blocker and/or band ligation depending on results
What is Zenker's diverticula?
protrusion of pharyngeal mucosa that occurs at the pharyngeal esophageal junction between the inferior pharngeal constrictor and cricopharyngeus
What is the etiology of Zenker's diverticula?
loss of elasticity of upper esophageal sphincter → restricted opening during swallowing
What is the clinical presentation of Zenker's diverticula?
insidious onset over years

intially:
vague oropharyngeal dysphagia
throat discomfort
coughing

as diverticuum enlarges and retains food:
haliotosis
regurgitation
throat gurgling
nocturnal choking
neck protrusion
What is the diagnostic workup of Zenker's diverticula?
barium swallow
What is the management of Zenker's diverticula?
1. if small + asymptomatic → observation
2. if symptomatic → esophageal myotomy +/- surgical diverticulectomy
What are the complications of Zenker's diverticula?
aspiration pneumonia
bronchiectasis
lung abscess
Zenker's diverticulum
What is Schatzke's ring?
smooth, thin (<4mm), circumferential mucosal structure in distal esophagus at squamocolumnar junction
What is the etiology of Schatzke's ring?
associated with GERD, hiatal hernia
What is the clinical presentation of Schatzke's ring?
dysphagia → occurs with solid food (think steak), intermittent, not progressive
may pass after drinking fluids or regurgitation
What is the diagnostic workup of Schatzke's ring?
barium swallow
What is the management of Schatzke's ring?
1. bougie dilator or endoscopic surgical incision of ring
2. if repeated dilation required or heartburn → PPI
What is achalasia?
disorder of esophagus characterized by non-peristaltic esophageal contractions and impaired relaxation of lower esophageal spincter
What is the etiology of achalasia?
cause unusually unknown

associated with degeneration of postganglionic inhibitory neurons in myenteric plexus that release nitric oxide and VIP

causes include genetics, Trypanosoma cruzi (organism that causes Chagas disease), carcinoma, and possibly viral or autoimmune

rare
most common in 25-50y/o
What is the clinical presentation of achalasia?
dysphagia → esophageal, localized to lower chest, both food and liquids, worsens with hurried eating or emotional stress, slowly progressive
common complaints → taking longer to eat, having to drink lots of fluids to clear food, having to stand up and arch back or strain to clear food
regurgitation → food non-digested, non-acidic, non-bilious, white and foamy, make wake up at night coughing or choking
history of pneumonia
mild weight loss
What is the diagnostic workup for achalasia?
barium swallow → dilation and "bird-beaking" (smooth symmetrical narrowing) of distal esophagus, no peristaltic activity, poor esophageal emptying

esophageal manometry → no peristalsis + incomplete relaxation of lower esophageal sphincter on swallowing
What is the management of achalasia?
surgical myotomy
pneumonic dilation
botulin injections
for symptoms → sublingual nitrogen, CCBs, phophodiesterase inhibitors, anticholinergics
What are the complications and pronosis of achalasia?
severe weight loss if untreated
respiratory complications like stridor
post-botulin injections → recurrence
post-myotomy → GERD, strictures, Barrett's esophagus
What is the prevention for Barrett's esophagus?
manage GERD appropriately
Barrett's esophagus
bird-beaking of achalasia
esophageal varices
candidal esophagitis
schatzke's ring
mallory-weiss tear
What is the diagnostic workup of GERD?
labs normal
initial endoscopy not indicated if typical symptoms suggestive of non-complicated GERD
What is the management of GERD?
1. if typical symptoms → empiric therapy with PPI (omeprazole 20mg PO daily) 30 min before breakfast x 4-8 weeks
2. if alarm features (dysphagia, odynophagia, weight loss, iron deficiency anemia) or non-responsive to PPI → upper endoscopy with biopsy
3. appropriate counseling
What is the patient education and prevention of GERD?
1. avoid coffee, alcohol, citrus fruit, tomatoes, spicy foods, fatty foods, chocolate, peppermint
2. stop smoking
3. eat smaller meals
4. avoid lying down within 3 hours of eating
5. elevate head of bed 6 inches
6. take antacids before meals or to relieve symptoms → quick onset, provide relief for <2 hours
7. take OTC H2-receptor antagonists before meals or to relieve symptoms → slow onset (30 minutes), provide relief for 8 hours
What is dyspepsia?
1. acute, chronic or recurrent discomfort or pain in the epigastric region
2. epigastric pain or burning, early satiety or postprandial fullness
What is the etiology of dyspepsia?
eating fatty foods, eating too quickly, overeating, eating during stressful situations
excessive coffee or alcohol consumption
lactose intolerance
medications → iron, aspirin, NSAIDs, opioids, antibiotics (metronidazole, macrolides), antihypertensives (ACE inhibitors, ARBs), cholesterol-lowering agents (niacin, fibrates), digoxin, DM (metformin), corticosteroids, estrogen, SSRIs, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, cholinesterase inhibitors, parkinson drugs
pregnancy
functional dyspepsia
GERD
peptic ulcer disease
diabetic gastroparesis
malabsorption conditions
parasitic infection (Giardia, Strongyloides)
pancreatic carcinoma
chronic pancreatitis
MI
paraesophageal hernia
gastric volvulus
intra-abdominal malignancy
CKD
DM
thyroid disease

occurs in 25% of adult population
accounts for 3% of office visitis
What are the risk factors for dyspepsia?
anxiety, depression, martial problems, employment problems, physical abuse, sexual abuse, history of psychotropic meds
What is the clinical presentation of dyspepsia?
epigastric pain or burning
early satiety
postprandial fullness
nausea and vomiting
bloating
What is the diagnostic workup of dyspepsia?
1. H. pylori testing
2. CBC, LYTES, Ca2+, HFP, thyroid function tests if >50y/o
2. endoscopy or abdominal imaging if >55y/o, constant or severe pain, weight loss, dysphagia, persistent vomiting, hematemesis, melena, anemia
What is the management of dyspepsia?
1. identify and discontinue offending agents (coffee, alcohol, medications)
2. H. pylori testing → urea breath test, IgG serology or fecal antigen
3. if H. pylori negative → trial empiric PPI x 4 weeks +/- antibiotics
4. if H. pylori positive → antibiotics +/- PPI
5. endoscopy indicated if failure to respond to empiric therapy or relapse
6. if endoscopy normal → diagnose as functional dyspepsia
7. if endoscopy abnormal → treat underlying disorder
8. alternatives include peppermint, caraway, psychotherapy, hypnotherapy
What is the patient education for dyspepsia?
1. reduce or discontinue drinking coffee and alcohol
2. if postprandial symptoms → eat small low-fat meals
3. keep food diary → food intake and symptoms
What is the prevention of dyspepsia?
avoid precipitating factors
If H. pylori test negative and patient not taking NSAIDs, peptic ulcer disease can be excluded, true or false?
true
What is a hiatal hernia?
herniation of part of stomach into thoracic cavity through esophageal hiatus in diaphragm

types include sliding, paraesphageal, and mixed
What is the etiology of a hiatal hernia?
cause unknown

associated with aging, obesity, smoking

may be congenital

very common
usually seen in >50y/o
What is the clinical presentation of a hiatal hernia?
asymptomatic
worsening of GERD
What is the management of a hiatal hernia?
1. appropriate GERD management
2. if paraesophageal hernia or non-responsive to GERD management → surgery
What are the complications of a hiatal hernia?
if paraesophageal hernia:
ulceration → bleeding → iron deficiency anemia
incarceration
strangulation
What are the risk factors of hiatal hernia?
aging, obesity, smoking
What is the diagnostic workup of a hiatal hernia?
upper endoscopy best for sliding hiatal hernia
barium swallow best for paraesophageal hernia
What is erosive/hemorrhagic gastritis?
damage to stomach lining without inflammation
What is the etiology of erosive/hemorrhagic gastritis?
alcoholism
NSAIDS
portal HTN
stress associated with severe illness
less common → caustic ingestion, radiation
What are the risk factors for erosive/hemorrhagic gastritis?
if stress associated →
trauma, liver failure, kidney disease, CNS injury, multi-organ failure, burns, coagulopathy, sepsis, shock, mechanical ventilation
What is the clinical presentation of erosive/hemorrhagic gastritis?
often asymptomatic
epigastric pain
nausea and vomiting
anorexia
upper GI bleed → hematemesis (coffee grounds), melena, bloody aspirate from NG suction
What is the diagnostic workup of erosive/hemorrhagic gastritis?
upper endoscopy → subepithelial petechiae, erosions, hemorrhages → vary in size, superificial, focal or diffuse

labs nonspecific → possible anemia
What diseases comprise inflammatory bowel disease?
ulcerative colitis
Crohn's disease
toxic megacolon
What is ulcerative colitis?
chronic recurrent inflammatory bowel disease characterized by diffuse mucosal inflammation of the rectum and colon
What is Crohn's disease?
chronic recurrent inflammatory bowel disease characterized by patchy transmural inflammation of any segment of the GI tract from mouth to anus
What part of the GI tract is affected by ulcerative colitis?
occurs at rectum and extends proximally to colon
What part of the GI tract is affected by Crohn's disease?
occurs in patches anywhere from mouth to anus
List the extra-intestinal manifestations of ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease.
erythema nodosum
pyoderma gangrenosum
episcleritis or uveitis
oral ulcers
hepatitis
sclerosing cholangitis
arthritis → oligoarticular or polyarticular, peripheral, non-deforming
spondilitis or sacroiliitis
thromboembolism
Current ch15
What is erythema nodosum?
inflammatory disorder characterized by red indurated tender subcutaneous nodules
Where does erythema nodosum most commonly present?
shins
erythema nodosum
pyoderma gangrenosum
What is diverticulosis?
GI condition characterized by outpocketings in colon
What is the etiology of diverticulosis?
usually caused by long-standing fiber deficiency

other causes include inherent weakness in colonic wall or connective tissue disease (scleroderma, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)

possible hereditary factors
What is the incidence of duverticulosis for <40y/o, 60/yo and 80y/o?
<40y/o → <5%
60y/o → 30%
80y/o → >50%
What is the clinical presentation of diverticulosis?
usually asymptomatic and discovered incidentally via colonoscopy or barium enema
may have abdominal pain, chronic constipation, or fluctuating bowel habits
physical exam usually normal
may have LLQ tenderness with palpable thickened sigmoid and descending colon
What is imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting diverticulosis?
barium enema
What is the diagnostic workup of diverticulosis?
barium enema most sensitive for detecting diverticulosis
screening labs normal
imaging not indicated for diagnosis
What is the management of diverticulosis?
1. high-fiber diet → fruits, vegetables, and whole-grains
2. fiber supplements → bran powder, pysllium, or methylcellulose
What are the complications of diverticulosis?
lower GI bleeding
diverticulitis
What is the patient education for diverticulosis?
1. recommended daily fiber intake:
-38g for men <50y/o
-30g for men >50y/o
-25g for women <50y/o
-21g for women >50y/o
2. increase fiber intake by eating more fruits, vegetables and whole-grains
3. increase fiber intake slowly to prevent gas, cramping, and bloating
4. drink plenty of fluids
5. exercise regularly
What is the prevention for diverticulosis?
eat fiber!
What part of the GI tract does diverticulosis affect?
nearly always affects sigmoid and descending colon
15% affects proximal colon
What are the USPSTF and American Cancer Society's screening recommendations for colorectal neoplasms?
USPSTF:
1. recommends screening for colorectal cancer via fecal occult blood, sigmoidoscopy, or colonoscopy from 50-75y/o
2. recommendes against screening from 76-85y/o unless specific circumstance
3. recommends against screening >85y/o

ACS:
Beginning at age 50:
Tests that find polyps and cancer
•Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years*
or
•Colonoscopy every 10 years or
•Double-contrast barium enema every 5 years*
or
•CT colonography (virtual colonoscopy) every 5 years*

Tests that primarily find cancer
•Yearly fecal occult blood test (gFOBT)**
or
•Yearly fecal immunochemical test (FIT) every year**
or
•Stool DNA test (sDNA), interval uncertain**

if test positive → do colonoscopy
for fecal occult blood tests → do series of 3
What is pruritus ani?
itching of the anogenital area
What is the etiology of pruritus ani?
contact dermatitis (soaps, colognes, douches, contraceptives, scented toilet paper)
irritating secretions (diarrhea, vaginal discharge, trichomoniasis)
infectious disorders (candidiasis, dermatophytosis, erythrasma, pinworms)
dermatologic disorders (intertrigo, seborrheic dermatitis , psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus, lichen sclerosus)
hemorrhoids
nerve impingement of lumbosacral spine
SCC of anus
paget disease
What is the clinical presentation of pruritus ani?
anal pruritus
+/- erythema, fissuring, maceration, lichenification, excoriations
What is the diagnostic workup of pruritus ani?
wet mount → trichimoniasis, yeast
stool → pinworms
wood lamp → coral red fluorescence with erythrasma
spinal radiograph → spinal disease
What is the management and appropriate referral of pruritus ani?
pramoxine cream or lotion
hydrocortisone-pramoxine cream, lotion or ointment
capsaicin
balneol perianal cleansing lotion
tucks premoistened pads, ointment or cream

apply after a bowel movement

no referral
What are the complications and prognosis of pruritus ani?
often persistent or recurrent
What is the patient education of pruritus ani?
practice proper anal hygiene
change underwear daily
What is proctitis?
inflammation of anal and rectal mucosa
What is the etiology of proctitis?
INFECTIOUS:
usually STI via anal intercourse → gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, HSV, condylomata acuminata

NON-INFECTIOUS:
fissures, fistulas, abscesses, ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease, colorectal cancer
What is the clinical presentation of proctitis?
anorectal discomfort
tenesmus
constipation
mucus or bloody discharge
other symptoms dependent on etiology
What is the diagnostic workup of proctitis?
dependent on suspected etiology
GCCHDNA
RPR
HSV culture
biopsy for warts
What is the management, appropriate referral, and patient education for proctitis?
dependent on underlying cause
gonorrhea → ceftriaxone
chlamydia → doxycycline
syphilis → benzanthine penicillin
HSV → acyclovir
condylomata acuminata → cryosurgery, excision, etc.
What are the complications and prognosis of proctitis?
if untreated → abscesses, strictures, fistulas
What is rectal prolapse?
protrusion through the anus of some or all layers of the rectum
What is the etiology of rectal prolapse?
mucosal prolapse (common):
hemorrhoids

full prolapse (uncommon):
chronic constipation + weakened pelvic support (especially elderly, paraplegic, psychotic)
trauma
surgery
What is the clinical presentation of rectal prolapse?
rectal prolapse
intially reduces spontaneously after defecation
over time becomes chronically prolapsed
mucous discharge
bleeding
anal sphincter weakness
incontinence
What is the diagnostic workup of rectal prolapse?
none
What is the management, appropriate referral, and patient education of rectal prolapse?
1. manual reduction
2. rectal exam to confirm complete reduction
3. apply lubricant and gauze tape over anal opening for several hours following reduction
4. refer for colonoscopy or surgical consult
5. prevent constipation
6. if severe, cannot be reduced, recurs after reduction, suspected ischemia or necrosis → emergency surgical consult and hospitalization
What are the complications and prognosis of rectal prolapse?
superficial ulceration
venous engorgement
thrombosis
rectal incarceration, strangulation, ischemia and necrosis
What is a perirectal abscess?
abscess near rectal wall
may be ischiorectal, intersphincteric, or supralevator
What is the etiology of perirectal abscess?
blocked gland
infected fissure
STI
Crohn's disease (36%)
DM
leukemia
malignancy
What is the clinical presentation of a perirectal abscess?
pain
fever
mucous or bloody discharge with bowel movement
fluctuant mass palpable along rectal wall
What is the diagnostic workup of a perirectal abscess?
none
What is the management, appropriate referral, and patient education of a perirectal abscess?
1. if uncomplicated → I&D under local anesthesia
2. if complicated → surgical consult
3. consider admitting if ill-appearing, febrile, elderly, obese, debilitated
4. FU d/t high incidence of fistula
What are the complications and prognosis of a perirectal abscess?
sepsis
high incidence of fistula
What is an anal fissure?
linear or rocket-shaped anal ulcers <5mm in length
What is the etiology of anal fissures?
trauma during defecation → straining, constipation

if off midline → suspect Crohn's disease, TB, syphilis, HIV, anal carcinoma
What is the clinical presentation of anal fissures?
severe tearing pain during defecation → throbbing discomfort → constipation due to fear of recurrent pain
mild hematochezia → blood on stool or toilet paper
anal fissure → looks like crack in epithelium
What is the diagnostic workup of anal fissures?
none
What is the management, appropriate referral, and patient education of anal fissures?
topical anesthetics → EMLA cream
sitz baths
treat constipation → fiber supplements
What are the complications and prognosis of anal fissures?
chronic anal fissures
fibrosis
skin tags

healing occurs within 2 months
recurrence occurs in 40%
What are hemorrhoids?
dilated veins in lower rectum or anus
What is the etiology of hemorrhoids?
straining, constipation, low fiber diet, obesity, pregnancy, prolonged sitting, ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease
What is the clinical presentation of hemorrhoids?
discomfort
hematochezia
protrusion

internal:
normally painless (above dentate line → not innervated by cutaneous nerves)
but can cause irritation and pruritus if prolapse
mucus discharge
bleeding

external hemorrhoids:
visible
What is the diagnostic workup of hemorrhoids?
positive fecal occult blood
anoscopy for internal hemorrhoids
hematocrit if excessive bleeding or anemia suspected
What is the management, referral, and patient education of hemorrhoids?
1. treat constipation → high fiber diet, increase fluid intake with meals, bran fiber, commercial bulk laxatives
2. if refractory to above treatment → injection sclerotherapy, rubber band ligation, or application of electrocoagulation
3. if severe bleeding → surgical excision
4. refer if conservative treatment fails or surgery required
What are the complications and prognosis of hemorrhoids?
internal hemorrhoids may become strangulated
external hemorrhoids may become thrombosed

recurrence common unless diet altered
What is the difference between internal and external hemorrhoids?
internal hemorrhoids occur above dentate/pectinate line while external hemorrhoids occur below it
What are the 4 stages of internal hemorrhoids?
•Stage I - Internal hemorrhoids that bleed
•Stage II – Internal hemorrhoids that cause bleeding and prolapse with straining but return to their resting point by themselves
•Stage III - Internal hemorrhoids that bleed and prolapse with straining and require manual effort for replacement into the anal canal
•Stage IV - Internal hemorrhoids that do not return into the anal canal and are therefore constantly outside
thrombosed external hemorrhoids
What is hepatitis A?
acute infectious disease of the liver
hepatitis A ETIOLOGY
hepatitis A virus (RNA virus)
route of transmission = fecal/oral
risk factors = undercooked shellfish, crowding, poor sanitation, IV drugs
hepatitis A CLINICAL PRESENTATION
30 day incubation
more severe in adults than children
abrupt or insidious onset
prodrome → fatigue, nausea,
vomiting, diarrhea or constipation, anorexia, upper respiratory symptoms, myalgia, arthralgia, aversion to smoking
low-grade fever
jaundice
RUQ or epigastric pain → mild, constant, worse with exertion or jarring
hepatomegaly and tenderness
splenomegaly
enlarged cervical and epitrochlear lymph nodes
hepatitis A DIAGNOSTIC WORKUP
WBC → normal to low
markedly elevated AST/ALT
proteinuria
bilirubinuria
elevated AST/ALT → elevated BILI and ALK PHOS
positive IgM and IgG
hepatitis A PREVENTION
hepatitis A vaccine
hand washing
hepatitis A COMPLICATIONS
acute cholecystitis
if concomitant hepC → fulminant hepatitis
hepatitis A PROGNOSIS
subsides in 2-3 weeks
complete recovery in 3 months
may persist for 1 year
does not cause chronic hepatitis
hepatitis A MANAGEMENT
symptomatic:
bed rest if symptoms marked
IV 10% glucose if vomiting marked
meals as tolerated
avoid alcohol, exercise, hepatotoxic drugs

HOSPITALIZATION:
1. encephalopathy
2. INR >1.6
3. unable to maintain hydration
What is the etiology of spontaneous bacterial peritoninitis?
absence of apparent intra-abdominal infection

cirrhosis complicated by ascites (20-30%)

gram-negative (klebsiella, E coli)
gram-positive (strep pneumo, viridans strep, enterococci)
NO anaerobic bacteria
What is the clinical presentation of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
history of chronic liver disease and ascites
fever
abdominal pain
signs of chronic liver disease
change in mental status
sudden worsening of renal function
What is the diagnostic workup of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
paracentesis → ascitic fluid
cell count w/ diff → PMN >250 cells/mcL diagnostic
BC
What is the management, referral, and patient education for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
1. antibiotics if PMN >250 → 3rd generation cephalosporin → cephtriaxone
2. repeat paracentesis after 48 hours → adjust antibiotics if PMN not decreased
3. IV albumin if at risk for kidney injury
4. prevention → ciprofloxacin daily x 1 year
What are the complications and prognosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
recurrence within 1 year (70%)

kidney injury (40%) → major cause of death

30% mortality (<10% if treated early)
Define ascites.
pathological accumulation of fluid in peritoneal cavity
What is alcoholic hepatitis?
acute or chronic inflammation and parenchymal necrosis of the liver due to excessive alcohol intake
What is the etiology of alcoholic hepatitis?
excessive alcohol intake
>80g/day for men
What is the clinical presentation of alcohol hepatitis?
history of >50g alcohol daily x 10 years
recent history of heavy drinking
fever
nausea
anorexia
jaundice
RUQ pain
hepatomegaly and tenderness
possible splenomegaly or ascites
may be asymptomatic or progress to cirrhosis
What is the diagnostic workup of alcohol hepatitis?
elevated AST → rarely above 300 units/L
AST 2x > ALT
elevated ALK PHOS → rarely 3x above normal
elevated bilirubin

leukocytopenia or leukocytosis
folate deficiency anemia
hypoalbuminemia
prolonged PT
What is the management, patient education, and referral for alcoholic hepatitis?
1. d/c alcohol
2. treat deficiencies if present


HOSPITALIZATION:
1. inability to maintain hydration
2. total bilirubin >10mg/dL
3. INR >1.6
4. hepatic encephalopathy
What are the complications and prognosis of alcoholic hepatitis?
reversible but most common cause of cirrhosis
What is the prevention of alcoholic hepatitis?
avoid alcohol
Excessive alcohol can result in?
alcoholic hepatitis
fatty liver
cirrhosis
What are the most common causes of cirrhosis?
1. alcoholism
2. hepC
What is fatty liver?
abnormal accumulation of triglycerides in hepatic cells
What is the etiology of fatty liver?
alcoholic fatty liver → excessive alcohol intake

non-alcoholic fatty liver:
obesity
obstructive sleep apnea
hypertriglyceridemia
endocrinopathies → DM, Cushing's syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome, hypopituitarism
medications → corticosteroids, TPN
poisons
starvation and refeeding syndrome

risk increased if psoriasis
What is the clinical presentation of fatty liver?
often asymptomatic
mild RUQ pain
hepatomegaly
What is the diagnostic workup of fatty liver?
mildly elevated AST/ALT
mildly elevated ALK PHOS
AST/ALT ratio >1.0 in non-alcohlic fatty liver
liver biopsy → steatosis
What is the management, patient education, and referral for fatty liver?
1. treat underlying cause
2. dietary fat restriction
3. exercise
4. weight loss
What is metabolic syndrome?
obesity
HTN
hypertriglyceridemia
DM
*What does the AST/ALT ratio tell you?
think alcoholic hepatitis if >2.0
think viral hepatitis if <1.0
What is hemocromatosis?
autosomal recessive disease characterized by increased iron absorption and subsequent iron overload
What is the etiology of hemochromatosis?
autosomal recessive genetic disorder → increased iron absorption in duodenum → accumulation of iron (hemosiderin) in pituitary, heart, liver, pancreas, kidneys, adrenals, testes

rarely recognized until 5th decade
What is the clinical presentation of hemochromatosis?
usually asymptomatic
FH or abnormal iron studies
onset >50y/o
fatigue, arthralgias
skin pigmentation, cardiomegaly, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, DM, impotence, arthritis
What is the management, patient education, and referral for hemochromatosis?
1. avoid dietary iron (red meat), raw shellfish, alcohol, iron supplement, vitamin C
2. therapeutic phlebotomy → 1-2 units weekly
3. liver biopsy to determine if cirrhosis present
4. genetic testing for 1st-degree relatives
5. monitor hct and iron studies
What are the complications and prognosis for hemochromatosis?
CHF
hepatic insufficiency
pancreatic insufficiency
hypogonadism
What is the diagnostic workup of hemochromatosis?
elevated IRON, TIBC, and FERR
mildly elevated AST and ALK PHOS
What is Wilson's disease?
autosomal recessive disorder characterized by abnormal copper accumulation
What is the etiology of Wilson's disease?
autosomal recessive genetic disorder → excessiveabsorption of copper in small intestine → decreased secretion of copper by liver → accumulation of copper in liver, brain, kidney, and cornea

usually presents <40y/o
What is the clinical presentation of Wilson's disease?
consider if:
adolescent with hepatitis, splenomegaly, coombs-negative hemolytic anemia, portal HTN, neurological or psychological abnormalities, chronic or fulminant hepatitis
What is the diagnostic workup of Wilson's disease?
↓ serum ceruloplasmin
↑ urinary copper
What is the management of Wilson's disease?
1. restrict dietary copper (mushrooms, organs, shellfish, nuts, chocolate)
2. oral penicillamine
3. refer all patients
Kaiser-Fleischer brownish ring at rim of cornea → Wilson's disease
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?
hepatic vein obstruction
What is the etiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome?
hereditary or acquired hypercoagulable state → polycythemia vera, myeloproliferative disease, FVL, protein S or C deficiency,
What is the clinical presentation of Budd-Chiari syndrome?
may be fulminant, acute, subacute, or chronic (usually subacute)
jaundice
RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, tenderness
splenomegaly
ascites
What is the diagnostic workup of Budd-Chiari syndrome?
imaging → occlusion/absence of flow in hepatic vein(s) or inferior vena cava
What are the complications of Budd-Chiari syndrome?
hepatocellular carcinoma
What is the clinical presentation of cirrhosis?
What is cholelithiasis?
gallstones

may be cholesterol or calcium bilirubinate (<20%)
What is the etiology of cholelithiasis?
affect women > men
highest rates if >60y/o, Mexican American, Native American
What are the risk factors of cholelithiasis?
>60y/o
Mexican American
Native American
obesity, especially women
rapid weight loss
DM
cirrhosis, HepC in men
hypertriglyceridemia
drugs
Crohn's
prolonged fasting
hormone replacement therapy
What is the clinical presentation of cholelithiasis?
often asymptomatic and discovered incidentally
epigastric or RUQ pain → severe pain, radiation to RT scapula, episodic
What is the diagnostic workup of cholelithiasis?
ultrasound
What is the management of cholelithiasis?
1. if asymptomatic + no indications for cholecystectomy → lifestyle modifications
2. if asymptomatic + >3cm, Native American, bariatric surgery candidate, heart transplant candidate → cholecystectomy
3. if symptomatic → cholecystectomy
4. if cholecystectomy refused → oral cheno- and ursodeoxycholic acids x 2 years to dissolve stones
What are the complications and prognosis of cholelithiasis?
gallstone ileus

recurrence common in cholecystectomy not performed or ursodeoxycholic acids discontinued
What is the prevention of cholelithiasis?
low-carb diet
physical activity
caffeine (women)
magnesium and unsaturated fats (men)
aspirin, NSAIDs
cholecystectomy
What is cholecystitis?
inflammation of the gallbladder
What is the etiology of acute cholecystitis?
gallstones (90%) → gallstone obstructs cystic duct → inflammation of gallbladder

suspect acalculous cholecystitis if RUQ pain following surgery or in critically ill + no oral intake for prolonged period

infection in AIDs patient
What are the risk factors of acute cholecystitis?
gallstones
AIDs
surgery or critically ill + no oral intake for prolonged period
What is the clinical presentation of acute cholecystitis?
RUQ or epigastric pain → steady, severe, precipitated by large fatty meal, lasting 12-18 hours
fever
nausea and vomiting
Murphy sign
rebound tenderness
palpable gallbladder
What is the diagnostic workup of acute cholecystitis?
CBC → leukocytosis
abdominal x-ray → radiopaque gallstones (15%)
RUQ ultrasound → gallbladder wall thickening, pericholecystic fluid, sonographic murphy sign
HIDA scan → obstructed cystic duct
What is the management of acute cholecystitis?
HOSPITALIZATION:
1. IV antibiotics
2. analgesics
3. NPO
4. cholecystectomy
5.
What are the complications and prognosis of cholecystitis?
chronic cholecystitis
gangrene of gallbladder
What is the patient education and prevention of cholecystitis?
cholecystectomy
HIDA scan only reliable if bilirubin ...
<5 mg/dL
Chronic Cholecystitis
caused by recurrent acute cholecystitis or chronic irritation of gallbaldder by stones
treat with cholecystectomy
complications include pancreatitis, gallbladder carcinoma
What is choledocolithiasis?
gallstone in common bile duct
What is the etiology of choledocolithiasis?
gallstones (15%) → obstruction of common bile duct → biliary pain and jaundice
What is the clinical presentation of choledocolithiasis?
history of biliary pain or jaundice
RUQ or epigastric pain → sudden onset, severe, radiation to RT scapula
fever
nausea & vomiting
jaundice
RUQ tenderness
hepatomegaly
What is the diagnostic workup of choledocolithiasis?
increased AST/ALT
increased serum bilirubin
bilirubinuria
ERCP or PCT
What is the management of choledocolithiasis?
HOSPITALIZATION:
1. assess liver function → correct prolonged PT with IV vitamin K → ERCP → endoscopic sphincterotomy → stone extraction → cholecystectomy
What are the complications and prognosis of choledocolithiasis?
pancreatitis
if obstruction >30 days → cirrhosis → hepatic failure with portal HTN
What is the patient education and prevention of choledocolithiasis?
cholecystectomy
What is Charcot triad?
classic presentation of cholangitis → biliary pain + fever + jaundice
What is cholangitis?
infection of the common bile duct
What is the etiology of cholangitis?
choledocolithiasis
What is the clinical presentation of cholangitis?
Charcot triad → biliary pain + fever + jaundice
What are the diagnostic criteria for cholangitis?
Charcot triad (biliary pain + fever + jaundice)
or
2 elements of the Charcot triad + lab evidence of inflammation (elevated WBC, elevated CRP), elevated liver function tests, and evidence of biliary dilation or obstruction
What is the management of cholangitis?
HOSPITALIZATION:
same as choledocolithiasis + IV antibiotics
What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?
diffuse inflammation of the biliary tract leading to fibrosis and strictures
primary sclerosing cholangitis ETIOLOGY
associated with ulcerative colitis, less with Crohn's
rare
men 20-50y/o
primary sclerosing cholangitis RISK FACTORS
ulcerative colitis
Crohn's disease
FH

smoking = decreased risk
primary sclerosing cholangitis CLINICAL PRESENTATION
progressive jaundice
fatigue, pruritus, indigestion, anorexia
symptoms of cholestasis
primary sclerosing cholangitis DIAGNOSTIC WORKUP
elevated ALK PHOS
magnetic resonance cholangiography → segmental fibrosis of bile ducts with saccular dilations between strictures
primary sclerosing cholangitis MANAGEMENT
antibiotics for cholangitis
balloon dilation
stenting

cancer surveillance

liver transplant
primary sclerosing cholangitis COMPLICATIONS
PROGNOSIS
osteoporosis
malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins
gallstones etc.

cholangiocarcinoma (20%) → CA 19-9 + RUQ US annually for serveillance

colorectal cancer if ulcerative colitis → annual colonoscopy

12-17 year survival rate
What is pancreatitis?
inflammation of the pancreas
acute pancreatitis ETIOLOGY
MOST COMMON:
biliary tract disease
alcoholism

LESS COMMON:
idiopathic
genetics
abdominal trauma
infection
hypercalcemia
hypertriglyercidemia
chylomicronemia
vasculitis
neoplasma (rare)
drugs
peritoneal dialysis
acute pancreatitis RISK FACTORS
smoking increases risk of alcoholic and idiopathic causes
older age
obesity
acute pancreatitis CLINICAL PRESENTATION
epigastric pain → abrupt onset, steady, severe, boring, deep, radiation to back, history of episodes, associated with heavy meal or alcohol intake, better by sitting and leaning forward, worse by walking or lying down
fever
weakness
sweating
nausea and vomiting
hypotension
tachycardia
pallor, cool clammy skin, mild jaundice
abdominal distension and tenderness, guarding, rigidity, rebound
acute pancreatitis DIAGNOSTIC WORKUP
elevated amylase and lipase 3x above normal within 24 hours
lipase more accurate than amylase
lipase remains elevated longer than amylase
leukocytosis etc
abdominal radiographs → possible gallstone, sentinal loop, cutoff sign,
What are the ranson criteria for acute pancreatitis?
3 or more of the following predicts severe course complicated by pancreatic necrosis:
>55y/o
WBC >16,000/mcL
glucose >200 mg/dL
LD >350 units/L
AST >250 units/L

Worsening prognosis if develop any of the following in the first 48 hours:
Hct decreases >10%
calcium <8 mg/dL
BUN increase >5%
arterial PO2 <60 mmHg
base deficit >4 mEq/L
fluid sequestration >6 L

mortality rates based on number of above criteria present:
0-2 = 1%
3-4 = 16%
5-6 = 40%
7-8 = 100%
What is the clinical significance of the ranson criteria?
predicts prognosis and mortality rate of pancreatitis
What is pancreatitis?
inflammation of the pancreas
acute pancreatitis ETIOLOGY
MOST COMMON:
biliary tract disease
alcoholism

LESS COMMON:
idiopathic
genetics
abdominal trauma
infection
hypercalcemia
hypertriglyercidemia
chylomicronemia
vasculitis
neoplasma (rare)
drugs
peritoneal dialysis
acute pancreatitis RISK FACTORS
smoking increases risk of alcoholic and idiopathic causes
older age
obesity
acute pancreatitis CLINICAL PRESENTATION
epigastric pain → abrupt onset, steady, severe, boring, deep, radiation to back, history of episodes, associated with heavy meal or alcohol intake, better by sitting and leaning forward, worse by walking or lying down
fever
weakness
sweating
nausea and vomiting
hypotension
tachycardia
pallor, cool clammy skin, mild jaundice
abdominal distension and tenderness, guarding, rigidity, rebound
acute pancreatitis DIAGNOSTIC WORKUP
elevated amylase and lipase 3x above normal within 24 hours
lipase more accurate than amylase
lipase remains elevated longer than amylase
leukocytosis etc
abdominal radiographs → possible gallstone, sentinal loop, cutoff sign,
What are the ranson criteria for acute pancreatitis?
3 or more of the following predicts severe course complicated by pancreatic necrosis:
>55y/o
WBC >16,000/mcL
glucose >200 mg/dL
LD >350 units/L
AST >250 units/L

Worsening prognosis if develop any of the following in the first 48 hours:
Hct decreases >10%
calcium <8 mg/dL
BUN increase >5%
arterial PO2 <60 mmHg
base deficit >4 mEq/L
fluid sequestration >6 L

mortality rates based on number of above criteria present:
0-2 = 1%
3-4 = 16%
5-6 = 40%
7-8 = 100%
What is the clinical significance of the ranson criteria?
predicts prognosis and mortality rate of pancreatitis
What is hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and renal failure
What is the etiology of HUS?
associated with E. coli 0157:H7 → produces shiga-like toxin → damages endothelial cells → causing thrombus formation → platelet aggregation → thrombocytosis + microangiopathic hemolytic anemia; commonly affects children
What is the clinical presentation of HUS?
influenza-like or GI prodrome
bloody diarrhea
hematuria
oliguria
actue renal failure (because kidneys require high volume of blood flow)
What is the diagnostic work-up of HUS?
CBC → anemia, thrombocytopenia
RETIC → high
blood smear → schistocytes
indirect BILI → high
LD → high
CREAT → high
PT → normal
PTT → normal
bleeding time → prolonged
E. coli O157:H7 → positive
What are the complications of HUS?
permanent kidney damage
death
What is the managment of HUS?
1. hospitalize → observe
2. supportive care
3. dialysis if necessary
4. antibiotics and platelet transfusions contraindicated
What are the 4 types of diarrhea?
secretory
osmotic
exudative
altered intestinal transit time
What is the duration for acute and chronic diarrhea?
acute <2 weeks
chronic >2 weeks
Define diarrhea.
increased number of bowel movements (>3 per day) or liquidity of feces
What is the etiology of acute diarrhea?
NON-INFLAMMATORY:
viruses → norovirus, rotavirus (schools, nursing homes, cruiseships)
protozoa → giardia lamblia, cryptosporidium, cyclospora
non-invasive bacteria:
-preformed enterotoxin → s. aureus, b. cereus, c. perfringens
-enterotoxin production → v. cholerae, ETEC

INFLAMMATORY:
viral → CMV
protozoa → entamoeba histolytica
invasive bacteria → shigella, campylobacter jejuni, salmonella, EIEC, yersinia, listeria, gonorrhea, chlamydia
toxin-producing bacteria → CDIF (recent antibiotics), vibrio parahaemolyticus

can also be caused by drugs
What is the clinical presentation of acute diarrhea?
<2 weeks in duration

NON-INFLAMMATORY:
diarrhea typically mild, large volume
stool → watery, non-bloody
nausea and vomiting
periumbilical cramps and bloating

INFLAMMATORY:
fever
diarrhea typically small volume (<1L/day)
stool → bloody, pus
LLQ cramps, urgency, tenesmus
What is the diagnostic workup of acute diarrhea?
NON-INFLAMMATORY:
none unless severe or persists >7 days
negative fecal leukocytes

INFLAMMATORY:
positive fecal leukocytes or lactoferrin
stool culture
O&P
E coli 0157:H7
CDIF if risk factors
What is the management, referral, and patient education for acute diarrhea?
NON-INFLAMMATORY:
1. self-limited within 5 days
2. rehydration therapy → 1 liter water, 1 tbsp sugar, 1 tsp salt
3. antidiarrheals → loperamide
4. peptol-bismol → traveler's diarrhea, viral enteritis
5. if persists >7 days → order fecal leukocytes or lactoferrin, stool culture, O&P

INFLAMMATORY:
1. do not treat with antidiarrheals
2. antibiotic treatment depends on underlying cause
-if empiric → consider if bloody stool, severe fever, tenesmus, fecal lactoferrin (but not due to E coli)
-if specific → shigellosis, cholera, extraintestinal salmonellosis, traveler's diarrhea, C difficile infection, giardiasis, and amebiasis

HOSPITALIZATION:
severe dehydration
severe or worsening bloody diarrhea
severe or wrosening diarrhea in >70y/o or immunocompromised
severe abdominal pain
severe infection (high fever, rash, leukocytosis) or sepsis
What are the complications and prognosis of acute diarrhea?
severe dehydration → hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis
toxic colitis
sepsis
Bacteria of >14 days in duration can be caused by bacteria, true or false?
false except for CDIF
What is the non-pharmacologic management of diarrhea?
1. adequate oral fluids with carbs and lytes (oral rehydration solution → 1L water, 1 tbsp sugar, 1 tsp salt)
2. drink tea or flat carbonated beverages
3. eat soft easily digested foods (bananas, applesauce, soup, crackers, toast, rice)
3. avoid fiber, fats, milk products, caffeine, alcohol
List malabsorption disorders.
Whipple's disease
short bowel syndrome
celiac sprue
What is Whipple's disease?
rare multisystemic malabsorption disorder caused by bacteria Tropheryma whippelii
What is the etiology of Whipple's disease?
bacteria Tropheryma whippelii
source of infection unknown

commonly affects men 40-70y/o
What is the clinical presentation of Whipple's disease?
arthralgias → migratory, non-deforming, typically first symptom
intermittent low-grade fever
abdominal pain
distension
flatulence
chronic diarrhea
steatorrhea (excess fat in stool)
malabsorption
weight loss
lymphadenopathy
hyperpigmentation of sun-exposed areas
peripheral edema
What is the diagnostic workup of Whipple's disease?
possible abnormalities include:
iron deficiency anemia
B12/folate deficiency anemia
decreased calcium, magnesium, cholesterol, vitamin A, vitamin D
hypoalbuminemia
increased fecal fat
endoscopy → biopsy of duodenum → periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive macrophages with characteristic bacillus
confirm by PCR
What is the management, referral, and patient education for Whipple's disease?
1. antibiotics → TMP-SMX x 1 year
2. if severely ill → IV ceftriaxone x 2 weeks, then TMP-SMX x 1 year
3. repeat duodenal biopsy at 6 and 12 months
What are the complications and prognosis of Whipple's disease?
CHF
valvular regurgitation (heart murmur)
CNS involvement (lethargy, dementia, myoclonus, seizures, coma

recovery in 1-3 months
relapse in 33% when d/c treatment
What is celiac disease?
permanent dietary disorder caused by immunlogic response to gluten
What is the etiology of celiac disease?
autoimmune → immunologic response to gluten → diffuse damage to proximal small intestinal mucosa → malabsorption

1:100 whites
What is the clinical presentation of celiac disease?
symptoms often present for 10 years before diagnosis
weakness
abdominal distention
chronic diarrhea
steatorrhea
weight loss
muscle wasting
growth retardation
atypically fatigue, depression, short stature, delayed puberty, amenorrhea, infertility, dermatitis herpetiformis (pruritic papulovesicles over the extensor surfaces of the extremities and over the trunk, scalp, and neck)
What is the diagnostic workup of celiac disease?
SCREENING:
positive IgA endomysial antibody test
positive IgA tTG antibody test

CONFIRMATION:
endoscopy → distal duodenum or proximal jejunum mucosal biopsy


increased fecal fat



possible abnormalities include:
iron, B12, and folate deficiency
hypocalcemia
mild increased AST/ALT
elevated alk phos
hypoalbuminemia
decreased vitamin A or D
prolonged PT
What is the management, referral, and patient education of celiac disease?
1. gluten-free diet → avoid wheat, rye, barley
2. avoid dairy until GI symptoms improve (often lactose intolerant)
3. avoid dietary supplements initially
4. bone scan to assess for osteoporosis → calcium, vitamin D and bisphosphonate if positive
5. monitor IgA endomysial antibody and IgA tTG antibody → negative after 6-12 months of gluten-free diet
6. dietician/support groups
What are the complications and prognosis of celiac disease?
COMPLICATIONS:
associated autoimmune disorders
refractory to gluten-free diet


PROGNOSIS:
excellent
improvement within few weeks if strict gluten-free diet
What is gluten?
storage protein found in certain grains (wheat, rhy, barley)
What is short bowel syndrome?
disorder of malabsorption due to removal of segment of small intestine
What is the etiology of short bowel syndrome?
surgical resection of small intestine

d/t Crohn's disease, trauma, volvulus, mesenteric infarction, tumor, radiation enteritis
What is the clinical presentation of short bowel syndrome?
symptoms dependent on site and length of resection

terminal ileum → malabsorption of bile salts, vitamin B12, fat-soluble vitamins

extensive small bowel → diarrhea, weight loss,
What is the diagnostic workup of short bowel syndrome?
vitamin deficiencies
increased fecal fat
What is the management of short bowel syndrome?
dependent on location and severity of resection:
low-fat diet
vitamin B12 IM injections
bile salt binding resins
vitamins
antidiarrheals
PPIs
parenteral nutrition
What is the management of laxative abuse syndrome?
refer to mental health professional, dietician, and support groups
What is the prophylaxis and treatment for traveler's diarrhea?
PROPHYLAXIS:
1. not recommended unless comorbidities → heart disease in elderly, IBD, IBS, DM, HIV, immunosuppressant therapy
2. daily ciprofloxacin
3. start upon arrival and continue 1-2 days after leaving
4. not recommended if travel >3 weeks

TREATMENT:
1. usually self-limited occuring within 1 week of travel
2. supply traveler in case significant diarrhea develops
3. loperamide → 4mg loading dose then 2mg after each loose stool up to 16mg/day (only if no fever or bloody stool)
4. single oral dose of ciprofloxacin
5. oral rehydration solution
What is the etiology of traveler's diarrhea?
bacteria (80%)
most common → ETEC, shigella, campylobacter jejuni
less common → Aeromonas, Salmonella, noncholera vibriones, E histolytica, G lamblia
sometimes caused by virus (rotavirus, adenovirus)
associated with change in climate, living conditions/sanitation, food/drink, bowel flora
What is a fecal impaction?
large mass of dry hard stool in the rectum due to chronic constipation
What is the etiology of fecal impaction?
chronic constipation d/t:
colon neurogenic disorders
spinal cord disorders
severe psychiatric disease
prolonged bed rest
medications (opioids)
What is the clinical presentation of fecal impaction?
decreased appetitie
nausea and vomiting
abdominal pain and distention
paradoxical diarrhea (fluids leak around impaction)
firm feces palpable on DRE
What is the management of fecal impaction?
enemas (saline, mineral oil, diatrizoate)
digital disruption
prevent constipation (stool softeners, regular bowel movements)
What is the clinical presentation of acute upper GI bleed?
hematemesis → bright red or brown "coffee grounds"
melena (usually)
hematochezia (if massive bleed)
What is the etiology of acute upper GI bleed?
peptic ulcer disease (80%)
cirrhosis → portal HTN → esophageal varices, gastric or duodenal varices, portal HTN gastropathy (10-20%)
mallory-weiss tear (5-10%)
vascular anomalies (7%)
gastric neoplasms (1%)
erosive gastritis
erosive esophagitis
Why should you be wary when ordering a hct if suspect active bleeding?
poor early indicator of bleed (just because normal does not mean that there is no blood loss)
takes 24-72 hours to normalize
What is the management of upper GI bleed?
1. 80% self-limited
2. assess hemodynamic status → BP, HR
3. IV fluids
4. labs → CBC, CREAT, liver enzymes, PT/INR, type&screen
5. packed RBCs, platelets, and FFP as needed
6. NG tube
7. endoscopy
What is the anatomical distinction between upper and lower GI bleed?
ligament of Treitz
What is the clinical presentation of active lower GI bleed?
maroon stool = small intestine or RT colon
hematochezia
-bright red streaking = anorectal
-bright red large = colon
*but remember 10% are d/t massive upper GI bleed
What is the etiology of active lower GI bleed?
if <50y/o:
infectious colitis
anorectal disease → hemorrhoids (10%), rectal ulcers (9%)
IBD

if >50y/o:
diverticulosis (50%)
malignancy (7%)
vascular ectasias (3%)
ischemia

20% idiopathic
What is the management of active lower GI bleed?
1. initial management same as upper GI bleed
2. NG aspiration to exclude upper GI source
3. if <45y/o + small volume bleed → anoscopy or sigmoidoscopy
4. if large bleed → colonoscopy
5. nuclear bleeding scan and angiography
What is an occult GI bleed?
bleeding unapparent to patient
What is the etiology of occult GI bleed?
35-55% upper GI bleed
15-30% colon

1. neoplasm
2. vascular abnormalities
3. acid-peptic lesions → esophagitis, peptic ulcer disease, hiatal hernia erosions
4. infections → TB, hookworm
5. medications → aspirin, NSAIDs
6. IBD
How is an occult GI bleed detected?
fecal occult blood (FOBT, FIT)
iron deficiency anemia in absence of visible blood loss
What is the management of occult GI bleed?
1. if asymptomatic + routine colorectal cancer screening → colonoscopy
2. if symptomatic → upper endoscopy + colonoscopy
3. if <60y/o + still unexplained despite above → further eval of small intestine
4. if >60y/o + still unexplained → empiric trial of iron supplementation → further eval if refractory
5. d/c antiplatelet agents
What is the pathophysiology of Gilbert's syndrome?
familial form of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

decreased activity of uridine diphosphate-glucuronyl transferase (which normally conjugates bilirubin) → unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
What is the clinical presentation of Gilbert's syndrome?
usually asymptomatic
mild jaundice if fasting, exertion, stress, infection
unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
normal LFTs
What is the pathophysiology of hemolysis?
increased destruction of RBCs → increase in unconjugated bilirubin → unconjucated hyperbilirubinemia
What is the ddx for indirect hyperbilirubinemia?
indirect = unconjugated

1. physiologic → neonatal jaundice
2. increased production → hemolytic disorders → sickle cell anemia, G6PD deficiency, hematomas, drug rxn (probenecid, rifampin), transfusion rxn
3. impaired uptake → CHF, drugs, contrast
4. impaired conjugation → Gilbert's syndrome, Crigler-Najjar syndrome
What is the ddx for direct hyperbilirubinemia?
direct = conjugated

1. hepatocellular disease → hepatitis, hemochromatosis, Wilson's disease, acute fatty liver of pregnancy, hepatotoxicity
2. biliary obstruction → choledocolithiasis, cholangitis, primary biliary cirrhosis, pancreatitis
3. congenital disorders → Dubin-Johnson syndrome, Rotor's syndrome
What is the pathophysiology of jaundice in biliary obstruction?
biliary obstruction → impaired flow of bile into intestine → bile contains conjugated bilirubin → conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
What is the pathophysiology of jaundice in hepatocellular disease?
hepatocellular disease → impaired secretion of conjugated bilirubin into bile → conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
List categories of tests to think about when evaluating the liver.
1. synthetic liver function
2. excretory liver function and cholestasis
3. hepatocellular injury
4. detoxifying liver function and serum ammonia
5. specific diseases
What is included in an LFT panel?
ALT
AST
bilirubin
alkaline phosphatase
albumin
What does AST stand for?
aspartate aminotransferase
What does ALT stand for?
alanine aminotransferase
What liver tests are used to evaluate plasma protein synthesis?
albumin
prealbumin
PT/INR (clotting proteins)
What liver tests are used to evaluate hepatocellular injury?
AST
ALT
What liver test is used to evaluate detoxification?
ammonia
What liver tests are used to evaluate cholestasis?
bilirubin
alkaline phosphatase
What is albumin?
major plasma protein
What are the functions of albumin?
maintain oncotic pressure
bind and transport anions, FAs, hormones, and drugs
Why are serum album levels often normal in acute viral hepatitis or drug-related hepatotoxicity?
serum albumin half-life = 20 days
complete cessation of albumin synthesis results in only 25% decrease in serum concentration after 8 days
thus serum albumin concentrations are slow to fall following injury
Why are the indications for ordering albumin?
measure of protein synthetic function
What is the normal range of albumin?
3.5-5.5 grams/dL
What is the significance of a decreased albumin level?
LIVER DYSFUNCTION:
viral hepatitis
hepatic cirrhosis
toxin ingestion

NON-LIVER:
malnutrition
malabsorption
protein loss from gut (nephrotic syndrome)
protein loss from kidney (protein-losing enteropathy)
protein loss from skin (burns)
inflammation (negative acute phase reactant)
volume overload (IV fluids)
What does it mean that albumin is a negative acute phase reactant?
in setting of inflammation, liver produces less albumin
When does hypoalbuminemia produce symptoms?
not until albumin really low (<2-2.5g/dL)
What are the symptoms of hypoalbuminemia?
peripheral edema
pulmonary edema
ascites
What is the significance of hyperalbuminemia?
anabolic steroids

FALSELY ELEVATED:
marked dehydration
ampicillin
heparin
What is the normal range for prealbumin?
19.5-35.8 mg/dL
What are the indications for ordering a prealbumin?
evaluation of protein nutrition
especially to monitor IV or tube feeding
Compare albumin and prealbumin.
both synthesized by liver
both bind and transport solutes

prealbumin → short half life (2 days), levels respond quickly to disease, high % of tryptophan and amino acids
albumin → long half life (20 days), levels respond slowly to disease
What is string sign?
1. radiographic sign seen on contrast GI studies
2. indicates narrowing of bowel loop (potentially dispensible or permanently narrowed)
3. usually seen in terminal ileum in Crohn's disease where bowel loop irritability → severe spasm → may lead to fibrosis and permanent narrowing
4. may also be caused by carcinoid, hypertrophic pyloric sphincter
string sign
What is an apple core lesion?
1. radiographic sign seen on barium enema
2. usually occur in sigmoid colon, sometimes esophagus
3. appears when mass encircles and narrows a tubular structure of the body
4. often caused by adenocarcinoma or lymphoma
apple core lesion
subdiaphragmatic free air
What is subdiaphragmatic free air?
1. radiograph sign seen on abdominal x-ray
2. air beneath diaphragm
3. indicates pneumoperitoneum
4. caused by perforation → most often peptic ulcer perforation
What is a sentinal loop?
1. radiographic sign seen on abdominal x-ray
2. isolated distended loop of bowel near site of inflammation/injury
3. body attempts to localize inflammation → distension caused by local paralysis and accumulation of gas
What is the most common cause of string sign?
Crohn's disease
What is the normal range for total bilirubin?
0.3-1.0 mg/dL
What is the normal range for indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin?
0.2-0.7 mg/dL
What is the norma range for direct (conjugated) bilirubin?
0.1-0.3 mg/dL
Describe bilirubin metabolism.
RBC breakdown in spleen → unconjugated bilirubin released, bound to albumin, and transported to liver → unconjugated bilirubin converted to conjugated bilirubin → conjugated bilirubin secreted into bile and excreted in feces
At what total bilirubin concentration does jaundice develop?
2-4 mg/dL

*normal 0.3-1.0 mg/dL
What does the MELD score stand for?
model for end-stage liver disease score
What does the MELD score consist of and what is its clinical usefulness?
Criteria include:
1. serum total bilirubin mg/dL
2. serum creatinine mg/dL
3. INR

Clinical usefulness:
1. to determine liver transplant allocation in U.S.
2. to predict mortality in cirrhotic patients undergoing non-transplant surgical procedures
-mortality increases 1% for each MELD point up to 20 and 2% for every MELD point over 20
colon cut-off sign
string of pearls sign (small bowel obstruction)
What are the causes of false positive and negative of fecal occult blood?
false positive: aspirin, NSAIDs, fish, poultry, red meat, turnips, horseradish

false negative: vitamin C
What is psyllium?
AKA metamucil
bulk-forming laxative used to treat constipation
What is methycellulose?
used to treat constipation
When should diarrhea NOT be treated with antidiarrheals?
bloody stool
high fever
systemic toxicity
d/c if worsening diarrhea

okay if mild to moderate diarrhea with none of the above
What is the clinical presentation of laxative abuse syndrome?
dehydration
electrolyte imbalance
prolonged use causes constipation
laxative dependency → larger doses of laxative needed to produce same effect on colon
intestinal paralysis, colonic infection, IBS, colon cancer, liver damage
bloody stool → anemia
if recovering → water retention, edema, weight gain
Antibiotics are not recommended in diarrhea caused by?
salmonella
campylobacter
E coli O157:H7
Yersinia
Aeromonas
Why is ipecac no longer used to induce vomiting?
only causes partial evacuation
delays or prevents use of activated charcoal
increases risk of pulmonary aspiration
increases risk of toxic effects on heart
List type of drugs used to treat diarrhea.
antiperistaltic agents
absorbents
bismith subsalicylate
polycarbophil
bile acid sequestrants
bismuth subalicylate (AKA pepto-bismol)
antidiarrheal

MOA:

INDICATIONS:
symptomatic treatment of mild nonspecific diarrhea
adjunct for traveler's diarrhea
adjunct for H pylori

CONTRAINDICATIONS:
children recovering from viral illness due to risk of Reye's syndrome
breast feeding

ADVERSE EFFECTS:
black tongue
black stool

DRUG INTERACTIONS

DOSING:

PATIENT EDUCATION:
List antiperistaltic agents.
loperamide
diphenoxylate
paregoric
loperamide
antiperistaltic agent

MOA:
acts on opioid receptor to inhibit peristalsis and prolong transit time

INDICATIONS:
chronic diarrhea associated wtih IBD
acute nonspecific diarrhea
traveler's diarrhea

CONTRAINDICATIONS:
children <2
breast feeding
abdominal pain w/out diarrhea
bloody diarrhea
diarrhea with high fever
acute dysentary
bacterial enterocolitis
pseudomembranous colitis
acute ulcerative colitis


ADVERSE EFFECTS:
constipation
nausea
abdominal cramps
dizziness

DRUG INTERACTIONS

DOSING:

PATIENT EDUCATION:
List categories of drugs used to treat constipation.
bulk forming agents
surfactants/stool softeners
lubricants
osmotic agents
stimulants
enemas
sugar alcohol/synthetic sugar
Castor oil should be avoided in what patient population?
pregnant women → may stimulate contractions
List bulk forming agents.
psyllium
methylcellulose
polycarbophil
Polycarbophil can be used to treat diarrhea and constipation, true or false?
true
psyllium
Bulk-producing laxative
antidiarrheal
MOA:
Soluble fiber
Absorbs water in intestine to form viscous liquid which promotes peristalsis and reduces transit time
INDICATIONS:
Dietary fiber supplement
Treatment of constipation lasting <1 week

CONTRAINDICATIONS:
Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
Fecal impaction, GI obstruction
Use caution in elderly, swallowing disorders, esophageal disorders

ADVERSE EFFECTS:
Abdominal cramps, constipation, diarrhea, esophageal or bowel obstruction

DRUG INTERACTIONS
None

DOSING:

PATIENT EDUCATION:
Take with 8oz water to prevent choking
What type of drug is docusate?
stool softener
dronabinol (THC)
marijuana derivative

antiemetic
appetite stimulant

INDICATIONS:
chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting
AIDs-related anorexia

CONTRAINDICATIONS:
hypersensitivity
history of schizophrenia, mania, depression
caution if elderly, hepatic disease, seizures, history of substance abuse

ADVERSE EFFECTS:
sedation, dysphoria, vertigo, disorientation, vertigo

PATIENT EDUCATION:
use caution when performing taks that require mental alertness
potential for abuse
may cause withdrawl with abrupt discontinuation
psychiatric monitoring
metoclopramide
INDICATIONS:
symptomatic treatment of GERD or diabetic gastric stasis

MOA:
blocks dopamine receptors in CNS
blocks seratonin receptors
enhances response to Ach in upper GI tract → enhanced motility and accelerated gastric emptying

ADVERSE EFFECTS:
extrapyrimidal symptoms → restlessness,
What causes pruritus in patients with liver disease?
deposition of bile acids in skin
Why does bile acid malabsorption manifest as chronic diarrhea?
larger amounts of bile acids than normal enter colon, stimulating water secretion and intestinal motility, causing symptoms of chronic diarrhea
What occurs first, jaundice or conjuctival icterus?
conjunctival icterus
Where does colon cancer most commonly metastasize to?
liver
Most colon cancers arise from?
adenomas
Which has a greater risk of malignancy, tubular adenomas or villous adenomas?
villous adenomas
What are the risk factors for colon cancer?
>50y/o
hx of adenomatous poyps - villous > tubular
hx of IBD - ulcerative colitis > Crohn's disease
positive FH - first-degree relatives