• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/100

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Mention 5 diseases that can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus!
Impetigo, furunculus, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, food poisoning etc.
Mention 2 toxin-mediated staphylococcal diseases!
toxic shock syndrome (TSS), scalded skin syndrome, food poisoning
Mention 3 toxic products produced by Staphylococcus aureus!
TSST (toxic shock syndrome toxin), enterotoxin, exfoliatin, leukocidins, hemolysins
Which is the most virulent species of Staphylococcus?
S. aureus
Which enzymatic virulence factor is characteristic exclusively for Staphylococcus aureus?
coagulase
How can we identify the source of infection in a staphylococcal food poisoning?
by phage typing
Which antibacterial drug is the first choice in serious infections caused by methycillin
resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) strains?
Vancomycin
In which disease is Staphylococcus saprophyticus considered an obligate pathogen!
cystitis in young women
Which cell constituents determine the group-specific, and the type specific antigens of
Streptococcus pyogenes, respectively?
group specific: C- polysaccharide
type specific: M protein
Mention 3 enzymes produced by Streptococcus pyogenes that enhance the spread of
the bacterial infection in the body!
Streptokinase (fibrinolysin), hyaluronidase, streptodornase (DNAse)
List 3 diseases caused by Streptococcus pyogenes in the skin or in subcutaneous
tissues!
impetigo (pyoderma), cellulitis, erysipelas, fasciitis, myositis
Mention a toxin-mediated streptococcal disease, specify the name of the toxin and its
mechanism of action!
Scarlet fever - erythrogenic toxin – superantigen causing capillary destruction
Mention 2 poststreptococcal diseases!
Glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever, erythema nodosum, chorea minor
Which product of Streptococcus pyogenes has a major pathogenic role in
poststreptococcal diseases?
M protein: may induce hypersensitivity reactions
How long does immunity against scarlet fever exist? Which immune effector
mechanism is involved?
Life-long immunity. Antitoxic antibodies are involved.
What is the drug of first choice in Streptococcus pyogenes infection?
penicilin G
What is the patomechanism of post-streptococcal rheumatic fever?
type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic antibodies
What is the patomechanism of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
type III hypersensitivity (immune complexes)
Which Streptococcus species plays major role in the meningitis of newborn babies?
Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae)
What is (are) the major causative agent(s) for subacute bacterial endocarditis?
viridians streptococci
What are the characteristics of Enterococci that can be used in their identification?
D group polysaccharide antigen; tolerance to bile and hydrolysis of esculin (BEA
medium: bile esculin agar); growth in the presence of 6,5 % NaCl
What are the specific morphologic features of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Gram positive diplococcus, lancet shape, capsule.
Mention 3 diseases that can be caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae!
Pneumonia, meningitis, sinusitis, otitis media, sepsis, (ulcus serpens corneae)
What fast diagnostic procedure can be used in acute Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?
Demonstration of bacteria (intracellular in PMNs) from urethral discharge by Gram
or methylene blue stain; PCR amplification of bacterial DNA
What kind of immunity develops after Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?
Partial immunity of short duration; no protection from reinfection
What are the most important manifestations of disseminated gonorrhoeal infections?!
arthritis, skin eruptions, (endocarditis, meningitis)
What is the major complication of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in newborns? How
can it be prevented?
Blenorrhoea (ophtalmia) neonatorum, silver acetate eye drops or erythromycin
ointment
Mention at least 3 major virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhoeae!
pilus, outer membrane proteins, LOS (lipooligosaccharide), IgA protease
Mention at least 2 major virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis!
polysaccharide capsule, LPS, IgA protease
What is the site of entry of Neisseria meningitidis infection? What diseases are caused
by this bacterium?
The site of entry is the nasopharynx (transmitted by airborne droplets).
Meningococcemia (characterized by skin lesions), and acute (purulent) bacterial
meningitis.
What kinds of prophylactic measurements are available against Neisseria meningitidis
infections?
Chemoprophylaxis: rifampin or ciprofloxacin.
Vaccination: capsular polysaccharide (types A, C, Y and W135). No vaccine against
type B!
Which rapid diagnostic methods can be used in the presumptive diagnosis of purulent
bacterial meningitis?
Gram or methylene blue stain of CSF sediment
Demonstration of bacterial capsular antigens by latex agglutination (from CSF)
Which capsular serotype is included in the vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae?
type b
Which are the portals of entry of Bacillus anthracis?
Skin, lung, gastrointestinal tract
Mention 3 important bacteria involved in nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections!
Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus faecalis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia
coli
Mention four E. coli pathogenetic groups involved in enteric diseases!
Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
Enterotoxic E. coli (ETEC)
Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAggEC)
What are the most important extraintestinal infections caused by E. coli?
urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, nosocomial wound infections
The most frequent causative agent of urinary tract infections is:
E. colli
What disease is caused by E. coli O157:H7?
hemorrhagic colitis +/- HUS (hemolytic uraemic syndrome)
What is the reservoir of Salmonella typhi?
humans (with disease, or healthy carriers)
Which bacteria cause most frequently typhoid fever and enteric fever, respectively?
Salmonella typhi (typhoid)
Salmonella paratyphi A, B, C (enteric fever)
When typhoid fever is suspected, what kinds of clinical samples should be used to isolate
the causative agent in the first 2 weeks of the disease?
Blood, (bone marrow)
What is the route of infection in Salmonella gastroenteritis?
Ingestion of contaminated food (such as eggs, cream, mayonnaise, creamed foods, etc.)
containing a sufficient number of Salmonella.
Which antibacterial drugs should be administered in gastroenteritis caused by
Salmonella?
Antibiotics are not usually necessary unless the infection is generalised. In case of
extraintestinal infection (very young, very old or immunosuppressed patients):
ampicillin, gentamicin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, or ciprofloxacin.
List the Shigella species causing human disease!
Shigella dysenteriae, S. flexneri, S. boydii, S. sonnei
Mention 2 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause bacillary dysentery
Shigella dysenteriae, Shigella flexneri, Shigella boydii, Shigella sonnei, enteroinvasive
E. coli (EIEC)
Mention 3 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause enteritis or
enterocolitis!
Campylobacter jejuni, Escherichia coli, Salmonella enteritidis, Shigella, Yersinia
enterocolitica
Mention two bacteria causing intestinal infections which have animal reservoirs!
Salmonella (not Typhi and Paratyphi!), Campylobacter jejuni, Yersinia
enterocolitica, Listeria monocytogenes, E. coli O157
What are the modes of transmission for the 2 different epidemiologic forms of plague?
- Bubonic plague is transmitted by the bite of infected rat fleas from rats to humans.
- Primary pneumonic plague spreads directly from human to human via respiratory
droplets.
What are the possible portals of entry of Francisella tularensis?
tick bite, mucous membranes, skin abrasions, resp. tract, gastroint. tract
How do humans acquire brucellosis? The Brucellae are located primarily in which organ
system and cells?
Portals of entry are the mucosal surfaces and abraded skin. Organisms spread to the
mononuclear phagocytes of the reticuloendothelial system (lymph nodes, liver,
spleen, bone marrow).
What are the reservoirs of the different Brucella species, respectively?
B. abortus: cattle
B. melitensis: goat, sheep
B. suis: swine
What is the mechanism of action of cholera toxin?
Cholera toxin activates the adenylate cyclase enzyme in cells of the intestinal mucosa
leading to increased levels of intracellular cAMP, and the secretion of large amount of
water, Na+, K+, Cl-, and HCO3
- into the lumen of the small intestine.
What is the principle of the treatment for cholera?
Rapid intravenous or oral replacement of the lost fluid and ions. Administration of
isotonic maintenance solution should continue until the diarrhea ceases. In severe cases:
administration of tetracycline.
Mention 4 diseases caused by Haemophilus influenzae!
purulent meningitis
epiglottitis (obstructive laryngitis)
otitis media and sinusitis
pneumonia
(cellulitis, arthritis)
Which disease is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi?
Chancroid (soft chancre or ulcus molle)
What can serve as source of infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Pseudomonas species are normally present in the environment and can be isolated from
the skin, throat, and stool of healthy persons. They often colonize hospital food, sinks,
taps, mops, and respiratory equipment
Mention 4 diseases that are frequently caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa!
urinary tract infections
wound infections (burns)
pneumonia, sepsis (immunosupression)
otitis externa
Mention at least 3 drugs which may be effective to treat infections caused by
Pseudomonas aeruginosa!
certain penicillins: azlocillin, mezlocillin, piperacillin
certain 3rd generation cephalosporins: ceftazidim, cefoperazon
aminoglycosides: gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin
carbapenems: imipenem, meropenem
Which diseases are caused by Legionella pneumophila?
- legionellosis, legionnairs’ disease (atypical pneumonia)
- Pontiac fever (mild, flu like illness without pneumonia)
List 4 important virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis!
filamentous hemagglutinin, pertussis toxin, adenylate-cyclase toxin, tracheal
cytotoxin
Mention 3 bacterium species causing food poisoning!
Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium
botulinum, Vibrio parahaemolyticus, (Salmonella serotypes causing enterocolitis)
Which bacterium has the highest germ number in the colon?
Bacteroides fragilis
Mention 4 bacterial genera that are obligate anaerobes!
Clostridium, Bacteroides, Prevotella, Porphyromonas, Fusobacterium, Actinomyces,
Bifidobacterium, Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium
Which is the most important gas gangrene Clostridium? What is its main virulence factor?
Clostridium perfringens
alpha-toxin (lecithinase)
Mention 3 Clostridium species causing gas gangrene! How are they acquired?
Clostridium perfringens, C. novyi, C. septicum, C. histolyticum, C. tertium, C.
bifermentans, C. sporogenes
The site of infection is usually a wound that comes into contact with Clostridium spores
that germinate in an anaerobic environment.
How can be tetanus prevented in patients who have wounds possibly contaminated with C.
tetani spores?
Wound should be cleaned and debrided; tetanus toxoid booster injection given;
tetanus immunoglobulin (TETIG) in previously unvaccinated patients and in case of
heavy contamination of wound; penicillin may be added prophylactically
What are the main symptoms of tetanus infection?
Spastic paralysis: muscle spasms; lockjaw(trismus), rhisus sardonicus (grimace of the
face), opisthotonus (spasm of the back); respiratory paralysis
What is the mechanism of action of the botulinus toxin?
Blocks release of acetylcholine in peripheral nerve synapses;
What are the main symptoms of botulism? Specify at least 3!
flaccid paralysis, diplopia (double vision), dysphagia (difficulty to swallow), dysphonia (hoarseness), respiratory paralysis
What kind of therapy is used to treat botulism?
Treatment: respiratory support + trivalent antitoxin
Explain whether or not antibiotic treatment is useful in botulism!
Not, because antibiotics are not effective against preformed toxins.
What diseases are caused by Helicobacter pylori?
Gastritis, peptic and duodenal ulcers, gastric carcinoma, MALT lymphoma
What is the most important virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
Diphtheria toxin
What is the mechanism of action of the diphtheria toxin?
Inhibits protein synthesis. Inhibits peptide elongation in eukaryotic ribosomes by
ADP ribosylation of EF-2 (elongation factor-2)
How long does immunity against diphtheria exist? Which immune effector mechanism is
involved
Antitoxic antibodies, long lasting immunity
Which assays should be done in the lab in order to prove diphtheria?
Smears of the throat swab should be stained with methylene blue or Neisser stain;
bacteria are cultured on Löffler’s or tellurite (Clauberg) medium; toxin production
must be demonstrated by agar precipitation ( ELEK-test)
What feature of Mycobacteria make them acid fast?
The cell envelope contains a high amount (60 – 70 %) of complex lipids: mycolic acid,
cord factor. Once the cells are stained (by carbol-fuchsin) they resist decolorisation by
acid-ethanol.
Mention 2 atypical Mycobacterium species!
M. kansasii, M. marinum, M. avium-intracellulare complex, M. fortuitum-chelonei
complex
How can one demonstrate the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in clinical
samples?
Acid-fast staining (Ziehl-Neelsen)
Culture on selective media(Löwenstein-Jensen agar, liquid BACTEC medium)
PCR amplification of bacterial DNA
Why is multi-drug therapy used for tuberculosis?
To prevent the overgrowth of drug-resistant mutants during the long treatment
period (if bacteria resistant to one drug emerge, they are most probably inhibited by
the other drugs).
What is the main immune defense mechanism against Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
activated macrophages
Mention 3 antituberculotic drugs that are of first choice against Mycobacterium
tuberculosis!
isoniazid (INH), pyrazinamid, rifampin, (ethambutol, streptomycin)
What disease is caused by Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare? What patients are
characteristically susceptible to infection?
It causes TB, especially in immunosuppressed patients (such as AIDS patients).
What is the reservoir of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
humans
What is the reservoir of atypical Mycobacteria?
environment (soil, water)
What are the 2 distinct forms of leprosy?
Tuberculoid, lepromatous forms
Mention 3 Gram-negative bacteria belonging to different genera causing zoonosis!
Brucella, Francisella tularensis, Yersinia pestis, Pasteurella
Mention 2 Gram-positive bacteria belonging to different genera causing zoonosis!
Listeria monocytogenes, Bacillus anthracis, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Mention 3 bacterial species belonging to different genera that are frequent causes of
urinary tract infections!
E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas, Enterococcus faecalis
Mention one aerobic and one anaerobic bacterium of the normal flora of the skin!
aerobic: Staphylococcus epidermidis
anaerobic: Propionobacterium acnes
Give two genuses for each category!
Gram positive aerobic: Staph., Strepto., Bacillus, Corynebacterium, Listeria…
Gram positive anaerobic: Clostridium, Actinomyces, Propionibacterium, Lactobacillus
Gram negativ aerobic: Vibrio, Neisseria, Haemophilus…
Gram negativ anaerobic: Bacteroides, Prevotella, Porphyromonas, Veillonella…
Give 1 genuses for each category!
Gram positive coccus: Staphylococcus, Streptococcus
Gram negative coccus: Neisseria, Veillonella
Gram positive rod: Clostridium, Bacillus
Gram negative rod: E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella
Spirochetes: Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira
Describe the color and the shape of Clostridia in a Gram stained smear of gas
gangrene exudate!
Gram positive (dark blue) rod
(it usually does not form spores in vivo)
Mention 2 antibiotics which can be used in the empirical treatment against Gram
negative obligate anaerobic bacteria!
Imipenem, Augmentin (amoxicillin + clavulanic acid), Metronidazol
Which 3 bacterial species are the most important causative agents of neonatal (< 1
months of age) meningitis?
Streptococcus agalactiae, E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes
Which 3 bacterial species are the most important causative agents of meningitis
among babies (> 1 months of age) and children?
Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
What is the causative agent of febris undulans (undulant fever)?
Brucellae
What is the precise definition of bacterial food poisoning?
Acute disease, usually with vomiting and diarrhea, caused by preformed toxins
produced by bacteria contaminating the food. The period between consumption of food
and the appearance of symptoms is short (< 4-6 hours).
Mention 4 bacteria causing atypical pneumonia!
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Chlamydia psittaci
Coxiella burnetii
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Legionella pneumophila