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74 Cards in this Set

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Recognize thesignificance of IgM isotypeantibody, IgG isotype antibody, andviral Ag or nucleic acid (RNA or DNA) in general staging of viral infections bylaboratory testing.

· IgM indicates current or recent acute infection.IgM levels fall off as IgG and isotype switching occurs during immune response· IgG indicates current or past infection, andimmunity to reinfection· If only IgM- recent· If only IgG- past· If both IgM and IgG, probably in the midst ofchronic infection or entering

Explain how aRIBA test (such as that used to confirm HCV infection) differs from a westernblot test

· Recombinant Immunoblot Assay: like Western blot,except recombinant HCV proteins are blotted directly onto nitrocellulosemembranes

Given the resultsof “hepatitis panel” tests for acute viral hepatitis, interpret the diseasethat the patient has and suggest whether further testing is warranted and whatthat testing should be:

· IgM anti-HAV: monitor until clear· IgM anti-HBc and HBsAg: respond aggressively· Anti-HCV and HCV RNA: requires confirmatory test(RIBA?) and respond aggressively

Identify whichviruses (other common names) belong to the Herpes Virus Family

· Epstein-Barr Virus aka Human Herpes virus 4· Cytomegalovirus (CMV) HHV-5· Varicella-Zoster Virus HHV-3

Identify thedisease caused by Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV), the immune cell target of EBV andthe receptor that it uses to target that cell, and the effect of EBV on theinfected cell

· Infectious Mononucleosis (IM) infects epithelialcells of the oropharynx and B lymphocytes via protein receptor CD21 whichprovides a docking site and gains entry to infect cells. Infected cells undergopolyclonal activation (activated to secrete antibody even though not activatedby usual antigen), proliferate, and secrete antibody (IgM)· Secrete EBV-specific antibody, autoantibodywhich makes you feel bad, and heterophile antibody used for diagnosis

Associatedetection/screening for heterophile antibodies with diagnosis of infectiousmononucleosis

· For IM screening with Monospot test, heterophileantibodies are detected with extract of bovine (cow) rbc antigens

Identifyconfirmatory testing for EBV infection, and the significance of these tests indisease staging

· IgM antibody to viral capsid antigen (IgManti-VCA) indicates acute disease and shows up early in infection· IgG anti-VCA also present during late acute IM,but persists and could indicate previous infection· Antibody to EBV nuclear antigen (anti-EBNA) isthe last patient antibody to appear, showing up during convalescence andpersists for life

Identify thepatient populations at greatest risk from cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection andthe possible consequences of infection:

· Immunocompromised and infants · Most common cause of congenital infectionsthroughout the world (0.3-2% of all live births)· 10% of infected babies exhibit symptoms of CNSand/or multiple organ infection· 5% of these infants will die· 50% of surviving symptomatic babies havelong-term consequences (hearing loss, mental retardation, vision loss)

Identify theproblems associated with serological testing for antibody to CMV and thepreferred methods of detecting CMV infection in the at-risk populations:

· Assays for IgM anti-CMV have a lot of falsenegatives in newborns and immunocompromised, and false positives fromrheumatoid factor (RF)· Rapid detection is not readily available so amom who thinks she may have CMV comes in and gets her blood drawn, it getsfrozen, she comes back 4 weeks later for another draw and the samples aretested together, looking for a 4-fold increase in IgG anti-CMV · Newest EIA assay for acute CMV infection areperformed on saliva, urine or throat swab samples and include: · ShellVial cultures- detect in 24-72 hours (specificity from immunofluorescentstaining with monoclonal antibodies) QuantitativePCR for CMV also gives rapid results and can help to stage disease and monitoreffectiveness of antiviral therapy.

Identify the targettissue of HSV-1 and HSV-2 viruses and which is of most concern:

· Gums (gingivostomatitis), conjunctivitis · HSV-2 more of a concern- immunocompromisedpeople can develop very severe localized infections or disseminated diseasesuch as herpes encephalitis

Identify thetesting available for detection of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infection, whether the Ag orAb to the virus is detected by serology, and which test is currently able todistinguish between HSV-1 and HSV-2:

· Serological testing for EIA, latex agglutinationfor viral Ag, or culture in shell vial followed by immunofluorescent stainingare available for HSV-1 and HSV-2 but lack sensitivity· PCR detects viral DNA and can distinguishbetween HSV-1 and HSV-2 (rapidly replacing culture as the preferred method ofdetection but can only be used when active lesions are present)

Identify the twodiseases caused by Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) and the reason why the viralinfection reactivates:

· Chicken pox (varicella) and Shingles (HerpesZoster) is reactivation of disease. Following chicken pox, VZV retreats tosensory nerve dorsal ganglion cells and reactivates in ~20% of individualsunder stress due to decreased Tc cell-mediated immunity

Identify the methodsused to detect VZV infection versus immunity to VZV:

· Shell vial culture method coupled with immunofluorescentstaining to identify virus· Serology (EIA) used for establishing immunity toVZV; >90% of population is immune either from natural infection orvaccination by live attenuated varicella vaccine; 4-fold rise in titer pairedacute/convalescent titers is diagnostic. However, presence of antibody does notmake you immune, as it is triggered by decreased Tc count

Identify thedisease caused by Rubella virus and the most serious infection caused byRubella:

· German Measles. Congenital Rubella Syndrome

Identify the methodsused to detect Rubella infection and how a significant titer is interpreted inregards to post-vaccination or as an indication of current infection:

· Post-vaccination anti-Rubella IgG antibody levelof >15 IU/mL indicates immunity in a prospective mother; EIA with syntheticRubella peptides as the target test antigen is the most common serological test· Pregnant mother with suspected acute infection:4-fold rise in IgM titer in samples drawn 5 days apart indicates current acuteinfection and is cause for concern· IgM anti-Rubella in newborns indicatescongenital disease (confirmed by positive culture or PCR for Rubella RNA)No IgM or IgG means person has not beenvaccinated or infected

Identify thecausative agent of syphilis, the 2 primary modes of transmission, and the usualtreatment of the disease if diagnosed early:

· Spirochetes· Sexuallytransmitted · congenitalinfection· Easily treated with penicillin if detected early

Define thefollowing terms: nontreponemal tests, treponemal tests, reagin, flocculation:

· Nontreponemal: use antigen consisting of asolution of cholesterol, lecithin, and cardiolipin to detect reagin antibodies · Treponemal: detect antibody specifically totreponemal antigens· Reagin: antibodies to cardiolipin that are notspecific to syphilis, but actually due to antigen released by cell damage- responsiblefor positive serological reaction· Flocculation: microscopic precipitation



List the 4 stages ofsyphilis, the symptoms of each stage, and the time-frame in which each stagemay be observed (following initial infection)

1. Primary:well-defined painless lesions with an ulcerated center and red raised borderforms, usually on genitals 1-6 weeks after exposure/infection. Lesion willresolve on it’s own if left untreated. 2. Secondary: Occurs in 25% of untreated infections, 1-2months after primary but can overlap. Organism spreads through the body andcauses generalized lymphadenopathy and flu-like symptoms. Lesions are common onthe trunk, palms of the hands, and soles of the feet. They are highlycontagious. 3. Latent: no symptoms despite organismpresence. Lasts 10-30 years. 4. Tertiary: develops 10-30 yearslater in about 30% of those who have latent syphilis.

types of testingavailable for diagnosing syphilis, the usual use of each general type of test,and categorize each specific test discussed in lecture into each of thesegeneral types:

1. Directspirochete detection: in lesion fluid (based on corkscrew shape and flexingmotility; not specific for syphilis because of the normal flora) 2. Nontreponemal tests: use a testantigen consisting of a solution of cholesterol, lecithin, and cardiolipin todetect “reagin” antibodies- classic screening tests. VDRL, RPR 3. Treponemal tests: detect antibodyspecifically to treponemal antigens: EIA and CIAs, FTA-ABS, TP-PA. Confirmatorytest

List the componentsof the test antigen (reagent) used for nontreponemal tests for syphilis:

Cholesterol,lecithin, cardiolipin

Identify the onlytest that is currently approved to diagnose tertiary neurosyphilis and thepatient sample used for this testing

VDRL: VenerealDisease Research Laboratory Suspension ofcholesterol, lecithin, and cardiolipin mixed with CSF for patients testing forneurosyphilis.

Identify whichtype of test for syphilis loses sensitivity during the tertiary phase ofinfection (i.e. can give a false negative result in a patient who really hastertiary syphilis):

Nontreponemaltests lose sensitivity during tertiary phase because antibody response tocardiolipin falls off (VDRL and RPR)

List the properorder of screening and confirmatory testing for syphilis, as it was classicallyperformed, and how this has changed now with newer “reversed order” syphilisserology testing:

Classical:Nontreponemal screening with positive tests were confirmed by treponemaltesting Current: TreponemalEIA or CIA used for screening. Positive EIA or CIA with a negative RPR followup with TP-PA testing. If TP-PA positive, positive result for syphilis.

Identify thecausative agent of Lyme disease, the characteristic symptom of primaryinfection that is observed in 80% of patients, and disease sequelae that may beseen in chronic infection:

Borreliaburgdorferi: 80% patients get erythema migrans rash (bulls-eye) 1 weekfollowing tick bite. If untreated, organism spreads through bloodstream and maycause multiple lesions at sites distant from bite. Can develop migratory joint,mm, tendon and bone pain. 15% patients develop neurologic or cardiacinvolvement ~6 weeks after onset of infection, facial palsy or other nervedamage as an immune response to organism. Large joint arthritis.

Identify thescreening test for Lyme disease, whether a positive is diagnostic, and whethera confirmatory test is necessary (if so, ID the confirmatory test):

EIA and IFA traditionalscreening but being replaced with C6 ELISA which his high specificity andsensitivity. Western blot confirmatory test. IgM has at least 2 bands presentsuggesting acute disease while an IgG test with at least 5 out of 10 bandspresent suggests chronic disease.

Identify possiblecauses of biological false positive results in Lyme disease serology testing:

False positivesoccur with: Syphilis and othertreponemal diseases Infectious Mono Autoimmune diseases Rocky mountain spottedfever Negative tests do not rule out lymedisease- sensitivity is lacking especially in early disease.

1) List the main distinguishing features of Group Ab-hemolytic streptococcus (S. pyogenes) used to identify the organismin a microbiology laboratory:

Gram positive coccithat grows in chains, has M surface protein ~50 serotypes total

1) Define M protein and SpeA1 and identify which isa super antigen. Describe the characteristics of these virulence factors thathelp S. pyogenes escape the hostimmune response:

M protein- on surfaceof organism, helps evade immune cell defenses, prevents phagocytosis andinhibits C3b deposition on bacterial surface, circumventing opsonization bycomplement system.SpeA1- Streptococcal pyrogenicexotoxin A1: second virulence factor that acts as a super antigen.

1) Describe how a super antigen activates Tlymphocytes:

Cause non-antigenspecific activation of large numbers of T lymphocytes by holding MHC and TCRtogether. 10-25% of all CD4+ T cells activated at once-à huge release of cytokines.

1) Describe the main clinical features of Impetigoand Group A Streptococcal pharyngitis. Identify which (or both?) is associatedwith Scarlet Fever, Rheumatic Fever, Acute Proliferative Glomerulonephritis,and Toxic Shock Syndrome:

Impetigo- skin rash onface usually children: Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis GroupA Streptococcal pharyngitis- strep throat: Scarlet fever, Rheumatic fever TSScaused by super antigen of S. pyogenes, sometimes S. aureus.

1) What is the main drawback of rapid testing forStrep Throat?

Rapid testing is only80% sensitive

1) Compare and contrast the efficacy of the ASO,anti-DNase B, and Streptozyme assays in diagnosis of past Group A Strep infections(Impetigo and Strep Throat):

ASO: RBC lysis assay test, rarelyperformed anymore. Only positive in 80% of strep throat cases- Not positive inStrep pyoderma- lacks sensitivity Anti-DNaseB: More sensitive than ASO and is positive in cases of Streptococcal pyoderma.Colorimetric assay Streptozyme:Look for ability of ab in serum to agglutinate RBC reagents. Significant falsepositives and negatives

Define the following terms: RIST,RAST:

RIST: Radioimmunosorbent Test- labassays which required extremely high sensitivity to measure very lowconcentration analytes could only be achieved with radioactive labels. RAST:Radioallergosobent Test- current technology without radioactivity

Explain theimmune system mechanism responsible for each of the 4 types of hypersensitivityreactions, including the isotype of the antibody involved (as appropriate)and/or effector cell types acting in each:

1. IgE mediated, mast cell degranulation or activation. IgEtriggers violent peristalsis 2.Antibody-mediated cell surfaces that cause cytotoxicity, complement activation IgG 3. Formsimmune complex mediated complement activation. Soluble target antigen IgG 4. Tccells, cell mediated- activated macrophages

Explain how an “immediatehypersensitivity” differs from a “delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH)”response, and what type of hypersensitivity (I – IV) is being tested for byeach:

Immediate hypersensitivity occurs instantly after contact withantigen while delayed-type can occur 1-3 days later such as with a TB test. 1,2, and 3 are immediate while type 4 is a DTH

Identify whichhypersensitivity is associated with histamine release:

Type 1- earlyreaction

Identify the majorgranulocyte that plays a role in allergic and parasitic diseases, the antibodyisotype that triggers its degranulation, and the unique components of thiscells granules

Mast cell- IgEtriggers degranulation. Cells granules composed of: histamine

Describe theutility of total serum IgE testing, skin prick testing, and allergen-specific laboratorytesting, listing the advantages and disadvantages of each:

RIST/ Total serum IgE testing: Rarely used anymore becausewe don’t want to deal with radioactive substances. Advantages- inexpensive,suggests further testing. Disadvantages- not very sensitive- gives a lot offalse negatives, and does not identify the offending allergen, only tells ifIgE is elevated Skin prick:graded for “wheal” reaction. Advantages- positive test is clinicallysignificant. Disadvantages- danger of systemic reaction, traumatic to patient,only tests limited individual antigens Allergen-specificlaboratory testing: Can test total IgE or a huge array of individual commonallergens. Solid phase carb-based assay used to provide high test antigen dosefor increased sensitivity. Advantages- can be used while patient is takinganti-histamine and only requires a single skin puncture to draw blood for serumtesting, not multiple skin pricks. Disadvantages- Lower specificity than skintesting, only tells if IgE present, not if it’s responsible for patientsymptoms.

Identify common causesof type II hypersensitivities

Hemolytic disease of the newborn, some autoimmune diseases.Antibodies produced by immune system respond to antigens on patient’s own cellsurfaces.

For the followingillnesses/diseases, identify the type of hypersensitivity responsible: “serumsickness”, celiac disease, poison ivy hypersensitivity, allergic asthma, foodallergy such as shellfish allergy.

Serumsickness: 3 Celiacdisease: 4 Poison Ivy:4 Allergicasthma: 1 Food allergy:1

Identify whichhypersensitivity responses involve complement activation

3

Identify which typesof hypersensitivity responses can cause autoimmune disorders, and which of theseis most commonly encountered

Types 2,3, and 4 cancause autoimmune disorders, but type 2 is most commonly encountered

Be able to matchthe autoimmune endocrine disorders (ChronicAutoimmune Thyroiditis, Grave’sdisease, Addison’s disease, and Type 1 diabetes mellitus) with theauto-antibodies that may be observed in each disease, the serological testingdone to diagnose the disease (if appropriate), and the immune mechanism that isresponsible for the observed tissue destruction.

o Chronic AutoimmuneThyroiditis: (Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis) Autoantibody is found but Tc destructionof thyroid epithelial cells is thought to ultimately cause the disease.Autoantibodies observed: Anti-thyroglobulin and Anti-thyroid peroxidase.Performed mainly by EIA. Some particle agglutination, indirectimmunofluorescence. Increased thyroid gland causes bulging of the neck. o Grave’s: Usuallydiagnosed without serological testing but can measure levels of T3, T4, andTSH. Can measure thyroid antibodies which requires complicated testing.o Addison’s: Adrenalcortex antibody screened by IFA. Anti-21 hydroxylase antibody detected byradiobinding or immunoabsorption assay. Diagnosed primarily by chemistry testsfor elevated serum ACTH and increased plasma renin. The autoantibody destroysthe adrenal cortexType 1 diabetes mellitus: Anti-GAD(Glutamic acid decarboxylase) antibody, anti-IA-2 (transmembrane tyrosinephosphatase protein) antibody, and IAA (insulin autoantibody) Fastinghyperglycemia and elevated hemoglobin A1C used for diagnosis. Results fromautoimmune Tc destruction of pancreatic B cells that normally secrete insulin

Identify fourautoimmune diseases that have a much higher incidence rate (> 5 times) inwomen than in men

· Hashimoto’s · Grave’s· Systemic Lupuserythematosis· Addison’s

Describe the generalcause of Celiac Disease,auto-antibodies that can be used to diagnose it, and why dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with this disease

o Tissue Transglutaminase(TTG) deaminates the gliadin component of gluten, and the modified gliadinstimulates a T cell response. o Autoantibodies: IgAanti-TTG, IgA anti-gliadin, IgA anti-endomysiumo Dermatitisherpetiformis associated with high serum IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase

Identify the twoforms of Inflammatory Bowel Diseasein humans, which can be associated with ANCA, and which ANCA pattern it isassociated with (cANCA or pANCA).

o Ulcerative Colitis:ANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies) associated with pANCAo Chron’s

Identify theautoantibodies associated with PerniciousAnemia and the vitamin deficiency they can cause.

o Anti-intrinsic factorantibody most commonly seeno Anti-parietal cellantibody o Cause Vitamin B12deficiency

1) Identify the auto-antigen that is targeted in Myasthenia gravis, the diseasepathophysiology, the immune mechanism(s) responsible for the disease, and thelaboratory test used for diagnosis.

o Acetylcholine receptoron mm. fiber targetedo Detection of anti-ACH-Rantibody by precipitation radioimmunoassay (RIA)

Identify theauto-antigens that are targeted in Multiplesclerosis, the disease pathophysiology, and the immune mechanism(s)responsible for the disease

o Myelin basic protein(MBP)o Myelin OligodendrocyteGlycoprotein (MOG)When these autoantigens areliberated from myelin sheath as it is destroyed by Th1 and Tc cells, they causedevelopment of autoantibodies

Identify the two mostcommon rheumatologic diseases that are considered autoimmune diseases

: Rheumatoid Arthritis and Lupus

Explain whyautoimmune rheumatologic diseases are difficult to diagnose

: They have overlap of symptoms and overlap of lab results. Notest is completely specific or sensitive.

Categorize the autoimmunemechanism responsible for Lupus as one of the Type I-IV hypersensitivityresponses

Type 3: IgGautoantibodies form immune complexes with soluble proteins/nucleic acids anddeposit in tissues. Immune complex deposition and complement activation inblood vessels, joints, kidneys, and other tissues.

Describe how titer isimportant in interpretation of FANA and what the maximum titer is that is stillconsidered normal:

o Less than or = 80 meansnormal. Greater than 1:160 = positive. High titer= severe disease. Titerdetermines what level of antibody binding gives a positive result.

Identify otherdiseases that may show a low positive titer in an FANA test, as well as other“non-disease” states

5% of the healthypopulation has a low positive titer. 70& elderly, RA, Scleroderma,Sjogren’s syndrome

Identify the specificENA that is associated with drug-induced lupus

Anti-histone antibodyis the only ENA positive in drug-induced Lupus, though up to 70% Lupus patientshave low titer

8) Explain why lupus patients can have a falsepositive syphilis test. Choose whether this false positive would be in eitherthe non-treponemal or treponemal test for syphilis, or both:

Anti-cardiolipincauses a false positive test for syphilis. This is because cardiolipin is thetarget antigen in the non-treponemal based syphilis test

Define“rheumatoid factor” (RF) and identify what diseases it may be found in, and forwhich disease it is considered most significant:

o IgM, IgG, or IgAisotype antibody to the Fc portion of IgG (anti-immunoglobulin antibodies)o Most significant forRheumatoid Arthritis

Describe how thescreening test for IgM isotype RF differs from the specific tests for IgG andIgA isotypes of RF. Which is/are most specific for diagnosis of RA?

o Only IgM RF will causeagglutination because it’s produced as a pentamer. Most specific for diagnosisof RA: IgG RF and IgA RF tested by EIA or nephelometry are much more diseasespecific

Define theantigen used for anti-CCP testing, the disease this antibody is associatedwith, and its usefulness in relation to RF testing:

o Anticyclic citrulinatedpeptide- when used in combination with RF testing and both are positive, gives98% sensitivity to RA

Identify thediagnostic criteria used for RA and whether it is necessary for the RF and/oranti-CCP tests to be positive or not:

Not necessary for either test to be positive but helps.Diagnostic criteria:o Number of large andsmall joints involvedo RF and anti-CCP testso Acute-phase reactanttesting (CRP and ESR)o Duration of symptomsOnly need to accumulate 6points. Can do so without testing.

Recognize the laboratorytests that may be used to follow the course of SLE and RA, and whether theresults will be abnormally high or abnormally low in uncontrolled diseaseflares:

Tests to follow SLE: Increase in CRP, Erythrocytesedimentation rate, Anti-dsDNA titer, urine protein. Decrease in CBC (WBC, RBC,platelet) and serum albumin (sign of chronic acute inflammation) Tests used to follow RA:Erythrocyte sedimentation, C-Reactive protein, Complement components decreasedduring acute attacks as complement is fixed in tissues and used up

Identify whether CD4+T cells, CD8+ T cells, and/or B cells are responsible for autoimmunedisease

Autoimmune antibodies and Tc cells

Identify two proteinsinvolved in self tolerance that when defective in humans lead to generalizedautoimmune disease

AIRE or FoxP3

Explain how an alleleof CTLA-4 normally found in the human population can lead to increased susceptibilityto autoimmune disease

A certain allele you inherit can be adept at presenting selfantigen for a certain disease and trigger breach of self-tolerance.

Define “relativerisk” and the ultimate effect that it has on an individual’s likelihood todevelop any given autoimmune disease. Be able to use disease incidence andrelative risk to calculate actual risk for an individual who may have an “atrisk” allele:

If you have the HLAallele, Relative Risk is the increased risk you have over the generalpopulation to get the disease.

Explain the roleof HLA alleles in development of autoimmunity (i.e. what are the HLA moleculesdoing exactly to trigger autoimmunity?):

HLA genes make MHC class 1 and 2 so a problem withthis causes a problem with self tolerance

List and explainthe mechanisms of at least six (6) factors that have been proposed to be riskfactors for autoimmune disease development besides gender and HLA alleles. Indoing so, be sure to define the term “hapten”.

o Release of sequesteredantigens through trauma and tissue damageo Inflammation causingectopic expression of MHC class II. IFN-g can cause several non APC cell typesto express MHC class IIo Molecular mimicry-immune response to a pathogen triggers a TCR/BCR that cross-react with selfantigen. Ex: Rheumatic fever, coxsackie virus proteins o Polyclonal B cellactivation: can trigger antibody synthesis to many self-antigens. Antibodiesproduced are IgM- no T cell helpo Inhibitory FcgRpolymorphisms: lead to inability to inhibit B cell responses even when antibodyis inadequateo Chemical“environmental”: can act as a hapten to change “Self-proteins” into novelantigens. Can cause chronic damage that releases hidden antigens. Once immuneresponse triggered, BCR/TCR then recognize normal self protein as foreign as well.o Paraneoplastic- causedby an immune response to cancer

Define epitopespreading (in the context of autoimmune disease) and how linked recognition isresponsible for epitope spreading:

Epitope spreading: amount of autoantigens recognized byimmune system. When a patient is first diagnosed, auto-antibodies are limitedbut as the autoimmune disease progresses, the patient develops autoantibodiesagainst more and more auto-antigens due to sloppiness of T cell help.

Discuss the generalusefulness of IVIg, RhoGAM, and other antibody preparations used in the therapeutictreatment of humans:

IVIg: intravenous immunoglobulin= concentrated human IgGpooled from multiple healthy donors to treat primary antibody immune deficiency RhoGAM:prevention of newborn hemolytic disease Monoclonal antibody: target and kill tumor cells or usedas immunosuppressant

Describe thegeneral process of hybridoma creation for the production of monoclonalantibodies:

Hybridoma: produces identical antibody. 1. Inject animal withantigen so animal makes antibody2. Isolate B cells fromspleen of animal and fuse B cells to immortalized myeloma3. Grow “fused” cells inchemical selection media so only cells that have fused B cell and myeloma cansurvive 4. Single-cell clone thesurviving hybridoma cells and select for a clone that produces high affinityantibody against antigen you used to immunize animal5. Isolate pure monoclonalantibody from this cell line

Describe howmonoclonal antibody preparations differ from polyclonal antibody preparations(aka, antiserum).

Monoclonal antibody preparations all are identical antibody

Identify specificmonoclonal antibody therapies used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis and other destructiveautoimmune disorders:

Anti-TNFa: blocking mAb used to treat RA blocking jointdestructionAnti-a4 integrin: blocks “homing” of inflammatory cellspreventing autoimmune tissue destruction Anti-IL-1or anti-IL-6: interfere with macrophage inflammatory cytokines when anti-TNFadoes not work

What are HAMA? Wouldthey cause false positive of false negative assay results in clinicallaboratory EIA testing?

HAMA: Human anti-mouse antibodies. Cause false positiveresult that does not correlate with patient history.

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