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97 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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what is the name of the system that regulates the levels of hormone? |
negative feedback system |
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what controls the activites of the pituitary gland? |
hypothalamus |
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what does the anterior pituitary regulate? |
thyroid glands, adrenal glands, and produces growth hormone |
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what does the posterior pituitary do? |
stores and releases hormones produced in hypothalamus |
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What are the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary? |
GH, prolactin, TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, MSH |
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What are the hormones produced by the posterior pituitary? |
ADH and oxytocin |
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GH |
growth hormone. Promotes body growth in young animals. Overproduction-acromegaly. Underproduction-short/deficiency. |
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Prolactin |
helps trigger and maintain lactaion |
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TSH |
thyroid stimulating hormone. Stimulates growth and development of thyroid gland and causes it to produce its hormones. |
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ACTH |
Adrenocorticotropic hormone. Stimulates growth and development of the adrenal cortex and release of some of its hormones. Hyperadrenocorticism can be a result of pituitary tumor or adrenal disease. |
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FSH |
Follicle stimulating hormone. stimulates growth and development of ovarian follicles (oogenesis). Also stimulates cells lining follicles to produce and secrete estrogen. In males, stimulates spermatogenesis. |
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LH |
Luteinizing hormone. completes process of follicle development in ovary. Levels reach a peak when follicle is fully mature. Usually causes ovulation. |
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ADH |
antidiuretic hormone. Helps prevent diuresis. Travels to kidney, causes it to reabsorb more water from urine and return it to bloodstream. Deficiency causes DI-chronic PU that doesn't respond to dehydration. |
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Oxytocin |
effects on uterus- causes contraction of the myometrum at the time of breeding and at parturition. Effect on active mammary glands- causes movement of milk down to the lower parts of the gland (milk let down) |
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What is the function of the thyroid gland? |
regulate the rate of metabolism. also affect the growth and rate of function of many other body systems. |
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What are the principle hormones of the thyroid gland and what are they synthesized from? |
T3 and T4. iodine and tyrosine |
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What are two disorders of the thyroid gland? |
hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism |
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What are the effects of thyroid hormones? |
-influences development of maturation of CNS; growth development of muscles and bones. -calorigenic effect -allows animals to generate heat and maintain constant internal body temp. -production increases with exposure to cold and then increases metabolic rate to generate heat. -affect metabolism of proteins, carbs, and lipids. -helps regulate calcium metabolism |
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Calorigenic effect |
regulates the metabolic rate of all the body's cells |
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what are the causes of hypothyroidism in the dog? |
-dietary iodine deficiency. -dietary excess of giotrogens (LA) -neoplasia -autoimmune disease (body produces antibodies to thyroid hormones) |
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What does hypothyroidism look like? |
overweight, less active that usual, hair coat changes or failure of hair to grow back after shaving, grooming, etc., often have bilaterally symmetrical flank alopecia |
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What are the causes of hyperthyroidism? |
adenoma |
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What drugs can "falsely" lower serum T4 concentrations in dogs? |
glucocorticoids, sulfonamides, anticonvulsants (phenobarbital), NSAIDs, and radiocontrast agents |
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What do you use for supplementation for hypothyroidism and how long after do you pull a sample? |
Levothyroxine (soloxine brand). 4-8 hours |
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What does hyperthyroidism look like? |
middle aged to older cat(older than 8). Weight loss in spite of normal to increased appetite, intermittent vomiting, possibly increased thirst or urination, hyper-excitability, possible cardiac murmur, and possible palpable thyroid enlargement. |
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What are the treatments for feline hyperthyroidism? |
medications to block synthesis of thyroid hormone (methimazole, felimazole brand, trapazole), surgery to remove gland, radioactive iodine, or diet change to limit iodine intake (Hills Y/D) |
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What is calcitonin? |
produced by the C cells located between thyroid follicles. Helps maintain blood calcium levels. Prevents hypercalcemia by encouraging excess calcium to be deposited in the bones. |
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What is the function of the parathryoid gland? |
helps maintain blood calcium levels. Not dependent on the pituitary for PTH release (parathyroid hormone), it is released in response to calcium levels. |
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What is the calcium level test? |
calcium is bound to albumin in circulation, so low albumin levels can result in falsely low calcium. Lipemia alters most calcium assay test and will result in falsely elevated calcium. Usually shipped out. Requires special machine- Abaxis iStat |
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What is hymeral hypercalcemia |
hypercalcemia with normal PTH levels in animal with normal renal function is consistent with hypercalcemia of malignancy |
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What hormones are produced by the adrenal gland and what do they do? |
Glucocorticoids - (cortisone, cortisol, and corticosterone) hyperglycemic effect. helps maintain blood pressure and help the body resiste the effects of stress. Mineralocorticoids - (aldosterone) regulate the levels of important electrolytes (mineral salts) in the body. Sex hormones - androgens and estrogens |
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Patient is diagnosed with cushing's not caused by exogenous administration of steroids. This is caused by a tumor somewhere in the endocrine system. What are the two possible locations to cause it? |
Brain or pituitray tumor. Idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal neoplasia |
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What is Cushing's Disease? |
Hyperadrenocorticism. Results from excessive production and release of cortisol |
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What is the ACTH stim test? |
Measures the adrenals response to exogeous ACTH. Baseline of cortisol level is obtained, synthetic ACTH is given, second and sometimes third sample is drawn at set times post synthetic ACTH administration. Animals with adrenocortical tumors have exaggerated response. Animals with hypoplastic adrenal glands have diminished response. |
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What is dexamethasone suppresstion test? |
dex is a potent glucocorticoid. Suppressed ACTH release from normal pituitary gland. Results in a drop of plasma cortisol concentrations. Disease pituitary gland continues to produce excessive ACTH in spite of dex administration. Neoplastic adrenal glands secrete cortisol independent of ACTH. Continued production of cortisol after administration of dex can help support diagnosis of HAC |
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What is a rapid and easy screening test for HAC? |
Urine cortisol/creatine ratio (UCCR) |
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What are the clinical signs of Cushing's? |
PU, PD, produces large amounts of urine with low specific gravity (<1.015), has pot-bellied appearance, dermatologic changes, frequent urinary tract infections, increased ALP |
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How is Cushing's treated? |
Medication such as mitotane, trilostane, radiation of pituitary tumor, surgical removal of adrenal tumor. |
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What is Addison's disease? |
Decreased production of mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) and sometimes corticosteroids by adrenal cortex |
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What are the causes of Addion's? |
autoimmune process, destruction of the adrenal gland by granulomatous disease, metastatic tumor, hemorrhage, infarction, over-dose if mitotane or trilostane. |
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What are the clinical signs of Addison's in a dog? |
recurrent episodes of gastroenteritis, slowly progessive loss of body condition, and failure to respond appropriately to stress. Signs are often subtle, but can present in case of acute collapse, with severe electrolyte imbalances and azotemia |
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What is most common in young female adulte dogs? |
idopathic adrenocortical insufficiency |
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What is the treatment for Addison's? |
supplementation of corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids |
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What does the adrenal medulla produce? |
epinephrine and norepinephrine |
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What is pheochromoctyoma? |
adrenal gland tumor resulting in increased secretion of catecholamines |
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What hormones does the endocrine pancreas produce? |
insulin, glucogon, somatostatin, and others |
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What is insulin responsible for? |
Glucose control and utilization |
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What is Diabetes Mellitus, what causes it, and what are the clinical signs? |
Chronic disorder of carbohydrate metabolism due to relative or absolute insulin deficiency, caused by destruction of pancreatic islet cells, secondary to either immune destruction or severe pancreatitis (dogs) or amuloidosis (cats). Presents with PD, PU, PP with weight loss, bilateral cataracts(dogs), weakness and/or neuropathy(cats) |
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What is the renal threshold for glucose? |
180 mg/dl in dogs 240 mg/dl in cats |
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What is Diabetic Ketoacidosis? (DKA) |
serious complication of DM and is considered a medical emergency. Treatment is corrective fluid and electrolyte imbalances, insulin therapy, and intensive/frequent blood glucose monitoring |
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What is insulinoma? How is it diagnosed? |
pancreatic tumor that secretes insulin. Diagnosed based on fasting hypoglycemia in spite of normal or elevated insulin levels |
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Would blood glucose levels in an animal with insulinoma be elevated or decreased? |
elevated |
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What are the most important groups of dog erythrocyte antigens? |
DEA 1.1 and 1.2 |
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Name the new blood type being discovered and "who" its for |
DAL- dalmatian |
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What results from an incompatible transfuction? |
Transfusion reaction |
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Naturally occuring antibodies to DEA 1.1 and DEA 1.2 are rare and reactions to a first transfusion are uncommon. |
True |
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What will follow a previous incompatible transfusion? |
antibody inducion |
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To avoid induction of antibodies, which blood should be used? |
blood negative for at least DEA 1.1 and DEA 1.2 |
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What is a canine universal donor? |
Has tested negative for a number of DEA antigens, and are positive only for DEA 4 |
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What is the ideal canine blood donor? |
Healty, fully vaccinated, weighing at lease 50-60lbs, PCV >35%, good temperament or handles sedation well. Ideally DEA 1.1 and 1.2 negative, HW negative, negative for rickettsial disease and blood-borne parasites. Greyhounds. |
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Can you transmit heartworm through a blood transfusion? |
No, intermediate host of mosquitos necessary to incubate L1 larvae into ingective L3 larvae. Transfusion could complicate future HW antigen tests for recipient dog or could be detrimental depending on the disease process that is occuring. |
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What are the three blood types of felines? |
A, B, and AB |
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What is the most common feline blood type? |
A |
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What is the rarest felin blood type? |
AB |
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What feline blood type has naturally occuring low titers? |
Type A for low titer anti-B |
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What feline blood type has naturally occuring high titers? |
Type B for high titer anti-A |
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Antibodies don't require induction by a previous un-cross matched transfusion, so a fatal reaction to the first transfusion is possible. |
True |
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What breeds have a high incidence of type B antigens and will have a serious or fatal reactions if given type A or AB? |
Persians, himalayans, abyssinians, and British shorthairs |
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What is the ideal feline blood donor? |
Clinically healthy, fully vaccinated, indor cat, weighing 4kg or more, FeLV, FIV, mycoplasma hemofelis negative, PCV >35%, known blood type (A will be most commonly required). Suitable temperament and response to sedation, almost always need to be sedated |
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major cross match |
assesses the effect that recipient serum antibodies will have on the donor RBCs |
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Minor cross match |
assesses the effect that donor serum will have on recipient cells |
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Explain procedure for collecting donated blood for a dog |
Avoid Ace for sedation. Animal in sitting position or lateral recumbent. Collect from jugular with surgical prep using aseptic technique. Can use local anesthetic topically to minimize discomfort. Needle held as still as possible with second person gently mixing collection bag or syringe. |
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Name three anticoagulants used int the collection bag |
ACD (acid citrate dextrose) CPD (citrate phosphate dextrose) CPDA (citrate phosphate dextrose adenine) |
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How long can blood be stored for? |
With anticoagulants 3-4 weeks |
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Explain procedure for collecting donated blood for a cat |
Sedation often required. Smaller volumes of feline blood are collected and the flow rate is much slower. Sometimes collected into a 50 ml syringe with attached butterfly cath. Heparin can be added, ACD or CPD are preferred |
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What are the two anticoagulants preffered in a cat blood donation? |
ACD or CPD |
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Explain the storage of collected blood |
Stored in sterile fashion. Bacterial contamination of blood will result in severe transfusion reaction. Blood is excellent growth medium. Clotting factors survive the freezing process if plasma is removed and frozen immediately |
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What are the types of blood products? |
Whole blood, packed RBCs, cryprecipitate, fresh frozen plasma |
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When should fresh or frozen blood be used and why? |
Within 4 hours to prevent contamination |
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How long before platelets are deactivated |
8-12 hours |
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How long is whole blood stable for? What about with additives? Fresh frozen plasma? |
3-4 weeks in freezer, additives are available that can increase this to 35-37 days. Fresh frozen plasma is stable for 1 year if frozen |
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What are the indications for a whole blood transfusion? |
Aneamia due do blood loss, hemolytic conditions or non-regenerative anemia, blood loss from coagulopathy or DIC, severly anemia puppy/kitten due to hookworm infection, ticks, cats with severe anemia due to mycoplasma hemofelis (FIA), flea bite anemia |
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What are the indications for packed RBC transfusion? |
-When the patient is anemic but normovolemic (not dehydrated). -IMHA -Chronic renal failure -anemic patients with cardiac disease where volume overload could be a problem |
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What are the indications for fresh frozen plasma? |
hypoproteinemia, hypoalbuminemia, clotting factor deficieny (von willibrands), failure of passive immunity |
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What is the blood volume of a cat? Dog? |
50-66 ml/kg in cats 90 ml/kg in dogs |
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How much blood can be drawn safely? |
10% |
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What should be done if you draw too much blood? |
IV fluids totaling 2-3 times the amount of blood collected |
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What is the max number of blood that can be taken from any animal |
>20% |
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How often can a donor give blood? Emergency? |
Every 4-6 weeks.
3 weeks |
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What is the most important factor when transfusing? |
Clinical condition of the animal |
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What is transdusion indicated by (clinical signs)> |
anemic patients that exhibits signs such as weakness, dyspnea, and ataxia |
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What are the broad guidelines for transfusion? |
The patient is exhibiting significant clinical signs of anemia. The PCV is less than 10%. The PCV has fallen rapidly to less than 20% in dogs or 15% in cats |
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How much do you transfuse? |
1 ml of whole blood per pound (2ml/kg) will raise recipient PCV by 1% |
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Explain the method of administration using frozen blood |
Don't use microwave if using frozen. Use blood administration drip set that has a filter to prevent microthromi from entering recipient. Start slow (0.5 ml/kg/hr) for first 30 minutes. If no reaction, increase to 5-10 ml/kg/hr. Don't exceed 20 ml/kg/hr. Sit and watch for first 5-15 minutes. After 30-45 minutes, patients caged in treatment area. |
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What are the transfusion reactions to look for? |
-urticaria (hives) -erythema -pruritus -vomiting -vocalization (in cats) -pyrexia (fever) -depression -facial swelling -dyspnea -tachypnea -coughing -tachycardia -bradycardia -tremors -convulsions -shock -cardiopulmonary arrest -anorexia (delayed) -jaundice (delayed) |
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How do you treat transfusion reactions? |
Stop transfusion. Maintain IV line and administer crystlloid solutions. Watch for shock or DIC, monitor temperature, check serum and urine for hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria. Treat shock with aggressive fluid therapy and corticosteroids. Administer supportive therapy (oxygen, antihistamines, epinephrine) |
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Explain the specific complicatios from transfusion |
-hemolysis- recpient animal lyses donated RBCs, either immediately or within days/weeks of transfusion. -acute hypersensitivity reactions -pyrexia- most common, usually within 4 hours and is transient. -bacterial contamination of blood -hypocalcemia (citrate toxicity if overdose of anticoagulant) - tremors, vomiting, and cardiac arrhythmia -vomiting -circulatory overload- results in pulmonary edema, give O2 and furosemide, also pulmonary reactions that occur from unknown mechanism -transmission of infectious disease (babesia, ehrlichia, FeLV) |
