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138 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
I. What is the major function of the lung? Why is the respiratory system the most abused system of the body? What is the most common reason for a visit to a doctor’s office?
-excrete CO2 and replenish O2
-smoking, exposure to infection
-URI (upper respiratory infection)
A. A reflex sudden expulsion of air initiated by afferent nerves in the respiratory mucosa is called what? What is the purpose?
-keep the airway clean
B. What is the term to describe “air hunger” that is not ordinary or expected? What does DOE stand for?
-dyspnea on exertion
C. What is the term for the loss of lung volume due to inadequate expansion of airspaces? What is the significance of this and what is the situation called?
-lungs are collapsed (deoxy blood never receives adequate oxy blood which leads to hypoxia
-ventilation perfusion mismatch
D. What is the term describing fluid in the pleural space? What is the most common cause?
Pleural effusion
E. Pleural effusion with purulent fluid is called what?
F. Pleural effusion with blood is called what?
G. Air or other gases in the pleural space is called what? What three things may commonly cause this? What is the Tx?
-spontaneous (shortness of breath), traumatic (car accident), or due to disease
1. The volume of air moved in and out during normal easy breathing is termed what?
-Tidal volume (Vt)
2. The volume of air moved during a maximal inhalation followed by maximal exhalation is termed what?
-Vital Capacity (VC)
3. The vital capacity plus the residual volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal exhalation is termed what?
-Total lung Capacity
4. How is the Forced Vital Capacity measured? What is FEV1 mean and how is it useful?
-measured by the spirometry test
-have pt inhale max. and inhale max into spirometer
-FEV1 is the amount of air exhaled in the 1st second of the FVC procedure
-distinguishes b/w an obstructive lung disease and other lung disease
II. The FEV1/FVC is typically decreased to less than 75% with what? What happens to the lung capacity in these situations?
-obstructive pulmonary disease
-with some of these conditions the total lung capacity (TLC)is increased also
A. A person with episodic, reversible bronchospasm may have a condition called what? Clinically this condition is manifested by episodes of what 3 things? The pathology here is an exaggerated bronchoconstrictor response called what? What is believed to lead to this hyperresponsiveness? What are the two types of asthma?
-episodes of shortness of breath, cough, and wheezing
-reactive airway disease
-Extrinsic and Intrinsic asthma
1. Which asthma is due to a type I immune reaction? What antibody and cell play a key role in this? T/F This type of asthma is more common in children and they often “out grow” it.
-IgE and mast cells
2. What are two examples of triggers for intrinsic asthma.
- dust, weather change, emotional stress, exercise, URIs
3. What are 5 types of treatment for asthma? Why aren’t antihistamines used as a treatment for asthma?
-albuterol (epinephrine)
-leukotriene inhibitors
-mast cell stabilizers
-steroids (oral or inhaled)
-allergy shots
-O2 (only in emergency situations)
--antihistamines are not really a treatment b/c they have a drying out effect
B. What are two examples of COPD? Which one is described as a “blue bloater” and which is the “pink puffers”? Are treatments similar to asthma?
-emphysema and chronic bronchitis
-"blue bloater" is chronic bronchitis and "pink puffer" is emphysema
-yes, treatments are similar except for O2 and allergy shots
1. Which COPD is characterized by permanent enlargement of the airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles by destruction of their walls? What is the primary cause of emphysema? T/F There is a rare genetic predisposition to emphysema that involves alpha 1 antitripsin deficiency. Describe the classic example of someone with “pure” emphysema.
-smoking or rare genetic form
-"pink puffer" they are thin, puffing air, NOT sig hypoxic
2. Which COPD is defined as persistent, productive cough for ____ consecutive months of at least ____ consecutive years. What is the leading cause of this? T/F There is often a retention of CO2 and hypoxia. Describe the classic patient here.
-Chronic Bronchitis 3 months and 2 years
-"blue bloaters" obese, hypoxic, cyanotic, edematous (from CHF)
-treat with low lvls of O2
III. Interstitial Lung Disease is also known as what and what is going wrong in this condition? What are 2 examples of restrictive lung disease? What happens to the FEV1/FVC, TLC, and diffusion of oxygen across lung tissue?
-Restrictive lung disease
-lungs become stiff, difficult to expand
-ARDS (adult respiratory distress syndrome) and pulmonary fibrosis
-FEV1/FVC stays normal, TLC decreases and diffusion of O2 across lung tissue decreases
A. ARDS is a clinical syndrome involving ____ onset respiratory distress with what 3 other characteristics? What at least 2 common causes?
-decrease arterial pressure, decrease lung compliance, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray
-sepsis, pneuomonia, aspiration (breath in their vomit), and trauma
B. What is the problem in pulmonary fibrosis? What is the cause? How does it differ with ARDS?
-scarring of lung tissue
-idiopathic (DN know why it happens
-opposed to ARDS this is a CHRONIC interstitial lung disease
IV. Vascular Lung Disease
A. What term describes a situation where a blood clot is transported to the lungs by way of the veins, and pulmonary arteries. T/F This is very uncommon. A lot of PE arise from a thrombi where? What are 6 risk factors?
-pulmonary embolism
-large deep veins of the lower legs
-prolonged bed rest, surgery on the legs, severe trauma, CHF (congestive heart failure), pregnancy and other high estrogen states (BCP), disseminated cancer (pancreatic cancer)
B. What is another type of vascular lung disease mentioned that is most often secondary to COPD or recurrent pulmonary emboli? What kind of medications is this related to?
-pulmonary hypertension
-sometimes related to anorexic meds (phen-fen - appetite suppressing med)
V. Pulmonary Infections
A. T/F When infection is below the carina and limited to the mucosa only, it is called what? What if there is involvement of the alveoli and septa?
B. Bacterial invasion of the lungs that leads to a hemorrhagic, purulent exudative response is termed what? Most pneumonia falls into what two categories? Which one involves a patchy distribution of infection generally affecting more than one lobe? How does this differ from lobar pneumonia? Ninety percent of lobar pneumonia is due to what bacteria?
-bronchopneumonia or lobar pneumonia
-lobar pneumonia involves part or all of one lobe
-strep pneumoniae
1. What organism is common in children and in adults with COPD?
-Haemophilus influenza
2. What organism is an important cause of secondary pneumonia and have complications such as abscess or endocarditis?
-staph aureus
3. What organism is the most frequent cause of gram – pneumonia and is common in malnourished or alcoholic people?
-klebsiella pneumonia
4. Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Rickettsiae, and viral pneumonia are examples of what? This type of pneumonia common among what age group? T/F Penecillins and cephalosporins are not effective in treating this type of infection.
-atypical pneumonias
-older children and young dults
-need a macrolide antibiotic
5. What is the treatment for pneumonia? (3)
-antibiotics, oxygen, and respiratory support
C. _________ is a chronic granulomatous disease that is due to infection with an acid fast bacillus called what Mycobacterium tuberculosis. T/F TB is very common outside the U.S. What kind of reaction during the TB test will indicate prior exposure? What is “reactivation tb” referring to? T/F people who got a BCG will test positive for TB.
-prior exposure will give a delayed hypersensitivity reaction (type IV cell mediated) if red then positive
-refers to the infection being reactivated in the future by malnutrition or systemic steroids
D. What are two types of fungal lung infections mentioned in lecture? Why won’t Oliver go to the San Joaquin Valley? Pneumocytstis carinii commonly affects the lungs of people with what autoimmune disease?
-coccidiodomycosis and pneumocystis
-"VAlley Fever" caused by coccidiodomycosis affects a lot of filipinos and gives minor respiratory infection
-immunocompromised ppl (AIDS pts)
A. T/F The lung is a common site of metastatic disease.
just a fact
B. What cancer accounts for 95% of primary lung tumors? What are the four histologic types of bronchogenic carcinoma? Why is there poor prognosis of small cell CA?
-bronchogenic carcinoma
-squamous Cell CA, Adenocarinoma, large cell CA, small cell carcinoma
-it always has metastasized by the time of diagnosis
C. What type of lung cancer is pleural based instead of in the parenchyma. This has a strong association with exposure to what?
a. Most vascular diseases cause problems due to _________ of the vessel lumen.
-progressive occlusion
b. What are the number 2 and 3 most common cause of death in the country?
-#2 is heart attack and #3 is stroke
c. T/F These diseases commonly have signs and symptoms.
-false, there are no signs until very late in the course of the disease
II. ARTERIOSCLEROSIS: What are the 3 main categories of this?
arteriolosclerosis, monckeberg's medial calcific sclerosis, atherosclerosis
a. Arteriolosclerosis
i. Where do you find this arteriolosclerosis and what does it mean?
-you find it in the small arterial vessel
-means thickening of vessel
ii. How can optometrists visualize arteriolosclerosis? Describe how the vessels with arteriolosclerosis differ from normal ones.
-use ophthalmoscopy - you will see widening of the light reflex and narrowing of the blood column in affected vessels
-vein will horse shoe to dodge artery, AV nicking
iii. What are 3 conditions associated with this disease?
-diabetes, hypertension, aging process
b. Monckeberg’s Medial Calcific Sclerosis
i. What is the problem in Monckeberg’s Medial Calcific Sclerosis?
-DN expand, calcification of the tunica media of med sz arteries
ii. Does this affect the lumen? Then what problems can occur?
-decrease elasticity of vessel, lead to systolic hypertension, factitious hypertension
c. Atherosclerosis
i. What is the most prevalent disorder of mankind? What is the basic pathologic lesion and describe it.
-artheroma, fatthy streaks collect cholesterole (starts in tunica intima)
ii. These lesions may cause what 8 types of complications?
1. How much can the blood flow be obstructed till ischemia begins?
2. What 2ndary problem will ulcerating tissue cause?
-occulsion, calcification, ulceration, thrombosis, emboli formation, spasm, hemorrhage into the plaque, aneurysm formation
iii. What is the most common symptom of patients with atherosclerosis?
1. What is the term for fleeting blindness?
2. What’s the difference between a stroke and a TIA?
-stroke may complicate the site and then a TIA will actually occlude a site to the brain causing amaurosis fugax, contralateral sensory or motor changes, numbness to total anesthesia
iv. Epidemiology of Atherosclerosis
1. What is the probable basis of pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?
-response to endothelial injury
2. What are the 3 non controllable risk factors for atherosclerosis?
a. What gender is more at risk? What are 2 good genes?
b. What are the 3 bad genes?
-genetics, gender, age
-good genes: APOA1 and ABCA1 (promotes HDL)
-bad genes: APOB, APOC2, OLR1
3. What are the 5 somewhat controllable risk factors?
a. How does smoking increase the risk of atherosclerosis?
b. T/F Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, abnormal stress, oral contraceptives, and male hormones are “softer” associated factors.
-Hyperlipidemia (elevated LDL's), hypertension, smoking, diabetes, other (obesity, sendentary life style, stress, meds like oral contraceptives and male hormones)
-damages endothelium
v. Intervention
1. What is the next big item for the vascular diseases and intervention?
-genetic engineering to increase the good HDL and inhibit the LDL/VLDLs
vi. Pathogenesis
1. What is leading to the atheroma formation?
2. What role do macrophages and smooth muscle cells have?
-in response to endothelial injury, macrophages adhere to endo cells and migrate to subendothelial rea, then macro engulfs lioproteins (LDLs) to become foam cells then smooth muscle fibers multiply and also take up lipis which forms a fatty streat and develops an athermoa
III. VASCULITIS: Any inflammatory conditions of the blood vessels is referred to as what?
a. What disease is somehow autoimmune, granulomatous in nature and favors the temporal and ophthalmic arteries? Which gender does it favor?
-temporal (giant cell, cranial) arteritis
b. What problems do the granulomas cause? What are 3 symptoms?
c. Jaw pain while chewing is due to what?
-causes occulsion which lead to ischemia
-weight loss, unilateral headache over affected vessel site, jaw pain while chewing
d. What is amaurosis?
-visual symptom
e. Diagnosis is done with symptoms and what other 3 things?
-very high erythrocyte sedimetation rate of 100 or more
-elevated serum fibrinogen, biopsy to look for granulomas in the wall of artery
f. What is another disease that is an autoimmune vasculitis?
-lupus erythematosus
IV. ANEURYSMS: Abnormal dilation of an artery due to weakness in the vessel wall is called what?
a. When a vein or lymphatic vessel is abnormally dilated what is it called?
b. What are the top 4 causes of an aneurysm?
c. What are 3 complications of an aneurism?
-varicosity (vein) or lymphangiectasia (lymphatic)
-artherosclerosis, congenital defects, trauma, localized inflammation like syphilis
a. Abnormal dilated and tortuous veins due to increased intraluminal pressure combined with decreased vein wall strength is termed what?
b. Where does venous thrombosis and thrombophlebitis usually occur and what is the etiology? (6)
-lower leg of deep venous system
-stasis due to immobolization of legs, local increased pressure, congestive heart failure, varicose veins, trama to site, hypercoagulable states
c. What are the clinical signs of thorombosis and thrombophlebitis?
-red, hot, swollen, tender area, fever, ill feeling
d. What term means the abnormal accumulation of interstitial fluid due to obstruction of lymphatic channels? What are 5 possible etiologies?
-cancer, trauma, inflammation, scarring
a. What are the most common benign tumors of the blood? Where might you find these?
b. What is an example of a significant malignant tumors of blood vessels? Who usually get this?
-congenital hemangiomas (skin and mucus mem)and kaposi's sarcoma (blood vessels)
a. Define telangiectasia.
-abnormal dilation of pre-existing small vessels in the skin
a. What is the number 1 etiology of heart disease? What can be initiated by ischemia or disease ?
-artherosclerosis, which leads to heart attacks
a. Define congestive heart failure.
-clinical syndrome where there is decreased cardiac ouput ot the level that it cannot keep pace with the venous return which leads to congetions (the backing up of blood) - know this!!
b. What is left side failure? Where is the back up and what is it termed?
-occurs when high pressure side annot keep pace with the blood returning from the lungs and when it fails the back up is into the lungs leading to pulmonary edema
c. How does the kidney react to left side failure?
-decreased blood flow to kidnes increases renin output which leads to conservation of salt and water and therefore increases the total volulme and leads to more failure
d. What is the #1 cause of left side failure?
e. What are 5 symptoms of left side failure?
exertional dyspnea, fatigue, orthopnea, nightmares, confusion (due to neural hypoxia)
f. What is the most common cause of right sided failure? What lung disease can also cause this?
-lung disease
-Cor Pulmonale
g. What happens to the right ventricle in cor pulmonale? Where is the back up?
-right side hypertrophies (RVH) because it is trying to adapt
-the backup results in the lower extremities and liver gets edematous
a. What is the number 1 underlying cause of ischemic heart disease? What are 4 examples of ischemic heart attack?
-Angina Pectoris, Myocardial infarction, chronic ischemic heart disease, sudden cardiac death
i. What ischemic heart disease category is characterized by paroxysmal attacks of substernal chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia but does not lead to an infarct.?
-Angina pectoris
ii. How is an angina relieved?
iii. T/F angina virtually always means advanced atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries. T/F All muscle hurts when it is ischemic.
iv. What can bring about the symptoms of this condition?
-rest, nitroglycerin, O2
-true, because it takes 70% of more arterial obstruction to decrease blood flow and therefore angina virtually always means advanced artherosclerosis of the coronary veins
-anything that increases O2 demand like anger, exercise, pain, hot or cold weather, emotion
i. What condition occurs when the ischemia is long enough to lead to ischemic necrosis of the myocardium? What is the most common cause?
-myocardial infarction
ii. What are some treatments for myocardial infarction?
-meds to prevent arrhythmias and less CHF (lidocain, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, digitalis)
i. What kind of ischemic heart attack is due to long term ischemia in which the heart begins to fibrose and then fail?
-chronic ischemic heart disease
i. Unexpected death from cardiac causes when there has been no warning signs or symptoms is termed what? What is it usually due to?
-sudden cardiac death
-usually due to arrhythmias and undiagnose artherosclerosis and complication at the site of an atheroma
a. Left ventricular hypertrophy due to systemic hypertension is termed what?
b. Ultimately, this condition leads to what?
-hypertensive heart disease
- (hypertrophy due to "adaptiona) leads to CONCENTRIC hypertrophy which will compromise chamber size and lead to heart failure and symptoms of left sided failure
XII. CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE: What are 3 examples of congenital heart disease?
a. Which kind of hear disease is due to a shunting “hole in the heart” which leads to oxygenating blood recirculating through the right side?
-non cyanotic heart disease, cyanotic heart disease, mitral valve prolapse
-non cyanotic
b. Which kind of congenital heart disease involves desaturated blood from the right side mixing with oxygenated blood with leads to cyanosis.
-cyanotic heart disease
c. Which kind of congenital heart disease involves chest pain, heart pounding sensations, arrhythmias, headaches, and attacks of anxiety?
-mitral valve prolapse
d. Is there a gender and age difference for mitral valve prolapse?
-women age 20-40, but men also get it to (a 3/2 ratio)
e. What is the problem with the mitral valve?
-mitral valve is floppy and "balloons back into the left atrium in systole (prolapse) - may form thrombi in the floppy valve and have severe fatal arrhythmias
just a title
What disease is immune mediated and occurs in some people after infection with strep throat?
b. Why is this condition rare now? What organ is the main problem?
-rheumatic fever and rheumatic heart disease
-we have treatment for strep throat and there is a decreased spread of strep throat
-the heart, but also involves skin and joints
just a title
a. T/F Blood flow through the heart is normally smooth and streamlined and makes no noise. Interference with this flow makes a noise called what?
-mumur (like kinking a water hose)
b. Give three examples of what may cause a murmur.
-valvular disease, abnormal communications (holes in the heart), increased metabolic rate (pregnancy, hyperthyroidism)
Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
just a title
I. What are the 3 Main Sections of this lecture?
-RBCs, WBCs, Bleeding disorders
A. What list of disease types does Dr. Walls use when making a diagnosis? (8)
-infection, tumor, trauma, allergic, autoimmune, congenital, metabolic, idiopathic
B. In general, disease involving RBCs is due to a lack or excess? WBC?
-RBC (lack of)
-WBC (increase)
C. What 5 areas of the body fall into the hematopoietic/lymphoid system?
-circulating blood
-bone marrow
-lymph nodes
-RE system
II. What were the 5 general categories of RBC disorders discussed in this lecture?
-hemolytic anemia
-nutritional and aplastic anemia
A. Anemia describes a reduction in the normal circulating levels of __________ and/or _________?
1. When anemia is suspected, what are 3 possible causes? Which gender is most likely to get anemia?
2. What ocular sign may signify anemia?
-hemoglobin and/or RBCs
-losing, destroying, DN make enough RBC
-pale conjunctiva on the palpebral side (pull down lower lid and see palish look)
B. The loss of circulating blood into a body tissue, body cavity or external to the body is called what?
1. What is the primary concern of a hemorrhage?
2. What are the two sub categories of hemorrhages according to location?
3. T/F Bleeding in the duodenum is considered an internal hemorrhage.
4. What are two kinds of hemorrhages according to duration? Acute hemorrhage is possible due to what 3 things? What is the #1 cause of a bleeding disorder?
-acute and chronic
-trauma, ulceration, bleeding disorder
-I don't know
5. What are two examples of chronic hemorrhages? What is the limiting factor that determines the manifestation of the disorder?
-aspirin abuse
-iron (won't show till iron is depleted)
C. What term describes the increase RBC destruction resulting in a shortened life span for the RBCs of less than the normal 120 days? Is there a loss of iron?
-hymolytic anemias
-no, iron stays in body
1. What two types of hemolytic anemias are due to inherent RBC defects?
-sickle cell and spherocytosis
a. Describe Sickle Cell Anemia. Is this dominant or recessive? What AA is replaced with what?
-Hb is problematic, sickles in low O2 states, then lysis
-exchanges valine for glutamic acid
b. Describe Spherocytosis. Is this dominant or recessive?
-cell membrane is dysfunctional -spherical rather than biconcave
-dominant disorder
2. What 4 types of hemolytic anemias are due to external influences on the cell?
-autoimmune hemolytic anemia, drugs and chemicals, physical agents (radiation, dsyfunctional heart valves) and malaria (protozoal infecition)
a. Describe autoimmune hemolytic anemia and give one example.
b. What disease can cause bad heart valves that may physically damage and destroy cells?
c. Describe the effect of Malaria on RBCs.
-antibody creates an immune mediated destruction of RBCS (lupus is an example of a disease
-physical agent hemolytic anemia
-protozoa infects cells and hemolyzes them
D. What term describes the failure to make adequate or normal RBCs due to a lack of proper building blocks.
-nutritional anemia
1. An inadequate amount of ______ is the #1 reason for nutritional anemia. What is the result? What are 4 symptoms of this?
-microytic hypochromic aneima and phagophagia
-fatigue, headache, lack of energy, phagophagia (craving of ice)
2. An inadequate amount of ______ is the #2 reason for nutritional anemia. What two conditions is this most associated with?
-folic acid
-pregnancy and alcoholism
3. An inadequate amount of ______ is the #3 reason for nutritional anemia. What is the result? What is the term for this kind of anemia? What two conditions is this most associated with?
-macrocytic anemia
-diet, lack of intrinsic factor for absorption
E. What term describes a condition where the bone marrow is a very busy, active, and dynamic place and is very susceptible to suppression? What are 4 examples of this?
-aplastic anemia
-aplastic anemia
1. Describe Pancytopenia. Which cell line(s) is suppressed? What 4 things maybe the cause?
-all 3 types of blood cells are supressed
-radiation, drugs, major organ failure, cronic diseases of an inflammatory nature (autoimmune, infections, malignancies, etc.)
2. Desc. Aplastic anemia. What cell line(s) is suppressed? What chemical is famous for this?
-suppression of the three, but RBCs are most
3. Desc which cell lines are affected with Agranulocytosis and Thrombocytopenia.
-agranulocytosis - WBC
-thrombycotopenia - platelets
F. What term describes having too much circulating hemoglobin. What is an ocular manifestation of this? What is one other symptom associated with this disease?
-eyes dilated, veins and arteries tortuous
-blood sludgy and clots easily
1. What are two distinct forms of polycythemia?
-polycythemia vera
-secondary polycythemia
2. Describe polycythemia vera. T/F This often precedes another bone marrow malignancy like leukemia.
3. Desc. Secondary polycythemia. What is this due to?
-uncontrolled RBC production
-due to hypoxia, hypoxia will increase erythropoieting and create an oversupply of RBCs (because of smoking which destroys your lungs)
III. What are 4 WBC and/or Bleeding Disorders mentioned in this lecture?
-non neoplastic condictions, lymphomas, leukemia, plasma cell dyscrasias
A. What are the two nonneoplasitic conditions leading to WBC disorders?
-neutropenia and reactive leukocytosis
1. Desc. Neutropenia. What is the cause?
2. Desc. Reactive Leukocytosis.
-lack of WBCs due to bone marrow suppression
-increase WBC for underlying reason (infection)
B. What WBC disorder is characterized by malignant proliferation of B cell malignancies? Do these take over the bone marrow and what is the significance of this?
-Non hodgkin's lymphoma
-no, they do not circulate they stay locally to lymph tissue
1. What is the possible cause? What are the signs and symptoms? What is the age range of on-set?
-nontender enlargment of lymph node; req biopsy
C. What WBC disorder is characterized by malignant proliferation of T cell malignancies?
-Hodgkins lymphoma
1. Hodgkins Lymphoma has a distinct multinucleated giant cell on biopsy termed what? What is the range of age on-set? What gender is more prone?
-Reed-Sternberg cell
D. What WBC disorder is characterized by bone marrow malignancies and flood the peripheral blood with malignant cells? What are 2 types?
-lymphocytic leukemia and myleogenous leukemia
1. What are 2 catagories of lymphocytic leukemia according to onset duration?
-aute and chronic
a. Desc the difference between Acute and Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
-acute: explosive onset of immature cells (high WBC count)
-chronic: slow, insidious onset of more mature cells (higher WBC count than acute)
2. What are 2 catagories of myelogenous leukemia and what is the difference between the two?
-acute and chronic
-acute: explosive onset immature cells and chronic: slow, insidiuos onset more mature cells
a. Chronic myelogenous leukemia has a marker called what?
-philadelphia chromosome translocation
E. What term describes a condition in which cells derived from malignant plasma cells secrete some antibody components or a single antibody?
-plasma cells dyscrasias
1. The most common marked secretion of light chains which are secreted in the urine is called what?
bence jones protein
2. What type of plasma cell dyscrasias is the most common and is a malignant clone of neoplastic plasma cells in the bone marrow that is usually associated with lytic lesions throughout the skeletal system?
-multiple myeloma
a. Who usually diagnose these? What is the peak age of onset?
-age 50-70
IV. What kind of disorder presents with spontaneous or easy bleeding following trauma?
A. Desc. 2 possible etiologies.
B. What two conditions can lead to an inadequate hemostatic response?
bleeding disorders increase fragility of blood vessels and vitC def and what leads to hemostatic response: thrombocytopenia or platelet dysfunction (aspirin use), derangement of clotting mech (hereditary, liver disease)