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185 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
__% of the body's calcium is in bone, and __% is in plasma |
99% in bone
1% in plasma |
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Calcium occurs in plasma in these three forms:
Which form is the biologically active form? |
Ionized (50%)
Bound to protein (40%) Complexed to phosphate/bicarbonate/citrate (10%) Biologically active: Ionized |
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How does acidosis affect plasma calcium level?
|
Acidosis causes hypercalcemia.
Hydrogen and calcium bind albumin competitively, thus when H+ is increased, Ca2+ is liberated from albumin. |
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How would a decrease in albumin affect calcium concentration?
|
It would cause a decrease in bound Ca and total Ca. Free Ca2+ would not be affected.
|
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Calcium salts are excreted by the kidney (T/F)
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True; they are filtered and cannot be reabsorbed
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This enzyme converts 25(OH) vitamin D to 1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D
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1-alpha-hydroxylase
|
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This enzyme converts Vitamin D3 to 25-hydroxy-vitamin D
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25-hydroxylase
|
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Which molecule is converted by light energy to Vitamin D3?
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7-Dehydrocholesterol
|
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Scientific name for the active form of Vitamin D
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1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
|
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Physiologic function of Vitamin D/DHCC
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Allows transmembrane proteins in the intestine and PCT to absorb calcium Ca(2+) and PO4(3-)
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Active vitamin D deficiency causes ____ in children and ____ in adults
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Rickets (children) and Osteomalacia (adults)
|
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What stimulates the parathyroid glands to secrete PTH?
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Decreased free (ionized) calcium concentration
|
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How does PTH affect:
Bone Nephron PCT Digestion |
Bone: enhances osteoclast activity, resulting in release of ionized calcium and phsophate
PCT: ehnaces caclium reabsorption, while inhibiting phosphate reabsorption Digestion: enhances calcium absorption from food |
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Increased PTH (increases/decreases) the production of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
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Increase; body needs more active vitamin D to absorb calcium in the GI tract
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Site of production of calcitonin
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Parafollicular or C-cells of the thyroid gland
|
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what stimulates the production of calcitonin?
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Increased plasma Ca concentration
|
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What are the physiologic effects of calcitonin?
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Inhibits osteoclast activity in bone and increased excretion/decreased reabsorption of Ca in the kidney
|
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Symptoms of hypercalcemia include:
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GI symptoms
Neurologic changes Kidney stones Osteopenia Coma (extreme) |
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Most frequent cause of hypercalcemia
other causes? |
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Other: malignancy, sarcoidosis, Vitamin D overdose, immobilization |
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Symptoms of hypocalcemia
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Tetany, spasms and convulsions
|
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What are symptoms of primary parahyperthyroidism?
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Thin bones, increased risk of fracture, altered mental status and kidney stones
|
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Lab results of primary hyperparathyroidism
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Increased: calcium (serum and urine), ALP (bone), phosphate (urine), PTH
Decreased: serum phosphate |
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How does ectopic PTHrP cause hypercalcemia?
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PTH related protein (PTHrP) is similar to the N-terminal of PTH and has the same physiologic effect on osteoclasts, kidney, etc.
PTHrP does not respond to negative feedback |
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do PTH and PTHrP cross react in assays?
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No, they react indepedently of one another
|
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How does primary hyperparathyroidism differ from secondary?
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Primary: usually caused by adenoma/hyperplasia
Secondary: caused by hypocalcemia caused by chronic renal disease, vitamin D deficiency, intestinal malabsorption, etc. |
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CaI is decreased in secondary hyperparathyroidism (T/F)
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True; secondary hypoparathyroidism is usually the result of chronic renal disease, which causes decreased Ca2+ reabsorption
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How does acute pancreatitis affect calcium?
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causes acute hypocalcemia
- increased fatty acids (due to inc. lipase) bind free calcium - malabsorption of calcium may cause increased PTH production |
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How does hypomagnasemia affect calcium levels?
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It causes hypocalcemia due to inhibition of PTH secretion and ineffective PTH binding to receptors in bone.
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Phytic acid
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Plant chemical that binds dietary vitamin D and prevents its absorption
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Removal of the parathyroid gland will cause ______, which produces what symptoms?
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Primary hypoparathyroidism
symptoms: tetany, drying skin, brittle hair, hypotension and GI issues |
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Treatment of primary hypoparathyroidism
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High dosage Ca(2+) and vitamin D
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Pseudohypoparathyroidism
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PCT resistant to effects of PTH
- PTH is produced, but does not correct hypocalcemia - increased plasma phosphate - decreased plasma calcium and vitamin D - increased ALP |
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Symptoms of pseudoparathyroidism
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renal osteodystrophy
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Paget's disease
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hyperactivity of osteoclasts, causing increased calcium, phosphate and ALP, while PTH is decreased due to negative feedback by calcium.
Phosphate remains elevated due to decreased PTH |
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How do lab results of osteoporosis differ from the -parathyroidisms?
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Osteoporosis will have no abnormal Ca/phsophate/ALP/PTH/VitD results
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This molecule is increased in urine with osteoporosis
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Pyridnoline
|
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Sample requirements for calcium measurement
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Whole blood/serum/plasma that:
- has not been exposed to air - has heparin anticoagulant - Iced down - <1 hr old |
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The ionophore in calcium ISE
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octyl-phenyl-phosphonate
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What is another name for the dye-binding method of calcium measurement
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Arsenzo method
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How can the Arsenzo method for calcium measurement be modified to account for magnesium
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By adding 8-hydroxyquinoline, which will complex free Mg2+
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What pH level should be maintained for the Arsenzo method?
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alkaline (pH>10) - 8-hydroxyquinoline will bind calcium instead of magnesium at more acidic pH
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Reference range for total calcium
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8.6-10 (-10.6 in children) mg/dL
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Which other lab result should be looked at when looking at calcium levels
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Albumin (decreased albumin means decreased total calcium)
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Severe hypophosphatemia is common in this group of disorders
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Acid-base disorders (ie. resp. alkalosis, DKA)
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Hyperphosphatemia is associated with _____
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renal insufficiency
|
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Magnesium is predominantly (intracellular/extracellular)
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Intracellular
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Hypermagnesemia can be caused by which conditions?
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renal insufficiency
overdose of Mg containing medication (ie. antacids) hemolysis |
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The colloid in the thyroid gland has which physiologic function?
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Receiving and storing thyroglobulin produced by follicular epithelial cells
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The parafollicular cells of the thyroid produce and secrete:
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Calcitonin
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The general function of all thyroid hormones include:
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- stimulation of metabolism
- growth, maturation and sexual development - protein synthesis - heart rate and contraction - neurologic development |
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This element is key to the synthesis of thyroid hormones
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Iodine (ingested as iodides)
|
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Iodides are passively transported into the thyroid follicles (T/F)
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False; it is an energy-dependent, active transport mechanism
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Which enzyme is responsible for adding iodides to tyrosine to make MIT and DIT
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thyroid peroxidase
|
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monoiodotyrosine and diiodotyrosine are used to make
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T3 (DIT+MIT) and T4 (DIT+DIT)
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Primary site of the diodination of T4 to make T3
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Liver
|
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Which hormone induces the releace of thyroxine-thyroglobulin complexes from the follicular colloid
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TSH
|
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Thyroxine hormones bind to which three proteins in plasma?
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Thyroxine-binding globulin
Thyroxine-binding prealbumin Albumin |
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How is thyroxine concentration affected by pregnancy?
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Increase in estrogen causes an increase in TBG; this causes an increase in total T3 and T4
|
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How is thyroxine concentration affected by liver disease?
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Decreased levels of TBG, which is synthesized by the liver, causes decreased total T3/T4
|
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Which endocrine gland(s) responds to decreased levels of free T4 by producing and releasing TRH?
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Hypothalamus
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Which endocrine gland(s) responds to decreased levels of free T4 by producing and releasing TSH?
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Anterior pituitary
|
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Which is more physiologically active: T3 or T4?
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T3
|
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The concentration of circulating T3 is higher than that of T4 (T/F)
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False; T4 is higher than T3, but T3 is more physiologically active
|
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A T3 assay is order when clinicians suspect...
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subclinical hyperthyroidisms when free T4 is normal
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Why are lowered T3 levels typically not clinically significant?
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They are commonly depressed during any chronic illness
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Reference range of TSH
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0.5 - 5.0 uIU/mL
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Direct physiologic effects of TSH
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- Increases size and number of follicular thyroid cells
- breaks down thyroglobulin to release more thyroid hormone into circulation |
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Describe the formation of a goiter
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Decreased levels of iodide cause the anterior pituitary to secrete more TSH. The TSH causes enlargement/swelling of the thyroid gland to enhance absorption of any iodide
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an increased risk of thyroid cancer after exposure to radioactivity is due to...
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The thyroid extracting radioactive iodides that is inhaled from contaminated air
|
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What can be administered to prevent uptake of radioactive iodine?
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oral dose of potassium iodide, this prevents uptake of radioactive iodine by the thyroid
|
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What symptoms may lead clinicians to suspect elevated thyroid hormones?
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Increased body temp, BMR, cardiac output, RR, altered mood and behavior
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Toxic adenoma, toxic multinodular goiter and Graves' disease are examples of:
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primary hyperthyroidisms
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In primary hyperthyroidism, total/free T3/T4 will be (inc/dec), TSH will be (inc/dec) and TRH will be (inc/dec)
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T3/T4: increased
TSH: markedly decreased TRH: decreased (rarely measured) |
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Symptoms of hyperthyroidisms
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weight loss, sweat, anxiety, tremors, goiter, exophthalmosis, muscle weakness, tachycardia, hyperthermia
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What is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis?
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Graves' disease
|
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Physiologic cause behind Graves' disease
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Production of an antibody that resembles TSH, which inappropriately stimulates the thyroid to produce excess T3/T4 - this leads to hyperthyroidism
- TSH will be normal to decreased |
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Cretinism is due to:
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congenital primary hypothyroidism
|
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Lab results for primary hypothyroidism
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Increased TSH; decreased total/free T3/T4
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Which lab tests are needed to look for congenital hypothyroidism?
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First, T4 is measured. If T4 is low, then TSH is measured to determine this is secondary.
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Newborns normally have (higher/lower) concentrations of T4 than adults
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higher
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Myxedema is a type of ____ ____ and its symptoms are...
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Primary hypothyroidism; symptoms: goiter, thickening skin, hoarse speech, weight gain
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Hashimoto's thyroiditis is caused by
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Autoantibodies against thyroglobulin, leading to maasive infiltration of the thyroid by lymphocytes
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What is the most common cause of primary hyperthyroidism?
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Hashimoto's thyroidits
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In adults, the first lab test ordered when a thyroid problem is suspected should be:
|
TSH
|
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A TSH level of <0.1 mU/mL is suggestive of
|
primary hyperthyroidism
|
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When is a free T4 index performed?
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When analyzed TSH results do not correlate to clinical symptoms
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Abnormal levels of thyroxines in the presence of normal levels of TSH can be due to:
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pregnancy or liver disease, due to abnormal levels of TBG
|
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The eurythroid sick syndrome occurs when:
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fT3 and fT4 are decreased but the thyroid and pituitary glands are functioning normally; occurs due to many types of illnesses
|
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Should thyroid function tests be performed on seriously ill patients?
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No, due to the common presence of euthyroid sick syndrome
|
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How are thyroxine levels analyzed?
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Competitive immunoassay:
1. Thyroxines are displaced from carrier proteins 2. Antibodies specific for thyroxine are added 3. Enzyme-labeled thyroxine compete with patient's thyroxine for Ab binding sites 4. Wash removes unbound thyroxines 5. Substrate that reacts with enzyme-label and produces a color change is added 6. Color intensity is inversely proportional to patient's thyroxine level |
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THBR is (inversely/directly) related to TBG levels
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inversely; increased THBR indicates low levels of TBG
|
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What is the purpose of the TRH stimulation test?
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To determine if a patient has hyperthyroidism. TRH will cause a rapid increase in TSH in normal patients, but no response in hyperthyroid patients.
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What is the purpose of TSH receptor antibodies?
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Detects TSHr-Ab's in order to diagnose autoimmune hyperthyroidisms (ie. Graves' disease)
|
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Why is the analysis of free T4 problematic?
|
The vast majority of T4 is bound to TBG. Any slight disturbance or deviation in procedure will cause a falsely elevated FT4.
|
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Hormones produced by the adrenal gland are what type?
|
Steroid
|
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A defect in (11-beta) has what effect on adrenal hormones?
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11-beta is required to produce cortisol and aldosterone
a defect will cause inability to produce these and an elevated level of sex hormones |
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Aldosterone is secreted by the ____ of the ____
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zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
|
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This hormone is responsible for:
- sodium reabsorption in the PCT - regulation of extracellular fluid volume - increasing blood volume and pressure |
Aldosterone
|
|
Aldosterone
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- sodium reabsorption in the PCT
- regulation of extracellular fluid volume - increasing blood volume and pressure |
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This enzyme is stored in JG cells of the renal glomeruli and is the first step of aldosterone up-regulation
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Renin
|
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Renin production is stimulated by:
|
low plasma volume/pressure and hyponatremia
|
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Renin converts _____ to ____
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angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
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Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the ____ by ____
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lungs, by angiotensin-converting enzyme
|
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Angiotenin II causes _____
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vasoconstriction
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Where is cortisol produced?
|
Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex
|
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17-hydroxycorticosteroids are precursors of _____
|
cortisol
|
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Physiologic functions of cortisol
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- Increased gluconeogenesis in liver
- Suppression of insulin secretion - Inhibition of peripheral uptake of glucose - Inc. glycogenesis, proteolysis - inc. fatty acid production via cellular lipase - stimulates erythropoiesis |
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How does cortisol have an anti-inflammatory effect?
|
- suppression of cytokines
- inhibition of leukocyte transport across capillary - decrease eosinophils and T-lymphocytes !! too much can cause poor wound healing and immunosuppression |
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Corticotropin Releasing Hormone is secreted by the _____ in response to _____
|
Hypothalamus; decreased levels of plasma cortisol
|
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CRH stimulates the _____ to secrete _____
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anterior pituitary; ACTH (adrenal corticotropic hormone)
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ACTH stimulates the _____ to secrete _____
|
zona fasciculata (Zone F) of the adrenal cortex; cortisol
|
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ACTH is increased in the evening and decreased in the morning (T/F)
|
False; ACTH levels increase exponentially at night and peak in the morning, then decrease
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When females are exposed to an excess of testosterone or androstenedione, this can cause:
|
- virilization (development of masculine characteristics)
- cessation of menstruation |
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The zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex produces _____
|
Precursors to androgens: DHEA and androstenedione from cholesterol
|
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Hormones produced by the adrenal medulla
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Norepinephrine and epinephrine
|
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Norepinephrine is synthesized primarilly in the ____
Epinephrine is synthesized primarilly in the ____ |
NorE: CNS
Epi: adrenal medulla |
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Physiological effects of catecholamines
|
- released in response to pain or emotional disturbance
- slows digestion - increased BP, HR, blood glucose - arterial dilation |
|
Metabolites of catacholamines are converted to ____
|
Vanillymandelic acid (VMA)
|
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How is stimulation of tissue by catecholamines different from direct stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system?
|
Th effects of hormones are longer lasting and the hormones can reach tissues that are not directly innervated
|
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Catecholamines are synthesized from which amino acid?
|
Tyrosine
|
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Catecholamines bind alpha receptors to increase ____ and decrease ____
|
Free calcium; cAMP
|
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The action of catecholamines to bind beta receptors serves to:
|
- increase heart rate
- increase force of contraction |
|
What are the effects of catecholamines with regards to energy storage and utilization?
|
Catecholamines:
- increase glycogenolysis - stimulate lipolysis (more sustained energy production than glycolysis) - increased metabolic rate, O2 consumption and heat production |
|
Excessive consumption of licorice is linked to ____
|
hyperaldosteronism
|
|
Lab results of hyperaldosteronism
|
- normal to elevated Na
- decreased K - increased serum/urine aldosterone - metabolic alkalosis |
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What is the difference between the etiology of primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism?
|
Primary: caused by adrenal adenoma or adrenal hyperplasia [renin will be decreased due to kidney response to low BP]
Secondary: Excessive renin production in the kidney resulting in hyperaldosteronism |
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PTH is required for the synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxycholeclaciferol (T/F)
|
True
|
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Lab results for hypoaldosteronism
|
- decreased plasma sodium
- increased potassium [metabolic alkalosis] - decreased aldosterone - decreased blood pressure |
|
What is the difference between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency?
|
Primary insufficiency occurs with a damaged or ineffective adrenal cortex
Secondary insufficiency occurs due to a deficiency of ACTH (pituitary issue) |
|
Lab results of primary adrenal insufficiency
|
Decreased: cortisol, aldosterone, sodium, blood pressure, pH(acidosis)
Increased: potassium, ACTH |
|
Symptoms of Addison's disease
|
dehydration, decreased kidney function, shock (due to low BP), darkening of skin due to MSH
|
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Primary hypercortisolism is also known as ____
|
Cushing's syndrome
|
|
Why does Cushing's syndrome cause hyperglycemia?
|
Cushing's syndrome causes elevated levels of cortisol. Cortisol induces gluconeogensis and glycogenolysis and increases blood glucose.
|
|
The characteristic physical features of Cushing's syndrome:
|
Buffalo hump: Trunkal obesity and fat accumulation on the upper shoulders
Moon face: fluid and tissue accumulation around the face Also: poor wound healing, weight gain, weakened bones, depression |
|
What are the lab results of primary Cushing's syndrome
|
Hyperglycemia, cortisoluria
Inc. cortisol in the morning AND evening, while ACTH is decreased in the morning |
|
What lab result will differentiate primary and secondary hypercortisolemia
|
In the morning:
Primary: ACTH decreased Secondary: ACTH increased |
|
What is ectopic Cushing's disease?
|
Secondary hypercortisolism due to an ACTH-producing tumor located outside of the pituitary gland.
|
|
Hypocortisolism is also known as ____
|
Addison's disease
|
|
Insulin sensitivity, hypoglycemia, weakness and imbalances in carb/fat/protein metabolism are associated with ____
|
Addison's disease
|
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A rise in cortisol levels after administration of synthetic ACTH is due to
|
Secondary pituitary failure or medication-induced adrenal atrophy
|
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After administration of metyrapone, the levels of 11-deoxycortisol will be increased in _____, but decreased in _____
|
Increased: normal pituitary response
Decreased: pituitary or hypothalamic diseas |
|
The metyrapone stimulation test can be safely performed in those with primary adrenal insufficiencies (T/F)
|
False; primary adrenal insufficiency must first be ruled out, as the test will cause unnecessary stress to the patient
|
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When measuring urine cortisol, what must be done to separate urinary free cortisol from cortisol metabolites?
|
An organic solvent is added and the metabolites are extracted
|
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A deficiency in 21-hydroxylase will cause increased ____. Because of this ____ and ____ will be decreased
|
Cortisol and aldosterone precursors will be shunted to produce adrenal androgens.
|
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When drawing to test for plasma epinepherine levels, what important factor must be considered?
|
The patient's posture; levels may be much higher in standing/sitting patients than those that are supine.
|
|
Laboratory signs indicative of a pheochromocytoma are
|
Blood catecholammines: >2,000 ng/L
Urine VMA: >11 mg |
|
Clonidine will not affect the catecholamine levels when an adrenal tumor is present (T/F)
|
True; clonidine suppression test is used to discriminate adrenal tumors from other causes of hypertension
|
|
Estradiol (E2)
|
- chief estrogen in non-pregnant females
- produced by the maturing follicle within the ovary - Responsible for secondary sexual chars., fat distribution, uterine development, preparation of the uterus for implantation/pregnancy |
|
Estrone (E1)
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Metabolic product of estradiol with no biological activity
|
|
Estriol (E3)
|
- synthesized by placenta using a precursor made by the developing fetus
- high concentrations during pregnancy suppress pituitary hormones that cause ovulation - present in very small quantities in non-pregnant women |
|
_____ is the chief male androgen, while ____ is the chief female androgen
|
Testosterone = male
Androstenedione = female |
|
Dihydrotestosterone has (greater/lesser) biological activity than testosterone
|
Greater
|
|
Functions of testosterone
|
- male secondary sexual chars. (muscle, bone, voice, hair)
- maturation of male reproductive system - spermatogenesis |
|
Progesterone is produced by the ____ in women
|
corpus luteum (luteal phase) and placenta (during pregnancy)
|
|
Function of progesterone
|
Induces growth and vascularization of the uterine wall in preparation for implantation of the fertilized egg
|
|
GnRH stimulates the ______ to secrete ___ and ___
|
anterior pituitary; LH and FSH
|
|
Oxytocin is produced by the _____ and stored by the ____ until secretion is stimulated
|
hypothalamus; posterior pituitary
|
|
This hormone is responsible for stimulating growth and mitosis/meiosis of gametes
|
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
|
|
This hormone is responsible for release of gametes by stimulating secretion of progesterone/testosterone from the ovary/testis, respectively
|
Luteinizing hormone (aka interstitial cell-stimulating hormone)
|
|
Decreased testosterone in males leads to an increase in which hormones?
|
LH and FSH
|
|
Estradiol inhibits the release of ___ from the ant. pituitary, while stimulating it to secrete ___
|
FSH is inhibited while LH is stimulated
|
|
Ovulation
|
The release of a mature oocyte from the follicle. Ovulation is induced by a surge in LH/FSH, which arises due to rising estradiol
|
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The pituitary is stimulated to produce FSH and LH by ____, ____ and ___
|
GnRH, decreased estradiol and decreased progesterone
|
|
LH, FSH and inhibin A are at their highest levels on day __ when ____ occurs
|
14; ovulation
|
|
What triggers menstruation?
|
A decrease in estradiol and progesterone due to the destruction of the corpus luteum
|
|
After implantation, the ____ starts producing progesterone, estrogen and hCG
|
placenta
|
|
During pregnancy ___ inhibits the secretion of FSH and LH
|
Estriol (E3)
|
|
A typical uncomplicated pregnancy lasts ___ weeks
|
40
|
|
The stage of stage of the embryo that implants in the uterus is the ____
|
blastocyst
|
|
hCG levels increase rapidly after ___ and peak at ___ (unit of time)
|
implantation; 12-14 weeks (1st trimester)
|
|
hPL
|
human placental lactogen; marker of pregnancy; prepares mammary glands for lactation
|
|
A common cause of maternal death during the first trimester
|
Ectopic pregnancy: fertilized ovum is unable to implant the uterus
|
|
Scarred or obstructed fallopian tubes due to STD or PID is a common cause of ____
|
ectopic pregnancy
|
|
During an ectopic pregnancy, hCG will be ____
|
Low, with a much slower rate of increase compared to normal pregnancy
|
|
Most spontaneous abortions during the first trimester occur due to:
|
fetal abnormalities, such as genetic defects and incompatibilities with life
|
|
A sudden drop in progesterone levels DURING pregnancy will cause:
|
Endometrium, with the developing embryo, to slough and cause menstruation/miscarriage
|
|
Hydatiform mole
|
benign growth, characterized by abnormal growth of chorionic villi, edema and fluid-filled sacs in the uterus visible by ultrasound
|
|
Choriocarcinoma
|
An invasive malignancy that arises from the trophoblast (outer layer of cells in a blastocyst)
|
|
Extremely high levels of hCG (>400,000) are consistent with:
|
A choriocarcinoma with poor prognosis
|
|
hCG levels in a twin pregnancy will be ___ the normal level
|
double
|
|
Menopause is marked by an increase in ____ and decrease in ____
|
FSH and LH become elevated, while estrodiol decreases.
|
|
Signs of hypogonadism (children vs. adults)
|
Children: delayed onset of puberty
Adults: amenorrhea, decreased libido, infertility |
|
Turner's syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome are examples of:
|
Primary hypogonadisms
|
|
Primary vs. Secondary hypogonadisms
|
Both: dec. gonadal hormones
Primary: inc. FSH/LH Secondary: dec. FSH/LH |
|
Hirsutism
|
Excessive hair growth in women where hair should not normally be seen (back, chest, face)
|