• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/283

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

283 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
selective toxicity?
injury of invading organisms without injury to the host
concentration-dependent killing?
the more the drug concentration exceeds the MIC, the greater the rate of killing;
Cmax/MIC or AUC/MIC
examples of drugs with concentration-dependent killing?
fluroquinolones
aminoglycosides
time-dependent killing?
rate of killing is dependent on the length of time the drug concentration remains above the MIC
example of drug with time-dependent killing?
β-lactams
MIC?
minimum inhibitory concentration
post-antibiotic effect?
bacteria do not immediately resume growth once the antibacterial concentration drops below the MIC
bacteria susceptibility to PAE?
most antibiotics for Gm(+)
only fluoroquinolones and aminoglycosides fro Gm(-)
superinfection and examples?
secondary infection caused by antibiotic;
oral or vaginal candidiasis;
pseudomembranous colitis (c. difficile)
intrinsic resistance?
absence of drug target
inability of drug to penetrate to site of action
acquired drug resistance?
antibiotics help select for drug resistant organisms but do not cause drug resistance
how do organisms acquire resistance?
random mutations
transduction
transformation
conjugation
major concern with conjugation?
transfer of plasmids that code for multiple drug resistance
transformation?
acquisition of genetic material from environment coding for drug resistance by competent bacteria
two major competent pathogens?
s. pneumoniae
n. meningitides
biomechanical mechanisms of drug resistance?
decreased intracellular concentration
inactivation
decreased affinity
why not use antibiotics together if their effect is additive?
not enhance very much but introduces possibilities of more side effects, etc
synergistic combinations?
cell wall synthesis inhibitors + aminoglycosides;
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole;
quinupristin/dalfopristin;
amphotericin B + flucytosine
breakpoint?
drug concentration that determines if an organism is susceptible or resistant
when use combination antibacterial therapy?
mixed infections
delay emergence of resistance
synergism
unknown etiology
crosslinking of peptidoglycan occurs via which amino acids?
glycine and D-alanyl-D-alanine
mechanism of β lactams?
act on growing bacteria by binding to and irreversibly inactivating several penicillin binding proteins (PBPs);
activate a group of bacterial enzymes, autolysins, causing degradation of the cell wall
transpeptidase?
enzyme responsible for crosslinking the linear glycopeptide strands of the cell wall
end consequence on bacteria treated with β lactams?
bactericidal
time-dependent killing
weakened cell wall
lysis
β lactamase?
multiple families of enzymes that hydrolyze β lactam ring to carboxylic acids without antibacterial activity
β lactamase in Gm(+)?
coded by plasmid
most commonly penicillinases
secreted
β lactamase in Gm(-)?
coded by genetic elements on chromosome or a plasmid;
can be constitutively expressed or be inducible;
broad spectrum that hydrolyze several different substrates;
localized to periplasmic space
resistance to β lactams?
β lactamase
decreased pore size [Gm(-)]
altered PBPs
MRSA and MDRSP method of resistance to β lactams?
altered PBPs that have either very low or no affinity for β lactam drugs
all penicillins are derived from?
6-aminopenicillanic acid
disadvantages of pharmacokinetics of penicillin?
destroyed by acid content in stomach;
actively secreted from kidney tubules by anion transport system
use of probenecid with penicillin?
prolongs duration by blocking its active transport in the proximal tubule
repository forms of penicillin G and benefit?
procaine and benzathine salts are administered IM into large muscle mass and slowly absorbed
means of prolonging duration of action of penicillin?
simultaneous administration of probenecid;
repository forms (procaine and benzathine salts)
deficiencies of penicillin?
low oral bioavailability
β lactamase inactivation
narrow therapeutic spectrum
natural penicillins?
penicillin G
penicillin V
penicillin V?
form resistant to acid so more reliable absorption
pencillinase-resistant penicillins?
methicillin
oxacillin
cloxacillin
dicloxacillin
nafcillin
use of nafcillin?
chiefly excreted in the bile so useful for renal failure patients to treat penicillinase-producing staphlococci
amino or extended spectrum penicillins?
ampicillin
bacampicillin
amoxicillin
ampicillin effective against?
e. coli
h. influenzae
salmonella
shigella
some proteus species
amoxicillin advantage?
given po as has good stability and is better absorbed than ampicillin;
not used for shigellosis
antipseudomonal penicillins?
carbenicillin
ticarcillin
piperacillin
antipseudomonal penicillin spectrum?
enhanced activity against:
pseudomonas
enterobacter
indole (+) proteus
klebsiella
β lactamase inhibitors?
clavulanic acid
sulbactam
tazobactam
mechanism of clavulanic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam?
irreversibly inactivate some β lactamases
penicillin plus β lactamase inhibitor combinations available?
amoxicillin/clavulanic acid
ampicillin/sulbactam
piperacillin/tazobactam
ticarcillin/clavulanic acid
characteristics of hypersensitivity reactions to penicillins?
cross-sensitivity;
more often = delayed allergic reaction (maculopapular eruptions, fever, or both);
less common, more serious = immediate mediated by IgE
adverse effects of penicillins?
hypersensitivity
serum sickness
hemolytic anemia
allergic interstitial nephritis
convulsions at high doses
carbenicillin and ticarcillin adverse effects?
bind ADP receptor on platelets leading to impaired aggregation and coagulation;
electrolyte disturbances
which drugs may cause impaired platelet aggregation or electrolyte disturbances?
carbenicillin
ticarcillin
ampicillin and amoxicillin adverse reaction?
rash that is not immune mediated;
100% incidence in mono patients
cause rash that is not immune mediated?
ampicillin
amoxicillin
cephalosporins general mechanism and characteristics?
bactericidal;
inhibit cell wall synthesis similarly to penicillins and are similarly resisted;
intrinsically resistant to Gm(+) penicillinase
cephalosporin susceptibility to β lactamases?
intrinsic resistance to Gm(+) penicillinase;
hydrolyzed by cephalosporinase and broad spectrum β lactamases
trends as proceed from 1st to 4th generation cephalosporins?
increased flux across outer membrane of Gm(-);
increase stability toward Gm(-) β lactamases
how does penicillin penetrate cerebrospinal fluid?
normally poor penetration
meningeal inflammation allows accumulation in CFS
cephalosporins penetration of bbb?
most 1st and 2nd generation do not penetrate even when inflammation is present
1st generation cephalosporins?
cephalexin
cefazolin
activity of 1st generation cephalosporins?
active against:
Gm(+) cocci
e. coli
k. pneumoniae
p. mirabilis
ineffective against:
enterococci
MRSA
listeria
penicillin-resistant streptococci
2nd generation cephalosporins?
cefuroxime
cefaclor
spectrum of cefuroxime and cefaclor (2nd)?
e. coli
klebsiella
proteus
h. influenzae
moraxella catarrhalis
cefotetan?
cephamyin
more resistant to β lactamases
similar spectrum as 2nd gen
added activity against b. fragilis
which has added activity against bacteroides fragilis?
cefotetan
3rd generation cephalosporins?
cefotaxime
ceftazidime
ceftriaxone
spectrum of cefotaxime, ceftazidime, and ceftriaxone?
expanded Gm(-) specturm and some CNS penetration;
enterobacteriaceae;
pseudomonas;
serratia;
n. gonarrhoeae;
s. aureus;
strep. pyogenes
4th generation cephalosporins?
cefepime
spectrum of cefepime?
similar to 3rd but more resistance to some β lactamases
adverse effects of cephalosporins?
hypersensitivity
renal damage
local tissue reactions
interfere with vitamin K metabolism
disulfuram like reaction
cephalosporin causing a serum sickness-like reaction in children?
cefaclor
pseudocholelithiasis as adverse effect?
ceftriaxone
contraindication for cephalosporins?
individuals who have experienced an immediate-type or other serious allergic reaction to penicillin
carbapenems?
imipenem
meropenem
ertapenem
widest spectrum of activity of any β lactam?
imipenem
held in reserve for resistant infections
what is imipenem combined with and why?
cilistatin to prevent the metabolic inactivation of imipenem by enzyme dehydropeptidase
adverse reactions of imipenem?
allergic (some cross sensitivity with penicillins and cephalosporins);
seizures
difference between imipenem and meropenem or ertapenem?
meropenem and ertapenem are resistant to metabolism by dehydropeptidase
aztreonam class and spectrum?
monobactam;
Gm(-);
excellent stability to β lactamase;
main use is treatment of nosocomial Gm(-) pathogens
vancomycin class and mechanism?
glycopeptide antibiotic
binds terminal D-alanyl-D-alanine to inhibit transglycosylase preventing further elongation of peptidoglycan chain and cross-linking
resistance to vancomycin?
substitution of a D-lactic acid for the terminal D-alanine
'redman' or 'red neck syndrome'?
flushing of upper body caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin;
vancomycin-induced release of histamine from mast cells
vancomycin spectrum?
narrow Gm(+) antibiotic:
MRSA
antibiotic-induced enterocolitis
streptococcal endocarditis (+ cephalosporin)
MDRSP
adverse effects of vancomycin?
redman or red neck syndrome
nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity
other miscellaneous inhibitors of cell wall synthesis?
bacitracin
cycloserine
fosfomycin
teicoplanin
which not approved in us due to treatment failure?
teicoplanin
bacitracin?
peptide antibiotic
used topically due to extreme nephrotoxicity
macrolides?
erythromycin
clarithromycin
azithromycin
resistance to macrolides?
efflux pump
mutation of ribosomal binding site
methylation of binding site
(cross resistance)
macrolide mechanism?
protein synthesis inhibitor that binds the 50S ribosome;
generally considered bacteriostatic
erythromycin pharmacokinetics?
destroyed in stomach;
concentrated in liver and excreted in bile;
metabolized by P450;
potent inhibitor of CYP3A4
problems with erythromycin?
narrow antibacterial spectrum
instability in acid
severe abdominal cramping in some
inhibition of CYP3A4
clarithromycin?
broader spectrum than erythromycin;
less likely to produce gi upset;
inhibits P450
azithromycin?
macrolide;
higher tissue concentrations;
expanded spectrum from erythromycin
adverse effects of erythromycin?
cholestatic hepatitis;
epigastric distress
ketolide mechanism and consequence?
binds domains II and V of 23S rRNA;
poor ligand for efflux pump;
binding to domain II is sufficient for inhibition of protein synthesis
telithromycin?
ketolide;
treatment of community acquired pneumonia
telithromycin adverse effects?
acute hepatic failure and severe liver injury;
not to be used in patients with myasthenia gravis
lincosamide mechanism?
similar to macrolides
clindamycin spectrum?
lincosamide:
many Gm(+)
community acquired MRSA
highly active vs b. fragilis
which antibiotic has affinity for osseus tissue?
clindamycin
adverse effects of clindamycin?
most frequently associated with pseudomembranous colitis
most frequently associated with pseudomembranous colitis?
clindamycin
quinupristin/dalfopristin?
streptogramin (synercid is combo):
50S ribosome protein synthesis inhibitors;
synergistic because bind at different sites that are unrelated
which compounds have to cross resistance with other agents that inhibit 50S ribosome?
quinupristin
dalfopristin
linezolid
quinupristin/dalfopristin spectrum?
Gm(+)
used for nosocomial infections or those that do not respond to other agents
streptogramins adverse effects?
metabolized by CYP3A4
venous problems at infusion site
arthralgia
myalgia
linezolid?
oxazolidinone:
50S ribosome inhibitor
Gm(+) spectrum
enterococci
linezolid pharmacokinetics?
nearly 100% bioavailability
does not inhibit or induce P450
linezolid adverse effects?
myelosuppression
peripheral neuropathy
nonspecific monoamine oxidase inhibition
which possesses nonspecific monoamine oxidase inhibition?
linezolid
chloramphenicol?
nitrobenzene:
50S ribosome inhibitor
use is restricted to when no other antibacterial is effective
resistance chloramphenicol?
due to acetylation that converts to inactive metabolite
chloramphenicol pharmacokinetics?
rapidly absorbed and widely distributed;
conjugated by glucuronosyl transferase
adverse effects of chloramphenicol?
aplastic anemia
blood dyscrasias
gray-baby or gray syndrome
aplastic anemia and chloramphenicol?
not dose related;
symptoms can start as long as 6 months after use;
not reversible
blood dyscrasias and chloramphenicol?
dose dependent;
reversible
gray syndrome?
chloramphenicol caused:
cyanosis
respiratory irregularities
vasomotor collapse
abdominal distention
loose green stools
ashen-gray color
(cannot adequately conjugate the drug to eliminate it)
tetracyclines mechanism?
30S ribosome inhibitor;
bacteriostatic;
inhibit both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells
why are tetracyclines somewhat selective for bacteria?
susceptible organisms have an active transport system
resistance to tetracyclines?
pump that removes drugs from cells
tetracyclines?
tetracycline
minocycline
doxycycline
why has use of tetracyclines declined?
increasing bacterial resistance
newer, more effective antibiotics
similarities/differences between the tetracyclines?
similar structures
similar antibacterial spectrum
difference is drug half life
why is doxycycline preferred over other tetracyclines?
long half life
nearly complete absorption
high tissue concentrations
excretion in feces (does not accumulate when compromised renal function)
use of tetracyclines?
rickettsiae
chlamydiae
mycoplasmas
h. pylori
plasmodia
amebas
adverse effects of tetracyclines?
hypersensitivity with cross sensitization;
phototoxic reaction;
hepatic dysfunction;
tooth discoloration and depressed bone growth in children
minocycline adverse effects?
vertigo and dizziness
hyperpigmentation due to iron complexes in skin
tetracyclines drug interactions?
antacids, milk, or multivitamins inhibit absorption of tetracyclines
tigecycline?
glycylcycline: similar to tetracyclines
resistance to tigecycline?
not affected by common mechanisms;
unaffected by tetracycline efflux pumps;
exception is efflux pump in pseudomonas);
no cross-resistance with other classes
tigecycline spectrum?
activity against variety of multidrug-resistant pathogens
adverse effects of tigecycline?
high occurrence of nausea and vomiting (1/3)
aminoglycoside mechanism?
bactericidal inhibitors via interference with initiation, cause misreading, produced decreased or abnormal proteins;
taken up by bacteria in energy-dependent oxygen-dependent process
resistance to aminoglycosides?
metabolism by bacteria to inactive species
aminoglycoside specificity for bacteria vs host?
large, low lipid solubility, and high polycationic charge allow for poor penetration except to specialized cells (renal tubular, hair cells);
bacteria have an uptake pump
aminoglycosides?
gentamicin
tobramycin
amikacin
kanamycin
streptomycin
neomycin
three aminoglycosides most important for treating systemic infections due to Gm(-) enteric bacteria?
gentamicin
tobramycin
amikacin
kanamycin use?
bowel sterilization prior to surgery
streptomycin use?
treatment of TB
neomycin use?
topically or in irrigation solutions
aminoglycosides dosing?
narrow ti
once daily limits side effects
requires adjustment for kidney function
dose based on lean body mass
adverse effects of aminoglycosides?
ototoxicity
nephrotoxicity
neuromuscular blockade
fluoroquinolone mechanism?
inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase Gm(-) and topoisomerase IV Gm(+)
resistance to fluoroquinolones?
mutation of gyrA
mutation of gyrB (low level)
active efflux
(cross resistance)
where do fluoroquinolones accumulate and why might this be beneficial?
prostate, kidney, neutrophils, macrophages;
in prostate is good to prevent reseeding following treatment for UTI
fluoroquinolones?
ciprofloxacin
levofloxacin
gatifloxacin
moxifloxacin
fluoroquinolone black box warning?
tendon rupture following vigorous exercise
adverse effects of fluoroquinolones?
gi disturbance
rash
headache
vertigo
excitement
visual disturbances
tendon rupture
not in children to due to possible damage of cartilage
rifamycins?
rifampin
rifabutin
rifampin mechanism?
inhibits DNA dep RNA polymerase
resistance to rifampin?
develops rapidly when used as a single agent
use of rifampin?
TB
in combo
carriers of n. meningitidis
rifampin drug interactions?
potent inducer of CYP3A4
sulfonamide selectivity?
consequence of fact that source of folic acid is different for humans and bacteria;
humans require dietary folic acid while many bacteria synthesize it de novo
sulfonamide mechanism?
structural PABA analog and act as competitive inhibitor of dihydropteroate synthetase
resistance to sulfonamides?
increased PABA synthesis
altered dihydropteroate synthetase
utilize exogenous folic acid
sulfonamides pharmacokinetics?
oral absorption
renal elimination
metabolized by acetylation
sulfonamides?
sulfisoxazole
sulfamethoxazole
sulfacetamide
silver sulfadiazine
sulfasalazine
sulfisoxazole and sulfamethoxazole use?
UTIs
sulfacetamide use?
ophthalmic infection
topical application
silver sulfadiazine use?
prevent colonization of burns by bacteria
adverse effects of sulfonamides?
mild rash to steven johnsons
drug fever
blood dyscrasias
eosinophilia
crystalluria
hepatitis
kernicterus in newborns
can cause kernicterus?
sulfonamides
trimethoprim mechanism and specificity?
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase;
greater affinity for bacterial enzyme vs mammalian enzyme
trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole?
sequential inhibition of formation of tetrahydrofolate;
synergistic making it bactericidal vs bacteriostatic;
bronchitis;
otitis media;
PCP
adverse effects of trimethoprim?
potential to interfere with folate metabolism in malnourish individuals
characteristic of urinary tract antiseptic effects?
no systemic activity
exert effects entirely in urinary tract
why is there no systemic activity with urinary tract antiseptics?
rapid elimination
high protein binding
requirement for low pH to be effective
urinary tract antiseptics?
nitrofurantoin
methenamine
fosfomycin
nitrofurantoin and its adverse effects?
urinary tract antiseptic
gi disturbances
headache
acute allergic pulmonary (chills, cough, pulmonary infiltrations)
chronic pulmonary fibrosis
why is fosfomycin useful for urinary tract infections?
distributed to bladder, prostate, etc
drugs that act at the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane?
daptomycin
colistin
colistimethate
polymyxin B
daptomycin mechanism?
binds cell membrane of Gm(+) cells in Ca-dependent process that disrupts the membrane potential
daptomycin has activity against?
growing or resting bacteria
biofilms
MRSA
VRSA
VRE
polymyxins?
colistin
colistimethate
polymyxin B
polymyxin mechanism?
surface-active amphipathic agents;
penetrate cell membranes, interact with phospholipids, disrupt the membranes of Gm(-) aerobic bacilli;
bactericidal in concentration-dep manner;
have post-antibiotic effect
use of polymyxins?
fell into disuse due to nephrotoxicity;
used as last resort against some Gm(-) organisms
metronidazole?
reduced to free radical by bacteria ultimately damaging bacterial DNA
metronidazole use?
antiprotozoal
anaerobic bacteria
c. difficile esp
metronidazole adverse effects?
headache
metallic taste
disulfuram like reaction when consuming alcohol
spectinomycin?
alternative drug to n. gonnorhea including penicillinase-producing strains in patient allergic to other drugs;
not active against t. pallidum
major TB drugs?
isoniazid
rifampin
ethambutol
streptomycin
pyrazinamide
treatment of TB?
multiple drugs with separate MOAs to decrease chance of resistant organisms developing
isoniazid mechanism?
inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids;
bactericidal for growing;
bacteriostatic for resting;
requires a catalase/peroxidase enzyme for activation
isoniazid elimination?
primarily acetylation - consequence of polymorphisms
consequence of slow acetylator taking isoniazid?
no effect on efficacy
more prone to peripheral neuropathy
mechanism of peripheral neuropathy with slow acetylators?
increased excretion of pyridoxine caused by isoniazid;
can be diminished by supplementing diet with pyridoxine
isoniazid side effects?
peripheral neuropathy (slow acetylators);
isoniazid-induced hepatitis
primary agent for treatment of TB and only drug approved for prophylaxis?
isoniazid
rifampin mechanism?
inhibits transcription by inactivating DNA dep RNA polymerase
second most important drug in TB treatment?
rifampin
adverse effects of rifampin?
minor cutaneous, gi, or hepatic reactions;
potent inducer of CYP3A4
ethambutol?
major drug used for TB
ethambutol adverse effects?
uni or bilateral ocular toxicity
hyperuricemia, may precipitate gout
characteristics of uni or bilateral ocular toxicity and associated drug?
ethambutol dose related, reversible
gradual loss in visual acuity
decrease in visual fields
loss of red/green color discrimination
streptomycin use and disadvantages?
major TB drug
must be injected
ototoxic
nephrotoxic
dapsone use and mechanism?
treatment of leprosy
inhibition of folic acid synthesis
clofazimine use and mechanism?
treatment of leprosy
interfere with replication of bacterial DNA
drugs used to treat leprosy?
dapsone
clofazimine
rifampin
polyenes?
nystatin
amphotericin B
polyenes mechanism?
bind to sterols, especially erogsterol, to alter membrane permeability
nystatin use?
localized fungal infections
too toxic to be used systemically
gold standard for drugs to treat serious systemic fungal infections?
amphotericin B
pharmacokinetics of amphotericin B?
poor gi absorption, given iv
half-life of 15 days
stored in tissues, slowly excreted in urine
amphotericin B adverse effects?
anaphylaxis
fever
chills
headache
gi disturbances
decreased renal function (80% of patients)
renal function and amphotericin B?
decreased in 80% and typically does not fully recover after therapy is completed
classes of antifungals?
polyene
fluorinated pyrimidine
azole
allyamine
echinocandin
flucytosine mechanism?
fluorinated pyrimidine;
taken up by fungus-specific enzyme cytosine permease;
converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil;
causes RNA miscoding and inhibits DNA synthesis
use of flucytosine and why?
synergistic with amphotericin B;
rapid resistance as single agent
flucytosine adverse effects?
potentially lethal bone marrow depression;
gi upset;
rash;
hepatic dysfunction
bone marrow depression and flucytosine?
gut bacteria convert to active 5-fluoruracil and body uses
azole mechanism?
inhibit fungal P450, lanosterol 14α-demethylase, required for conversion of lanosterol to erogsterol leading to depletion of ergosterol and failure of cytoplasmic membrane;
inhibit mammalian P450s to some degree
resistance mechanisms to azoles?
alterations to target binding site
increased target expression
induction of efflux pumps
azoles?
ketoconazole
itraconazole
fluconazole
voriconazole
ketoconazole adverse effects?
gynecomastia
menstrual irregularities
drug interactions
need acidic pH for absorption
greatest ability to inhibit mammalian P450s?
ketoconazole
distribution of itraconazole?
extensive in lipophilc tissues
accumulates in the stratum corneus
most potent of azoles?
itraconazole
fluconazole pharmacokinetics?
over 90% oral bioavailability;
widely distributed into body tissues and fluids;
urine and skin concentrations = 10x plasma;
distributes well into CSF;
elimination primarily renal
used successfully of invasive fungal infections, including aspergillosis in children refractory or intolerant of conventional antifungal therapy?
voriconazole
terbinafine mechanism?
potent noncompetitive inhibitor of fungal squalene epoxidase (early step in ergosterol synthesis)
terbinafine + amphotericin B?
additive or synergistic interactions vs aspergillus
terbinafine + itraconazole or voriconazole?
potent syngergistic interactions against aspergillus
terbinafine + fluconazole?
additive to synergistic interaction
caspofungin?
echinocandin
inhibits synthesis of β-1,3-D-diglucans (essential component of fungal cell wall);
approved for invasive aspergillosis in patients that don't respond to other antifungals
griseofulvin?
miscellaneous antifungal
amantadine and rimantadine mechanism?
inhibits viral uncoating or disassembly of virion during endocytosis;
inhibit ion channel function of the M2 protein
use of amantadine and rimantaine?
prophylaxis during influenza A virus epidemics
amantadine adverse effects?
confusion
hallucination
seizure
coma
antiviral agents for respiratory viruses?
amantadine
rimantadine
oseltamivir
zanamivir
ribavirin
neuraminidase inhibitors?
oseltamivir
zanamivir
oseltamivir and zanamivir mechanism of action?
inhibit neuroaminidase (normally removes the sialic acid residues from surface to prevent clumping);
cause clumping of virions making then noninfectious;
active against influenza A and B
major difference between oseltamivir and zanamivir?
zanamivir is administered by inhalation;
oseltamivir is taken orally
ribavirin mechanism?
guanosine analogue;
rapidly phosphorylated to compete with guanosine triphosphate-dependent 5'-capping of influenza viral mRNA
use of ribavirin?
influenza viruses
RSV
parainfluenza viruses
adenoviruses
hepatitis C (+ INF-a)
acyclovir mechanism?
synthetic purine nucleoside analog;
phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase;
competitive inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase;
incorporation leads to premature chain termination
loss of thymidine kinase activity by a virus causes resistance to what antivirals?
acyclovir
valacyclovir
famciclovir
ganciclovir
acyclovir use?
iv for serious HSV and VZV infections
valacyclovir?
L-valine isomer of acyclovir;
metabolized to acyclovir
acyclovir adverse effects?
headache
rash
gi disturbances
crystalline nephropathy
spectrum of acyclovir?
HSV1, HSV2 > VZV > CMV
famciclovir mechanism?
inhibits viral DNA polymerase
NO chain termination
ganciclovir activity?
similar to acyclovir but enhanced activity against CMV;
inhibitor and substrate for viral DNA polymerase
ganciclovir adverse effects?
granulocytopenia
thrombocytopenia
ganciclovir is approved to treat?
CMV retinitis, colitis, and esophagitis in AIDS patients;
prevent and treat CMV disease in transplant patients
cidofovir?
alternative to ganciclovir or to treat ganciclovir resistant CMV
trifluridine use?
topic (HSV keratoconjunctivitis)
too toxic for systemic use as causes strand breakage when incorporated into viral or mammalian DNA
foscarnet mechanism?
binds phosphate binding site of viral DNA or RNA polymerase and HIV reverse transcriptase and inhibits the enzyme
foscarnet use?
resistant CMV retinitis and acyclovir-resistant HSV and VZV;
last resort due to high nephrotoxicity
what does HAART stand for?
Highly
Active
Anti
Retroviral
Therapy
purpose of HAART?
HIV rapidly becomes resistant when single drug is used;
survivorship is inversely related to circulating level of HIV RNA in the blood;
survivorship is positively correlated with CD4 count
goals of HAART?
reduce blood levels of HIV RNA to undetectable levels (<50 copies RNA/mL blood);
maintain the CD4 count
classes of drugs used to treat HIV?
nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (nRTI);
non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (nnRTI);
HIV protease inhibitors (PI);
fusion inhibitor;
entry inhibitor;
integrase inhibitor
nRTIs mechanism?
require intracellular phosphorylation;
competitive inhibitors of normal nucleoside triphosphates for HIV reverse transcriptase;
are incorporated and act as chain terminators;
lack ribose 3'-hydroxyl group
nRTIs?
zidovudine
stavudine
lamivudine
zalcitabine
emtricitabine
tenofovir
didanosine
abacavir
nRTIs adverse effects?
lactic acidosis
hepatic steatosis
peripheral neuropathy
myopathy
lipoatrophy
(inhibit mitochondrial DNA polymerase-g and causing mitochondrial dysfunction)
nnRTIs mechanism?
no intracellular metabolism necessary;
allosteric binding in noncompetitive fashion near active site of reverse transcriptase to lock the enzyme to an inactive state
nnRTIs?
efavirenz
nevirapine
nnRTIs adverse effects?
cross-resistance is common;
rash that sometimes can be very severe;
metabolized by CYP3A4
protease inhibitor mechanism?
bind to active site of the enzyme
protease inhibitors?
atazanavir
fosamprenavir
darunavir
lopinavir
squinavir
ritonavir?
protease inhibitor booster;
very potent inhibitor of P450 that metabolizes the PIs
protease inhibitor adverse effects?
gi intolerance
increase aminotransferase activity
increased bleeding in hemophiliacs
hyperglycemia
new onset or worsening diabetes
insulin resistance
fat wasting and redistribution
metabolized by P450
drug to be avoided with protease inhibitors and why?
rifampin due to CYP3A4 inducing action - decreases effectiveness of the protease inhibitors
which HIV drugs are used for those that have failed therapy?
fusion inhibitor (enfuvirtide)
entry inhibitor (maraviroc)
integrase inhibitor (raltegravir)
enfuvirtide?
fusion inhibitor
binds gp41 preventing fusion
maraviroc?
entry inhibitor
binds CCR5 (coreceptor)
which strains of HIV are resistant to maraviroc?
those that use CXCR4 as coreceptor
raltegravir?
integrase inhibitor
prevents insertion of HIV DNA into human genome
what form is malaria in when it is in the salivary gland of the mosquito?
sporozoite
life cycle of malaria in human?
sporozoite injected --> invade liver and form an exoerythrocytic or hepatic schizont --> release merozoites by rupturing --> invade erythrocytes to form erythrocytic schizonts --> rupture to release merozoites --> etc
which forms of plasmodium can also remain dormant in liver and what are the dormant form called?
p. vivax and p. ovale
hypnozoites
later reactivated
p. falciparum?
most severe form
frequently drug resistant
drug of choice for erythrocytic stage of malaria?
chloroquine
drug of choice for erythrocytic stage of malaria resistant to chloroquine?
mefloquine
for cure of malaria due to p. vivax or p. ovale?
primaquine to treat hepatic stage
quinine adverse effects?
cinchonism: tinnitus, headache, nausea, visual distrubances
antimalarials?
chloroquine
mefloquine
quinine
primaquine
pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine
atovaquone/proguanil
fansidar?
pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine
malarone?
atovaquone/proguanil
atovaquone mechanism?
disrupts the mitochondrial electric transport
proguanil mechanism?
inhibitor of plasmodial dihydrofolate reductase
other antiprotozoals?
metronidazole
idoquinol
diloxanide furoate
pentamidine