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17 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Topical corticosteroids are contraindicated for treatment of which of the following conditions? a. Psoriasis b. Contact dermatitis c. Eczema d. Rosacea |
d. Rosacea
Topical corticosteroids are used to treat psoriasis, contact dermatitis,and eczema. Treatment of rosacea is a contraindication for the use of topicalcorticosteroids.
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2. Use of gentamicin (Garamycin) may result in the development of which of the following problems, in a patient with chronic kidney disease and a creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL? a. deterioration of the immune system. b. risk of liver damage secondary to systemic absorption. c. occurrence of secondary retroviral infection. d. ototoxicity. |
d. ototoxicity
Only ototoxicity may result from a renal patient’s use of the drug, along with neurotoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
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3. A patient is started on a bile acid sequestrant medication while taking other medications as part of his treatment regimen. Choose the most appropriate time for him to take his other medications. a. They should be taken at meal time. b. They should be taken 1 hour before or 4 hours after the bile acid sequestrant is taken. c. They should be taken 2 hours before or 2 hours after the bile acid sequestrant is taken. d. They should be taken immediately upon arising or at bedtime. |
b. They should be taken 1 hour before or 4 hours after the bile acid sequestrant is taken.
If patients are takingany other medications, they should be advised to take them 1 hour before or 4hours after ingesting the resin agent.
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4. A 30 year old pregnant (new diagnosis) patient was diagnosed with hemolytic anemia. No exact cause of the anemia could be found except that she recently started a drug to control hypertension. The most likely drug she started is a. Inderal (Propranolol). b. Captopril (Capoten). c. Clonidine (Catapres). d. Methyldopa (Aldomet). |
d. Methyldopa (Aldomet) |
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5. Sarah has been placed on a medication for treatment of gout. After taking several doses, she complains of GI upset and is experiencing an exacerbation of a gastric ulcer. The primary care provider recognizes that Sarah most likely has been placed on a. allopurinol. b. probenecid. c. colchicines. d. indomethacin. |
d. indomethacin
Of the drugs listed, the only one that can lead to the development of gastric/duodenal ulcers is indomethacin, which is one of the NSAID drugs.
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6. The patient has been placed on a colchicine-containing medicine (ColBenemid). After taking several doses, he begins to experience nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. These symptoms should prompt the primary health care provider to a. stop the medication immediately. b. monitor closely for the development of additional side effects. c. maintain the dosage unchanged because these are expected side effects of the drug. d. increase the dosage of the medication. |
a. stop the medication immediately.
These symptoms are early signs of toxicity; this medication should be discontinued immediately to prevent fatality.
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7. Which is the best method of determining the appropriate dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) to be administered to children? a. Dosage calculated according to child’s age b. Dosage calculated according to child’s body surface area c. Dosage calculated according to child’s weight d. Dosage calculated according to child’s height |
c. Dosage calculated according to child’s weight
Weight is the preferred dosing method over age
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8. Bill complains of experiencing a bluish-green haze to his vision. The provider suspects that he is being treated with a. sildenafil (Viagra). b. finasteride (Proscar). c. alprostadil (Muse). d. yohimbine (Yocon). |
a. sildenafil (Viagra)
The patient who is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) may experiencea bluish-green haze to his vision.
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9. Choose the only benzodiazepine indicated for muscle relaxation. a. Diazepam b. Baclofen c. Methocarbamol d. Cyclobenzaprine |
a. Diazepam
Diazepam is the only benzodiazepine indicated for muscle relaxation.
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10. Barbara is a morbidly obese woman who has been placed on the anorexiant sibutramine (Meridia). She tells her primary health care provider that she has noted her level of depression to be improved. The provider tells her that this is a. indicative that the medication is approaching a toxic level. b. indicative that the patient is unable to tolerate a sufficient dose of the medication. c. a desirable side effect of the medication. d. a hypersensitivity reaction to the medication. |
c. a desirable side effect of the medication.
Because the medication increases the level of serotonin, the patient’s depression improves, she feelsfull faster, and her appetite is reduced.
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11. Karla recently has been started on a treatment regimen that includes the drug orlistat (Xenical). The primary health care provider instructs the patient that as a side effect of the medication, she should expect a. constipation. b. blood-streaked stool. c. soft liquid stool. d. tarry black stool. |
c. soft liquid stool
As a side effect of the medication, the patient can expect soft liquid stool and possibly oil in the stool.
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12. An integral part of treatment for peptic ulcers is a. restrictive diet. b. lifestyle modification. c. low fiber content. d. complete elimination of alcohol use. |
b. lifestyle modification.
Lifestyle modification is now considered to be an integral part of treatment for peptic ulcers. Restrictive diets are no longer used. Alcohol use may aggravate ulcers but is not considered to be harmful in moderation. High fiber rather than low fiber is recommended.
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13. Dolly is undergoing treatment for an active H. pylori ulcer. She is known to be allergic to penicillin. The best appropriate course of action for the primary health care provider is to begin alternative treatment with a. 500 mg metronidazole (Flagyl) bid. b. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole DS (Bactim DS), bid. c. 1 gram amoxicillin-clavulinate (Augmentin) bid. d. an H-2 receptor blocker. |
a. 500 mg metronidazole (Flagyl) bid
The recommended alternative medication for the patient who is allergic to penicillin is metronidazole .
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14. Darla has been diagnosed with GERD. She should avoid medications that may lower esophageal sphincter pressure. The provider specifically avoids prescribing a. antidepressants. b. β-blockers. c. calcium channel blockers. d. niacin. |
c. calcium channel blockers
The patient with GERD should avoid drugs that decrease lower esophageal sphincter pressure such as theophylline, nitrates, calcium channel blockers, and benzodiazepines.
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15. A primary health care provider should expect to treat a patient on warfarin with high-dose vitamin K if the patient’s international normalization ratio (INR) is a. >1. b. >1.5. c. >3.5. d. >9. |
d. >9.
Treatment with high-dose (5 to 10 mg) vitamin K usually is not required unless the patient’s INR is found to be 9 or greater.
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16. Tom has diabetes, treated with metformin and insulin. Select the most likely outcome if he is treated with a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction. a. Intensified hypoglycemia b. Diminished gluconeogenesis c. Intensified signs and symptoms of thyrotoxicosis d. New onset of atrial fibrillation |
a. Intensified hypoglycemia
Use of a beta-blocker tends to intensify hypoglycemia. Use of a b-blocker tends to prolong gluconeogenesis. Use of a beta-blocker tends to mask signs and symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Use of a beta-blocker tends to aggravate symptoms of depression.
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18. Current evidence recommends the maximum amount of daily sodium intake should be __________ for persons who have, or who are at risk of developing, cardiovascular disease? a. 2400 mg per day b. 1500 mg per day c. 5 grams per day d. 1 gram per day |
b. 1500 mg per day |
