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27 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done?
A) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis.
B) The fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix.
C) The probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
D) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis and the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix.
E) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis, the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis, the fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix, and the probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
DNA fragments from a gel are transferred to a nitrocellulose paper during the procedure called Southern blotting. What is the purpose of transferring the DNA from a gel to a nitrocellulose paper?
A) to attach the DNA fragments to a permanent substrate
B) to separate the two complementary DNA strands
C) to transfer only the DNA that is of interest
D) to prepare the DNA for digestion with restriction enzymes
E) to separate out the PCRs
to attach the DNA fragments to a permanent substrate
Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?
A) altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment
B) methylating the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment
C) increasing the length of the DNA fragment
D) decreasing the length of the DNA fragment
E) neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment
altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment
DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they
A) can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome.
B) can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells.
C) allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared at once.
D) allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time.
E) dramatically enhance the efficiency of restriction enzymes.
allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared at once.
Which of the following describes the transfer of polypeptide sequences to a membrane to analyze gene expression?
A) Southern blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Western blotting
D) Eastern blotting
E) RT-PCR
Western blotting
Which of the following uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA followed by amplification?
A) Southern blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Western blotting
D) Eastern blotting
E) RT-PCR
RT-PCR
RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger a breakdown or blocking of mRNA. For which of the following might it more possibly be useful?
A) to raise the rate of production of a needed digestive enzyme
B) to decrease the production from a harmful gain-of-function mutated gene
C) to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual
D) to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny
E) to raise the concentration of a desired protein
to decrease the production from a harmful gain-of-function mutated gene
A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and then has reinserted this into a cell. In order to have the mutated sequence disable the function of the gene, what must then occur?
A) recombination resulting in replacement of the wild type with the mutated gene
B) use of a microarray to verify continued expression of the original gene
C) replication of the cloned gene using a bacterial plasmid
D) transcription of the cloned gene using a BAC
E) attachment of the mutated gene to an existing mRNA to be translated
recombination resulting in replacement of the wild type with the mutated gene
Which of the following techniques used to analyze gene function depends on the specificity of DNA base complementarity?
A) Northern blotting
B) use of RNAi
C) in vitro mutagenesis
D) in situ hybridization
E) restriction fragment analysis
in vitro mutagenesis
Silencing of selected genes is often done using RNA interference (RNAi). Which of the following questions would not be answered with this process?
A) What is the function of gene 432 in this species of annelid?
B) What will happen in this insect's digestion if gene 173 is not able to be translated?
C) Is gene HA292 responsible for this disorder in humans?
D) Will the disabling of this gene in Drosophila and in a mouse cause similar results?
E) Is the gene on Drosophila chromosome 2L at this locus responsible for part of its production of nitrogen waste?
Is gene HA292 responsible for this disorder in humans?
In large scale, genome-wide association studies in humans, correlation is sought between
A) lengthy sequences that might be shared by most members of a population.
B) single nucleotide polymorphisms found only in persons with a particular disorder.
C) single nucleotide polymorphisms found in families with a particular introns sequence.
D) single nucleotide polymorphisms in two or more adjacent genes.
E) large inversions that displace the centromere.
single nucleotide polymorphisms found only in persons with a particular disorder.
For a particular microarray assay (DNA chip), cDNA has been made from the mRNAs of a dozen patients' breast tumor biopsies. The researchers will be looking for
A) a particular gene that is amplified in all or most of the patient samples.
B) a pattern of fluorescence that indicates which cells are overproliferating.
C) a pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates gene expression differing from control samples.
D) a group of cDNAs that act differently from those on the rest of the grid.
E) a group of cDNAs that match those in non-breast cancer control samples from the same population.
a pattern shared among some or all of the samples that indicates gene expression differing from control samples.
Which of the following is most closely identical to the formation of twins?
A) cell cloning
B) therapeutic cloning
C) use of adult stem cells
D) embryo transfer
E) organismal cloning
organismal cloning
In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used?
A) use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another ewe
B) replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow
C) separation of an early stage sheep blastula into separate cells, one of which was incubated in a surrogate ewe
D) fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate
E) isolation of stem cells from a lamb embryo and production of a zygote equivalent
fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate
Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones?
A) use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells
B) use of nuclear DNA as well as mtDNA
C) abnormal regulation due to variant methylation
D) the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells
E) abnormal immune function due to bone marrow dysfunction
abnormal regulation due to variant methylation
Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning there is a wider divergence of opinion. Which of the following is a likely explanation?
A) Use of adult stem cells is likely to produce more cell types than use of embryonic stem cells.
B) Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical benefits for many.
C) Cloning to produce stem cells relies on a different initial procedure than reproductive cloning.
D) A clone that lives until the blastocyst stage does not yet have human DNA.
E) No embryos would be destroyed in the process of therapeutic cloning.
Cloning to produce embryonic stem cells may lead to great medical benefits for many.
Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells?
A) They can differentiate into many cell types.
B) They make up the majority of cells of the tissue from which they are derived.
C) They can continue to replicate for an indefinite period.
D) They can provide enormous amounts of information about the process of gene regulation.
E) One aim of using them is to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue.
They make up the majority of cells of the tissue from which they are derived.
A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to other adult cells from the same tissue. Which of the following is a likely finding?
A) The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation.
B) Adult stem cells have more DNA nucleotides than their counterparts.
C) The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns in microarrays.
D) The nonstem cells have fewer repressed genes.
E) The nonstem cells have lost the promoters for more genes.
The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation.
In animals, what is the difference between reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning?
A) Reproductive cloning uses totipotent cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not.
B) Reproductive cloning uses embryonic stem cells, whereas therapeutic cloning does not.
C) Therapeutic cloning uses nuclei of adult cells transplanted into enucleated nonfertilized eggs.
D) Therapeutic cloning supplies cells for repair of diseased or injured organs.
Therapeutic cloning supplies cells for repair of diseased or injured organs.
The first cloned cat, called Carbon Copy, was a calico, but she looked significantly different from her female parent. Why?
A) The environment, as well as genetics, affects phenotypic variation.
B) Fur color genes in cats are influenced by differential acetylation patterns.
C) Cloned animals have been found to have a higher frequency of transposon activation
D) X inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns.
E) The telomeres of the parent's chromosomes were shorter than those of an embryo.
X inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns.
In recent times, it has been shown that adult cells can be induced to become pluripotent stem cells (iPS). In order to make this conversion, what has been done to the adult cells?
A) A retrovirus is used to introduce four specific regulatory genes.
B) The adult stem cells must be fused with embryonic cells.
C) Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells.
D) An adenovirus vector is used to transfer embryonic gene products into adult cells.
E) The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell.
A retrovirus is used to introduce four specific regulatory genes.
Let us suppose that someone is successful at producing induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS) for replacement of pancreatic insulin-producing cells for people with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following could still be problems?
I. the possibility that, once introduced into the patient, the iPS cells produce nonpancreatic cells
II. the failure of the iPS cells to take up residence in the pancreas
III. the inability of the iPS cells to respond to appropriate regulatory signals
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II
E) all of them
all of them
Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following is not currently one of the uses?
A) production of human insulin
B) production of human growth hormone
C) production of tissue plasminogen activator
D) genetic modification of plants to produce vaccines
E) creation of products that will remove poisons from the human body
creation of products that will remove poisons from the human body
Genetically engineered plants
A) are more difficult to engineer than animals.
B) include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency.
C) are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants.
D) are able to fix nitrogen themselves.
E) are banned throughout the world.
include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency.
Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures?
A) Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments are genetically crippled to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory.
B) Genetically modified organisms are not allowed to be part of our food supply.
C) Transgenic plants are engineered so that the plant genes cannot hybridize.
D) Experiments involving HIV or other potentially dangerous viruses have been banned.
E) Recombinant plasmids cannot be replicated.
Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments are genetically crippled to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory.
One successful form of gene therapy has involved delivery of an allele for the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA) to bone marrow cells of a child with SCID, and delivery of these engineered cells back to the bone marrow of the affected child. What is one major reason for the success of this procedure as opposed to many other efforts at gene therapy?
A) The engineered bone marrow cells from this patient can be used for any other SCID patient.
B) The ADA-introduced allele causes all other ADA-negative cells to die.
C) The engineered cells, when reintroduced into the patient, find their way back to the bone marrow.
D) No vector is required to introduce the allele into ADA-negative cells.
E) The immune system fails to recognize cells with the variant gene.
The engineered cells, when reintroduced into the patient, find their way back to the bone marrow.
Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?
A) Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product.
B) Most cells with engineered genes overwhelm other cells in a tissue.
C) Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate.
D) Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.
E) mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.