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200 Cards in this Set

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The second impact that occurs when an adult pedestrian is struck by a motor vehicle would MOST likely result in injuries to the:
pelvis and chest
When a patient takes the “up and over” pathway during a head-on collision:
the anterior part of the neck may strike the steering wheel, resulting in a fractured larynx
Sudden deceleration of a motor vehicle that is traveling at 60 mph:
dissipates tremendous forces and causes major injuries
The greatest amount of kinetic energy would be created if a ___ pound driver struck a tree while traveling at ___ mph.
150, 40
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely require transport to a level 1 trauma center?
Two or more proximal long bone fractures
The most significant fall occurs from a height greater than:
15 feet
During an explosion, secondary blast injuries occur when:
the patient is struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel
Which of the following general statements regarding trauma is MOST correct?
Blunt trauma is difficult to diagnose by paramedics in the field and is often more lethal than penetrating trauma
Which of the following will be of MOST benefit in helping the paramedic predict the type of injuries that a patient experienced?
Mechanism of injury
The shock wave velocity from an explosion is slower and its duration is longer if a person is:
farther from the explosion
A properly worn motorcycle helmet will:
not protect the cervical spine
Lap belts that are worn alone and high by a pregnant woman:
allow enough forward flexion and subsequent compression to rupture the uterus
If a person survives the initial trauma from a shotgun wound at a close range:
contaminants that were driven into the wound can cause a severe infection
When a person falls from a significant height and lands on his or her feet, axial loading results in:
compression or burst fractures to the lumbar spine
Following a head-on collision of a motorcycle and a truck, the motorcyclist would MOST likely experience initial injury to the:
femurs and tibias
If a level 1 trauma center is 30 miles away, and a level 2 trauma center is 10 miles away, it would be MOST appropriate to transport the patient with a severe traumatic brain injury:
via air transport to the level 1 trauma center
The peak magnitude of the pressure wave experienced by a person:
lessens as the person is farther away from the center of the explosion
If the windshield of a wrecked vehicle is cracked or broken:
the front seat occupant has a cervical injury until proven otherwise
The MOST common site of deceleration injury in the chest is the:
aorta
Unlike decoration injuries, crush and compression injuries occur:
at the time of impact
The primary determinants of the extent of trauma a patient sustains are the:
amount of energy in the object and the mechanism by which the object is delivered to the body
At a minimum, a level 2 trauma center should:
be able to initiate definitive care for all injured patients
When summoning an air transport service to transport a critically injured patient, it is MOST important to:
activate the service as soon as possible
Structural protection afforded to a motorcycle rider during a crash comes from:
protective gear worn by the rider
What type of injuries would MOST likely occur if a passenger is wearing his or her lap belt above the pelvic bone during a frontal impact?
Abdominal and lumbar spine
Routine pre-hospital treatment for a patient with internal hemorrhage and shock includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
analgesia if the systolic BP is greater than 70 mmHg
During shock, norepinephrine release causes:
the body to shunt blood from areas of lesser need to areas of greater need
What aggregates in a clump and forms much of the foundation of a blood clot during the process of coagulation:
platelets
During the irreversible (terminal) phase of shock:
the body attempts to shunt blood from the liver, kidneys, and lungs to keep the heart and brain perfused
If you suspect internal bleeding during the initial assessment, you should:
keep the patient warm and administer oxygen
Anaerobic metabolism:
is less efficient than aerobic metabolism and leads to systemic acidosis
The MOST significant factor that determines how well the body compensates for blood loss is:
the period of time over which the blood is lost
Widespread dilation of the resistance vessels, capacitance vessels, or both, leads to:
distributive shock
Which of the following conditions would result in obstructive shock?
Tension pneumothorax
During compensated shock:
an increase in respiratory rate and depth creates a compensatory respiratory alkalosis to offset the metabolic acidosis
A weak radial pulse in a patient with shock indicates:
vascular dilation and decreased blood flow
A woman finds her 50-year-old husband unresponsive on the couch. When you arrive and begin your assessment, the wife tells you that her husband experienced an episode of chest discomfort 2 days prior, but refused to seek medical attention. The patient is unconscious and unresponsive; is breathing with a marked reduction in tidal volume; and has rapid, thready radial pulses. Your partner reports that the patient’s systolic BP is 70 mmHg. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient involves:
assisting his ventilations, applying a cardiac monitor, intubating if necessary, auscultating his lungs, transporting at once, establishing vascular access en route, administering a 200-mL crystalloid bolus if his lungs are clear, and considering a dopamine infusion.
The goal of volume replacement for a patient with hemorrhagic shock is to:
maintain perfusion without increasing internal or uncontrollable external bleeding
Care for a patient with profound shock begins by:
following BSI precautions
Which of the following statements regarding hypotension and shock is MOST correct?
Hypotension is a classic sign of shock, but it occurs late
External bleeding would be the LEAST difficult to control in a patient with a large laceration to the ___ and a BP of ___ mmHg.
Brachial artery, 68/46
You are dispatched to a restaurant for a patient that is choking. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 30-year-old man, in obvious respiratory distress. His face is flushed and his arms are covered with hives. You are unable to obtain a blood pressure because the patient is restless; however, you are able to palpate his pulse, which is rapid and weak. In addition to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation, the MOST important treatment for this patient involves:
administering epinephrine as soon as possible
An organ or tissue that is considerably colder than 98.6°F is better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion because:
the body’s metabolic rate is slower
Hemoglobin functions by:
binding to oxygen that is absorbed in the lungs and transporting it to the tissues
Failure of the body’s compensatory mechanisms to preserve perfusion results in all of the following, EXCEPT:
an increase in preload
When a certain level of tissue hypoperfusion is reached:
the cells convert to anaerobic metabolism, the byproduct of which is lactic acid
You are administering a normal saline bolus to a patient in hypovolemic shock secondary to severe external blood loss. How much saline will remain in the patient’s intravascular space after 20 minutes if you have infused a total of 500 mL?
200 mL
When noncolloid solutions are used in the treatment of shock:
you should give two to three times the volume of blood lost
Which of the following factors would have the MOST negative effect on the body’s process of hemostasis?
Anticoagulant use
Cardiogenic shock would MOST likely develop following:
decompensated congestive heart failure
Which of the following bandages is associated with the HIGHEST risk of blood flow compromise?
Elastic bandages
Which of the following wounds usually requires substantial irrigation and debridement prior to closure?
Degloving injuries
The skin is also referred to as the:
integument
Which of the following medications would MOST likely interfere with homeostasis?
Plavix
A patient taking ___ would MOST likely experience a delay in the healing of a wound.
Corticosteroids
You are the first unit to arrive at the scene of a small building collapse. As you exit the ambulance, you can see a man pinned under a large metal beam. You should:
immediately request a special rescue team
A patient with nerve compromise following an open injury to the hand:
requires prompt transport to the hospital
The FIRST aspect to address in any patient with a soft-tissue injury is:
your safety
Necrosis of tissue caused by an anaerobic, toxin-producing bacterium is called:
gangrene
During the inflammation phase of the healing process:
histamine causes vasodilation and increased blood flow to the injury
When caring for an amputated body part:
early notification of the hospital is important
All of the following are functions of the skin, EXCEPT:
providing the immune system response for the body
When a patient’s leg is entrapped under a crushing object for a prolonged period of time, toxic metabolic waste products are released into the systemic circulation:
after the patient’s leg is freed from entrapment
The skin helps regulate body temperature through:
the production of sweat, which is evaporated from the surface of the skin
Compared to the bleeding from an open wound, bleeding from a closed wound:
is limited because the skin is unbroken
A wound is at HIGHEST risk for infection if:
it is caused by a human or animal bite
Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include all of the following, EXCEPT:
erythema
The MOST significant immediate threat to a patient with a soft-tissue injury is:
hemorrhage
In addition to bleeding and contamination, the MOST immediate danger associated with an avulsion is:
a loss of blood supply to the avulsed flap
The use of wet dressings in the field is limited because:
they provide a medium for pathogens to grow
You are dispatched to a residence for a man who cut his hand with a chainsaw. Upon arriving at the scene, your first action should be to:
carefully assess the scene for safety hazards
Which of the following interventions encourages drainage from the site of a closed wound and reduces swelling?
Elevation
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is MOST correct?
Compartment syndrome is more likely to occur with closed injuries
A crushing or tearing amputation:
can result in excessive blood loss due to hemorrhage if the paramedic does not intervene rapidly
When managing a patient who is entrapped by a crushing object, it is MOST important to:
make every effort to treat the patient before removing the crushing object
Full-thickness circumferential burns to the chest:
may cause significant restriction of respiratory excursion
The LEAST common cause of death from fires is:
integument burns
Nasotracheal intubation of a patient with upper airway burns:
is a complicated procedure and should be avoided
Which of the following chemicals corrode the skin and cause massive protein denaturing?
Ammonium
Which of the following statements regarding carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning is MOST correct?
Never rule out CO poisoning because of the absence of cherry red skin
A 4-year-old boy pulled a pot of boiling water off the stove and experienced partial-thickness splash burns to his neck, anterior trunk, and both anterior arms. During your assessment, you note that the child is conscious, but is not crying. He is tachypneic and tachycardic and his skin is cool and moist. Other than the burns, there are no other gross injuries. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is MOST correct?
The child may be hypoglycemic and requires assessment of his blood glucose level
According to the rule of nines, an adult man with partial- and full-thickness burns to his head, face and anterior chest has burns to ___% of his total body surface area (TBSA).
18
The outer zone of an entrance or exit wound caused by a contact electrical burn is:
the red zone of coagulation necrosis
A burn patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease:
may be triaged as a critically burned patient, even if the burn injury is small
Damage to the kidneys following an electrical injury:
occurs when damaged muscle produces myoglobin
A patient with full-thickness burns surrounded by areas of superficial and partial-thickness burns should be treated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
moist dressings
The skin sheds excess heat from the body through:
the evaporation of sweat
Specific treatment for a hydrofluoric acid burn is:
calcium chloride
With regard to a thermal burn injury, the zone of coagulation:
is the central part of the burn and suffers the most damage
If a burn patient presents with a hoarse voice and states, “I’m cold,” your MOST immediate concern should be:
inhalation injury
The purpose of estimating a patient’s total body surface area (TBSA) burns in the prehospital setting is to:
help the paramedic determine the most appropriate destination hospital
A partial-thickness burn is considered to be critical if it:
involves more than 30% of the body surface area
You are transporting a conscious but confused 29-year-old man after he was electrocuted. The patient is on high-flow oxygen, has an IV line of normal saline in place, is on a cardiac monitor, and has his spine fully immobilized. During transport, it is especially important for you to:
remain alert for lethal cardiac dysrhythmias and to be prepared to defibrillate
Unlike chemical burns, radiation burns:
may appear hours or days after exposure
A 74-year-old man experienced partial- and full-thickness burns to his arms and chest resulting from a fire that started after he fell asleep while smoking his cigar. The patient’s son, who arrived at the scene shortly after you, states that his father has congestive heart failure, rheumatoid arthritis, and atrial fibrillation. In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, it is MOST important for you to:
auscultate his breath sounds before administering IV fluids
Burn shock is caused by:
fluid loss across damaged skin and volume shifts within the rest of the body
After an adult victim is struck by lightning and experiences cardiac arrest:
his or her heart may resume beating spontaneously
If intubation of a burn patient becomes necessary, you should avoid cutting the ET tube down to make it shorter because:
facial edema may cause tube dislodgement 2 to 3 days after the burn
Which of the following statements regarding pre-hospital vascular access and fluid therapy in the severely burned patient is MOST correct?
At least one large-bore IV should be started while en route to the hospital
Which of the following burn injuries would MOST likely require transport to a burn specialty center?
Burns that involve the hands, feet, or major joints
A 51-year-old woman sustained a large laceration to her cheek when she was cut by a knife during a robbery attempt. The patient is conscious and alert and has severe oral bleeding. She denies any other trauma. Your FIRST action should be to:
ensure that she is sitting up and leaning forward
A 19-year-old woman fell from a second story window and landed on her head. She is unconscious with a blood pressure of 148/94 mmHg, heart rate of 58 beats/min, and irregular respirations of 8 breaths/min. Further assessment reveals blood draining from her nose and bilaterally dilated pupils that are slow to react. In addition to employing full spinal precautions, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient involves:
intubating her trachea after preoxygenating her for 2 to 3 minutes with a bag-mask device, transporting immediately, starting at least one large-bore IV en route, applying a cardiac monitor, and performing frequent neurologic assessments.
Bleeding from a scalp laceration with an underlying skull deformity:
may contribute to hypovolemia in adults
You are en route to the hospital with a conscious middle-aged man who experienced trauma to the anterior neck during an assault. He is on supplemental oxygen, has spinal precautions in place, and has a large-bore IV line of normal saline in place. When you obtain a repeat set of vital signs, you note that his blood pressure is 90/64 mmHg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. You should:
keep the patient warm and infuse enough isotonic crystalloid solution to maintain adequate perfusion
Which of the following bones is part of the cranial vault AND the face?
Ethmoid
In addition to massive bleeding, injury to a carotid or vertebral artery would MOST likely cause:
cerebral hypoxia
When managing the airway of an unresponsive patient with serious anterior neck trauma and inadequate breathing, you should:
assist ventilations with a bag-mask device and prepare to intubate
The ___ are cone-shaped fossae that enclose and protect the eyes.
Orbits
The hyoid bone:
floats in the superior aspect of the neck just below the mandible
A diffuse axonal injury (DIA):
involves stretching, shearing, or tearing of the extension of the neuron that conducts electrical impulses away from the cell body.
If a knife is impaled in the neck:
a cricothyrotomy may be required to establish a patent airway
A young man was assaulted and has extensive maxillofacial injuries. Your initial assessment reveals that he is semiconscious, has poor respiratory effort, and has blood draining from the corner of his mouth. Initial management for this patient involves:
manually stabilizing his head in a neutral position, suctioning his oropharynx, and assisting ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen
Pupils that are slow (sluggish) to react to light:
are a sign of cerebral hypoxia
A moderate diffuse axonal injury:
produces an immediate loss of consciousness and residual neuorologic deficits when the patient wakes up
The parietal lobe of the brain:
controls somatic functions for the contralateral side of the body
Open fractures of the cranial vault:
are associated with a high risk of bacterial meningitis
A subdural hematoma is classified as being acute if clinical signs and symptoms develop:
within 24 hours following the injury
A ruptured tympanic membrane:
is extremely painful but typically heals spontaneously
The respiratory centers of the brain stem lie within the:
pons and medulla
The crista galli:
is the anatomic point of attachment of the meninges
Following a traumatic brain injury, initial swelling of the brain occurs due to:
cerebral vasodilation
Significant blunt injuries to the larynx or trachea pose an IMMEDIATE risk of:
airway compromise
Unlike a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion is:
associated with physical brain damage and more pronounced neurologic deficits
When treating a patient with an ocular injury, what should you do to avoid an increase in intraocular pressure (IOP)?
Discourage the patient from coughing
Which of the following types of skull fracture would be the LEAST likely to present with gross physical signs?
Linear fracture
Prehospital treatment of the patient with a traumatic brain injury must focus primarily on:
maintaining cerebral perfusion pressure
Early signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure include:
headache and vomiting
The occipital condyles are the:
points of articulation between the skull and vertebral column
Which of the following statements regarding anisocoria is MOST correct?
Anisocoria is a condition in which the pupils are unequal
Which of the following statements regarding a closed head injury is MOST correct?
In a closed head injury, the dura mater remains intact.
Proper treatment for an open wound to the neck includes:
sealing the wound with an occlusive dressing
Vascular injury following trauma to the anterior neck would MOST likely present with:
pulse deficits
Because significant force is required to fracture the mandible:
it is often fractured in more than one place and is unstable to palpation
What two major nerves provide sensory and motor control to the face?
Facial and trigeminal
You are caring for a man with a chemical burn to both eyes. The patient, who has contact lenses in place, is in severe pain and tells you that he can’t see. Proper care for this patient includes:
carefully removing his contact lenses, flushing both eyes for at least 20 minutes, and transporting with continuous eye irrigation
The primary risk associated with oral and dental injuries is:
airway compromise
The ___ conducts signals to the brain via the optic nerve and interprets them as vision.
Retina
A patient with a loss of peripheral vision MOST likely has damage to the:
retina
When assessing the severity of a traumatic brain injury, the single most important assessment parameter is the patient’s:
level of consciousness
The MOST disastrous consequence of a severe traumatic brain injury is:
a decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure
Death following a head injury is almost always the result of:
trauma to the brain
What portion of the eye may become icteric in patients with hepatitis?
Sclera
Open soft-tissue facial trauma following a significant mechanism of injury:
suggests that the patient may have a closed head injury or spinal injury
A male patient with a closed head injury opens his eyes in response to pain, makes incomprehensible sounds, and responds to pain with flexion of his arms. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is ___, and the MOST appropriate treatment for him involves:
7; intubation, ventilations performed at a rate of 10 breaths/min, IV fluids as needed to maintain a systolic BP of at least 90 mmHg, and maintaining his oxygen saturation at greater than 95%
The galea aponeurotica is:
a tendon expansion that connects the frontal and occipital muscles of the cranium
Which of the following statements regarding the hypothalamus is MOST correct?
The hypothalamus is the most inferior portion of the diencephalon and controls functions such as hunger, sleep, and vomiting.
A flattened appearance to the face and loss of sensation over the chest following blunt facial trauma is MOST indicative of a/an:
zygomatic fracture
What portion of the brain stem is responsible for maintenance of consciousness, specifically one’s level of arousal?
Reticular activating system
Signs and symptoms of retinal detachment include:
flashing lights, specks or floaters in the field of vision
The ONLY indication for removing contact lenses in the prehospital setting is:
chemical eye burns
A 39-year-old man crashed his vehicle into a wooded area and was not found for approximately 8 hours. When you arrive at the scene and assess him, you note that he is conscious but anxious. He is unable to feel or move below his mid-thoracic area and complains of a severe headache. His blood pressure is 210/130 mmHg, heart rate is 48 beats/min, and respirations are 22 breaths/min. This patient’s clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:
autonomic dysreflexia
A motorcycle or football helmet should be removed if:
the patient is breathing shallowly and access to the airway is difficult
A compression or burst fracture of the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following:
a significant fall in which the patient lands head first
A skier wiped out while skiing down a large hill. He is conscious and alert and complains of being very cold; he also complains of neck stiffness and numbness and tingling in all of his extremities. A quick assessment reveals that his airway is patent and his breathing is adequate. You should:
immobilize his spine and quickly move him to a warmer environment
Herniation of an intervertebral disc occurs when:
stress on the vertebral column forces a disc into the spinal canal
You would MOST likely have to place several blankets or pillows under a patient’s upper back prior to immobilization if he or she has:
kyphosis
A patient with diaphragmatic breathing without intercostal muscle use has MOST likely experienced a spinal injury above the level of:
T-2
The spine:
is a major structural component of the axial skeleton
In addition to the supporting muscles and ligaments found in the vertebral column, the thoracic spine is further stabilized by the:
rib attachments
When assessing a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score to a patient who has limb paralysis due to a spinal cord injury, you should:
ask the patient to blink or move a facial muscle
When moving an injured patient from the ground onto a long backboard, it is generally preferred that you:
use the four-person log roll technique
The anterior weight bearing structure of the vertrebra is the:
vertebral body
An unconscious trauma patient whose head and neck are passively rotated to one side:
should be maintained in this position unless breathing is compromised
Patients with evidence of trauma above the ___ should be considered at risk for an associated spine injury.
Clavicles
A positive Babinski reflex is observed when the:
toes move upward in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot
If methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) is administered to a patient with a spinal cord injury, it should be given:
less then 3 hours after the injury
What spinal nerve tract carries information regarding pain and temperature?
Lateral spinothalamic
Modification of your physical examination of a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury following a two-car motor vehicle crash is based on all of the following factors, EXCEPT:
injuries to patients in the other vehicle
Proprioception is MOST accurately defined as:
the ability to perceive the position and movement of one’s body
A 40-year-old unrestrained man was ejected from his small truck when it struck a tree. He patient is found approximately 20 feet from the wreckage. Your initial actions should include:
manually stabilizing his head and opening his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.
When performing a cranial nerve assessment of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you note that the patient’s pupil is constricted and the upper eyelid droops. This indicates an injury to:
C3
When immobilizing a sitting patient with a vest-type extrication device, you should manually stabilize his or her head and then:
assess distal pulse and sensory and motor fuctions
A 21-year-old woman was thrown from a horse and landed on her head. Upon arrival at the scene, you find the patient lying supine. She is conscious and has her head turned to the side. As you attempt to move her head to a neutral in-line position, she screams in pain. You should:
maintain her head in the position found and continue with your assessment
An injured patient’s head should be secured to the long backboard only after:
his or her torso has been secured adequately
Hypotension that is associated with neurogenic shock is the result of:
loss of alpha receptor stimulation
The main disadvantage of using a scoop stretcher to transfer a patient to the long backboard is:
inability to conduct a visual exam of the back for injuries
When performing the standing takedown technique to immobilize a patient’s spine, the patient is secured to the long backboard with straps:
after he or she is lowered to the ground
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find the driver of the car still seated in her two-door vehicle. The passenger side of the vehicle has sustained severe damage and is inaccessible. The driver is conscious and alert and complains only of lower back pain. The backseat passenger, a young child who was unrestrained, is bleeding from the head and appears to be unconscious. You should:
rapidly extricate the driver so you can gain quick access to the child in the backseat
What spinal cord injury is characterized by motor loss on the same side as the injury, but below the lesion:
Brown-Sequard syndrome
The only area of the spine that allows for significant rotation is:
C1-C2
Which of the following statements regarding central cord syndrome is MOST correct?
The patient typically presents with greater loss of function in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities
In which of the following situations would spinal motion restriction precautions likely NOT be necessary?
Syncopal episode in which the patient was already seated or supine
Which of the following statements regarding the brain stem is MOST correct?
The brain stem connects the spinal cord to the brain
Which of the following statements regarding the hangman’s fracture is MOST correct?
It is a fracture of C2 that is secondary to significant distraction of the neck
When applying a vest-type extrication device to a seated patient, his or her head should be secured to the device:
only after the torso is fastened securely
Although extremely painful, injuries to the ___ spine are typically the LEAST significant:
coccygeal
Vagal tone remains intact following a spine injury because:
the vagus nerve originates outside the medulla and regulates the heart via the carotid arteries
Displacement of bony fragments in the anterior portion of the spinal cord results in:
anterior cord syndrome
The upper thoracic spinal nerves:
innervate the muscles of the chest that help in breathing and coughing
A spinal cord contusion is:
caused by a short-duration shock or pressure wave within the cord
The MOST significant complication associated with prolonged immobilization of a patient on a long backboard is:
pressure lesion development
Any motor or sensory deficits noted during the neurologic examination of a patient with a possible spinal cord injury:
should be documented and monitored
In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to apply a vest-type extrication device to a patient who is seated in his or her crashed motor vehicle?
Conscious with neck pain and stable vital signs
Following a spinal injury, a patient presents with abdominal breathing and use of the accessory muscles in the neck. This suggests injury at or above:
C3-C4
The innermost meningeal layer that rests directly on the spinal cord is the:
pia mater
If the mechanism of injury indicates that your patient may have sustained a spinal cord injury:
assume that a spine injury exists, regardless of neurologic findings
The MOST effective method of decreasing morbidity and mortality associated with spinal cord injury (SCI) is:
public education and prevention strategies
You are dispatched to a senor citizen’s center where an elderly woman apparently fainted. When you arrive, you find the patient sitting in a chair. An employee of the center tells you that he caught the patient before she fell to the ground. Your initial assessment reveals that the patient is conscious and alert and is breathing adequately. You should:
obtain vital signs and assess her blood glucose level
The ___ is the largest component of the central nervous system and contains billions of neurons that serve a variety of functions.
Brain
You are assessing a patient who sustained blunt trauma to the center of his back. He is conscious, but is unable to feel or move his lower extremities. His blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg, pulse is 40 beats/min and weak, and respirations are 24 breaths/min and shallow. If IV fluids do not adequately improve perfusion, you should:
give 0.5 mg of atropine and consider a dopamine infusion