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14 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Clathrin-coated vesicles are involved in what general process?
a. Proteolytic cleavage b. Endocytosis c. Autophagy d. Exocytosis e. Oxidation
2. The nucleus consists of two nuclear membranes that fuse together at what are called ____________.
a. nuclear holes b. nuclear cores c. nuclear fissions d. nuclear channels e. nuclear pores
3. The 40S subunit of eukaryotes has ______ different proteins and a ________ rRNA.
a. 31 and 23S b. 33 and 18S c. 50 and 5S d. 21 and 16S
49. An ER signal sequence consists of _______ to _______ amino acids.
a. 16 to 20 b. 16 to 30 c. 10 to 20 d. 15 to 25 e. 50 to 100
48. ________ vesicles transport proteins from the Golgi to the RER.
a. COP I b. COP II c. COP III d. clathrin
4. A protein must have a _____________ to be imported into the nucleus.

a. eIF1 b. EF1a c. eIF6 d. EF2 e. eIF5

7. The hydrophobic core of protein signal sequences consists of ____ to ____ hydrophobic amino acids.

a. 3 to 6 b. 4 to 8 c. 6 to 12 d. 8 to 12 e. 16 to 30

8. The lysosomal enzymes that degrade polymers into monomers are collectively called ____________.

a. catalases b. oxidases c. synthetases d. acid hydrolases e. polymerases

9. Which is not one of the three steps in protein synthesis?

a. Initiation b. Termination c. Elongation d. Preinitiation

10. There are how many different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.

a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. more than 50

11. Mitochondrial DNA encodes ______ different tRNAs.

a. 18 b. 11 c. 14 d. 22 e. 31

12. RNP1 and RNP2 lie side by side on two central ___________ in the RNA recognition motif.

a. a helices b. coils c. U-turns d. b strands e. hairpins

13. The amino acid acceptor stem at the 3’-end of tRNA has the sequence ________.

a. UAA b. AUG c. UGA d. ACU e. CCA

14. Which organelle contains the enzymes Cathepsin B and L?

a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Peroxisomes d. RER e. SER

15. Selection of the start codon is facilitated by a specific nucleotide sequence called a ______ sequence.

a. Initiation b. Aminoacyl c. Kozak d. NES e. NLS

16. The translocon is made up of three proteins called the _______ complex.

a. Sec 61a b. Sec 61b c. Sec 61g d. Sec 61 e. SRP

17. Which of the choices below is not a signal sequence that is involved in protein targeting?

a. NES
b. Asn-x-Ser/Thr
c. NLS
d. KDEL
e. ER signal sequence

18. The process involving the translocation of secretory proteins to the ER lumen, during synthesis of the secretory proteins by ribosomes, is called ______________________.

colocalization translation
cotranslational translocation
translocation
signal recognition
importing

19. Ran·GTP is not part of the cargo complex during import.

a. True b. False

20. In protein synthesis, the second aminoacyl-tRNA is associated with ____________.

a. eIF5·GTP b. EF1a·GTP c. eIF6 d. EF2·GTP e. eIF3



21. A bimolecular cargo complex is formed during ________________.

a. translocation b. importation c. exportation d. translation e. elongation

22. The SRP receptor consists of what two subunits?

a. P54 and P19 b. Sec 61a and b c. d and g d. a and g e. a and b

23. tRNA is ____________ nucleotides in length.

a. 50 – 60 b. 60 – 70 c. 70 – 80 d. 80 – 90 e. 90 – 100

24. The SRP ____ subunit binds directly to the ER signal sequence.

a. P54 b. Sec 61a c. P19 d. P14 e. Sec 61b

25. Both mtDNA and mtRNA polymerases are synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes.

a. True b. False

26. There are 64 codons in the genetic code, how many do not code for an amino acid?

a. 1 codon b. 2 codons c. 3 codons d. 4 codons e. 5 codons

27. An example of an hnRNP RNA-binding domain is the ___________.

a. RRM b. RMR c. MRR d. RBD e. NPC

28. The ____________ of soluble macromolecules from the extracellular environment by eukaryotic cells is called endocytosis.

a. internalization b. secretion c. cleavage d. externalization e. degradation

29. The cytosolic face of endosomes is lined by a specific set of proteins that include ____________.

a. cathepsins b. catalases c. oxidases d. hydrolases e. clathrins

30. The precursor 45S rRNA is processed into ______, _______, and ______ rRNAs.

a. 5S, 16S, and 23S b. 5S, 18S, and 28S c. 5.8S, 16S, and 28S d. 5.8S, 18S, and 28S

31. Which is not part of the preinitiation complex in translation?

a. 40S subunit b. eIF4A c. eIF3 d. eIF2 e. eIF1A

32. Messenger RNA makes up approximately 15% of total RNA in cells.

a. True b. False

33. The synthesis of fatty acids and phospholipids occurs in what organelle.

a. Smooth ER b. Rough ER c. Golgi complex d. Mitochondria e. Peroxisomes

34. Budding of vesicles involves interactions between the ______________ domain of integral membrane proteins and the vesicle coat.

a. extracellular b. exoplasmic c. cytosolic d. membrane-spanning

35. Only Met-tRNAmet can bind the P site on the small ribosomal subunit to begin protein synthesis.

a. True b. False

36. RNA polymerase I transcribes genes encoding __________ RNA precursors.

a. transfer b. messenger c. ribosomal d. small e. splicing

37. Karyopherins are transport proteins that include ___________. (Choose all that apply)

a. importins b. hnRNPs c. nucleoporins d. exportins e. NTF2

38. Degradation of aged organelles by lysosomes is called _______________.

a. polymerization b. autophagy c. phagocytosis d. oxidation e. denaturation

39. Which initiation factor subunit binds the 5’-cap of mRNA?

a. eIF4 b. eIF4A c. eIF4G d. eIF4E e. eIF3

40. The release factor ______________ recognizes any one of the three stop codons.

a. eRF3 b. eRF1 c. eIF6 d. EF2 e. eIF1A

41. The hnRNPs nuclear RNA consists of _______________ and other nuclear RNAs.

a. tRNA b. mRNA c. pre-mRNA d. rRNA e. DNA

42. Human mtDNA contains __________ base pairs.

a. 16,569 b. 15,568 c. 6,659 d. 10,000 e. Human mt does not contain DNA.

43. In prokaryotes, the 30S subunit has ______ different proteins and the 50S subunit has ______ different proteins.

a. 33 and 50 b. 39 and 49 c. 21 and 31 d. 18 and 28 e. 16 and 23



44. The association of pre-mRNA with hnRNPs contributes to the formation of pre-mRNA secondary structures.

a. True b. False

45. a and b tubulin each have a MW of _____________.

a. 35,000 b. 45,000 c. 55,000 d. 65,000 e. 100,000

46. Protein delivery to the proper cellular location is called _______________.

a. protein sorting b. protein trafficking c. protein localization d. cellular targeting

47. Mitochondria evolved from bacteria endocytosed by early cells and they were called ___________.

a. symbionts b. phagocytes c. prokaryotes d. endosymbionts e. eukaryotes
a. NES b. NPC c. GAP d. Kozak sequence e. NLS
5. Nuclear pores consist of a structure called a ________________.
a. ribonuclear pore b. nuclear protein complex c. nuclear pore complex d. mRNP
1. Clathrin-coated vesicles are involved in what general process?
a. Proteolytic cleavage b. Endocytosis c. Autophagy d. Exocytosis e. Oxidation
2. The nucleus consists of two nuclear membranes that fuse together at what are called ____________.
a. nuclear holes b. nuclear cores c. nuclear fissions d. nuclear channels e. nuclear pores
3. The 40S subunit of eukaryotes has ______ different proteins and a ________ rRNA.
a. 31 and 23S b. 33 and 18S c. 50 and 5S d. 21 and 16S
49. An ER signal sequence consists of _______ to _______ amino acids.
a. 16 to 20 b. 16 to 30 c. 10 to 20 d. 15 to 25 e. 50 to 100
48. ________ vesicles transport proteins from the Golgi to the RER.
a. COP I b. COP II c. COP III d. clathrin
4. A protein must have a _____________ to be imported into the nucleus.

a. eIF1 b. EF1a c. eIF6 d. EF2 e. eIF5

7. The hydrophobic core of protein signal sequences consists of ____ to ____ hydrophobic amino acids.

a. 3 to 6 b. 4 to 8 c. 6 to 12 d. 8 to 12 e. 16 to 30

8. The lysosomal enzymes that degrade polymers into monomers are collectively called ____________.

a. catalases b. oxidases c. synthetases d. acid hydrolases e. polymerases

9. Which is not one of the three steps in protein synthesis?

a. Initiation b. Termination c. Elongation d. Preinitiation

10. There are how many different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.

a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. more than 50

11. Mitochondrial DNA encodes ______ different tRNAs.

a. 18 b. 11 c. 14 d. 22 e. 31

12. RNP1 and RNP2 lie side by side on two central ___________ in the RNA recognition motif.

a. a helices b. coils c. U-turns d. b strands e. hairpins

13. The amino acid acceptor stem at the 3’-end of tRNA has the sequence ________.

a. UAA b. AUG c. UGA d. ACU e. CCA

14. Which organelle contains the enzymes Cathepsin B and L?

a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Peroxisomes d. RER e. SER

15. Selection of the start codon is facilitated by a specific nucleotide sequence called a ______ sequence.

a. Initiation b. Aminoacyl c. Kozak d. NES e. NLS

16. The translocon is made up of three proteins called the _______ complex.

a. Sec 61a b. Sec 61b c. Sec 61g d. Sec 61 e. SRP

17. Which of the choices below is not a signal sequence that is involved in protein targeting?

a. NES
b. Asn-x-Ser/Thr
c. NLS
d. KDEL
e. ER signal sequence

18. The process involving the translocation of secretory proteins to the ER lumen, during synthesis of the secretory proteins by ribosomes, is called ______________________.

colocalization translation
cotranslational translocation
translocation
signal recognition
importing

19. Ran·GTP is not part of the cargo complex during import.

a. True b. False

20. In protein synthesis, the second aminoacyl-tRNA is associated with ____________.

a. eIF5·GTP b. EF1a·GTP c. eIF6 d. EF2·GTP e. eIF3



21. A bimolecular cargo complex is formed during ________________.

a. translocation b. importation c. exportation d. translation e. elongation

22. The SRP receptor consists of what two subunits?

a. P54 and P19 b. Sec 61a and b c. d and g d. a and g e. a and b

23. tRNA is ____________ nucleotides in length.

a. 50 – 60 b. 60 – 70 c. 70 – 80 d. 80 – 90 e. 90 – 100

24. The SRP ____ subunit binds directly to the ER signal sequence.

a. P54 b. Sec 61a c. P19 d. P14 e. Sec 61b

25. Both mtDNA and mtRNA polymerases are synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes.

a. True b. False

26. There are 64 codons in the genetic code, how many do not code for an amino acid?

a. 1 codon b. 2 codons c. 3 codons d. 4 codons e. 5 codons

27. An example of an hnRNP RNA-binding domain is the ___________.

a. RRM b. RMR c. MRR d. RBD e. NPC

28. The ____________ of soluble macromolecules from the extracellular environment by eukaryotic cells is called endocytosis.

a. internalization b. secretion c. cleavage d. externalization e. degradation

29. The cytosolic face of endosomes is lined by a specific set of proteins that include ____________.

a. cathepsins b. catalases c. oxidases d. hydrolases e. clathrins

30. The precursor 45S rRNA is processed into ______, _______, and ______ rRNAs.

a. 5S, 16S, and 23S b. 5S, 18S, and 28S c. 5.8S, 16S, and 28S d. 5.8S, 18S, and 28S

31. Which is not part of the preinitiation complex in translation?

a. 40S subunit b. eIF4A c. eIF3 d. eIF2 e. eIF1A

32. Messenger RNA makes up approximately 15% of total RNA in cells.

a. True b. False

33. The synthesis of fatty acids and phospholipids occurs in what organelle.

a. Smooth ER b. Rough ER c. Golgi complex d. Mitochondria e. Peroxisomes

34. Budding of vesicles involves interactions between the ______________ domain of integral membrane proteins and the vesicle coat.

a. extracellular b. exoplasmic c. cytosolic d. membrane-spanning

35. Only Met-tRNAmet can bind the P site on the small ribosomal subunit to begin protein synthesis.

a. True b. False

36. RNA polymerase I transcribes genes encoding __________ RNA precursors.

a. transfer b. messenger c. ribosomal d. small e. splicing

37. Karyopherins are transport proteins that include ___________. (Choose all that apply)

a. importins b. hnRNPs c. nucleoporins d. exportins e. NTF2

38. Degradation of aged organelles by lysosomes is called _______________.

a. polymerization b. autophagy c. phagocytosis d. oxidation e. denaturation

39. Which initiation factor subunit binds the 5’-cap of mRNA?

a. eIF4 b. eIF4A c. eIF4G d. eIF4E e. eIF3

40. The release factor ______________ recognizes any one of the three stop codons.

a. eRF3 b. eRF1 c. eIF6 d. EF2 e. eIF1A

41. The hnRNPs nuclear RNA consists of _______________ and other nuclear RNAs.

a. tRNA b. mRNA c. pre-mRNA d. rRNA e. DNA

42. Human mtDNA contains __________ base pairs.

a. 16,569 b. 15,568 c. 6,659 d. 10,000 e. Human mt does not contain DNA.

43. In prokaryotes, the 30S subunit has ______ different proteins and the 50S subunit has ______ different proteins.

a. 33 and 50 b. 39 and 49 c. 21 and 31 d. 18 and 28 e. 16 and 23



44. The association of pre-mRNA with hnRNPs contributes to the formation of pre-mRNA secondary structures.

a. True b. False

45. a and b tubulin each have a MW of _____________.

a. 35,000 b. 45,000 c. 55,000 d. 65,000 e. 100,000

46. Protein delivery to the proper cellular location is called _______________.

a. protein sorting b. protein trafficking c. protein localization d. cellular targeting

47. Mitochondria evolved from bacteria endocytosed by early cells and they were called ___________.

a. symbionts b. phagocytes c. prokaryotes d. endosymbionts e. eukaryotes
a. NES b. NPC c. GAP d. Kozak sequence e. NLS
5. Nuclear pores consist of a structure called a ________________.
a. ribonuclear pore b. nuclear protein complex c. nuclear pore complex d. mRNP