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14 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Clathrin-coated vesicles are involved in what general process?
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a. Proteolytic cleavage b. Endocytosis c. Autophagy d. Exocytosis e. Oxidation
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2. The nucleus consists of two nuclear membranes that fuse together at what are called ____________.
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a. nuclear holes b. nuclear cores c. nuclear fissions d. nuclear channels e. nuclear pores
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3. The 40S subunit of eukaryotes has ______ different proteins and a ________ rRNA.
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a. 31 and 23S b. 33 and 18S c. 50 and 5S d. 21 and 16S
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49. An ER signal sequence consists of _______ to _______ amino acids.
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a. 16 to 20 b. 16 to 30 c. 10 to 20 d. 15 to 25 e. 50 to 100
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48. ________ vesicles transport proteins from the Golgi to the RER.
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a. COP I b. COP II c. COP III d. clathrin
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4. A protein must have a _____________ to be imported into the nucleus.
a. eIF1 b. EF1a c. eIF6 d. EF2 e. eIF5 7. The hydrophobic core of protein signal sequences consists of ____ to ____ hydrophobic amino acids. a. 3 to 6 b. 4 to 8 c. 6 to 12 d. 8 to 12 e. 16 to 30 8. The lysosomal enzymes that degrade polymers into monomers are collectively called ____________. a. catalases b. oxidases c. synthetases d. acid hydrolases e. polymerases 9. Which is not one of the three steps in protein synthesis? a. Initiation b. Termination c. Elongation d. Preinitiation 10. There are how many different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. more than 50 11. Mitochondrial DNA encodes ______ different tRNAs. a. 18 b. 11 c. 14 d. 22 e. 31 12. RNP1 and RNP2 lie side by side on two central ___________ in the RNA recognition motif. a. a helices b. coils c. U-turns d. b strands e. hairpins 13. The amino acid acceptor stem at the 3’-end of tRNA has the sequence ________. a. UAA b. AUG c. UGA d. ACU e. CCA 14. Which organelle contains the enzymes Cathepsin B and L? a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Peroxisomes d. RER e. SER 15. Selection of the start codon is facilitated by a specific nucleotide sequence called a ______ sequence. a. Initiation b. Aminoacyl c. Kozak d. NES e. NLS 16. The translocon is made up of three proteins called the _______ complex. a. Sec 61a b. Sec 61b c. Sec 61g d. Sec 61 e. SRP 17. Which of the choices below is not a signal sequence that is involved in protein targeting? a. NES b. Asn-x-Ser/Thr c. NLS d. KDEL e. ER signal sequence 18. The process involving the translocation of secretory proteins to the ER lumen, during synthesis of the secretory proteins by ribosomes, is called ______________________. colocalization translation cotranslational translocation translocation signal recognition importing 19. Ran·GTP is not part of the cargo complex during import. a. True b. False 20. In protein synthesis, the second aminoacyl-tRNA is associated with ____________. a. eIF5·GTP b. EF1a·GTP c. eIF6 d. EF2·GTP e. eIF3 21. A bimolecular cargo complex is formed during ________________. a. translocation b. importation c. exportation d. translation e. elongation 22. The SRP receptor consists of what two subunits? a. P54 and P19 b. Sec 61a and b c. d and g d. a and g e. a and b 23. tRNA is ____________ nucleotides in length. a. 50 – 60 b. 60 – 70 c. 70 – 80 d. 80 – 90 e. 90 – 100 24. The SRP ____ subunit binds directly to the ER signal sequence. a. P54 b. Sec 61a c. P19 d. P14 e. Sec 61b 25. Both mtDNA and mtRNA polymerases are synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes. a. True b. False 26. There are 64 codons in the genetic code, how many do not code for an amino acid? a. 1 codon b. 2 codons c. 3 codons d. 4 codons e. 5 codons 27. An example of an hnRNP RNA-binding domain is the ___________. a. RRM b. RMR c. MRR d. RBD e. NPC 28. The ____________ of soluble macromolecules from the extracellular environment by eukaryotic cells is called endocytosis. a. internalization b. secretion c. cleavage d. externalization e. degradation 29. The cytosolic face of endosomes is lined by a specific set of proteins that include ____________. a. cathepsins b. catalases c. oxidases d. hydrolases e. clathrins 30. The precursor 45S rRNA is processed into ______, _______, and ______ rRNAs. a. 5S, 16S, and 23S b. 5S, 18S, and 28S c. 5.8S, 16S, and 28S d. 5.8S, 18S, and 28S 31. Which is not part of the preinitiation complex in translation? a. 40S subunit b. eIF4A c. eIF3 d. eIF2 e. eIF1A 32. Messenger RNA makes up approximately 15% of total RNA in cells. a. True b. False 33. The synthesis of fatty acids and phospholipids occurs in what organelle. a. Smooth ER b. Rough ER c. Golgi complex d. Mitochondria e. Peroxisomes 34. Budding of vesicles involves interactions between the ______________ domain of integral membrane proteins and the vesicle coat. a. extracellular b. exoplasmic c. cytosolic d. membrane-spanning 35. Only Met-tRNAmet can bind the P site on the small ribosomal subunit to begin protein synthesis. a. True b. False 36. RNA polymerase I transcribes genes encoding __________ RNA precursors. a. transfer b. messenger c. ribosomal d. small e. splicing 37. Karyopherins are transport proteins that include ___________. (Choose all that apply) a. importins b. hnRNPs c. nucleoporins d. exportins e. NTF2 38. Degradation of aged organelles by lysosomes is called _______________. a. polymerization b. autophagy c. phagocytosis d. oxidation e. denaturation 39. Which initiation factor subunit binds the 5’-cap of mRNA? a. eIF4 b. eIF4A c. eIF4G d. eIF4E e. eIF3 40. The release factor ______________ recognizes any one of the three stop codons. a. eRF3 b. eRF1 c. eIF6 d. EF2 e. eIF1A 41. The hnRNPs nuclear RNA consists of _______________ and other nuclear RNAs. a. tRNA b. mRNA c. pre-mRNA d. rRNA e. DNA 42. Human mtDNA contains __________ base pairs. a. 16,569 b. 15,568 c. 6,659 d. 10,000 e. Human mt does not contain DNA. 43. In prokaryotes, the 30S subunit has ______ different proteins and the 50S subunit has ______ different proteins. a. 33 and 50 b. 39 and 49 c. 21 and 31 d. 18 and 28 e. 16 and 23 44. The association of pre-mRNA with hnRNPs contributes to the formation of pre-mRNA secondary structures. a. True b. False 45. a and b tubulin each have a MW of _____________. a. 35,000 b. 45,000 c. 55,000 d. 65,000 e. 100,000 46. Protein delivery to the proper cellular location is called _______________. a. protein sorting b. protein trafficking c. protein localization d. cellular targeting 47. Mitochondria evolved from bacteria endocytosed by early cells and they were called ___________. a. symbionts b. phagocytes c. prokaryotes d. endosymbionts e. eukaryotes |
a. NES b. NPC c. GAP d. Kozak sequence e. NLS
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5. Nuclear pores consist of a structure called a ________________.
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a. ribonuclear pore b. nuclear protein complex c. nuclear pore complex d. mRNP
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1. Clathrin-coated vesicles are involved in what general process?
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a. Proteolytic cleavage b. Endocytosis c. Autophagy d. Exocytosis e. Oxidation
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2. The nucleus consists of two nuclear membranes that fuse together at what are called ____________.
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a. nuclear holes b. nuclear cores c. nuclear fissions d. nuclear channels e. nuclear pores
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3. The 40S subunit of eukaryotes has ______ different proteins and a ________ rRNA.
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a. 31 and 23S b. 33 and 18S c. 50 and 5S d. 21 and 16S
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49. An ER signal sequence consists of _______ to _______ amino acids.
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a. 16 to 20 b. 16 to 30 c. 10 to 20 d. 15 to 25 e. 50 to 100
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48. ________ vesicles transport proteins from the Golgi to the RER.
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a. COP I b. COP II c. COP III d. clathrin
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4. A protein must have a _____________ to be imported into the nucleus.
a. eIF1 b. EF1a c. eIF6 d. EF2 e. eIF5 7. The hydrophobic core of protein signal sequences consists of ____ to ____ hydrophobic amino acids. a. 3 to 6 b. 4 to 8 c. 6 to 12 d. 8 to 12 e. 16 to 30 8. The lysosomal enzymes that degrade polymers into monomers are collectively called ____________. a. catalases b. oxidases c. synthetases d. acid hydrolases e. polymerases 9. Which is not one of the three steps in protein synthesis? a. Initiation b. Termination c. Elongation d. Preinitiation 10. There are how many different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. more than 50 11. Mitochondrial DNA encodes ______ different tRNAs. a. 18 b. 11 c. 14 d. 22 e. 31 12. RNP1 and RNP2 lie side by side on two central ___________ in the RNA recognition motif. a. a helices b. coils c. U-turns d. b strands e. hairpins 13. The amino acid acceptor stem at the 3’-end of tRNA has the sequence ________. a. UAA b. AUG c. UGA d. ACU e. CCA 14. Which organelle contains the enzymes Cathepsin B and L? a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Peroxisomes d. RER e. SER 15. Selection of the start codon is facilitated by a specific nucleotide sequence called a ______ sequence. a. Initiation b. Aminoacyl c. Kozak d. NES e. NLS 16. The translocon is made up of three proteins called the _______ complex. a. Sec 61a b. Sec 61b c. Sec 61g d. Sec 61 e. SRP 17. Which of the choices below is not a signal sequence that is involved in protein targeting? a. NES b. Asn-x-Ser/Thr c. NLS d. KDEL e. ER signal sequence 18. The process involving the translocation of secretory proteins to the ER lumen, during synthesis of the secretory proteins by ribosomes, is called ______________________. colocalization translation cotranslational translocation translocation signal recognition importing 19. Ran·GTP is not part of the cargo complex during import. a. True b. False 20. In protein synthesis, the second aminoacyl-tRNA is associated with ____________. a. eIF5·GTP b. EF1a·GTP c. eIF6 d. EF2·GTP e. eIF3 21. A bimolecular cargo complex is formed during ________________. a. translocation b. importation c. exportation d. translation e. elongation 22. The SRP receptor consists of what two subunits? a. P54 and P19 b. Sec 61a and b c. d and g d. a and g e. a and b 23. tRNA is ____________ nucleotides in length. a. 50 – 60 b. 60 – 70 c. 70 – 80 d. 80 – 90 e. 90 – 100 24. The SRP ____ subunit binds directly to the ER signal sequence. a. P54 b. Sec 61a c. P19 d. P14 e. Sec 61b 25. Both mtDNA and mtRNA polymerases are synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes. a. True b. False 26. There are 64 codons in the genetic code, how many do not code for an amino acid? a. 1 codon b. 2 codons c. 3 codons d. 4 codons e. 5 codons 27. An example of an hnRNP RNA-binding domain is the ___________. a. RRM b. RMR c. MRR d. RBD e. NPC 28. The ____________ of soluble macromolecules from the extracellular environment by eukaryotic cells is called endocytosis. a. internalization b. secretion c. cleavage d. externalization e. degradation 29. The cytosolic face of endosomes is lined by a specific set of proteins that include ____________. a. cathepsins b. catalases c. oxidases d. hydrolases e. clathrins 30. The precursor 45S rRNA is processed into ______, _______, and ______ rRNAs. a. 5S, 16S, and 23S b. 5S, 18S, and 28S c. 5.8S, 16S, and 28S d. 5.8S, 18S, and 28S 31. Which is not part of the preinitiation complex in translation? a. 40S subunit b. eIF4A c. eIF3 d. eIF2 e. eIF1A 32. Messenger RNA makes up approximately 15% of total RNA in cells. a. True b. False 33. The synthesis of fatty acids and phospholipids occurs in what organelle. a. Smooth ER b. Rough ER c. Golgi complex d. Mitochondria e. Peroxisomes 34. Budding of vesicles involves interactions between the ______________ domain of integral membrane proteins and the vesicle coat. a. extracellular b. exoplasmic c. cytosolic d. membrane-spanning 35. Only Met-tRNAmet can bind the P site on the small ribosomal subunit to begin protein synthesis. a. True b. False 36. RNA polymerase I transcribes genes encoding __________ RNA precursors. a. transfer b. messenger c. ribosomal d. small e. splicing 37. Karyopherins are transport proteins that include ___________. (Choose all that apply) a. importins b. hnRNPs c. nucleoporins d. exportins e. NTF2 38. Degradation of aged organelles by lysosomes is called _______________. a. polymerization b. autophagy c. phagocytosis d. oxidation e. denaturation 39. Which initiation factor subunit binds the 5’-cap of mRNA? a. eIF4 b. eIF4A c. eIF4G d. eIF4E e. eIF3 40. The release factor ______________ recognizes any one of the three stop codons. a. eRF3 b. eRF1 c. eIF6 d. EF2 e. eIF1A 41. The hnRNPs nuclear RNA consists of _______________ and other nuclear RNAs. a. tRNA b. mRNA c. pre-mRNA d. rRNA e. DNA 42. Human mtDNA contains __________ base pairs. a. 16,569 b. 15,568 c. 6,659 d. 10,000 e. Human mt does not contain DNA. 43. In prokaryotes, the 30S subunit has ______ different proteins and the 50S subunit has ______ different proteins. a. 33 and 50 b. 39 and 49 c. 21 and 31 d. 18 and 28 e. 16 and 23 44. The association of pre-mRNA with hnRNPs contributes to the formation of pre-mRNA secondary structures. a. True b. False 45. a and b tubulin each have a MW of _____________. a. 35,000 b. 45,000 c. 55,000 d. 65,000 e. 100,000 46. Protein delivery to the proper cellular location is called _______________. a. protein sorting b. protein trafficking c. protein localization d. cellular targeting 47. Mitochondria evolved from bacteria endocytosed by early cells and they were called ___________. a. symbionts b. phagocytes c. prokaryotes d. endosymbionts e. eukaryotes |
a. NES b. NPC c. GAP d. Kozak sequence e. NLS
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5. Nuclear pores consist of a structure called a ________________.
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a. ribonuclear pore b. nuclear protein complex c. nuclear pore complex d. mRNP
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