Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
271 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What are some responsibilities with which a Maintenance Technician is charged? |
Comply with all written guidance documentation is completed follow through with ops checks |
|
|
Name three levels of maintenance |
Organizational, intermediate, depot |
|
|
What level of maintenance do you provide to your squadron |
Organizational |
|
|
What level of maintenance consists of off equipment tasks |
Intermediate |
|
|
What level of maintenance consist of on and off equipment tasks performed at either a major repair center or an operating location |
Depot |
|
|
What level of maintenance is modified or eliminated under the two-level maintenance approach |
Intermediate |
|
|
Within the Air Force combat wing organization who is the key individual controlling the resources to meet mission requirements |
Wing commander |
|
|
Wing Commanders now organize all wing maintenance function under which group |
Mxg |
|
|
Which squadron within the maintenance group is responsible for all equipment maintenance |
Mxs |
|
|
Which squadron is directly responsible to the mxg/cc for the administration, analysis, training management, and programs and resources necessary to support the group production effort |
Mos |
|
|
To which squadron is QA assigned? For whom does QA work? |
Mos, directly for mxg/cc |
|
|
Which squadron services inspects maintains launches and recovers assigned aircraft |
Amxs |
|
|
Who allocates personnel and resources to the production effort |
Amu oic/ncoic |
|
|
What section is the focal point for all planned maintenance, TCTO, TCI, and inspections |
The amu ps+d |
|
|
Which section is the primary WorkCentre responsible for maintaining the assigned aircraft |
The acft section |
|
|
What is the deterioration of metal caused when it reacts to its environment by attempting to return to its natural state |
Common |
|
|
Five basic types of inspections |
Periodic, phased, calendar, isochronal, and programmed depot maintenance |
|
|
Describe periodic and phased basic inspection concepts |
Periodic inspection is a complete and total look at the entire aircraft, phase concept breaks up the inspection into smaller equal packages that are performed at different times |
|
|
Why was the phased inspection concept developed |
To minimize length of time and aircraft is out of commission |
|
|
Six basic sub elements of the periodic inspection |
Preflight, EOR, thruflight, basic post flight, hourly postflight, periodic |
|
|
Five basic sub elements of the phase inspection |
Preflight, EOR, thruflight, basic postflight, phase |
|
|
When is a 90 day calendar inspection required |
When the aircraft hasn't flown or is out of commission for more than 90 calendar days |
|
|
What inspection is based on calendar day sequence rather than the flying or operating hours sequence |
Isochronal inspection |
|
|
What does ASIP provide |
A basis for improving structural criteria and methods of design, evaluation, and substantiation for future aircraft systems and modification |
|
|
Why is it important to understand responsibility for government property |
If someone is negligent they may have to pay for all or part of a piece of equipment |
|
|
What is accountability |
Person who by law lawful order or instructions maintains accurate records of property or documents in his or her charge |
|
|
Accountability vs responsibility |
Sending out a toolbox you are responsible for it but support still maintains accountability |
|
|
What must be done if an item worth over $100 is lost or damaged |
A report of survey must be completed there are other criterion that may also require airport of survey and are listed in the AFMAN 23-220 |
|
|
Explain the report of survey process |
Individual issued the property initiates a report of survey. After completion an investigation is conducted. If the investigation determines there was willful misconduct deliberate or unauthorized use or gross negligence a statement of charges is initiated |
|
|
What is the purpose of RAMPOD |
Collects reports and maintains real time inventory performance sortie and engineering parametric data for externally carried electronic combat pods and other avionics |
|
|
What airforce assets is inventoried and financially accounted for in RAMPOD |
All Air Force externally carry pods including leased pods |
|
|
What is the purpose of the forward supply point |
Is to be located within the maintenance unit so assets are immediately available to the using activity |
|
|
Examples of stock |
Bench, shop, operating |
|
|
What is the repair cycle |
Need of an LRU. Part issues from supply, defective part is sent to backshop, repaired and sent to supply to fill vacancy |
|
|
What is a scarce item in the supply system referred to as |
A critical item |
|
|
What are dd forms 1574/1574-1 |
Serviceable labels. 1574 is a tag, 1574-1 is a gummed label |
|
|
What tag do we put on unserviceable but repairable parts |
DD form 1577-2, green tag |
|
|
What is the red tag |
DD form 1577 unserviceable (condemned tag) |
|
|
Why do we use the DD form 1575 suspended (brown) tag |
if you find that an item is bad because of a defect that you suspect is caused by the manufacturer, you'll file a DR |
|
|
What are the two types of DR's |
cat 1 and cat 2 |
|
|
what type of DR if uncorrected would cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness |
category 1 |
|
|
what type of DR deals with errors in workmanship? |
category 2 |
|
|
would a TO discrepancy be a reason to submit a DR? |
no, TO discrepancies reported with AFTO form 22, tech order system publication improvement report and reply |
|
|
who would be a good person to ask if you had questions concerning the completeness of a DR? |
the unit DR monitor |
|
|
what are the five responsibilities of the originator of a DR? |
1. discover, identify, and document conditions 2. ensure potential exhibits and supporting data are available to the originating point 3. forward draft DR to originating point 4. identify DR exhibits with DD forms 2332 and 1575 5. secure, segregate, and suspend the DR exhibit |
|
|
Preferred method to prepare DR's |
DREAMS |
|
|
how much time does the originator have to forward a complete cat 1 DR to personnel in the originating point? |
within 24 hours of deficiency discovery |
|
|
how much time does the originator have to forward a competed cat 2 DR to personnel in the o riginating point |
within 3 workdays of deficiency discovery |
|
|
why are DR exhibits assigned to a designated storage area |
to proclude their unauthorized return to the production, maintenance, or operation area |
|
|
what tags are normally filled out for a DR exhibit |
2 dd form 1575, suspended tag material, 2 dd form 2332, production quality deficiency report exhibit, and one afto form 350 repairable item processing tag are filled out |
|
|
who has overall dr management responsibility and serves as the focal point for all submitting organization tasks |
the personnel in the originating point |
|
|
what are fives types of TOs |
O+M, TCTOs, methods and procedures, idex type, abbreviated |
|
|
what is the main purpose of a TCTO |
authorized method of directing and providing instructions for modifying AF systems and performing or initially establishing one-time inspections |
|
|
when would the AF issue an immediate action TCTO |
to correct an unsafe condition that could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel, or cause extensive damage or destruction of valuable property |
|
|
describe the conditions that would warrant issue of an urgent action TO |
conditions that could result in injury to personnel, cause damage to valuable property, or result in an unacceptable reduction in operational and/or combat efficiency |
|
|
how are routine action TCTOs issued |
issued in 2 seperate categories 1 and 2, based on the primary responsibility for accomplishment |
|
|
who performs a category 1 routine action |
at organizational and field maintenance activities |
|
|
what are some methods of interim TCTO distribution |
may be transmitted by radiogram, telegram, teletype, message form or any other type of speedy communication |
|
|
what type of TOs being with 00 and are also referred to as general TOs |
methods and procedures TOs |
|
|
what type TO is considered the starting point for finding information about an other TO |
index-type TO |
|
|
what kind of TO is 1f-15c-575 |
a TCTO |
|
|
why is it important to protect TOs |
theyre expensive |
|
|
3 ways TOs can be damaged on flightline |
weather, engines, fluids, general abuse |
|
|
two examples of TO abuse |
kneeling on TO, standing on TO, throwing TO into cockpit, dropping TO on ground |
|
|
what is the most common form of TO damage and what causes this damage |
pages ripped from the TO binder, normally high winds will cause this damage |
|
|
explain how TOs can be torn |
careless when turning page, can tear in crease of schematic diagram |
|
|
how can existing material in a TO be easily altered to reflect new information |
a change to the TO can be submitted |
|
|
how do you identify a change within TO text |
heavy black line in the outer margin next to the changed info |
|
|
identify change to schematic or illustration
|
graphic of a hand points to affected material |
|
|
describe cumulative TO supplement |
they include data contained in previously issued supps. upon issue, cumulative supplement will supersede all previously issued supps. |
|
|
what type of supplement is used to supplement individual pages of a TO, and how is it distinguished from normal TO pages |
TOPS; printed on green paper |
|
|
how are TOPS pages filed within a TO |
facing the affected page |
|
|
how are routine supplements filed |
they are filed in the back of the affected publication |
|
|
how are operational supplements identified |
they are identified by a black OS border on the front page with the words OPERATIONAL SUPPLEMENT printed on the top and bottom of the first page |
|
|
when are interim supplements issued |
when time is of the essence, theyre quickly produced and electronically transmitted to the using agency for rapid integration into deficient TOs |
|
|
when is an urgent ISS issued |
when safety conditions could result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel |
|
|
how are safety and operational supplements filed |
in reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO |
|
|
How are you alerted of TO supplement |
Notice supplement number entered and pencil next to a circled paragraph number. Refer to indicate a supplement number. Follow instruction and continue with tasks |
|
|
Describe an LOEP check |
Comparison of the page and change numbers on each page of TO with the data on the LOEP |
|
|
Describe the deficiencies that a TO correction would fix |
word omission typography or printing error that doesn't cause misinterpretation minor word changes or corrections to tech data to clarify instructions but aren't essential for mission accomplishment |
|
|
What type of recommended TO change correct typos that alter the meaning of instructional material or procedures |
TO improvement |
|
|
Name 3 TO change recommendation priorities |
Emergency, urgent, routine |
|
|
What type of TO change recommendation would be submitted as either an emergency or urgent priority |
TO Improvement recomendation |
|
|
Who submits an afto form 22 |
The person who discovers a condition that requires a change |
|
|
What acts as a signature on an email afto form 22 |
The email address its record is sufficient proof of identity |
|
|
Who is the final approval authority for a submitted AFTO form 22 |
Lead command for the system affected by the AFTO form 22 |
|
|
Who may perform a follow up action for a delayed afto form 22 reply |
Local product improvement manager |
|
|
What are the general procedures for moving an LRU |
Inspect connectors for bent pins and corrosion, use gaskets and rings on antenna connections, remove all protective covers and place them on defective equipment, never use masking tape on wiring or connectors, be sure to use proper torque, attached paperwork to bad part, make sure part is protected while transported |
|
|
What happens if dirt or moisture gets into a waveguide |
Dirt or dust entering the waveguide attenuates both be transmitted and received energy. Moisture reduces the insulating quality of the air in the waveguide and can cause an arc |
|
|
What are the precautions for using a torque wrench |
Never use wrench as a breaker bar, when using torque wrench don't over tighten past torque value this may throw off calibration or damaged wrench |
|
|
When storing breakaway torque wrench what must be done |
Torque wrench should be cleaned is dirty rent should be stored in own container on lowest setting |
|
|
What is an exceptional release and who performs them |
It serves as a certification that the authorized individual who enters a signature in this area has reviewed the active forms to ensure the aircraft is safe for flight normally performed by production supervisor |
|
|
What information needs to be added to automated 781 series forms after the product is printed |
Symbols |
|
|
What is static electricity |
The accumulation of an electric charge on the surface of a material |
|
|
What are the four factors that affect the magnitude of static charge on a material |
The size, shape, composition, and electrical properties of the material |
|
|
What type of material can quickly distribute a static charge over its entire surface |
Conductor |
|
|
Will static electricity have a tendency to build up more and high or low humidity environment why |
Low humidity because humid air helps to dissipate static charges and decreases the chances of charge building |
|
|
List five components that are ESDS |
Film resistors, resistor chips, piezoelectric crystals, mosfet components, jfets |
|
|
How would you know that an ESDS component is present |
Any parts, LRU, and equipment that contain an ESDS component should be marked with the ESDS caution symbol and statements |
|
|
What precaution should you take to make sure you don't have a static charge build up in your body that could damage a component |
First be sure that the aircraft is properly grounded, then discharge yourself by touching the units case before disconnecting any cables and touch the outer shells of cable connectors together to equalize electrostatic potentials |
|
|
Which technical order will give you further guidance on ESDS components |
00-25-234 |
|
|
What is the purpose of the altitude and airspeed portions of the 205 test set |
These are used to perform leak and operational checks of the pitot-static system and instruments |
|
|
When will you use the 205 to perform an operational and leak check |
Anytime the pitot-static indicator is replaced |
|
|
What is the altitude range of the 205 |
-1000 - 80000 feet |
|
|
What condition must be satisfied before connecting the 205 to the aircraft |
Self test |
|
|
What modes does the iff test set interrogate |
1,2,3a,4,c |
|
|
What conditions must be met in order for the aircraft altitude to be displayed on the test sets |
ADC turned on and mode c enabled |
|
|
What button is pushed to repeat the last iff mode previously checked |
Test repeat |
|
|
What are the four main functional groups of the an/plm4 rss |
Power distribution, digital control, RF, BIT |
|
|
What test failure will cause the RSS not to operate |
The fifo memory part of test |
|
|
What functional checks on the CMDS are performed with the CDSTS |
Verifies absence of stray voltage on firing pin, validates amplitude, duration and sequence of fire pulses, provides pass or fail status. Provides fire poles count sequence of fire poles pin number for each no fire position. Each bad ground spring position and the number of failed limits and provides pass/fail status |
|
|
What does the stray voltage test perform |
Performs an absence of stray voltage safety check out across dispenser firing contact before loading payload magazines with live squids. The CDT monitors all dispenser firing contacts for the existence of an AC or DC stray voltage |
|
|
What groups are checked by the JSECST |
Group A and Group B components of the EC SUT |
|
|
What is checked by group B test |
Radar warning receivers, integrated electronic attack Suites and electronic countermeasure characteristics of target EC systems |
|
|
When will JSECST pressure equalizing valve open |
Whenever a pressure differential of more than 6 psi exists between the test sets internal pressure and the ambient pressure |
|
|
A crypto ignition key is used for what |
In order to have access to the information on the SKL |
|
|
What is serene byte |
Exercises conducted periodically to validate the production and delivery of software and hardware changes to electronic equipment used to provide an awareness and responsibility with the electronic spectrum |
|
|
What are the four steps in the electronic warfare integrated reprogramming and the code name for this process |
Detect change, determine impact, reprogram, field change. Called pacerware |
|
|
What is the goal for emergency changes affecting combat operations |
Releasing necessary changes within 24 hours |
|
|
4 things you can do to reduce FOD |
Follow Tech Data, pick up litter, account for all tools, and properly cap all openings |
|
|
Give the precautions you should take while using MEK |
Where proper gloves and eye protection and never use without proper ventilation |
|
|
Where will you most likely encounter hydraulic fluid |
Around flight control system components and any time someone needed to open a hydraulic line |
|
|
What are hazards attributed to hydraulic fluid |
Flammable, your chance, somewhat toxic, and very slippery |
|
|
To general precautions you should take around aircraft to prevent igniting fuel |
Never smoke on flight line or in hangar, avoid any source of spark or open flame near aircraft |
|
|
To minimize hazard created by burners how far should you place heaters from aircraft |
As far as ducting allows |
|
|
What is the water content of hydrazines |
30% |
|
|
What risks are associated with exposure to hydrazine |
Suspected carcinogen that attacks the liver, kidneys, and respiratory system |
|
|
What does hydrazine vapor indicator do |
Detect hydrazine vapor and changes color to warn personnel |
|
|
What color does the hydrogen vapor indicator turn if a hydrogen tank leak has been detected |
Grey or black |
|
|
How far should personality vaculated in the event of a hydrazine spill or leak |
100 feet minimum or 500 feet down wind |
|
|
What two safety measures need to be followed when performing maintenance on the hydrazine system |
Where respiratory and personal protective equipment and provide positive ventilation through the fuselage |
|
|
When should respiratory and personal protective equipment be worn |
Whenever levels of hydrazine exceed the recommended safe level of 100 parts per billion |
|
|
Why is the energy stored in a compressed gas cylinder such a hazard |
Because a flaw in or mishandling of the cylinder could cause it to explode |
|
|
If a gas cylinder valve requires the use of a wrench or key what special precautions should you use while using the gas |
Keep it already in case you need to shut off the flow of gas |
|
|
With what type of gas should you not open the cylinder valve fully |
Acetylene |
|
|
Why do helium and nitrogen create such a hazard in badly ventilated areas |
They delete the airs oxygen to unsafe levels and could cause you to suffocate |
|
|
What danger does LOX create |
Risk of fire or explosion |
|
|
What is the operational hydraulic system pressure of most aircraft |
At or above 3000 psi |
|
|
What characteristic of air makes it such a serious problem to hydraulic systems |
Its compressibility leads to pressure fluctuation and actuator failure |
|
|
What does contamination by dirt and sand have on a hydraulic system |
Score of the armature and damage of the seals, clog the micron filters slowing servo actuator response time, if their tour San gets passed the filter is it could damage the actuators |
|
|
When should you work on energized circuitry |
Only if it's absolutely necessary |
|
|
What three safety points should you follow whenever you work around electricity |
Never trust a switch, don't assume someone else installed safety devices, keep your feet clear of objects on the ground |
|
|
What noise level could rupture your eardrum |
160 decibels or above |
|
|
Below what level is noise considered safe |
84 decibels |
|
|
Name the Symptoms people who have received an overdose of sound may display |
Pain or ringing in the ear, a feeling of fullness, dizziness, lack of concentration, nausea vomiting or weakness of the knees |
|
|
What should you do if you or your co-workers experienced the symptoms of noise overdose |
Get away from the noise area and seek medical help immediately |
|
|
When do f15 engines produced the most dangerous levels of noise |
In afterburner |
|
|
When should you wear both earplugs and earmuffs |
Anytime you need to work around 120 decibels |
|
|
How long per day is it safe to expose yourself to 140 decibels of noise while wearing both earplugs and earmuffs |
Less than 5 minutes |
|
|
List four ways that radiation can cause harm |
Direct biological, indirect biological, the ignition of fuel, and detonation of explosive |
|
|
How does radiation damage your internal organs |
By causing them to heat up more quickly than their blood flow can cool them down |
|
|
Which radiation hazard occurs when radiation interferes with medical devices |
Indirect biological |
|
|
After seeing radiation exposure victims medical needs what should a supervisor immediately do |
Notify radiation protection officer |
|
|
If you report to a radiation overexposure and you show no signs of injury what should your supervisor do |
Make an appointment for you with the flight surgeon's office within the next 72 hours |
|
|
How can the focusing property of the eye cause damage |
It increases the incident energy density by several hundred thousand times |
|
|
What determines which part of the eye might be damaged |
The wavelength of radiated energy |
|
|
What functions of sight. Of the fovea portion of the retina |
It enables you to see fine detail, distinguished colors, and perceive depth |
|
|
Where can you look to find guidance on laser operation and safety |
Afosh standard 48-139, laser radiation protection program |
|
|
Describe construction of insulated wire |
Conductor covered with dielectric or insulating material |
|
|
Function of metallic braid on shielded cables |
Provides a barrier against electromagnetic interference |
|
|
Construction of coax cable |
Inner conductor and an outer shield separated by an insulating dielectric |
|
|
Two major contributors to chafing |
Poor inspection habits and not documenting or reporting chafing |
|
|
What type of coax or Triax problem cannot be detected with a multimeter |
Damage that prevents the cable from passing certain frequencies |
|
|
What do you call the ratio of voltage to current at the input and at the output |
Input impedance or output impedance |
|
|
What can impedance mismatch between cables and components of the system cause |
Excessive reflection which can cause reduced power transferred through a transmission line as well as transmitter failures |
|
|
Two conductors that are kept apart at a fixed distance |
Spaced 2 wire line |
|
|
What part of the coax line protective signal from intrusion and minimizes signal leakage |
The shield |
|
|
What does a coax shield do with unwanted RF energy |
Diverts it to ground |
|
|
Advantages of twisted pair |
Flexibility small size and simple manufacturing |
|
|
What is the function of the copper braid shield in the shielded wire line |
To prevent entry or exit of unwanted RF |
|
|
Three types of transmission line losses |
I2r, dielectric, radiation / induction |
|
|
I2r loss |
High frequency alternating current tends to flow near the surface of a conductor. This restricts the current to a small part of the conductors cross-sectional area, which causes a transmission line to offer much higher resistance to RF than it would to DC |
|
|
How can the impact of skin effect be reduced |
It can be reduced by silver plating the conductor |
|
|
Why do radiation losses occur |
Because some magnetic lines of force about a conductor don't return to the conductor, instead these lines of force radiate a portion of the signals power into space |
|
|
What distributed constant is caused by the magnetic field collapsing during an AC cycle, inducing current into a wire |
Distributed inductance |
|
|
What distributed constant is caused when two parallel transmission lines act as plates while the insulator between them access the dielectric |
Distributed capacitance |
|
|
In what unit is distributed resistance usually expressed |
Ohms per foot |
|
|
What is the small current that flows between transmission line conductors called |
Leakage current |
|
|
What is the property of an insulator that allows tiny amounts of current to pass between the two wires what values used to this property |
Conductance, Pico ohms per foot |
|
|
How long was the waveguide been to prevent reflections |
More than 2 wavelengths |
|
|
How do you prevent reflections in a waveguide that would be caused by a 90 degree sharp bend |
By breaking up the band into 245 degree bends one quarter length a part |
|
|
what happens if the impedance at the receiver or radiating end of a waveguide is mismatched with the impedance of space? |
standing waves cause reflection and power loss |
|
|
is the multimeter the best troubleshooting tool for diagnosing an RF cable problem? |
no, a fluke meter wont detect anything other than a short or open |
|
|
what can be detected by a TDR? |
impedance changes caused by connectors, crimps, crushes, frays, opens and shorts as well as the distance to the impedance change |
|
|
white the longest length of cable a TDR can check |
2000 feet |
|
|
what does the trace on the CRT represent |
the impedance at any given point alongwith the cable under test |
|
|
why should you avoid hooking the TDR up to a live wire |
voltages over 5v can damage the input circuiting, rendering the TDR useless |
|
|
what should you do after ensuring that no power is applied to the circuit and before hooking the TDR to a cable |
bleed or remove any built up static charges from the cable |
|
|
why should you be very careful when testing antennas with a TDR |
if a nearby transmitter keys up, the TDR might be damaged |
|
|
how does the TDR display an open |
it displays an upward deflection of the trace equal to the size of the incident pulse |
|
|
how does the TDR display a short |
displays downward deflection of trace equal to size of incident pulse |
|
|
what TO gives additional TDR info |
33A1-4-73-1 |
|
|
four methods of electrical connector coupling |
threaded coupling rings, friction coupling, bayonet locks, push-pull coupling rings |
|
|
which part of the electrical connector is the receptacle and what part is the plug? |
receptacle is fixed, plug is removed |
|
|
which contacts should be connected to the hot side of the circuit |
socket (female side) |
|
|
which part is the weakest link of a transmission path |
RF connectors because they can be easily damaged |
|
|
why should you be concerned with the bend radius of a cable near an RF connector |
to sharp bend will damage cable and put stress on connector, cause premature breakage |
|
|
difference between soldered and solderless connections |
solderless connectors depend on a mechanical rather than chemical bond |
|
|
solderless connector that allows two pieces of wire to form a continuous run |
splice |
|
|
what are the two types of connector pins |
pin contact and socket contact |
|
|
how do you know what tool and selector indentor knob to use when repairing wire |
1-1a-14 |
|
|
how do you know if connector is front or rear release |
blue band around rear release connector |
|
|
possible result of using wrong size insertion tool on connector |
damage to retention clip of connector or damage to tool |
|
|
A synchro generator does what |
Converts mechanical position into an equivalent electrical positional signal |
|
|
A synchro motor does what |
Converts electrical position signal into an equivalent mechanical position |
|
|
Synchro motors and generators have stators that are set 120 degrees apart what do we call this arrangement |
Wye-wound |
|
|
What's the only difference between a synchro generator and synchro motor construction |
The difference is rotor construction, the synchro motor has a heavy metal flywheel called in inertia damper mounted on the shaft |
|
|
The synchro motors inertia damper does what |
Reduces motor oscillations during sudden starts or stops of the synchro motor |
|
|
What component subtract the mechanical input from an electrical one and transmits the difference |
Synchro differential generator |
|
|
How is a differential rotor constructed |
It's a cylindrical with three sets of y-connected coils wound in slots that are spaced 120 degrees apart |
|
|
What synchro device makes trigonometric calculations |
Resolver |
|
|
What types of devices are synchros |
Electromechanical |
|
|
Name the type of syncrosystem that exhibits the following behavior: as you turn the same card generator shaft the motor shaft follows exactly and simultaneously |
The basic synchro system |
|
|
Why doesn't current flow between the generator and the motor stator is when both rotors are in equivalent position |
Because the identical position of each rotor induces identical voltages into each parts stators. With equal voltage no difference of potential exists for current flow |
|
|
When the synchro generators rotor turns creating a difference between the system's rotor positions, a difference of potential is created between the Staters. How does this caused the motor to reposition its rotor to match generators |
Difference in potential causes current to flow between the Staters. This current creates magnetic flux fields that exert a force to move the motor rotor to the same position as a generator |
|
|
Of what does a simple servomechanism consist |
A synchro generator, a control transformer, an amplifier, & a servo motor |
|
|
What does feedback do in a servo mechanism |
Acts to null out the error signal |
|
|
Briefly describe the binary system |
Uses the radix 2. Has only two symbols 0 & 1. You can write any number using two symbols. 0 is a placeholder for the system, while one stands for one, unity or a single unit |
|
|
In the base 2 system as exponent increases by one what happens to the value of the number |
Value doubles |
|
|
What happens to the number when the negative component increases by one |
Value is halved |
|
|
What is the normal method used for converting binary numbers to decimal form |
Addition method |
|
|
What's the major difference between the octal, binary, and decimal number systems |
The base |
|
|
What's the function of an antenna |
To radiate electromagnetic energy into or collect electromagnetic energy from space |
|
|
Why is antenna considered to be a transducer |
Because it converts energy in the form of current oscillations to electric and magnetic fields of force |
|
|
How does an antenna convert received fields back into RF current |
When electromagnetic fields traveling through space across the received antenna, they impress a voltage across the antenna which causes a current to flow in the receiver |
|
|
What's required of the transmitting or receiving antenna to provide maximum communicating distance |
Maximum efficiency |
|
|
Which AM transmitter component generates a low amplitude signal at a low frequency |
Master oscillator |
|
|
What is used to produce the load on an oscillator in an AM transmitter |
Low frequency, low power signals applied to a system of multipliers and power amplifiers |
|
|
Which AM transmitter section controls the overall stability of the system |
Oscillator |
|
|
What's the function of the buffer in an AM transmitter |
To isolate the oscillator from the multipliers and amplifier load |
|
|
What's used to increase the AM oscillator frequency to the designed frequency required for a carrier wave operation |
Combinations of doublers and triplers |
|
|
What's the function of the power amplifiers in an AM transmitter |
To bring the level of the carrier wave up to the appropriate power level for transmission |
|
|
Why is an intermediate power amplifier sometimes required in an AM transmitter |
To establish a more appropriate level of driving power at the input to the final amplifier |
|
|
Which AM transmitter component modulates the audio signal from the modulator with the carrier wave from the RF unit |
Final amplifier |
|
|
What's the purpose of the audio power amplifier in the modulator section of the AM transmitter |
To receive its driving signal from the audio voltage amplifier and amplify the signal to the proper level for modulating the carrier wave at the final power amplifier in the RF section |
|
|
What controls the reactance that controls the oscillator frequency in an FM reactance modulator |
The audio signal from the audio amplifier |
|
|
What's the purpose of the frequency amplifier in an FM transmitter |
To raise the modulated frequencies to their assigned channel and increase the amount of frequency deviation to the maximum allowable |
|
|
What's the function of the discriminator in the AFC circuit |
To detect any change in the converters different frequency and produce an AFC correction voltage to the reactants of the modulator, causing the oscillator to return to the desired center frequency |
|
|
What's the purpose of the preemphasis circuit in the audio amplifier |
To overcome the difference between the high and low frequency components in the transmitted signals |
|
|
Define selection |
Ability of receiver to select a particular frequency of a station from all the other station frequencies appearing at the antenna of the receiver |
|
|
Sensitivity |
The ability of a receiver to reproduce weak signals |
|
|
Noise |
A major limiting factor of sensitivity because it can prevent the receiver from responding to a very low signal input |
|
|
Selectivity |
Ability of a receiver to distinguish between desired signals and unwanted signals nearby and operating frequency |
|
|
What two signals are heterodyne in the receiver mixer to obtain the IF signal |
Output of the amplifier and input from the local oscillator |
|
|
Explain the term ganged tuning |
The process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control |
|
|
How many stages of IF amplification may superheterodyne receiver contain |
As many as needed to obtain the desired power output |
|
|
What is heterodyning and what does it produce |
The process of mixing the input RF signal with the local oscillator signal, for different frequencies - 2 original frequencies, their sum , and their difference |
|
|
What's the purpose of the detector circuit |
To extract the modulating audio signal |
|
|
Why must an FM receiver have a wideband IF amplifier stage |
To receive and pass all side frequency components of the modulated signal without distortion |
|
|
What two fundamental sections of the FM receiver are electrically different from an AM receiver |
Discriminator (detector) and limiter |
|
|
What's the difference between AM and FM demodulation |
AM demodulation involves the detection of variations in the amplitude of the signal. FM demodulation is the process of detecting variations in the frequency of the signal |
|
|
What function does the limiter circuit perform |
Removes amplitude variations from the signal to minimize noise interference |
|
|
What's the function of the discriminator circuit |
To extract the audio frequency component from the FM signal |
|
|
Why does FM provide more realistic sound reproduction |
Because of the increase in the number of side bands |
|
|
What provides the mating surface between the aircraft and a sniper pod |
ADU-577/A |
|
|
What does the sniper pod use to identify targets to others and for targets identified by others |
The pod has a laser marker to identify targets to others and a laser spot tracker for targets identified by others |
|
|
Identify the components house in the optical bed assembly and what do they provide |
Houses the lasers, sensors, and associated optics that provide the crucial tolerances required to meet the line-of-sight stability and pointing accuracy requirements of the pod |
|
|
What does the short wave optics assembly provide |
Provides a method of steering the LST, LRR, and TV line of sight to the laser line of sight |
|
|
Which assembly is the primary pod structure that supports the optical bed assembly and interfaces the pylon adapter assembly |
Aft structure assembly |
|
|
Describe how the primary steering of the sniper pods line of sight is accomplished |
With the roll, pitch, And yaw controls. When role is combined with pitch, the sniper pod achieves full story full coverage for the line of sight less a 50 degree diameter cone asked of the pod |
|
|
How long is TGT IR NRDY displayed wild APOD cooler achieves detector cool down |
5 - 8 minutes, but may take less than 5 minutes or as long as 14 minutes, depending on temperature |
|
|
How many types of BIT are there in the sniper pod |
SBIT, PBIT, IBIT |
|
|
Describe how functional failures can be cleared |
Running a clean a IBIT on the sniper pod or removing pod from aircraft |
|
|
What does the Lightning pod targeting system provide |
Target acquisition, tracking, laser designation for an air to ground, day or night, beyond visual range precision strike capability |
|
|
Why is the Lightning pod design with a modular construction |
Because it allows for rapid replacement of equipment and increases pod reliability |
|
|
Describe the Lightning pods forward section |
It is stabilized observation system that contains three on gimbal EO sensors (FLIR, TIS, CCD, CAMERA, LSD) and laser designation, and their field sensor unit, a line of sight control mechanism, and several components of the environmental system |
|
|
What does the ECU provide for the lightning pods |
It provides temperature control for the internal space of the targeting pod |
|
|
What does the Lightning pods information give you |
Gives you control, displays, and forward looking infrared video on the cockpit display for allocating, identifying and tracking air to air and air to ground targets |
|
|
Describe the purpose of the main menu page associated with the lightning pod |
It is used to operate all the frequent operational functions of the litening pod in all of its operational modes accept bit mode |
|
|
What does the continuous bit do |
Monitors targeting pod failures during system operation |
|
|
How long does the IBIT take |
About 3 minutes |
