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324 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The tip provides?
users with a fast-file control system
Online processing may be called?
real-time processing
Which of the following best describes online processing?
Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe
The basic limitation to batch processing is?
There is always a processing delay
What is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing?
running the NFS0A0 program
In what mode do you run PSURPB?
DEMAND
What indicator tells you that a PSURPB program has completed processing?
The SOE character appears
A pseudo file is created for PSURPB by
using program NFS0A0
Which support program file controls all online programs for each AIS?
Validation table.
Which support program file ensures that the FSA is running and up to date for the IMDS database?
TIP file 611
The basic keyin console mode allows
a user to request the status on a user's run
What console mode command displays a list of active runs?
T D.
The @@TM console command is used to
send a message to a remote site
What ECL command will provide you with the mainframe FTP address?
@WHOAMI
When transferring a file using FTP, the sending file name
must correspond to the file name of the receiving file
Which element contains data to be processed by control statements?
Symbolic
a collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called
a program
What ECL command syntax symbol is used to indicate to the systems an option is to follow?
Comma (,)
The "S" option at the end of an ECL command syntax indicates that
only symbolic type elements will be affected by the command
What should be used when constructing an ECL file to differentiate between two elements with identical names?
/VERSION
What is the maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG ECL command?
48 characters.
The ECL information command @PRT,P FILENAME
displays all files with the same project ID
Which ECL file manipulation command allows a normal termination of data for input into a file?
@EOF
You should catalogue a file to
retain the data after the file is freed.
If the ECL file manipulation command GRANULE requirement is left blank when a file is catalogued, the result is that a system assumes
TRK
Which ECL file manipulation command is used to introduce, update, and correct an SDF file?
@DATA
In the @ASG statement, the PACK-ID
specifies the removable disk pack required for the file.
Which of the following ECL control commands makes provisions for the deassignment of files from a run and releases its input/output facilities?
@FREE
The ECL control command @RUN identifies
a job to the system
When using the @RUN command, what is the default priority?
M
Which ECL control command is used to queue a previously created print file to a specific device?
@SYM
Which ECL control command allows one part of the print file to print while the remainder of the run is still processing?
@BRKPT
Which is not a general function of Integrated Maintenance Data Systems (IMDS)?
Saves the database
The database manager must inform users when a batch program is scheduled to be run
requiring the integrated maintenance data system online processing to be down
When monitoring computer maintenance as a database manager, your efforst must be directed toward
the analysis of unscheduled and scheduled downtime
Which database verification program can be run on as needed when problems are suspected?
NDA500
Which utility program requires that the database be down when you run this program?
Data management utility verifies
The IMDS work order update WHC program is used to
update WAH when a special requirement exists where air national guard units require more hours
The two basic procedures for data recovery are
manual remote and pseudo remote processing
whenever an advisory notice is sent out to the field, who determines the affected users at base level?
host database manager.
What document is used by the CCSHD to communicate with field agencies?
Heads up messages (HUM)
What does the ELSG send out to the field right away if a software problem is discovered but a SAN might be delayed?
HUM
What do we use to identify IMDS database corrections and updates to DECC and functional users world-wide?
System release
For which situation may the user submit an IT/NSS RD regarding IMDS
add new capabilites to IMDS
An IT/NSS RD disapproved at any level is
returned in reverse order down the chain to the initiator
the ICI software package provides IMDS and supply users with
message routing, recovery, and utility functions
The responsibility for initializing ICI via screen #891 lies with
the host DBM
Which REMIS interface program provides a list of all the files which have been received from or transmitted to REMIS within the last 72 hours?
DDN address record.
Which REMIS interface program creates RCS-376 records containing SRD problems that are sent to REMIS?
Table Validation Problem Reporting
Which option on the G081 session selection menu brings up the G081 time sharing option (TSO) menu?
ATATS TSO
In G081, what does it mean when you see three asterisks in a row?
Press enter to continue
All new G081 user Ids automatically have access to which G081 environment?
IMSA CAMS Production
In addition to creating new G081 user id in the G081 User ID maintenance facility, the G081 manager must process which program to grant access to G081?
F9057, Terminal/User Master Record Update
What two options are available to reset a G081 User ID password through the G081 User ID Maintenance Facility?
Un-Suspend user and update G081 password
A G081 manager can delete only G081 user IDs with what type of access?
IMSA and IMSB
Which option of the VTAM printing system VMCF printer selection list is used to access a particular printer's command page?
Option C.
What is entered in the Command Input field of the G081's spool display and search facility (SDSF) primary options menu to go to the SDSF Status Display Menu?
ST, Status.
What information does the spool display and search facility (SDSF) job dataset display give the G081 manager?
Status of the job selected
What type of database system(s) compose the IMDS central database?
Network and relational.
Physical pointers are used in networked databse to
establish relationships between records
how many dimensions do tables have in a relational database?
Two
The most distinguishing characteristic of a relational query language like SQL is it
is a non-procedural language
The ELC contains
the unique database for each base
The characteristic that describes a function of the of the RDMS section of the central databse (CDB) is it contains
the reference data from REMIS
What does the schema of a database describe?
Logical relationships between records.
Which section of the schema is used by the Data management routine to locate records?
set
The two divisions of the schema are identification and
data
How many base level areas does the enterprise location code (ECL) database have?
11
The CDB global roll-up areas use enterprise location code (ELC) codes of
0000
Which clause in the record section of the IMDS schema defines the areas where the records can be found?
Data identifier.
Record placement in the IMDS database depends on association, distribution, and
volatility.
The three parts of an IMDS record database key (DBK) are area, page number, and ...
record number
You can access via set records only through
an entry point record
A direct type record has its database key assigned and controlled by the
ELSG database administrator
What types of records are defined when a hierarchical relationship is established by sets?
Owner and member
The database key in a pointer shows the
next logical record in the set
Which element of the database structure is not shown by the IMDS DMS schematic?
Page
When viewing the rectangle box on an IMDS schematic, what denotes an area as consisting of one schematic page?
A whole number
Which of the following is the main focus of a data model?
Structure and organization of the data
When building a data model, all data required by the database should be represented
completely and accurately.
Adding details to a data model includes adding data attributes, and data manipulation and
integrity rules
The two-dimensional structure of data values that form relations to one another in relational database is known as a
table
In a relational database,
a primary key field may not be null
In what type of key establishes the relationship with records in one table to records in another table?
Foreign key
Which of the following is an association between two or more data items, or between two or more tables?
Relationship.
Which type of data relationship is represented when each row in a table is related to a single row in another table?
One-to-one.
Multiple occurrences of one data element are related to one occurrence of another, and vice versa, represents which type of data relationship?
Many-to-many.
Which of the following data relationships cannot be represented in a relational database?
Many-to-many
Which of the following is a relationship between fields such that the value in Field A determines the value in Field B, and there can only be one value in field B?
Functional dependency
A functional dependency in which the calue in a non-key field is determined by the value of another non-key field is called a/an
transitive dependency
In the RDMS what is the maximum amount of data the historical tables can store?
Five years worth
Which table in the RDMS holds data supplied by REMIS?
Reference
In the RDMS schema, in what order are the tables are arranged?
Alphabetical
Why are the RDMS tables indexed?
For faster search and retrieval
In the RDMS schema diagram, the tables in an area are drawn in
boxes
In the RDMS schema diagram, a solid arrow line between two tables points to a table with
a defined foreign key
In the RDMS schema diagram,
a foreign key exists but is not defined.
A profile is a list of TRICs that allows access to certain IMDS programs based on the user's
role
The IMDS master profile Generic_User_Profile contains
the basic TRICs that all users need.
What profile level of operation allows database administrators to access all enterprise location codes (ELCs) and teh RDMS?
Enterprise
Managing the RDMS tables is the responsibility of the
Central Database CDB database administrators DBA
The allowed enterprise location codes concept gives the ELC database managers the ability to allow
another IMDS user from another base access to their database.
The adding or subtracting of a TRICs with its respective options and sub-options out of a loaded profile on an individual is known as
DELTA
What best describes a "green screen"?
systems still using a text-based screen transaction
What table identifies whether the DMS rollup area is available for transaction processing?
FSA_Control
UP to how many user Ids can the ELC profile manager by profile ID program load to a single master profile?
25
Site management (SIMAN) establishes and defines user-ids for demand, batch and tip users for
the entire mainframe
What site management (SIMAN) mode is especially effective for making precise entries or for use by less experienced database managers (DBMs)
Screen
What type of IMDS database errors can not be created by TIP users?
Pointer
What type of IMDS database errors occur when the data does not follow the schema rules?
Structural
Which database verify check for proper placement of random records throughout a database?
CALC
Which in put is required to obtain a record printout of a random access locator record when using the prom random access locator (LAF)?
CALC Key
Which of the following unused data items can the list is the File Inquiry (FIQ) program table to provide?
Event sequence numbers
What input command do you use to activate DBLOOK?
@ADD
The universal data systems monitor (UDSMON) provides for an integrated software environment for control and maintenance of?
user databases
What kind of problems does the CAM/REMIS reconciliation (RIS) program identify and correct?
C-E status and inventory
Which is an example of an integer literal?
2
Which is an example of a Boolean operator?
AND
The QLP statement ESH-ENG-FLY-HRS = '01000' represents
a relational expression
Which words in a QLP syntax skeleton are mandatory if they are underlined?
Uppercase
What character do you sued at the end of a QLP statement whn you want to continue the command to the next line?
A semicolon
QLP can be initialized online only in the
Demand mode
When more than one INVOKE statement is entered in one session, the second or subsequent INVOKE statement
automatically overrides the previous INVOKE statement.
Which QLP sign-off procedure purges all reports that were not saved by used of the SAVE command?
EXIT
Which QLP clause allows you to specify portions of a data item as the selection criteria?
MASK
With what clause does the QLP MACRO definition syntax terminates?
END-MACRO
QLP Procedures are invoked by the command
CALL
The QLP procedure definition consists of the mandatory statements PROCEDURE and
END PROCEDURE
When printing a QLP output, what command do you use to activate a side-by printer?
@@PRNT
The QLP clause that defines the explicit attributes of a derived name is
DECLARE
Which QLP command that allows user to specify an output destination is
GENERATE
When you choose to generate a summary report in QLP, which clause is disregarded?
LINE
Which QLP clause allows the user to specify the number of lines per inch to be printed?
DENSITY
An edited QLP report is copied into the temporary savefile if
it was stored in the user or permanent savefile
What savefile is automatically assigned to WLP when the INVOKE command is processed?
Permanent
Which QLP savefile command is used to list all or specific entities?
PRINT
In which mode can the QLP COMPILE command not be used?
EDIT
In SQL, what clause completes the SELECT statement?
FROM
In SQL, what do you normally enter in the select list of a SELECT statement?
Column names
In a QLP report, how does the QLP recognize that the SELECT clause being used applies to the RELATIONAL DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM relational tables?
Invoking the RDMS environment
If used on a QLP report, on what line do you enter the clause FOR TRANSFER?
REPORT
When entering SELECT statemetns in IPF, what must precede the SELECT statement?
SQL
What is the standard interactive processing facility (IPF) continuation character?
'&'
Who is authorized to write new FOCUS reports?
G081 Managers
Which FOCUS commands is used to create a "logical link" between two databases?
JOIN command.
Which FOCUS command gives the user a means of specifying the selection criteria for a FOCUS retrievals?
F9029
What option is entered in the ACT field of program F9029 to create a new FOCUS report?
A, ADD
What statistical method uses only a sample of data?
Inferential
Which action would require the use of the descriptive statistics method?
Summarize a large amount of data
A sample of a population that is taken in such a manner that each value has an equal change of being selected is referred to as a
random sample
What are measures, such as the mean or median, called if they are computed from a sample?
Statistics
Which measurement scale consists of equal intervals between scale values and an arbitrary zero point?
Interval.
The second step in making a frequency distribution is to
determine the class interval size
If you construct a frequency distribution and the class interval is too large, the result is
a loss of detail
When constructing a frequency polygon, what are plotted against the corresponding midpoints?
Frequencies of the various class intervals.
Which graphical methods gives the best representation of the number of individual values in each class?
Histogram
What measure of central tendency is the most typical value in a distribution?
Mode
The median cannot be used with data from which measurement scale?
Nominal
Analysts frequently use the median because it is easy to compute and gives a better picture of data than the mean and mode when data are
skewed
What must you do first to determine the median from ungrouped data?
Array the data in ascending order.
A true characteristic of the arithmetic mean is it is
affected by extreme values
For any distribution, the sum of the deviations is
zero
For a standard deviation of a population, if the number of values increases, the standard deviation
increases
As the number of values in a normal distribution sample decreases, the standard deviation
becomes less representative of the population
Given a large number of random samples, how is the mean of all the sample means related to the population mean?
It is the same
Given a large number of random samples, how is the mean of all the sample means related to the population mean?
It is the same
A normal distribution contains what two parameters?
Mean and standard deviation
In a normal distribution, 99 percent of the area under the normal area curve is contained within how many standard deviations on each side of the mean?
3
When plotted on normal probability graph paper, data from a normal distribution shows up as a
straight line
The variable that measures how many standard deviations a value is from the mean is the
Z score
Where does the most frequent value of a normal cure occur?
at the center of the distribution
Where does the most frequent value of a normal curve occur?
At the center of the distribution
Nice studyin skills broski!
Thanks
The causes of variation that can be identified on a control chart, regulated, and possibly eliminated are..
assignable
The purposes of a control chart in statistics is to
detect the presence of assignable causes for variation.
In general statistical terms, a control chart tells you..
when to look for a problem
When identifying processes out of control and using a control chart, what action you take if you have set your control limits at three standard deviations and suspected problems are falling within the control limits?
switch to tighter limits.
In statistical terms, what does the control chart for plotting individual X values use for the centerline?
Mean
the statistical interpretation of a control chart for individuals would be distorted if the
distribution is extremely skewed.
In statistics, the control chart for averages is best used when dealing with data that is
in relatively large amounts.
What characteristics of the distribution used in a control chart for averages gives it an advantage over a chart for individuals?
Chart of averages
What subgroup sample size is commonly used when constructing a statistical range chart.
4 or 5
In statistics, what item on the P chart is affected by changes in sample size?
the control limits.
In statistics, a C chart may be used to measure the
number of defects per unit.
In statistics, a range chart is normally used with a
chart for averages
on what statistical control chart is the number of defects per unit plotted?
C Chart
The various statistical techniques associated with hypothesis testing should be performed when the observed differences between data are
neither very large nor very small
Hypothesis testing is used in data analysis to
identify significant differences, trends, and relationships
What type of hypothesis assumes no significant deference between two or more population samples?
Null or given
How would you state the null hypothesis concerning your assumption between population A and population B? The mean of population A
is equal to the mean of population B
The probability of making a type I statistical error is denoted by
alpha
When you assign a level of significance to a statistical test, you are actually assigning
a certain proportion of data in the normal curve area as your rejection region
What is the first step in the hypothesis testing procedure?
State the two hypotheses.
What statistical test makes no assumptions about the shape of the populations form which the samples come?
nonparametric.
in statistical testing, the extreme regions in sampling distributions are signified by
critical squares
in parametric testing, a T test is a one-tailed test because
only one tail of your sampling distribution is used
if you use an F test for variance between two samples, you reject your null hypothesis when your computed F test statistic is
greater than the F critical value.
In statistics, a T test evaluates the significance of the difference between the
means of two small samples
For a T test, what should the sample size be for differences between sample means?
Less than 30.
For a Z test, the sample size for differences between sample means should be a at least
30
In nonparametric testing when making a comparison to the table of U critical values, you use the
smaller U statistic
IN nonparametric testing, whiy is the U test statistic converted to a z deviate when the sample size is greater than 2-?
the sampling distribution of U rapidly approaches the normal distribution .
The Krusakl-Wallis H test requires data from at least what scale?
Ordinal.
In nonparametric testing, what number of samples can the X^2 test be used for?
Any number of samples
In nonparametric testing, what is the degree of freedom for a x^2 sample containing five categories and four rows in a multi-sample test?
12
In predictive analysis, a coefficient of correlation indicates
to what extent two sets of data are related
When performing correlation analysis, as values in one set of measure increase and the corresponding or paired values in the other set also increase, the relationship is considered to be
positive
When performing correlation analysis, as values in one set of measure increase and the corresponding or paired values in the other set also increase, the relationship is considered to be
positive
In correlation analysis, to display a negative relationship between the X and Y values, the
high X values are paired with low Y values
Which statement is true regarding the data used for Pearson's coefficient of correlation?
Data must display homogeneity of variance
When the calculated value of Pearson's R exceeds the coefficient of correlation?
a correlation exists and it is significant.
Do not use Spearman's correlation method as a substitute for Pearson's if the result is to be
used in additional statistical testing
What is the full range of Spearman's rank correlation coefficient?
-1 to +1
In regression analysis, what does a line of regression show?
Trend of the data relationships.
In data correlation for regression analysis, the measure of dispersion is the standard
error of the estimate
When plotting a line of regression , you allow for variation of the predicted values by
establishing a range within which a given proportion of the values will fall.
What statement best describes the cyclical variation type of trend analysis?
Usually caused by the nature of the data itself.
What month or months is/are not used in plotting a semi-average trend analysis line?
Beginning and ending
Whenever data tend to form a straight line, what is the most popular method for computing the secular trend analysis of a time series?
Least-squares method.
When computing a trend line using the least-squares analysis method, what does 'b' represent in the formula?
Slope of the trend line.
Which plots are used to draw the moving-average in a nonlinear trend line?
the center plots for each time span.
What is considered a disadvantage when using the moving average trend analysis method?
extrapolation is not possible
To analyze seasonal trends, you would use the percent-of-yearly-total method to establish
an index of seasonal variations.
The use of statistical methods in the forecasting of secular trends analysis consists primarily of
measuring events in the past.
The standard deviation of "K" is dependent on the
sample size
In probability statistics, failures per end item are considered what type of data?
Continuous
In terms of how probability is determined, what are the two definitions of probability?
Classical and frequency.
The probability that two events will occur together or in succession is determined by the probability laws of
multiplication.
When you need to know the probability of two events occurring at the same time, you determine the answer by
multiplying the two probabilities.
test test test
check check check
Which term is not a level of maintenance?
Base
What is considered the highest level of maintenance for more complex repairs?
Depot
What level of maintenance does the 2LM approach seek to modify or eliminate?
Intermediate.
Which category of maintenance consists of those tasks that cannot be done on the end item but are within the capability of the skills and equipment possessed by a unit?
off-equipment, operating command
Which category of maintenance pertains to correcting those discrepancies discovered during flight?
unscheduled
Which method of inspection is used when maintenance or operational requirements are such that the inspection must be performed at the equipment location?
in-place
Which method is a "through and searching inspection of the entire aircraft?"
major.
How many calendar inspections are required for aircraft no matter what inspection concept the aircraft is under?
Two
Which inspection status is affected by the 30 or 90 day inspection?
home station check
What changes to baseline computer programs are normally announced by a TCTO?
software-only
Which type of item is modified using the TCTO process?
special purpose vehicle
What are the levels of maintenance authorized for the completion of the TCTOs?
Depot, intermediate, and organizational
Exceeding what time factors normally causes a TCTO to be classified as depot-level maintenance?
8 clock - or 25 man-hours
How many basic TCTO categories are authorized?
3
What are the authorized types of TCTOs?
immediate, routine, and urgent
In order to permit simultaneous release of two or more TCTOs requiring work in the same general area, procuring activities are authorized to withhold the release of non-safety routine action TCTOs for a maximum of?
90 days
What kind of TCTO is issued specifically for part or serial numbered items?
Commodity.
Which logistics indicator shows a unit's ability to keep equipment in a ready status?
system reliability
The data to calculate system capability rates is obtained from?
debriefing.
Who forwards an item to contract maintenance or AFMC depot if repair is not authorized at base level?
Supply.
Which maintenance codes are used to compute the base level capability rates?
A,F,G,K,L,Z.
Personnel capability is measured in terms of?
maintenance personnel per operational unit.
Facility capability is computed to determine?
How many flying hours the inspection dock can support.
Facility capability is computed to determine?
How many flying hours the inspection dock can support.
Weights are usually assigned when computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates to show?
the degree of importance of a task
Where can you get the information for computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates?
Monthly Maintenance Plan.
The mission capability status code that is the sum of NMCS and NMCB and reflects total NMC aircraft limitations due to supply is called?
TNMCS
All raw data used to compute mission capabilities comes from?
The avs report
What are the two most common types of chargeable deviations?
Maintenance and supply.
The total number of cancellations can be obtained form the?
AUR.
If the number of deviations increases, the flying scheduling effectiveness rate will?
Go down
Are operating hours not a factor for computing manhour per flying hour?
yes
What rate is used to measure speed of repair and of equipment maintainability?
fix rate.
What maintenance status code is entered in IMDS when an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status?
NMC
What are the three time frames in hours used in the fix rate forumla?
4, 8 or 12
A more accurate description of a 20 percent break rate is 2 out of 10?
sorties landed with a landing code 3.
What a sortie has to make an emergency landing due to an equipment failure, what type of abort is it?
Air.
The total abort rate is a combination of?
air and ground abort.
Computation of the cannibalization rate includes number of?
sorties flown.
What action taken code means "removed for cannibalization"?
T
When determining aircraft utilization effectiveness, the minimum time period (in month/months) of data should be at lease?
6
Which command uses the departure reliability rate?
AMC.
The standard for on-time departure when used for the departure reliability rate is within?
14 minutes of the schedules departure time.
What factor represents a historical percentage of schedules sorties lost to unit controllable causes?
Attrition.
What computation rate will a maintenance scheduler use to project additional sorties in the flying schedule to meet sortie requirements?
attrition.
If you have 100 sorties required to fly for the month and the attrition rate is 8 percent, how many total sorties will you show on the flying schedule?
109
Spares are used to compensate for which unit controlled factors?
Maintenance cancellations, supply cancellations, and ground aborts.
In determining the spare factor, what is compared to the number of historical sorites scheduled?
Number of 1st sortie logistics losses.
When measuring MTTR, how is it expressed?
Hours.
When computing for the MTTR, what item is ignored when accouting for repair hours?
Crew size.
When computing for on and off equipment MTTR, the first position of the?
WUC is not equal to zero.
What are the two types of failure indicated by MTBF?
inherent and induced.
What is the maximum number of days allowed in the IMDS for MTBF calculation?
180.
Which mission performance indicator is used to measure the aveage time between failures of mission-essential systems?
MTBCF.
The MTBCF gives us the?
average time between failure of mission essential systems.
When computing for the MTBMA, what maintenance events are included?
both scheduled and unscheduled.
Which one gives us the average time for end items and is an indication of component overall performance?
MTBMA.
The two cornerstones of maintenance metrics are fleet availability and?
program execution.
Which statement is a lagging indicator under fleet availability?
mission capable rate.
What is the overall indicator for a flying program?
UTE rate.
Which fix rate time interval is reported for all aircraft other than fighters?
twelve.
Which mission capable rate does maintenance want to keep low by consolidating feasible CANNs to few aircraft when practical?
TNMCS
Concerning C-E equipment, training equipment is considered?
inactive.
Concerning C-E equipment what is the number of hours during which the system cannot be used for a specified purpose?
downtime.
In order to compute for an equipment's operational availability, you need its?
active and downtime hours.
What type of maintenance is excluded when calculating C-E operational dependability ?
Unscheduled maintenance.
Which item is excluded when computing for an equipment's operational readiness?
scheduled maintenance.
The C-E mean downtime is also expressed as the average time to complete?
a maintenance action.
Which is not an issue that effects equipment downtime?
IMDS downtime.
The measure of the average on-equipment corrective maintenance in an operational envirionment is the C-E mean
repair time
The C-E MRT starts when the technician?
arrives at the equipment
When computing for the C-E MTBCF, the operating hours come form the total?
system operating time.
What C-E mission performance indicator is a valuable indicator of equipment or system maintainability and speed of repair?
C-E MTTRF
C-E MTTRF measures the average elapsed time required to restore a system to full operational status after what type of event?
critical failure.
In determining C-E MTBSM, scheduled maintenance includes scheduled maintenance inspections, schedudled time changes, delayed discrepancies, and?
non-immediate action TCTOs.
Which type of event is not included when computing the C-E MTBUM?
scheduled time changes.
C-E utilization rate is a ratio of?
active hours to possessed hours.
What investigating a problem, why should you continue on even if the probelem seems to have disappeared?
Te disappearance may only be temporary.
Which statement is a benefit of follow-up when doing an analysis?
provides results that generate effective management practices
Information associated with operations of the maintenance organization is classified as?
internal data.
How do you determine if you should retain an office copy of a report?
Determine if a real need exists for data.
Which statement best describes a pulse point in a unit?
the debriefing section
The validity of computer-generated data depends on?
quality of the raw data and the procedure with which it is analyzed.
What is the most common approach to arrange maintenace data?
chronological order.
The points in a control chart represent?
quality of performance
Pie charts are effective when they represent what percentage of the item under consideration?
100
Who normally performs the investigative work and recommends corrective action when a submitted maintenance analysis referral indicates that a problem does exist?
Quality assurance.
The senior maintenance officer reviews the Maintenance Analysis Referral if?
there is a deadlock over the proper corrective action.
Which statement best describes a special study?
an investigation and in-depth analysis of any subject.
WHat kind of approach inities a special study during an equpment analysis?
proactive.
When you are establishing the scope of your special study, you are defingin your?
assumptions and limitiations.
Which medium is a formal way of presenting a special study?
Written report.
The IMDS users' group meets monthly to?
keep current with IMDS issues.
What personnel are usually required to attend IMDS meetings?
Subsystem managers.