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46 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The Air Force military personnel classification system groups related work requirements on similarity of functions and requirements for all of the following except
A. education
B. experience
C. knowledge
D. personal desires
D. personal desires
Which of the following positions of an AFSC denotes the career field subdivision for the Personnel Journeyman (AFSC 3So51)?
A. First position-3
B. Second position-S
C. Third Position-O
D. Fourth position-5
C. Third Position-O
How does a “capper” AFSC differ from other AFSCs?
A. Fifth position of a capper AFSC will always be a “0”.
B. First position of a capper AFSC will always be a “9”
C. Fifth position of a capper AFSC will always be a “9”
D. First position of a capper AFSC will always be numeric.
A. Fifth position of a capper AFSC will always be a “0”.
When classifying a member into a specific AFSC, which of the following factors is not taken into consideration?
A. Individuals initial enlistment contract
B. Individuals preference
C. Needs of the Air Force
D. Assignment volunteer status.
D. Assignment volunteer status.
In addition to upgrade training, how is knowledge requirements for award of skill-level accomplished?
A. Job qualification training
B. A specialty training course
C. A technical training course
D. CDCs
D. CDCs
Which of the following factors is not taken into consideration when determining officer and Airmen primary AFSC?
A. desires and interest of the individual
B. amount of formal training
C. civic and fraternal membership
D. complexity of specialty
C. civic and fraternal membership
A member serving in the grade of MSgt will normally not be used outside a CAFSC during any 12 month period
A. while in upgrade training for award of the 5 skill level
B. while in upgrade training for award of the 9 skill level
C. for a period not to exceed 130 days without approval from the MPF commander
D. for a period not to exceed 240 days without approval from the MPF commander
C. for a period not to exceed 130 days without approval from the MPF commander
Which of the following media will Air Force use to provide AFSC revisions and conversion instructions to MPFs?
A. AFI 36-2101, Classifying Military Personnel (officer and Enlisted)
B. MAJCOM semiannual revision to AFI 36-2108, Enlisted Classification
C. Change summary and conversion guide
D. MPF memorandums
C. Change summary and conversion guide
When conversion actions are not accomplished by the conversion effective date, MPFs are authorized to award AFSCs based on conversion instructions for how many days after the effective date?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
A. 30
For which of the following reasons would an AFSC downgrade be appropriate?
A. Qualification for aviation service for other than medical reasons
B. Loss of aircraft qualification
C. Reduction in grade
D. Medical disqualification
C. Reduction in grade
RIs are important to the personnel employment element because they identify
A. Positions only
B. Personnel only
C. Conditions for which specific job descriptions are practical
D. Positions, personnel, or both not otherwise identifiable in the military classification system.
D. Positions, personnel, or both not otherwise identifiable in the military classification system.
What type of duty does RI 9T000 indicate?
A. an Airman in basic military training
B. AFSC of officers entering primary-basic pilot training
C. An officer in the grade of brigadier general or higher
D. AFSC of a prisoner in confinement who has not been dropped from rolls.
A. an Airman in basic military training
How are SDI designated in the individual’s personnel records?
A. awarded specialties
B. additional specialties
C. designated specialties
D. second or tertiary PDS codes
A. awarded specialties
SDIs identify manpower positions and individuals performing duties
A. related to any specific career field
B. unrelated to any specific career field
C. which specific job descriptions are not practical, such as a patient
D. which special experience and training are required and coded in three characters
B. unrelated to any specific career field
What action agency periodically reviews SEIs to determine validity and usefulness?
A. Major Air Command
B. Military personnel flight
C. Air Force Personnel Center
D. Personnel employment element.
C. Air Force Personnel Center
In concert with manpower management officials, who reviews manpower authorization to determine if positions are coded with the appropriate SEI or if one is required?
A. AFPC assignment managers
B. Commanders and supervisors
C. AFPC
D. AFSC functional managers
D. AFSC functional managers
In which of the following databases is the retraining advisory located?
A. PC-II
B. AMS
C. MilPDS
D. AFTMS
C. MilPDS
When can Airmen on the CJR waiting list apply for CAREERS retraining?
A. No later than 150 days before the date of separation
B. No later than 120 days before the date of separation
C. No later than 90 days before the date of separation
D. No later than 60 days before the date of separation
B. No later than 120 days before the date of separation
Which of the following is a disqualification factor for retraining.
A. Normal security clearance investigation
B. Most recent enlisted performance report is a 3
C. Not recommended for upgrade training
D. Participating n phase II of the weight and body fat management program.
C. Not recommended for upgrade training
Within how many days of receiving a completed retraining application, must the personnel employment element process the application?
A. 5 working days
B. 5 calendar days
C. 3 calendar days
D. 3 working days
A. 5 working days
When are retraining applications submitted using supplemental messages?
A. When requesting a waiver
B. When the requested AFSC requires MAJCOM review
C. When processing a disqualified airman case
D. When no special processing is required
D. When no special processing is required
How often is the unit commander required to verify that only the minimum number of positions are consistent with operation PRP requirements?
A. weekly
B. quarterly
C. annually
D. semi-annually
C. annually
Why must an individual’s behavior be constantly monitored even after the individual has been judged reliable?
A. For evidence of negligence or delinquency in duty performance
B. To detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur
C. For evidence of poor attitude, lack of motivation toward duties, or financial irresponsibility.
D. To measure present performance and behavior against past performance and look for changes in behavior.
B. To detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur
Which type of certification state that a member is qualified for a projected assignment requiring PRP duties?
A. Administrative
B. Informal
C. Interim
D. Formal
A. Administrative
Which of the following is not required for all PRP certifications?
A. An interview
B. An S-4 physical profile
C. A currents security investigation
D. An evaluation of an individual’s reliability through the use of written records.
B. An S-4 physical profile
What is the maximum number of days a certifying official can extend the period of temporary decertification from PRP duties?
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 270
D. 270
What document is used for permanent decertification of PRP member when the certifying official must document the specific circumstances surrounding the decision to decertify the individual?
A. AF Form 286 A
B. DD Form 286 A
C. Suspension document
D. Temporary decertification.
A. AF Form 286 A
Which of the following would be the ODSD for a member who has never had an overseas assignment or temporary duty and who has a total active federal military service date of 4 February 2000?
A. 1 February 2000
B. 3 February 2000
C. 4 February 2000
D. 5 February 2000
C. 4 February 2000
How is the STRD established for an Airman who came on active duty on 2 February 2000 and has never served on an overseas short tour?
A. Established to equal the ODSD
B. The date of completion of any overseas tour, regardless of tour length
C. Established to equal the TAFMSD
D. The date of completion of any overseas long tour, provided he or she was unaccompanied.
C. Established to equal the TAFMSD
IF an overseas tour is curtailed and no entitlement to tour credit accrues, the ODSD or STRD is
A. adjusted by the number of days served in the overseas area
B. adjusted by years served in the overseas area and the date arrive at the CONUS port
C. readjusted to give credit for the entire tour for which the member originally volunteered
D. readjusted to give credit for the entire tour stated on the member’s original tour election.
A. adjusted by the number of days served in the overseas area
When an Airman’s PCS order show a member elected to serve an accompanied tour, but the member arrives overseas unaccompanied, an initial DEROS is established based on the
A. accompanied tour, because the member was selected to serve such.
B. Unaccompanied tour, because the member is arriving unaccompanied
C. Accompanied tour, regardless of the fat the member arrived unaccompanied
D. Unaccompanied tour provided the member request a change of overseas tour status.
C. Accompanied tour, regardless of the fat the member arrived unaccompanied
What action is taken to a member’s overseas duty history, when they perform TDY from the CONUS to overseas, and serves 2 days or more?
A. Adjust current short tour return date by adding the number of days eared
B. Adjust the current over seas duty selection date and short tour return date by adding the number of days served
C. Give member credit for a completed short tour and award a new short tour return date to equal date of return from last TDY
D. Give member credit for a completed tour and award anew overseas duty selection date to equal date of return last TDY
B. Adjust the current over seas duty selection date and short tour return date by adding the number of days served
Which of the following data elements must be included in a request o Headquarter AFPC to correct overseas duty history?
A. overseas tour length
B. overseas duty history
C. overseas volunteer status
D. overseas tour selection date
A. overseas tour length
How is the tour completion date of the first tour updated when a member selected for a COT travels to the CONUS before arriving at the new assignment?
A. The date member arrived at the CONUS port
B. The day before member arrives at the CONUS port
C. The date member completed the original tour (plus all extension)
D. The date member arrived at the new assignment
A. The date member arrived at the CONUS port
Which of the following PCS departure certification statements, as accomplished by a gaining MPF, is formatted correctly?
A. I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS on 15 August 2001 at 0880, Member’s initials
B. On 15 August 2001 at 1330, I CMSgt Lisa Acevedo departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS
C. I. CMSgt Lisa Acevedo, Certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS on 15 August 2001 at 1330
D. I certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS at 0800 on 15 August 2001, (member’s payroll Signature)
D. I certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS at 0800 on 15 August 2001, (member’s payroll Signature)
In the event a PCS departure certification is missing when a member in process, what activity is responsible for initiating a new one?
A. MAJCOM
B. AFPC
C. Losing MPF
D. Gaining MPF
D. Gaining MPF
When information is entered on the IDA worksheet, the appropriate element must
A. Update the member’s record
B. Verify the data and coordinate on the worksheet
C. Update the member’s records and ensure the record is filed
D. Verify the relocation folder on all projected gains and ensure the worksheet is filed alphabetically
B. Verify the data and coordinate on the worksheet
What does the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC/assistant NCOIC, personnel employment), use to verify the data on the IDA?
A. Allocation notice
B. IDA worksheet
C. Projected duty update-inbound application
D. Assignment RIP
B. IDA worksheet
What happens after updating an officer’s projected duty once the effective date is equal to or less than the current duty effective date?
A. The projected duty information will consummate
B. The projected duty information will drop from the PDS
C. The gaining MPF or unit will confirm projected assignment actions upon the actual arrival of the individual
D. The losing MPF will confirm projected assignment actions on the actual departure of the individual
A. The projected duty information will consummate
After an officer has attended and completed training, what is the officer’s previous duty information effective date?
A. Consummates on the class start date
B. One day after the class graduation date
C. One day before the class graduation date
D. Consummates in five duty days of arrival at the permanent duty station
B. One day after the class graduation date
A specialty may be considered for award of SDAP if it meets all of the following conditions except
A. Not demanding or highly responsible duties
B. Place a heavy personal burden on the member
C. Over and above what would reasonably be expected in a military assignment for a member’s grade
D. Over and above what would reasonably be expected in a military assignment for a member’s experience
A. Not demanding or highly responsible duties
An enlisted member is eligible to receive SDAP if he or she meets all of the following criteria except
A. Serving in pay grade E-2 or higher
B. Being on active duty and entitled to basic pay
C. Being qualified in a designated duty as certified by the unit commander
D. Having completed special schooling required to qualify for the duty
A. Serving in pay grade E-2 or higher
What happens to the eligibility for SDAP if a member serving in a specialty designated for award SDAP performs TDY and their skills do not merit SDAP?
A. Stops
B. Continues
C. SDAP stops for up to 179 consecutive days of the TDY
D. SDAP continues for up to 90 consecutive days of the TDY
D. SDAP continues for up to 90 consecutive days of the TDY
The unit commander used the UMPR to ensure personnel are assigned to their proper position and to
A. ensure projected gains are placed in their proper positions
B. allocate manpower resources and identify projected changes in manpower authorizations
C. ensure it accurately reflects the number of people assigned to the number of positions authorized o the UMD
D. ensure no mismatches in AFSC, SEI, grade, or PRP status occur
A. ensure projected gains are placed in their proper positions
Which of the following mismatches is not displayed in narrative form on the UPRM?
A. Grade is higher than the authorized grade
B. AFSC is higher skill level than the authorized AFSC
C. Officer’s duty SEI is different form the authorized SEI
D. Airmen’s DAFSC is different from the authorized SEI
D. Airmen’s DAFSC is different from the authorized SEI
What Activity Prepares all AF Forms 63?
A. HQ AFPC
B. HQ AFPC/DPSFO
C. MPF
D. CSS
B. HQ AFPC/DPSFO